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Pharmacology Exam for Grade 2004(B) Pakistan Students
(Exam 2) — Sep 13th, 2007
Part ⅠChoice Questions (60 points, 1/item)
Type A (only one answer is correct)
1. Extrapyramidal symptoms caused by chlorpromazine is due to
A. blocking DA receptor in mid-brain-limbic system
B. inhibiting α-receptor in brain
C. inhibiting DA receptor in tuberoinfunfibular pathway
D. inhibiting M-receptor in CNS
E. blocking DA receptor in nigrostriatal pathway
2. Aspirin can induce all of the following effect EXCEPT
A.reducing fever B.reducing prostaglandin synthesis in inflamed tissue
C.stimulating respiration when taken in toxic dosage D. inducing tendency to
bleeding E.reducing leukotrienes
3. Which of the following agents is effective in the treatment of depression
A. lithium carbonate B.imipramine C.chlorpromazine
D.haloperidole E. fluphenazine
4. Which of the following drugs is ineffective in the treatment of rheumatic
A. aspirin B.phenylbutazone C. sodium salicylate
D. acetaminophen E. indomethacin
5. Morphine can’t be used to treat the patient with
A. diarrhea B. cardiac asthma C. dry cough and no sputum
D. trauma of the extremities E. craniocerebral trauma
6. Which of the following drugs is an inducer of hepatic microsomal enzymes
A. cimitidine B. propranolol C. quinidine D. phenytoin E. codeine
7. Which of the following analgesic drugs can be used for artificial hibernation
A. pethidine B. morphine C. tramadol D. methadone E. fentanyl
8. Which of the following drugs would be given to treat hypotention caused by
A. adrenaline B. noradrenaline C. ephedrine D. dopamine E. atropine
9. Which of the following statements about phenytoin is not true
A. has a sedative effect
B. can be used for patients with epilepsy
C. can be used to treat patients with arrhythmia
D. can be used to manage patients with trifacial neuralgia
E. can cause gingival hyperplasia
10. The drug which is effective in treatment of absence seizures is
A. phenytoin
B. Phenobarbital
C. ethosuximide
D. primidone
E. valproic acid 改成 carbamazepine
11. To relieve anxiety symptoms, we usually use
A. Phenobarbital
B. perphenazine
C. chlorpromazine
D. imipramine
E. benzodiazepines
12. Antiparkisonism agents do not include
A. Amantadine
B. chlorpromazine
C. Levodopa
D. artane
E. selegiline
13. When Phenobarbital poisoning, in order to reducing toxicity and promoting
toxic substance excretion, we should
A. apply acidic drug to decrease the pH of plasma and urine
B. apply basic drug to increase the pH of plasma and urine
C. infuse intravenously dextran 40
D. adminster normal saline solution
E. adminster 10% glucose intravenously
14. All the statement about diazepam are correct except
A. antianxious effect in a small dose
B. sedative & hypnosis in larger dose
C. shortening REM sleep
D. reducing NREM sleep
E. can be used for status epilepticus
15. Lithium carbonate can be used to manage
A. Parkinson’s disease
B. depression
C. manic disorder
D. insomnia
16. All of the following statement about glucocorticoids are true except
A. inhibiting both the early and the late manifestation of inflammation
B. affecting all types of inflammatory reactions
C. inhibiting the amount of neutrophil
D. inhibiting the release of arachidonic acid
E. inhibiting granulation tissue formation
17. Vit K is a substance to prevent or reduce bleeding caused by
A. heprin
B. aspirin C. urokinase D. streptokinase
E. dicoumarin
18.Which of the following mechanisms best accounts for the anti-thyroid effect of
A. Inhibiting peroxidase and decreasing the thyroxin synthesis
B. Inhibiting the thyroid releasing
C. Inhibiting the absorption of iodine
D. Interfering with the utilization of iodine
E. Decomposing the thyroxin
19. Which of the following mechanisms best accounts for the anticoagulant effect
of heparin?
A. Binding antithrombin Ⅲ and accelerating the deactivation of coagulant
factors consequently
B. Interfering with the utilization of Vit k and decreasing synthesis of
coagulant factors
C. Inhibiting the platelet aggregation
D. Inhibiting the activity of thrombase
E. Antagonizing the effect of thromba
20. Which of the following is the severe adverse reaction of methylthiouracil?
A. Toxic hepatitis
B. Granulocytopenia
C. Gastrointestinal reactions
D. Skin rash
E. Enlargement of lymph nodes
21. Which of the following factors interferes with the absorption of ferrous
A. Gastric acid
B. Vit C
C. Foodstuff with abundant calcium and phosphate
D. Fructose in foodstuff
E. Cysteine
22. Which of the following drugs can protect gastric mucosa and eliminate
Helicobacter Pylori?
A. Proglumide
B. Colloidal bismuth subcitrate
C. Omeprazole
D. Cimetidine
E. Sucralfate
23. The antiplatelet mechanism of aspirin is
A. inhibiting synthesis of TXA2 in platelet
B. inhibiting synthesis of TXA2 in endothelium
C. promoting synthesis of PGI2 in platelet
D. promoting synthesis of PGI2 in endothelium
E. promoting synthesis of PGE2 in endothelium
24. Which of the following statements about insulin is NOT true?
A. It can cause hyperglycemic reaction
B. It can’t be administrated orally
C. Its mechanism of action is through intracellular receptor pathway
D. It can be used in IDDM and NIDDM
E. It can cause anaphylactic reaction
25. Which drug is the first choice used in diabetes mellitus(DM) accompanied
with renal dysfunction?
A. tolbutamide
B. Chlorpropamide
C. glibenclamide
D. glipizide
E. gliquidon
26. Which of the statements about thioureas is wrong
A. they are used in patients with hyperthyroidism
B. they inhibit synthesis of thyroxin
C. they have immunosuppressive effect
D. they can cause thyroid enlargement when long term used
E. propylthiouracil stimulates T4 to transform to T3
27. The most proper indication of erythropoietin is
A. pernicious anemia
B. Severe aplastic anemia
C. myelodysplasia
D. anemia result from chronic renal failure
E. zidovudine-induced anemia
28. Which of the drugs used in diabetes mellitus (DM) has the anti-coagulant
A. tolbutamide
B. glipizide
C. gliclazide
D. chlorpropamide
E. glibenclamide
29. All of the following statements about omeprazole are true EXCEPT:
A. a strongest inhibitor of gastric acid excretion up to date
B. inhibiting the last step for secretion of H+ in the parietal cell
C. used for patient with peptic ulcer
D. also blocking gastrin receptor
E. a hepatic enzyme inhibitor
30. Which drug is effective in urokinase -induced hemorrhage?
A. tranexamic acid
B. vitamin K
C. vitamin B12
D. protamine sulfate
E. epinepherin
31. Which of the following therapies is the best for a patient with status
A.aminophylline p.o.
B.hydrocortisone i.v.
C.inhaling sodium cromoglycate
D.inhaling beclomethasone
E.salbutamol p.o.
32. Which of the following statements about acetazolamide is WRONG?
A. diuretic action
B. depresss the intracranial pressure
C. acidify blood
D. alkalized urine
E. hyperkalemia
33. which is the best scheme for treatment of megaloblastic anemia
A. folic acid
B. folic acid plus ferrous sulfate
C. Vit B12
D. folic acid plus Vit B12
E. Vit B12 plus ferrous sulfate
34. All of the following are true about hydrochlorothiazide EXCEPT
A. It can be used to treat hypercalcinuria
B. It can lead to hypoglycemia
C. It can increase the secretion of K+ then cause hypokalemia
D. It can decrease blood pressure mildly
E. It can decrease the urinary output of diabetes insipidus patients
35. All of the following are true of streptokinase EXCEPT:
A. It is a kind of enzyme extracted from the culture fluid of β-hemolytic
B. Forming complex with plasminogen,activating plasmin indirectly
C. Possessing antigenicity, inducing an allergic reaction even allergic shock
D. It is used to prevent the expansion and formation of thrombosis
E. It is used to dissolve thrombosis,and treat thromboembolism
36. All of the following statements about cimetidine are true except
A. a H1-receptor blocker
B. used in peptic ulcer
C. reduced the secretion of gastric acid
D. little effect on heart and blood pressure
E. the adverse reactions are nausea, rash and blood dyscrasias
37. If chloramphenicol and dicoumarol are simultaneously given to patient
A. the duration of action of dicoumarol may be shortened
B. the duration of action of dicoumarol may be prolonged
C. dicoumarol is excreted more rapidly
D. the action of dicoumarol can be antagonized by chloramphenicol
E. the anticoagulant action of dicoumarol is not influenced by chloramphenicol
38. Large dose of iodium can be used to treat which of the following disease?
A. cretinism
B. solid edema
C. endemic goiter
D. thyroid crisis
E. mild thyroidism
39. Which one of the following is true?
A. Insulin can be administered orally
B. Insulin is always required therapy in NIDDM
C. Insulin is useful in the treatment of diabetic coma
D. The most serious adverse reaction of Insulin is allergic reactions
E. The half time of Insulin is very long
40. Glucocorticoids are powerful anti-inflammatory agents . Which of the
following is not an anti-inflammatory mechanism of action of glucocorticoids ?
A. Decreased secretion of proteolytic enzymes
B. Reduction in the release of cytokines , such as IL-1 and IL-2
C. Decreased number of circulating neutrophils
D. Impairment of prostaglandin and leukotriene synthesis
E. Inhibition in the expression of ICAM-1
41. which of the following agents inhibit(s) dihydrofolate reductase and
interfere(s) with incorperation of PABA into folic acid ?
A. trimethoprim
B. pyrimethamine
C. methotrexate
D. sulfimethoxazoles(SMZ)
E. cyclophosphamide
42. The common characteristics of aminoglycoside antibiotics include all of the
following except
A. poor absorption after oral administration
B. extensive metabolism in vivo
C. dependence on glomerular filtration for their elimination
D. commonly produce ototoxicity
E. commonly produce nephrotoxicity
43. The drug in the treatment of epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis is
A. ampicillin
B. SMZco
C. chloramphenicol
E. penicillin
44. Which of the following drugs may cause superinfections?
A. penicillin G
B. streptomycin
C. erythromycin
D. tetracycline
E. neomycin
45. Which drug is the first choice in the treatment of severe fungal pneumonia or
cryptococcal meningitis?
A. amphotericin B
B. griseofulvin C. terbinafine
D. isoniazid
E. methothrexate 改成氟康唑(fluconazole)
46. Which of the following antineoplastic drugs act on S stage of cell proliferation
A. 6-MP, 5-FU, MTX, nitrogen mustards
B. 6-MP, 5-FU, MTX, cyclophosphamid
C. 6-MP, 5-FU, mitomycin, vincristin
D. 5-FU, Ara-C, Vincristin, TSPA (thiotepa)
E. 6-MP, Ara-C, MTX, HU
47. Which of the following compatibility administration is correct?
A. streptomycin + gentamicin
B. penicillin + gentamicin
C. streptomycin + furosemide
D. penicillin + tetracycline
E. penicillin + chloramphenicol
48. The agent which can relieve AIDS and AIDS correlating syndrome is
A. idoxuridine
B. zidovudine
C. acyclovir
D. ribavirin
E. adenine arabinoside
49. The t1/2 of which of the following tetracyclines remains unchanged when the
drug is administered to an anuric patient
A. methacycline
B. oxytetracycline
C. doxycycline
D. tetracycline
E. none of the above
50. Which of the following imidazoles have NO effect on fungus ?
A. metronidazole
B. Miconazole
C. clotrimazole
D. fluconazole
E. ketoconazole
51. Which of the following drugs is the first choice in treating
A. tetracycline
B. azithromycin
C. gentamicin
D. cefuroxime
E. kanamycin
52.Why is vitamin B6 usually prescribed with isoniazid(INH)?
A. it acts as a cofactor of isoniazid
B. it prevents some adverse reaction of INH therapy
C. it has antituberculosis effect
D. it prevents metabolism of INH
E. it decreases the occurrence of drug resistance
53.which one of the following drugs is both penicillinase-resistant and effective by
oral administration?
A. Methicillin
B. carbenicillin
C. penicillin V
D. amoxicillin plus clavulanic acid
E. piperacillin
54. which one of the following statements about inhibitors of cell wall synthesis in
A. the concentration of penicillin in the cerebrospinal fluid is higher when
administered to patients with minigococcal(是什么) meningitis than it is when
given to normal patients
B. first generation cephalosporins are more effective against staphylococcal
infections than are third generation cephalosporins
C. cefoxicin is less likely to cause an allergic reaction in a patient that is
hypersensitive to penicillin G than os(什么单词) penicillin V
D. the half-life of procaine penicillin administered intramuscularly is greater
than the half-life of penicillin G administered orally
E. third-generation cephalosporins are susceptible to beta-lactamase activity.
55. All of the following properties are exhibited by aminoglycosides except:
A. they are poorly absorbed from gastrointestinal tract
B. they have bactericidal properties
C. they can achieve adequate serum levels after oral administration
D. they bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit
E. they are not accumulated by anaerobic microorganisms
56. The use of chloramphenicol may result in
A. bone marrow stimulation
B. phototoxicity
C. aplastic anemia
E. staining of teeth
57. Which of the following agents may cause damage to growing cartilage?
A. fluoroquinolones
B. Sulfonamides
D. cephalosporins
E. tetracyclines
58. A patient being treated with a combination of drugs for pulmonary
tuberculosis develops a decrease in visual acuity and red-green color blindness
resulting from retrobulbar neuritis. Which of the following agents is responsible
for these findings?
B. streptomycin
C. rifamipin
D. pyrazinamide
59. Of the following, which is not a cell-cycle specific agent ?
A. mercaptopurine(6-MP)
B. 5-FU
C. vincristine
E. paclitaxel
60. Which of the following agent is mainly used for Herpes Simplex Virus
A. γ-interferon
B. amantadine
C. Idoxuridine
D. aciclovir
E. ribavirin
PART ⅡPlease explain the following pharmacological terms(10 points, 2/item)
1. post-antibiotic effect
2. chemotherapy
3. antibacterial spectrum
4.chemotherapeutic index
5. MBC
PART ⅢAssay Questions (30 points, 10/item)
1. Please compare the analgesic effect of Morphine and Aspirin.
2. Please tell the probable adverse reactions after long-time and high-dose use
of glucocorticoids?
3.Please describe the characteristics of four generations of cephalosporins.