Download Earthquakes Assessment

Final Test Bank 2014 -- Earth Systems
Climate Change and Oceans
1.
. What is the difference between climate and weather?
a. Climate refers to long-term atmospheric conditions, while weather refers to daily events.
b. Climate refers to short-term atmospheric conditions, while weather refers to long-term conditions
c. The words are synonyms for the same concept.
2. Which of the following statements is true?
a. The global climate has cooled and warmed many times over the past few hundred thousand years.
b. The global climate has only started changing in the past few hundred years.
c. The global climate has been cooling steadily for the past few hundred thousand years.
d. The global climate has been warming steadily for the past few hundred thousand years.
Atmospheric CO2 concentrations 400,000 years ago to present.
3. What is the best conclusion to be drawn from Graph B?
a. CO2 concentrations have fluctuated over the last 400,000 years.
B CO2 concentrations have been the same over the last 400,000 years.
c. CO2 concentrations are higher today than they have been in the last 400,000 years.
d. Both a and c.
4. Which of the following is NOT a method of determining prehistoric climate?
a. Tree rings
c. coral reef cores
b. Ice cores
.
d. monthly rain fall.
5. Which of the following is a significant greenhouse gas?
a. methane b. carbon dioxide
c. water
d. all of these are greenhouse gases
6. Which of the following will probably NOT CHANGE due to global warming?
a. atmospheric nitrogen
c. sea level
b. weather patterns
d. ocean circulation patterns
7. The density of ocean water is decreased by
a. cooling and melting of freshwater ice.
b. heating and freezing of freshwater ice.
c. heating and melting of freshwater ice.
d. cooling and freezing of freshwater ice.
8. What does the graph below show?
a. Burning of fossil fuels are increasing CO2 concentrations .
b. There is an indirect correlation between CO2 and temperature.
c. There is no relationship between CO2 and temperature.
d. There is a direct correlation between CO2 and temperature
9. Which of the following is the cause of the massive tree death we see in the Colorado mountains?
a. Pine beetle attacks
c. climate change
b. Warmer winters
d. all of the above.
10. Which of the following is the chemical reaction for the burning of fossil fuels?
a. C + H4 → CH4
c. C + O2 → CO2
b. 2 H2 + O2
2 H2O
d. none of the above.
11. The term “thermohaline” current refers to:
a. current that depends on heat and salinity
b. the Ocean Conveyor
c. deep ocean circulation
12. Why are scientists and politicians concerned about the excess burning of fossil fuels?
a. We will run out of fossil fuels in the next decade.
b. Burning of fossil fuels puts CO2 into the air.
c. Increased risk of cancer
d. None of the above – nobody is concerned about it.
13. Infrared radiation is the same as …
a. UV light
b. Visible light
c. heat
d. gamma rays
14. Why are plants good at mitigating climate change?
a. They give off CO2 during photosynthesis.
b. They absorb CO2 during photosynthesis.
c. They give us extra shade.
d. Plants do not play a role in climate change.
15. Why did prehistoric increases in temperature trigger an increase in CO2?
a. Neanderthal people made more fires when the temperature increased.
b. Increased temperature resulted in more photosynthesis.
c. The warmer oceans do not absorb as much CO2 as cooler oceans.
d. People were cutting down trees 500,000 years ago.
16 . If CO2 has always been a natural component of our atmosphere, why are we so concerned about it now?
a. Its concentration is higher than it has been in the last 650,000 years.
b. It has become a toxic gas.
c. Its concentration is lower than it has ever been before.
d. None of the above – it is not a concern.
17 . Approximately what % of the earth is covered by oceans?
a. 99%
b. 50%
c. 70%
d. 10%
d. all the above
18. Milankovitch cycles illustrated in the graph below are most closely associated with
a. Global warming
b. 100,000 year ice ages
c. 10-11 year sunspot cycles
d. A shift in the earth’s magnetic field
19. What was the name of the last Ice Age?
a. the Jurassic
b. the Pleistocene
c. the Quaternary
d. the Holocene
20. How long ago did the last Ice Age end?
a. 10,000 years ago
b. 100,000 years ago
c. 1000,000 years ago
d. 10,000,000 years ago
21. Which of the following greenhouse gases is most abundant in the atmosphere?
a. CO2
b. CH4
c. H20
d. N20
22. The thawing of the permafrost in the Arctic is releasing large quantities of which greenhouse gas?
a. CO2
b. CH4
c. H20
d. N20
23. How long does the average Ice Age last?
a. 10,000 years
b. 20,000 years
c. 80,000 years
d. 100,000,000 years
24. Scientists have theorized that an increased concentration of carbon dioxide will cause an increase in worldwide atmospheric temperature. This theory is based on
the fact that carbon dioxide is a
a. good shield for ultraviolet radiation
b. good transmitter of ultraviolet radiation.
25 . After a large volcanic eruption, the surface temperature of the Earth may drop. Why does this occur?
a. There is more moisture in the atmosphere.
b. Ash reflects energy from the sun, so it does not reach the surface.
c. More pollen blocks sunlight coming into the atmosphere.
d. More carbon dioxide enters the atmosphere.
26. Increased levels of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere result in:
a. Greater transmission of ultraviolet radiation
b. infrared radiation getting “stuck” on earth
c. Destruction of the thermosphere
d. Depletion of the ozone layer.
27. The surface currents of the ocean
a. are driven by the wind and the Coriolis effect
b. affects coastal climates
c.
d.
curve clockwise in the Northern hemisphere
all the above
28. How do the oceans remove CO2 from the atmosphere?
a. Large aquatic mammals breathe in CO2 when they surface.
b. Photoplankton removes CO2 by photosynthesis.
c. CO2 dissolves in the top layer of water.
d. Both b and c
29. How do ocean currents regulate the Earth’s temperature?
a. They move heat from the Equator to the poles.
b. They prevent evaporation at low latitudes.
c. They prevent sea ice from forming at high latitudes.
d. They remove heat from the Western Hemisphere and carry it toward the Eastern Hemisphere in large gyres.
30. Which of the following water masses would be found at the greatest depth in the ocean?
a. Temperature of 10° C and salinity of 33.2 ppt
b. Temperature of 0.5° C and salinity of 34.3 ppt
c. Temperature of 0.5° C and salinity of 34.9 ppt
d. Temperature of 0.5° C and salinity of 33.2 ppt
31. Warm warm rises because of its ____.
a. low density
b. high density
c. high pressure
d. lack of humidity
32. Scientists have studied earth’s past climate to more than 400,000 years ago. Techniques such as dendrochronology, ice coring, ocean floor coring, and fossil pollen
studies are called
a. climate proxies.
c. remote sensing.
b. statistics.
d. relationships.
33. How can dendrochronology (tree rings) be used as a climate proxy?
a. Isotopic ratios of 18O and 16O can reveal past climate.
b. The shells of foraminifera curl in opposite directions with different temperatures.
c. The gas bubbles in the ice cores can be used to analyze paleoclimates.
d. Wider growth rings indicate warmer temperatures.
34. What is the best description of the average long-term cycle of climate on earth?
a. 50,000 years of ice age, 50,000 years of interglacial
b. 20,000 years of ice age, 80,000 years of interglacial.
c. 70,000 years of ice age, 30,000 years of interglacial
d. 80,000 years of ice age, 20,000 years of interglacial
35. What aspect of earth’s orbit around the sun is most important in regulating earth’s climate?
a. obliquity cycles
b. precession cycles.
c. eccentricity cycles
d. All are equally important.
36. Which, if any, of the following statements put forth by skeptics of global warming is false?
a. Currently Earth is in a natural warming cycle.
b. Volcanoes contribute a lot of CO2 to the atmosphere.
c. H20 vapor in the most abundant greenhouse gas.
d. There is no direct relationship between CO2 and temperature.
e. None of the above
37. Imagine two towns at the same latitude (distance from the Equator), but on opposite coasts of North America. In which town would you expect to find a warmer
climate?
a. The town on the west coast
c. Neither, the climates would be the same
b. The town that is at a higher elevation
d. The town on the east coast
38. Why is the Peru Current a cold current?
a. Snow and ice from the Andes Mountains in Peru cool the water.
b. Currents that flow north are always cold.
c. The Peru Current originates near Antarctica.
d. Winds that form the Peru Current are very cold
39. If humans can’t be blamed for the periodic increase in CO2 for the past 400,000 years, what then caused it?
a. decreased uptake of CO2 by the oceans during warmer climates
b. massive volcanic eruptions
c. impacts by comets
d. periodic decreases in plant photosynthesis
40. How does the Great Ocean Conveyor keep the Northern Hemisphere’s climate moderate in the winter?
a) Moves warmer less dense water from the equator to the North Atlantic
b) Moves warmer more dense water from the equator to the North Atlantic
c) Moves colder less dense water from the equator to the North Atlantic
d) Moves colder more dense water from the equator to the North Atlantic
41. According to computer climate models, how will Colorado’s climate change in the future?
a) Become hotter and wetter
b) Become hotter and drier
c) Become colder and drier
d) Become colder and wetter
How could global warming affect the Arctic region : (bubble A for INCREASE and B for DECREASE)
Use the graph below (From Stroeve et al, 2008)to guide your thinking.
42. polar albedo values: increase / decrease
43. melting of the Arctic sea ice: increase / decrease
44. salinity of the Arctic ocean: increase / decrease
45. density of the Arctic ocean: increase / decrease
46. sinking of the Arctic waters: increase / decrease
47. circulation/flow rate of the Deep Ocean Conveyor: increase / decrease
48. As a result of the Hadley circulation cell, surface winds blow from the subtropical latitudes _________ the equator.
a. away from
c. around
b. towards
d. along.
49. pressure at the equator is ______.
a.
High
b. Low
50.
a.
b.
c.
d.
c. hot
d. cold
What is the name of the prevailing winds in the mid-latitudes?
Tropical easterlies
Trade winds
westerlies
polar easterlies
51. The density of ocean water in increased by
a. cooling and melting of freshwater ice.
c. heating and melting of freshwater ice.
b. heating and freezing of freshwater ice.
d. cooling and freezing of freshwater ice.
52. Which of the following water samples would be most dense?
a. Cold fresh water
b. cold salty water c. warm fresh water
ANSWERS:
1) A
2) A
3) D
4) D
5) D
6) A
7) D
8) D
9) D
10) C
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
D
B
C
B
C
A
C
B
B
A
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
C
B
C
A
B
B
D
D
A
C
d. warm salty water
31)
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
37)
38)
39)
40)
A
A
D
D
C
D
D
C
A
A
41)
42)
43)
44)
45)
46)
47)
48)
49)
50)
B
B
A
B
B
B
B
B
B
C
51) D
52) B
Earthquakes, Volcanoes, & Plate Tectonics
1) Which is the name of the continuous mountain range found in Earth’s ocean basins?
a. Irregular sea floor b. Rift valley c. Ring of Fire d. Mid-ocean ridge
2) Which is the name for naturally occurring molten rock generated within the Earth?
a. Sedimentary b. Organic c. Magma
d. Lava
3) A Mercator projection is a type of map. As the area covered by the map increases
a. the detail the map can show increases.
c. the northern and southern latitudes are distorted.
b. no change in detail, scale or length occurs. d. the length of the map increases.
4) Below is a topographic map with points A, B, C, X and Y. Which is the elevation of point A on the topographic map?
a. 1550 feet
b. 1600 feet
c. 1650 feet
d. 1700 feet
5) When magma or lava solidifies, it becomes
a. sediments. b. an igneous rock
c. a metamorphic rock.
d. a sedimentary rock.
6) Which is another name for a fracture in rock?
a. wave front b. fault c. focal point d. elastic front
7) Which is the name of the point within Earth where rupture first occurs to cause an earthquake?
a. origin b. epicenter c. focus d. none of these
8) What causes an earthquake?
a. the sudden release of slowly accumulated energy
b. the swelling of Earth’s mantle
c. the pull of the Moon and Sun on Earth’s crust
d. the expansion of Earth’s core
Use the topographic map for the next three questions.
9) What is the contour interval?
a. 20 feet
c. 40 feet
b. 60 feet
d. 80 feet
10) If lava erupted at point A, in which compass direction would the
lava NOT BE ABLE to flow?
a. South
c. West
b. North
d. East
11) Which compass direction of this map has the steepest slope?
a. South
c. West
b. North
d. East
12) Earthquake intensity is a measure of the
a. depth of the earthquake below the surface.
b. effects of an earthquake on communities
c. arrival time of an earthquake at a location
d. size of the earthquake wave.
13) Which type of earthquake wave is a compressional wave and is first to reach a location away from the focus?
a. primary wave b. secondary wave c. surface wave d. cyclic wave
14) Which volcanic hazard is most likely to affect communities several hundred kilometers from the volcano site?
a. mudflow b. lava flow c. pyroclastic flow d. ash fall
15) This topographic map has points X, Y and Z. In which
direction does Mill River generally flow?
a. Southwest
b. Southeast
c. Northwest
d. Northeast
16) Which is NOT a role that volcanoes play in the water cycle
and atmosphere?
a. Groundwater circulates within volcanoes, becomes heated and is released as steam.
b. All of the oxygen in the air we breathe originally came from a volcano.
c. Mudflows associated with volcanoes contain water from the surface of Earth.
d. Volcanoes emit water vapor into the atmosphere.
17) Which would increase the speed of the flow of magma?
a. an increase in the magma’s silica content
c. an increase in the magma’s temperature
b. a decrease in slope
d. an increase in the magma’s viscosity
18) Which type of earthquake wave creates the most damage to buildings?
a. primary waves
b. secondary waves
c. surface waves
d. breaking waves
19) Which is the correct order from SLOWEST to FASTEST travel speed of earthquake waves?
a. surface, secondary, primary
b. primary, secondary, surface
c. primary, surface, secondary
d. surface, primary, secondary
20) Which is the name for a device that can detect very small changes in surface slope elevation?
a. Hydrometer b. Tiltmeter c. Seismometer d. Psychrometer
The data table shows earthquake data collected at two different seismic stations, A and B.
Use this table to answer the next two questions.
Station
Arrival time of
primary wave
Arrival time of
secondary wave
Difference in arrival times of primary
and secondary waves
Distance to epicenter (in
kilometers)
A
6:02:00 pm
6:07:30 pm
5 min, 30 sec
?
B
6:04:00 pm
6:11:20 pm
7 min, 20 sec
5,700
21) Which seismogram best represents the arrival of primary and secondary waves at station A?
A
C
B
D
22) Which is the approximate distance from the earthquake epicenter to station A?
a. more than 5700 km
b. cannot be determined from the data presented
c. exactly 5700 km
d. less than 5700 km
23) What external evidence indicates that a reservoir in a volcano is being fed with magma prior to an eruption?
a. No fractures in the bedrock beneath the volcano
b. Depression of the land surface above the volcano
c. Steepening of the slopes of the volcano
d. Reduced forces in the rock layers beneath the volcano
24) Which best describes the global distribution of volcanoes?
a. Most volcanoes occur on land.
c. Most volcanoes occur at Earth’s poles.
b. Most volcanoes occur along plate boundaries. d. Most volcanoes occur in coastal California.
25) How does INCREASING the distance to the focus of an earthquake from a seismometer impact the difference in arrival times?
a. Seismometers cannot detect primary and secondary waves.
b. The difference in arrival time remains the same.
c. The difference in arrival time increases.
d. The difference in arrival time decreases.
26) Two different cities experience an earthquake with a magnitude of 5.5 on the Richter Scale. However, on the Modified Mercalli
Intensity Scale, the earthquake was rated V in one city and VII in the other city. Which is the best explanation for this difference?
a. One city is nearer the Equator, the other is near a pole.
b. One city was built on bedrock, while the other one was built on loose sediments.
c. The earthquake in one city occurred at 8 pm, and the other occurred at 4 am.
d. One city is in a drier climate zone than the other city.
27) For an earthquake of given energy, which geological condition would generally produce the LOWEST intensity?
a.
b.
c.
d.
deformable earth materials
solid bedrock
water-rich earth materials
loose earth materials
28) The Richter Scale is a measure of the
a. severity of damage during an earthquake.
b. arrival time of primary waves.
c. energy released during the earthquake.
d. people’s reaction during an earthquake.
29) According to the Richter Scale, a magnitude 7 earthquake would
produce wave amplitudes about how many times larger than a
magnitude 5 earthquake?
a. 2 times b. 10 times c. 50 times d. 100 times
30) Seismologists pinpoint the exact location of an earthquake by
a. measuring the sizes of earthquake waves.
b. interpreting seismograms from at least three stations.
c. looking for a fresh crack or break in rocks or streets.
d. surveying damage in the city nearest the earthquake.
31) A seismogram shows that primary and secondary waves arrive at a seismic station about six minutes apart. Using the travel-time
graph, approximately how far is the seismic station to the epicenter of the earthquake?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1000 km
2500 km
4800 km
6600 km
32) A tsunami is a great sea wave produced by
a. a submarine earthquake or volcanic eruption.
b. the pull of the Moon on the Earth.
c. the sinking of large icebergs in the ocean.
d. d. the pull of the Sun on the Earth.
33) Which of these buildings is likely to suffer the least amount of damage during an earthquake?
a. A brick or masonry building constructed on loose, wet soil
b. A brick building constructed on solid bedrock
c. A steel-framed building constructed on loose, wet soil
d. A steel-framed building constructed on solid bedrock
34) What is the minimum number of seismograph stations needed to locate the epicenter of an earthquake?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
The map shows the risk of earthquakes of the United States. Use the map to answer the next two questions.
35) Which location has the lowest risk for an earthquake?
a. San Francisco, California
b. St. Louis, Missouri
c. Dallas, Texas
d. Seattle, Washington
36) Which of the following explains why areas in southeast
Missouri and Tennessee are at such high risk?
a.
b.
c.
d.
There has been some earthquake activity recorded at these locations in the past.
They lie near an ancient fault zone that formed millions of years ago during the breakup of Pangaea.
Missouri and Tennessee lie along boundaries of crustal plates.
An earthquake has never occurred at these locations, but statistically they are overdue.
37) Which statement about earthquakes is CORRECT?
a. Most earthquakes are not felt by humans.
b. Most earthquakes are of magnitude 7.0 or larger.
c. Secondary waves travel faster than both primary waves and surface waves.
d. The time and location of most major earthquakes can be predicted several days in advance.
38) Which major earthquake did NOT occur at a plate boundary?
a. 1989 San Francisco, California
b. 1989 Loma Prieta, California
c. 1964 Anchorage, Alaska
d. 1812 New Madrid, Missouri
39) Which plate boundary is usually associated with earthquakes that originate at depths greater than 100 kilometers?
a. divergent (spreading)
b. convergent (subduction) c. slip d. transform
40) Which observation may indicate a forthcoming destructive earthquake?
a. Atmospheric temperatures greater than 80 F
b. Atmospheric pressures above 1 atmosphere
c. Large amounts of rainfall in a given area
d. An increase in the frequency of smaller earthquakes in the region
41) A building must be designed in an earthquake-prone area that has specific height and width specifications that CANNOT be
changed. What steps could you as the designer of the building take to make the building safer from earthquake activity?
a. Increase the strength of the foundation, walls, and columns
b. Make sure the walls are made of concrete.
c. Use steel reinforcements to increase flexibility and strength.
d. (a) and (c)
e. All the above
42) The straightening of rocks after deformation and rupturing is called
a. elastic rebound
b. shear strength
c. isoseismal rebound
d. scarp formation
43) Which of the following is NOT synonymous with the term “fault?”
a. a fracture in the earth’s crust
b. the surface between rocks that have cracked due to tectonic movement
c. a crack inside the earth where earthquakes originate
d. the epicenter of an earthquake
44) Which of the following is an indirect consequence of an earthquake?
a. breaking of gas lines
b. collapse of bridges
c. tsunamis
d. cracks in highways
45) Which of the following do seismologists use to determine the distance to the focus/epicenter of an earthquake?
a. delay time between P and S wave arrival times
b. GPS
c. satellite radio signals
d. radar
46) When stress builds up at a fault zone, ________ __________ is stored in the rocks.
a. friction
b. potential energy
c.
d.
kinetic energy
seismic waves
47) When the rocks finally do slip, ____ ____ is transmitted in the form of ____ _____.
a. potential energy / earthquakes
b. kinetic energy / seismic waves
c. friction / seismic waves
d. kinetic energy / friction
48) The largest earthquake on record was a ____ on the Richter scale.
a. 10.2
b. 9.5
c. 6.2
d. 3.4
49) The average Colorado earthquake is ____ on the Richter scale.
a. 10.2
b. 9.5
c. 6.2
d. 3.4
50) The Richter scale is
a. logarithmic
b. exponential
c. arithmetic
d. inverse proportional
51) A seismometer in a building built on ________ would show the smallest wave amplitude.
a. sand
b. landfill
c. bedrock
d. swampland
52) Why is resonance a bad thing during an earthquake?
a. Resonance results in an increase in the frequency of vibrations.
b. Resonance results in an increase in the amplitude (height) of the waves
c. Resonance results in a doubling of the earthquake’s energy.
d. (b) and (c)
53) The figure shows lithospheric plate activity throughout Earth.
Which letter is associated with the region on Earth called the
“Ring of Fire?”
a. location A
b. location B
c. location C
d. location D
54) Which type of volcano is broad and flat and is associated with low-silica magma?
a. caldera b. shield volcano c. step volcano d. composite volcano
55) Which type of volcano is tall with steep slopes and has magma of high-silica content?
a. step volcano b. composite volcano c. shield volcano d. caldera
56) Which is most likely to erupt explosively?
a. Magma with high silica content (70%+)
b.
c.
d.
Magma with low silica content (50%)
Magma with medium silica content (60%)
Magma with very low silica content (40%)
57) Which results from volcanic eruptions onto mountainsides covered with ice and snow?
a. Lava domes of thick magma
b. Damaging lahars of wet volcanic debris
c. Igneous rocks formed underground in your community and are now exposed due to erosion.
d. Giant calderas that can be many kilometers in diameter
58) For an earthquake of given energy, which geological condition would generally produce the LOWEST intensity?
a. deformable earth materials
c. solid bedrock
b. water-rich earth materials
d. loose earth materials
59) Why are the crystals of extrusive volcanic rocks generally much smaller than the crystals of intrusive rocks?
a. The lack of air being present while cooling results in smaller crystals.
b. The fast cooling of extrusive rocks results in smaller crystals.
c. The pressure exerted deep within Earth while forming extrusive rocks produces small crystals.
d. The slow cooling of extrusive rocks results in smaller crystals.
60. When magma solidifies, it becomes
sediments. b. a sedimentary rock.
c. a metamorphic rock.
d. an igneous rock
61. The graph shows the relationship between the cooling time of magma and the
size of crystals produced.
As the cooling time increases…
a. Crystal size shrinks.
b. Crystal size increases.
c. Crystals become darker.
d. No change in crystal size or color occurs.
62. How does the volume of an eruption affect the area covered by the eruption?
a. As the volume increases, the covered area decreases.
b. As the volume increases, the covered area increases.
c. As the volume decreases, the covered area increases.
d. The covered area is not affected by the volume of the flow
63. Volcano monitoring can
a. slow a volcanic eruption.
b. save lives in a volcanic eruption.
c. reduce earthquakes in a volcanic eruption
d. divert lava flows during a volcanic eruption.
64.Which statement is the MOST accurate?
a. Volcanic eruptions only lead to global cooling, lowering the global temperature.
b. Volcanic eruptions only lead to global warming, raising the global temperature.
c. Some volcanic products affect global cooling, others affect global warming.
d. Volcanic eruptions always lead to increased rainfall, creating more rainforests.
65. Which describes an extrusive igneous rock?
a. Slowly cooled rock with fine (small) grains
b. Quickly cooled rock with fine (small) grains
c. Slowly cooled rock with coarse (large) grains
d. Quickly cooled rock with coarse (large) grains
.
66. The map shows four locations in the United States. In which
location would the next volcano likely erupt?
a. Location A
b. Location B
c. Location C
d. Location
67. The table shows the number of
earthquakes per year of given
magnitude. Most earthquakes that
occur during the year are not felt
by people.
a. True
B False
Type
Magnitude Number per Year
Great earthquake
Over 8.0
1 or 2
Major earthquake
7.0 – 7.9
18
Destructive earthquake
6.0 – 6.9
120
Damaging earthquake
5.0 – 5.9
800
Minor earthquake
4.0 – 4.9
6000
Smallest earthquake felt by humans 3.0 – 3.9
49,000
Detected, but not felt by humans
2.0 – 2.9
300,000
For the next two questions, please refer to the following figure:
Earthquake Figure 1
68. Which letter above points to the fault?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
69. Which letter above points to the epicenter?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
70. The outermost, rigid layer of Earth, consisting of the crust and part of the upper mantle, is called the
a. biosphere. b. atmosphere. c. hydrosphere. d. lithosphere
71 The diagram below shows a cross-section view of Earth.
Which layer of Earth does the ‘letter C’ represent?
a. Crust
b. Inner core
c. Mantle
d. Outer core
The map shows Earth’s lithospheric plates and their direction of travel.
Use the map to answer the next 4 questions.
72. Which plates are colliding (converging)?
a. Pacific and Caribbean
c. Pacific and African
b. Nazca and South American
d. North American and Antarctic
73. Which two plates are moving apart (diverging)?
a. Indian-Australian and Eurasian c. Indian-Australian and Pacific
b. North American and Eurasian d. South American and Nazca
74. What is happening to the width of the Atlantic Ocean over time?
a. The Atlantic Ocean is becoming wider.
.
b. The Atlantic Ocean is becoming narrower.
c. The width of the Atlantic Ocean is remaining the same
d. No conclusion can be made based on the current data.
75. At which of these boundaries would you find new oceanic crust forming?
a. Between the North American and Eurasian plates
b. Between the South American and Nazca plates
c. Between the Pacific and North American plates
d. None of these choices above
76. During an earthquake, where would be the safest place to stop your car?
a. Location A
b. Location B
77. What does GPS stand for?
a. global positioning satellites
c. Location C
d. Location D
b. global positioning system
c.
globally positioned satellites
78. Which event is most likely to occur when an oceanic plate collides with a continental plate.
a. The oceanic plate will be subducted.
c. . A rift valley will form in the continental plate.
b. A hot spot will form in the oceanic plate
d. The continental plate will be subducted.
79. The diagram shows a cross-section of the outer surface of Earth.
Which crust type is usually the thickest?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Oceanic Crust
Continental Crust
Stiffer Mantle
Asthenosphere
The diagrams show the Earth’s continental lithosphere over
four distinct time periods. Use the diagrams to answer the next two questions.
A
B
C
D
80. Which diagram represents the OLDEST map of the Earth’s landforms?
a. A b. B
c. C
d. D
81. Which diagram of the Earth’s landform is MOST SIMILAR to the present day landform?
a. A b. B
c. C
d. D
Use these diagrams of the plate motion below to answer the following questions.
Continental crust is black and white dots.
Ocean crust is dark gray with no dots.
A
B
C
D
82. Which diagram above shows the plate motion that is the cause of rift valleys found at mid-ocean ridges?
a. A b. B
c. C
d. D
83. Which diagram above best shows the plate motion at a convergent boundary which forms the volcanoes
Washington state like Mt St Helens?
a. A b. B
c. C
d. D
84. Which diagram above best shows the plate motion of the San Andreas Fault in California?
a. A b. B
c. C
d. D
85. Which is the name of the supercontinent that existed 250 million years ago?
a. Laurasia b. Gondwanaland c. Pangaea d. North America
86. The illustration shows plate movement around Iceland.
At which location is the youngest bedrock most likely to be found?
a. Point A
b. Point B
c. Point C
d. Point D
in
87. _____ One hypothesis states that plate movement results from convection currents in the
a. mantle.
c. lithosphere.
b. crust.
d. outer core.
88. _____ A zone where oceanic crust is subducted beneath continental crust is called a:
a. subduction zone.
c. what?
b. divergent boundary.
d. rift valley.
89. _________ Which mountain range is being formed as the plate carrying India collides with the Eurasian plate?
a. Urals;
b. Alps;
c. Rockies;
d. Himalayas
90. If you look at a geologic cross section and see flat layers, what rock type is it?
a. metamorphic
b. igneous
c. sedimentary
91. Sedimentary rocks like sandstone and shale are found under the Front Range here in Colorado .
What assumption can be made about the Front range’s past geologic history?
a. The front range was once covered by several large glaciers.
b. Ash deposits covered much of the front range.
c. Lava flows once covered a large area of the front range.
d. The front range was below sea level at some point in the past.
92. Coarse grains in a sample of granite suggest that it formed…
a. from rapid cooling at the Earth’s surface.
b. from slow cooling below the Earth’s surface.
c. by deposition of sediment in a high-energy environment, such as a fast-flowing stream.
d. by deposition of sediment in a low-energy environment, such as a lagoon.
93.
Identify the rock type that fossils can be located in.
a. Metamorphic b. Sedimentary c. Igneous
d. any rock type
94. Igneous rocks are generally classified on the basis of
a. only texture.
b. only color.
c. both texture and color
d. neither texture nor color.
95. Which statement best describes the formation of an intrusive igneous rock?
a. Magma solidifies rapidly, resulting in a clastic texture
b. Magma solidifies rapidly, resulting in a glassy texture.
c. Magma solidifies slowly, resulting in a coarse (large) grained texture
d. Magma solidifies slowly, resulting in a fine (small) grained texture
96. What type(s) of rocks undergo heat and pressure?
a. Metamorphic only
b. Igneous and sedimentary
c. Metamorphic and sedimentary
d. Sedimentary Only
97. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Colorado?
a. Colorado has no volcanic history.
b. There was volcanic activity in the SW part of Colorado about 3 million years ago.
c. Our little Haystack Mountain is volcanic.
d. Longmont is sitting on top of an old ash flow.
98. Which of the following rocks is NOT volcanic?
a. basalt
b. granite
c. pumice
d. rhyolitE
99. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the Boulder area?
a. The plains consist largely of granite and metamorphic rocks while the mountains consist of sedimentary rock.
b. Most of the Boulder area consist of metamorphic rock.
c. The mountains consist large of granite and metamorphic rocks while the plains consist of sedimentary rock.
d. Most of the Boulder area is volcanic.
100. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Yellowstone?
a. It is one of the biggest super-volcanoes in the world.
b. It sits on a hot spot.
c. It consists mostly of rhyolite.
d. Scientists expect it to erupt in the next 50 years.
101. What gives rise to the prevalence of hot springs in the Rocky Mountains?
a. Faults formed in the crust during the formation of the Rocky Mountains.
b. Faults formed in the crust because we are near a plate boundary.
c. Faults formed in the crust because we are near a hot spot.
d. Faults formed because we have lots of volcanic activity.
102. Which of the following statements is false?
a. India and Australia are located on the same tectonic plate.
b. The Pacific plate is getting smaller each year.
c. The earth is constantly recycling its crustal material.
d. The tectonic plates move a total distance of about 5 miles each year.
103. Which of the following countries did NOT experience a volcanic eruption in the past two years?
a. France b. Indonesia c. Iceland c. Hawaii
104.
A P-wave tends to move buildings…
a. up and down b. side to side c. in a rolling fashion
d. P-waves do not move buildings.
The cross section below shows the geology of the Boulder area. Use the diagram to answer the following four questions.
105.
regarding the Boulder area?
a. The plains are much older than the mountains.
b. The mountains are much older than the plains.
c. The mountains and the plains sediments are the same age.
d. It is impossible to tell from the diagram.
106. Which of the following sedimentary layers is the oldest?
a. Pierre Shale;
b. Morrison formation;
Which of the following
statements is TRUE
c. Lyons sandstone;
d. Fountain formation.
107. What type of rock does the Flatirons of Boulder consist of ?
a. sedimentary rock (sandstone);
b. metamorphic rock (quartz);
c. igneous rock (granite).
d. none of the above.
108. If granite is an intrusive igneous rock that forms INSIDE the earth, how come we see such huge granitic walls when we
drive up to Nederland or Estes Park ?
a. Granite deep inside the earth was exposed on the surface during the folding that happened in the formation of the
Rockies;
b. The granite walls are remnants of ancient volcanoes;
c. Not all granite forms inside the earth.
d. The granite was deposited on previous layers of sedimentary rocks, thus forming higher ground.
109. The block diagram below represents the present ocean floor. The white arrows show the movement of the ocean floor and the
black arrows show the movement of the asthenosphere. Some rock sections found on the ocean floor exhibit a symmetric alternating
pattern. What is the primary cause of the pattern?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Changes in Earth’s global temperature
Changes in Earth’s magnetic field strength and direction
Changes in the asthenosphere’s temperature
Changes in the asthenosphere’s pressure
110. The diagram shows a cross-section view of Earth’s surface,
interior and their associated movements. What most likely
created the deep ocean trench along the west coast of South
America?
a. The oceanic crust sinking beneath the continental crust
b. The convection currents make the ocean basin
narrower
c. The oceanic crust uplifting over the continental crust
d. The oceanic crust sinking at the Mid-Atlantic ridge
The cross section below shows the boundary between two lithospheric
plates. Point X is a location in the continental lithosphere. The depth
below Earth’s surface is labeled in kilometers.
111. Between which two lithospheric plates could the boundary shown above be located?
(a) South American Plate and African Plate
(b) Scotia Plate and Antarctic Plate
(c) Nazca Plate and South American Plate
(d) African Plate and Arabian Plate
Use the map below to answer # 112. The map below shows the Atlantic Ocean divided into zones A, B, C, and D. The Mid-Atlantic
Ridge is located between zones B and C.
112. Which graph best represents the geologic age of the surface bedrock on the ocean bottom?
113. The map below shows a portion of Earth’s surface. Points X and Y are locations on the lithosphere.
Which cross section shows the inferred movement of material in the asthenosphere beneath points
114. Arrows in the block diagram below show the relative movement along a tectonic plate boundary.
Between which two tectonic plates does this type of plate boundary exist?
(a) Nazca Plate and South American Plate
(b) Eurasian Plate and Indian-Australian Plate
(c) North American Plate and Eurasian Plate
(d) Pacific Plate and North American
The block diagram below shows a tectonic plate boundary.
115. . The diagram represents
(a) subduction at a divergent plate boundary
(b) subduction at a convergent plate boundary
(c) rifting at a convergent plate boundary
(d) rifting at a transform plate boundary
ANSWERS:
1. D
2. C
3. C
4. D
5. B
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. A
10. C
11. C
12. B
13. A
14. D
15. D
16. B
17. C
18. C
19. A
20. B
21. A
22. D
23. C
24. B
25. C
26. B
27. B
28. C
29. D
30. B
31. C
32. A
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
D
C
C
B
A
D
B
D
D
A
D
C
A
B
B
B
D
A
C
B
D
B
B
A
B
C
B
D
B
B
B
C
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
B
A
A
B
A
D
D
B
B
A
A
D
B
A
B
D
B
C
D
B
C
C
A
A
D
C
A
B
B
C
C
A
97. B
98. B
99. C
100. D
101. A
102. D
103. A
104. A
105. B
106. D
107. A
108. A
109. B
110. A
111. C
112. D
113. C
114. D
115. B