Download AP BIOLOGY SUMMER ASSIGNMENT Copy notes from webpage

AP BIOLOGY SUMMER ASSIGNMENT
Copy notes from webpage
Read ch 51,53,54,55
Watch the following podcasts
Ch 51 Animal Behavior: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=6hREwakXmAo
Ch 53 Population Biology: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=U10PSZETLY0
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=c6pcRR5Uy6w
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=rXlyYFXyfIM
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=rXlyYFXyfIM
ch 54 community ecology: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pOp-qLLTMso
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=z31y-ZtegZ8
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=V49IovRSJDs
Ch 55 productivity:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Ot_KmOTYfRAhttps://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Ot_KmOTYf
RA
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=wYuxjAzdV_g
1. Which of the following examples describes a behavioral pattern that results from a proximate
cause?
a. A cat kills a mouse to obtain nutrition.
b. A male sheep fights with another male because it helps to improve its social position.
c. A female bird lays its eggs because the amount of daylight is decreasing slightly each
day.
d. A goose squats and freezes motionless to escape a predator.
2. The proximate causes of behavior are interactions with the environment, but behavior is
ultimately shaped by _____.
a. Hormones
b. Evolution
c. Pheromones
d. the nervous system
3. During a field trip, an instructor touched a moth resting on a tree trunk. The moth raised its
forewings to reveal large eyespots on its hind wings. The instructor asked why the moth lifted
its wings. One student answered that sensory receptors had fired and triggered a neuronal reflex
culminating in the contraction of certain muscles. A second student responded that the behavior
might frighten predators. Which statement best describes these explanations?
a. The first explanation is correct, but the second is incorrect.
b. The first explanation refers to proximate causation, whereas the second refers to
ultimate causation.
c. The first explanation is testable as a scientific hypothesis, whereas the second is not.
d. Both explanations are reasonable and simply represent a difference of opinion.
4. Every morning at the same time, John went into the den to feed his new tropical fish. After a
few weeks, he noticed that the fish swam to the top of the tank when he entered the room. This
is an example of _____.
a. Cognition
b. Imprinting
c. classical conditioning
d. operant conditioning
5. One way to understand how early environment influences behaviors in similar species is
through the "cross-fostering" experimental technique. Suppose that the curly-whiskered mud rat
differs from the bald mud rat in several ways, including being much more aggressive. How
would you set up a cross-fostering experiment to determine if environment plays a role in the
curly-whiskered mud rat's aggression?
a. You would cross curly-whiskered mud rats and bald mud rats and hand-rear the
offspring to see if any grew up to be aggressive.
b. You would place newborn curly-whiskered mud rats with bald mud rat parents and
place newborn bald mud rats with curly-whiskered mud rat parents. Finally, let some
mud rats of both species be raised by their own species. Then you would compare the
outcomes.
c. You would remove the offspring of curly-whiskered mud rats and bald mud rats from
their parents, raise them in the same environment but without parents, and then compare
the outcomes.
d. You would replace normal newborn mud rats with deformed newborn mud rats to see if
it triggered an altruistic response.
6. Although many chimpanzees live in environments containing oil palm nuts, members of only a
few populations use stones to crack open the nuts. The likely explanation is that _____.
a. the behavioral difference is caused by genetic differences between populations
b. members of different populations have different nutritional requirements
c. the cultural tradition of using stones to crack nuts has arisen in only some populations
d. members of different populations differ in learning ability
7. Which of the following statements about evolution of behavior is correct?
a. Natural selection will favor behavior that enhances survival and reproduction.
b. An animal may show behavior that minimizes reproductive fitness.
c. If a behavior is less than optimal, it will eventually become optimal through natural
selection.
d. Innate behaviors cannot be altered by natural selection.
8. A male stickleback fish will attack other male sticklebacks that invade its nesting territory. It
will only attack male fish, which display the red belly characteristic of the species. Why has
natural selection favored this behavior?
a. The behavior reduces interspecific competition, which gives the male stickleback access
to more food.
b. The behavior allows the male stickleback to attract females with its aggressive display.
c. The behavior allows the male to establish a defined space for breeding with female
sticklebacks.
d. The behavior is a mechanism to reduce predation and resource competition.
9. Suppose researchers marked 800 turtles and later were able to trap a total of 300 individuals in
that population, of which 150 were marked. What is the estimate for total population size?
a. 200
b. 1050
c. 1600
d. 2100
10. Which of the following assumptions have to be made regarding the mark-recapture estimate of
population size?
I)
Marked and unmarked individuals have the same probability of being trapped.
II)
The marked individuals have thoroughly mixed with the population after being
marked.
III)
No individuals have entered or left the population by immigration or
emigration, and no individuals have been added by birth or eliminated by death during
the course of the estimate.
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II only
d. I, II, and III
11. A population is correctly defined as having which of the following characteristics?
I)
inhabiting the same general area
II)
belonging to the same species
III)
possessing a constant and uniform density and dispersion
a. III only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. I, II, and III
12. Uniform spacing patterns in plants such as the creosote bush are most often associated with
_____.
a. patterns of high humidity
b. the random distribution of seeds
c. competitive interaction between individuals of the same population
d. the concentration of nutrients within the population's range
13. In July 2008, the United States had a population of approximately 302,000,000 people. How
many Americans were there in July 2009, if the estimated 2008 growth rate was 0.88%?
a. 5,500,000
b. 303,000,000
c. 304,000,000
d. 2,710,800,000
14. In 2008, the population of New Zealand was approximately 4,275,000 people. If the birth rate
was 14 births for every 1000 people, approximately how many births occurred in New Zealand
in 2008?
a. 6,000
b. 42,275
c. 60,000
d. 140,000
15. A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an annual per
capita death rate of 0.02. Calculate an estimate of the total number of individuals added to (or
lost from) a population of 1000 individuals in one year.
a. 120 individuals added
b. ]40 individuals added
c. 20 individuals added
d. 400 individuals added
16. Imagine that you are managing a large game ranch. You know from historical accounts that a
species of deer used to live there, but they have been extirpated. After doing some research to
determine what might be an appropriately sized founding population, you reintroduce them.
You then watch the population increase for several generations, and graph the number of
individuals (vertical axis) against the number of generations (horizontal axis). With no natural
predators impacting the population, the graph will likely appear as _____.
a. a diagonal line, getting higher with each generation
b. an "S" that ends with a vertical line
c. an upside-down "U"
d. a "J," increasing with each generation
17. As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following is predicted by the logistic
equation?
a. The growth rate will not change.
b. The growth rate will approach zero.
c. The population will increase exponentially.
d. The carrying capacity of the environment will increase.
18. Which of the following causes populations to shift most quickly from an exponential to a
logistic population growth?
a. favorable climatic conditions
b. removal of predators
c. decreased death rate
d. competition for resources
19. According to the logistic growth equation,
= rmaxN
,
a. the number of individuals added per unit time is greatest when N is close to zero.
b. the per capita growth rate (r) increases as N approaches K.
c. population growth is zero when N equals K.
d. the population grows exponentially when K is small.
20. Natural selection involves energetic trade-offs between _____.
a. choosing how many offspring to produce over the course of a lifetime and how long to
live
b. producing large numbers of gametes when employing internal fertilization versus fewer
numbers of gametes when employing external fertilization
c. increasing the number of individuals produced during each reproductive episode and a
corresponding decrease in parental care
d. high survival rates of offspring and the cost of parental care
21. In which of the following situations would you expect to find the largest number of K-selected
individuals?
a. a recently abandoned agricultural field in Ohio
b. a shifting sand dune community of south Lake Michigan
c. an old-growth forest
d. South Florida after a hurricane
22. Some birds follow moving swarms of army ants in the tropics. As the ants march along the
forest floor hunting insects and small vertebrates, birds follow and pick off any insects or small
vertebrates that fly or jump out of the way of the ants. This situation is an example of what kind
of species interaction between the birds and the ants?
a. Consumption
b. Commensalism
c. Parasitism
d. mutualism
23. If two species are close competitors, and one species is experimentally removed from the
community, the remaining species would be expected to _____.
a. change its fundamental niche
b. decline in abundance
c. become the target of specialized parasites
d. expand its realized niche
24. Dwarf mistletoes are flowering plants that grow on certain forest trees. They obtain nutrients
and water from the vascular tissues of the trees. The trees derive no known benefits from the
dwarf mistletoes. Which of the following best describes the interactions between dwarf
mistletoes and trees?
a. Mutualism
b. Parasitism
c. Competition
d. facilitation
25. In some circumstances, grasses benefit from being grazed. Which of the following terms would
best describe such a plant-herbivore interaction?
a. Mutualism
b. Commensalism
c. Parasitism
d. predation
26. Which of the following would be most significant in understanding the structure of an
ecological community?
I)
determining how many species are present overall
II)
determining which particular species are present
III)
determining the kinds of interactions that occur among organisms of
different species
IV)
determining the relative abundance of species
a.
b.
c.
d.
only I and III
only II and IV
only I, II, and III
I, II, III, and IV
27. What does the graph in the figure above tell you about the definition of a keystone species?
a. A keystone species has little interaction with other species in an environment.
b. Removing a keystone species from the community drastically reduces diversity.
c. Adding a keystone species to the community will make it more diverse.
d. Removing a keystone species from the community will eventually allow for the
invasion of a new species.
28. Elephants are not the most dominant species in African grasslands, yet they influence
community structure. The grasslands contain scattered woody plants, but they are kept in check
by the uprooting activities of the elephants. Take away the elephants, and the grasslands
convert to forests or to shrublands. The newly growing forests support fewer species than the
previous grasslands. Which of the following describes why elephants are the keystone species
in this scenario?
a. Elephants exhibit a disproportionate influence on the structure of the community
relative to their abundance.
b. Grazing animals depend upon the elephants to convert forests to grassland.
c. Elephants are the biggest herbivore in this community.
d. Elephants help other populations survive by keeping out many of the large African
predators.
29. Which of the following is a likely explanation for why invasive species take over communities
into which they have been introduced?
a. Invasive species are less efficient than native species in competing for the limited
resources of the environment.
b. Invasive species are not held in check by the predators and agents of disease that have
always been in place for native species.
c. Invasive species have a higher reproductive potential than native species.
d. Invasive species come from geographically isolated regions, so when they are
introduced to regions where there is more competition, they thrive.
30. Food chains are sometimes short because _____.
a. only a single species of herbivore feeds on each plant species
b. local extinction of a species causes extinction of the other species in its food chain
c. most of the energy in a trophic level is lost as it passes to the next higher level
d. predator species tend to be less diverse and less abundant than prey species
31. There are more species in tropical areas than in places more distant from the equator. This is
probably a result of _____.
a. fewer predators
b. more intense annual solar radiation
c. more frequent ecological disturbances
d. fewer agents of disease
32. To recycle nutrients, an ecosystem must have, at a minimum, _____.
a. Producers
b. producers and decomposers
c. producers, primary consumers, and decomposers
d. producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, and decomposers
33. Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Which species is autotrophic?
a. A
b. C
c. D
d. E
34. Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Which species is most likely a
decomposer on this food web?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. E
35. Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Species C is toxic to predators.
Which species is most likely to benefit from being a mimic of C?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. E
36. Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Which pair of species could be
omnivores?
a. A and D
b. B and C
c. C and D
d. C and E
37. During a year, plants never use 100% of the incoming solar radiation for photosynthesis. What
is a reasonable explanation for this?
I)
Plants cannot photosynthesize as well during winter (in cold winter climates).
II)
Plants cannot photosynthesize as well on cloudy days.
III)
The pigments that drive photosynthesis respond to only a fraction of the wavelengths
that are available
a. only I
b. only II
c. only III
d. I, II, and III
.
38. You own three hundred acres of patchy temperate forest. Which one of the following actions
would increase the net primary productivity of the area the most?
a. adding fertilizer to the entire area
b. introducing one hundred rabbits into the area
c. planting five hundred new trees
d. relocating all of the deer found in the area
39. Why is net primary production (NPP) a more useful measurement to an ecosystem ecologist
than gross primary production (GPP)?
a. NPP can be expressed in energy/unit of area/unit of time.
b. NPP can be expressed in terms of carbon fixed by photosynthesis for an entire
ecosystem.
c. NPP represents the stored chemical energy that is available to consumers in the
ecosystem.
d. NPP shows the rate at which the standing crop is utilized by consumers.
40. Which of the following ecosystems would likely have the largest net primary productivity per
hectare and why?
a. open ocean, because of the total biomass of photosynthetic autotrophs
b. grassland, because of the small standing crop biomass that results from consumption by
herbivores and rapid decomposition
c. tundra, because of the incredibly rapid period of growth during the summer season
d. cave, due to the lack of photosynthetic autotrophs
41. How does inefficient transfer of energy among trophic levels result in the typically high
endangerment status of many top-level predators?
a. Top-level predators are destined to have small populations that are sparsely distributed.
b. Predators have relatively large population sizes.
c. Predators are more disease-prone than animals at lower trophic levels.
d. Top-level predators are more likely to be stricken with parasites.
42. For most terrestrial ecosystems, pyramids composed of species abundances, biomass, and
energy are similar in that they have a broad base and a narrow top. The primary reason for this
pattern is that _____.
a. secondary consumers and top carnivores require less energy than producers
b. at each step, energy is lost from the system
c. biomagnification of toxic materials limits the secondary consumers and top carnivores
d. top carnivores and secondary consumers have a more general diet than primary
producers