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Name:_______________________ Science 9 QUEST: Chapter 12 Part 1: Multiple Choice For each question below, please clearly circle the best answer (1 mark each). 1. In Victoria, we always see the same side of the Moon because: a) the Moon is the Earth's closest neighbour and plays a huge role in all of our lives b) the amount of time it takes for the Moon to orbit the Earth, and for the Moon to complete one full rotation, are the same. c) the Moon does not rotate as it orbits the Earth. d) we do not always see the same side of the Moon. 2. A lunar eclipse occurs: a) when the Earth passes through the Moon's shadow b) when the Moon passes through the Earth's shadow c) when the Moon's shadow is cast upon the Earth d) only during a full Moon 3. By studying our Solar System and other solar systems, astronomers have developed theories about how solar systems form. All of the following are examples of significant observations astronomers have made about the formation of star systems, except: a) Most stars form in nursery nebulas. b) Many star systems have planets. c) Many other planets have moons. d) Very young stars often are surrounded in dust clouds and older stars are not. 4. Ptolemy was: a) a Renaissance astronomer and the first person to suggest a heliocentric solar system. b) an Ancient Greek astronomer who first suggested that the Earth was the center of the universe. c) a German astronomer who developed the idea that planets orbit in ellipses. d) the famous inventor of bacon (and legendary lute player) 5. Copernicus was: a) a Renaissance astronomer and the first person to suggest a heliocentric solar system. b) an Ancient Greek astronomer who first suggested that the Earth was the center of the universe. c) a German astronomer who developed the idea that planets orbit in ellipses. d) the first Whirling Dervish to swim the English channel 6. Kepler was: a) a Renaissance astronomer and the first person to suggest a heliocentric solar system. b) an Ancient Greek astronomer who first suggested that the Earth was the center of the universe. c) a German astronomer who developed the idea that planets orbit in ellipses. d) the fifth (long-lost) Teenage Mutant Ninja Turtle Part 2: Short Answer Please answer the following questions in the space provided. 1. Please briefly describe the 'Big Splash Theory'. (3 marks) 2. Please briefly describe the heliocentric model of our solar system. (1 mark) 3. Please briefly describe the geocentric model of our solar system. (1 mark) 4. Which model of our solar system (heliocentric or geocentric) was originally believed to be correct? Give one good reason why this model made sense at the time. (3 marks) 5. Please briefly explain why rocky planets (e.g. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars) all occur on the 'inner' orbits (orbits closest to the Sun), while the gas giants (e.g. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune) all occur on the 'outer' orbits (orbits furthest from the Sun) in our Solar System. Please be sure to relate your response to the formation of our Solar System. (4 marks) 6. Meteors and Meteorites are both examples of Meteoroids. What is the difference between a Meteor and a Meteorite? (2 marks) 7. Please list Kepler's 3 Laws of Planetary Motion (6 marks total – 2 marks for each). 8. Please list five facts you have learned about a planet in this unit (you do not have to list five facts about the planet that you were assigned for the brochure assignment, but most of you probably will – and should!). You do not have to quote exact quantitative values, but any figures you state should be presented in relative terms (e.g. compared to Earth). Some facts you may want to list include the planet's size, moons, atmosphere, surface features, gravitational field strength, etc., etc.. Please make sure you are listing 5 facts, NOT fictional attributes you developed for your brochure. (7 marks – 5 marks for facts, 2 marks for quality of facts) 9. Please make up a short answer question about anything from Chapter 12, and then answer your question. Please make sure your question is worth 2 marks, and that your answer to the question is complete. (4 marks – 1 mark for question, 2 marks for response, 1 mark for quality of question)