Download Quiz 1 Biology 1407 1) Catastrophism, meaning the regular

Quiz 1 Biology 1407
1) Catastrophism, meaning the regular occurrence of geological or meteorological disturbances
(catastrophes), was Cuvier's attempt to explain the existence of
A) evolution.
B) the fossil record.
C) uniformitarianism.
D) the origin of new species.
E) natural selection.
2) What was the prevailing belief prior to the time of Lyell and Darwin?
A) Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations are unchanging.
B) Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations gradually change.
C) Earth is millions of years old, and populations rapidly change.
D) Earth is millions of years old, and populations are unchanging.
E) Earth is millions of years old, and populations gradually change.
3) Which of the following is the most accurate summary of Cuvier's consideration of fossils
found in the vicinity of Paris?
A) extinction of species yes; evolution of new species yes
B) extinction of species no; evolution of new species yes
C) extinction of species yes; evolution of new species no
D) extinction of species no; evolution of new species yes
4) Charles Darwin was the first person to propose
A) that evolution occurs.
B) a mechanism for how evolution occurs.
C) that Earth is older than a few thousand years.
D) a mechanism for evolution that was supported by evidence.
E) that population growth can outpace the growth of food resources.
5) Natural selection is based on all of the following except
A) genetic variation exists within populations.
B) the best-adapted individuals tend to leave the most offspring.
C) individuals who survive longer tend to leave more offspring than those who die young.
D) populations tend to produce more individuals than the environment can support.
E) individuals adapt to their environments and, thereby, evolve.
6) Given a population that contains genetic variation, what is the correct sequence of the
following events, under the influence of natural selection?
1. Well-adapted individuals leave more offspring than do poorly adapted individuals.
2. A change occurs in the environment.
3. Genetic frequencies within the population change.
4. Poorly adapted individuals have decreased survivorship.
A) 2 → 4 → 1 → 3
B) 4 → 2 → 1 → 3
C) 4 → 1 → 2 → 3
D) 4 → 2 → 3 → 1
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E) 2 → 4 → 3 → 1
7) Which of the following must exist in a population before natural selection can act upon that
population?
A) genetic variation among individuals
B) variation among individuals caused by environmental factors
C) sexual reproduction
D) Three of the responses are correct.
E) Two of the responses are correct.
8) If Darwin had been aware of genes, and of their typical mode of transmission to subsequent
generations, with which statement would he most likely have been in agreement?
A) If natural selection can change one gene's frequency in a population over the course of
generations then, given enough time and enough genes, natural selection can cause sufficient
genetic change to produce new species from old ones.
B) If an individual's somatic cell genes change during its lifetime, making it more fit, then it will
be able to pass these genes on to its offspring.
C) If an individual acquires new genes by engulfing, or being infected by, another organism, then
a new genetic species will be the result.
D) A single mutation in a single gene in a single gamete will, if perpetuated, produce a new
species within just two generations.
9) Currently, two extant elephant species (X and Y) are placed in the genus Loxodonta, and a
third species (Z) is placed in the genus Elephas. Thus, which statement should be true?
A) Species X and Y are not related to species Z.
B) Species X and Y share a greater number of homologies with each other than either does with
species Z.
C) Species X and Y share a common ancestor that is still extant (in other words, not yet extinct).
D) Species X and Y are the result of artificial selection from an ancestral species Z.
E) Species X, Y, and Z share a common ancestor, but nothing more can be claimed than this.
10) In a hypothetical environment, fishes called pike-cichlids are visual predators of algae-eating
fish (in other words, they locate their prey by sight). If a population of algae-eaters experiences
predation pressure from pike-cichlids, which of the following is least likely to be observed in the
algae-eater population over the course of many generations?
A) selection for drab coloration of the algae-eaters
B) selection for nocturnal algae-eaters (active only at night)
C) selection for larger female algae-eaters, bearing broods composed of more, and larger, young
D) selection for algae-eaters that become sexually mature at smaller overall body sizes
E) selection for algae-eaters that are faster swimmers
11) Whenever diploid populations are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium at a particular locus
A) the allele's frequency should not change from one generation to the next, but its
representation in homozygous and heterozygous genotypes may change.
B) natural selection, gene flow, and genetic drift are acting equally to change an allele's
frequency.
C) this means that, at this locus, two alleles are present in equal proportions.
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D) the population itself is not evolving, but individuals within the population may be evolving.
12) In the formula for determining a population’s genotype frequencies, the pq in the term 2pq is
necessary because
A) the population is diploid.
B) heterozygotes can come about in two ways.
C) the population is doubling in number.
D) heterozygotes have two alleles.
13) Over time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the
course of human evolution by increasing
A) nonrandom mating.
B) geographic isolation.
C) genetic drift.
D) gene flow.
14) If the original finches that had been blown over to the Galápagos from South America had
already been genetically different from the parental population of South American finches, even
before adapting to the Galápagos, this would have been an example of
A) genetic drift.
B) bottleneck effect.
C) founder effect.
D) all three of these.
E) both the first and third of these.
15) The restriction enzymes of bacteria protect the bacteria from successful attack by
bacteriophages, whose genomes can be degraded by the restriction enzymes. The bacterial
genomes are not vulnerable to these restriction enzymes because bacterial DNA is methylated.
This situation selects for bacteriophages whose genomes are also methylated. As new strains of
resistant bacteriophages become more prevalent, this in turn selects for bacteria whose genomes
are not methylated and whose restriction enzymes instead degrade methylated DNA. The
outcome of the conflict between bacteria and bacteriophage at any point in time results from
A) frequency-dependent selection.
B) evolutionary imbalance.
C) heterozygote advantage.
D) neutral variation.
E) genetic variation being preserved by diploidy.
16) Arrange the following from most general (i.e., most inclusive) to most specific (i.e., least
inclusive):
1 natural selection
2. microevolution
3. intrasexual selection
4. evolution
5. sexual selection
A) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
B) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5
C) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
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D) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
E) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
17) In the wild, male house finches (Carpodus mexicanus) vary considerably in the amount of
red pigmentation in their head and throat feathers, with colors ranging from pale yellow to bright
red. These colors come from carotenoid pigments that are found in the birds' diets; no vertebrates
are known to synthesize carotenoid pigments. Thus, the brighter red the male's feathers are, the
more successful he has been at acquiring the red carotenoid pigment by his food-gathering
efforts (all other factors being equal). During breeding season, one should expect female house
finches to prefer to mate with males with the brightest red feathers. Which of the following is
true of this situation?
A) Alleles that promote more efficient acquisition of carotenoid-containing foods by males
should increase over the course of generations.
B) Alleles that promote more effective deposition of carotenoid pigments in the feathers of males
should increase over the course of generations.
C) There should be directional selection for bright red feathers in males.
D) Three of the statements are correct.
E) Two of the statements are correct.
18) Which of the following statements best summarizes evolution as it is viewed today?
A) It represents the result of selection for acquired characteristics.
B) It is synonymous with the process of gene flow.
C) It is the descent of humans from the present-day great apes.
D) It is the differential survival and reproduction of the most-fit phenotypes.
19) Heterozygote advantage should be most closely linked to which of the following?
A) sexual selection
B) stabilizing selection
C) random selection
D) directional selection
E) disruptive selection
20) When imbalances occur in the sex ratio of sexual species that have two sexes (i.e., other than
a 50:50 ratio), the members of the minority sex often receive a greater proportion of care and
resources from parents than do the offspring of the majority sex. This is most clearly an example
of
A) sexual selection.
B) disruptive selection.
C) balancing selection.
D) stabilizing selection.
E) frequency-dependent selection.
21) Recent evidence indicates that the first major diversification of multicellular eukaryotes may
have coincided in time with the
A) origin of prokaryotes.
B) switch to an oxidizing atmosphere.
C) melting that ended the "snowball Earth" period.
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D) origin of multicellular organisms.
E) massive eruptions of deep-sea vents.
22) Which event is nearest in time to the end of the period known as snowball Earth?
A) oxygenation of Earth's seas and atmosphere
B) evolution of mitochondria
C) Cambrian explosion
D) evolution of true multicellularity
E) Permian extinction
23) Approximately how far back in time does the fossil record extend?
A) 3.5 million years
B) 5.0 million years
C) 3.5 billion years
D) 5.0 billion years
24) Which of the following characteristics should have been possessed by the first animals to
colonize land?
1. were probably herbivores (ate photosynthesizers)
2. had four appendages
3. had the ability to resist dehydration
4. had lobe-finned fishes as ancestors
5. were invertebrates
A) 3 only
B) 3 and 5
C) 1, 3, and 5
D) 2, 3, and 4
E) 1, 2, 3, and 4
25) If the half-life of carbon-14 is about 5,730 years, then a fossil that has one-sixteenth the
normal proportion of carbon-14 to carbon-12 should be about how many years old?
A) 1,400
B) 2,800
C) 11,200
D) 16,800
E) 22,900
26) On the basis of their morphologies, how might Linnaeus have classified the Hawaiian
silverswords?
A) He would have placed them all in the same species.
B) He would have classified them the same way that modern botanists do.
C) He would have placed them in more species than modern botanists do.
D) He would have used evolutionary relatedness as the primary criterion for their classification.
27) Bagworm moth caterpillars feed on evergreens and carry a silken case or bag around with
them in which they eventually pupate. Adult female bagworm moths are larval in appearance;
they lack the wings and other structures of the adult male and instead retain the appearance of a
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caterpillar even though they are sexually mature and can lay eggs within the bag. This is a good
example of
A) allometric growth.
B) paedomorphosis.
C) sympatric speciation.
D) adaptive radiation.
E) changes in homeotic genes.
28) The existence of the phenomenon of exaptation is most closely associated with which of the
following observations that natural selection cannot fashion perfect organisms?
A) Natural selection and sexual selection can work at cross-purposes to each other.
B) Evolution is limited by historical constraints.
C) Adaptations are often compromises.
D) Chance events affect the evolutionary history of populations in environments that can change
unpredictably.
29) In the 5-7 million years that the hominid lineage has been diverging from its common
ancestor with the great apes, dozens of hominid species have arisen, often with several species
coexisting in time and space. As recently as 30,000 years ago, Homo sapiens coexisted with
Homo neanderthalensis. Both species had large brains and advanced intellects. The fact that
these traits were common to both species is most easily explained by which of the following?
A) species selection
B) uniformitarianism
C) sexual selection
D) convergent evolution
30) The existence of evolutionary trends, such as increasing body sizes among horse species, is
evidence that
A) a larger volume-to-surface area ratio is beneficial to all mammals.
B) an unseen guiding force is at work.
C) evolution always tends toward increased complexity or increased size.
D) in particular environments, similar adaptations can be beneficial in more than one species.
E) evolution generally progresses toward some predetermined goal.
31) Which individual would make the worst systematist? One who is uncomfortable with the
A) Linnaean system of classification.
B) notion of hypothetical phylogenies.
C) PhyloCode method of classification.
D) notion of permanent polytomies.
32) When using a cladistic approach to systematics, which of the following is considered most
important for classification?
A) shared primitive characters
B) analogous primitive characters
C) shared derived characters
D) the number of homoplasies
E) overall phenotypic similarity
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33) Concerning growth in genome size over evolutionary time, which of these is least associated
with the others?
A) orthologous genes
B) gene duplications
C) paralogous genes
D) gene families
34) A phylogenetic tree constructed using sequence differences in mitochondrial DNA would be
most valid for discerning the evolutionary relatedness of
A) archaeans and bacteria.
B) fungi and animals.
C) chimpanzees and humans.
D) sharks and dolphins.
E) mosses and ferns.
35) Which statement represents the best explanation for the observation that the nuclear DNA of
wolves and domestic dogs has a very high degree of sequence homology?
A) Dogs and wolves have very similar morphologies.
B) Dogs and wolves belong to the same order.
C) Dogs and wolves are both members of the order Carnivora.
D) Dogs and wolves shared a common ancestor very recently.
36) Paralogous genes that have lost the function of coding for any functional gene product are
known as "pseudogenes." Which of these is a valid prediction regarding the fate of pseudogenes
over evolutionary time?
A) They will be preserved by natural selection.
B) They will be highly conserved.
C) They will ultimately regain their original function.
D) They will be transformed into orthologous genes.
E) They will have relatively high mutation rates.
37) Neutral theory proposes that
A) molecular clocks are more reliable when the surrounding pH is close to 7.0.
B) most mutations of highly conserved DNA sequences should have no functional effect.
C) DNA is less susceptible to mutation when it codes for amino acid sequences whose side
groups (or R groups) have a neutral pH.
D) DNA is less susceptible to mutation when it codes for amino acid sequences whose side
groups (or R groups) have a neutral electrical charge.
E) a significant proportion of mutations are not acted upon by natural selection.
38) Which of these would, if it had acted upon a gene, prevent this gene from acting as a reliable
molecular clock?
A) neutral mutations
B) genetic drift
C) mutations within introns
D) natural selection
E) most substitution mutations involving an exonic codon's third position
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39) Which kingdom has been replaced with two domains?
A) Plantae
B) Fungi
C) Animalia
D) Protista
E) Monera
40) Which eukaryotic kingdom includes members that are the result of endosymbioses that
included an ancient proteobacterium and an ancient cyanobacterium?
A) Plantae
B) Fungi
C) Animalia
D) Protista
E) Monera
41) The typical prokaryotic flagellum features
A) an internal 9 + 2 pattern of microtubules.
B) an external covering provided by the plasma membrane.
C) a complex "motor" embedded in the cell wall and plasma membrane.
D) a basal body that is similar in structure to the cell's centrioles.
E) a membrane-enclosed organelle with motor proteins.
42) Which of the following is an important source of endotoxin in gram-negative species?
A) endospore
B) sex pilus
C) flagellum
D) cell wall
E) capsule
43) In a hypothetical situation, the genes for sex pilus construction and for tetracycline resistance
are located together on the same plasmid within a particular bacterium. If this bacterium readily
performs conjugation involving a copy of this plasmid, then the result should be
A) a bacterium that has undergone transduction.
B) the rapid spread of tetracycline resistance to other bacteria in that habitat.
C) the subsequent loss of tetracycline resistance from this bacterium.
D) the production of endospores among the bacterium's progeny.
E) the temporary possession by this bacterium of a completely diploid genome.
44) Which of these statements about prokaryotes is correct?
A) Bacterial cells conjugate to mutually exchange genetic material.
B) Their genetic material is confined within vesicles known as plasmids.
C) They divide by binary fission, without mitosis or meiosis.
D) The persistence of bacteria throughout evolutionary time is due to their genetic homogeneity
(in other words, sameness).
E) Genetic variation in bacteria is not known to occur, because of their asexual mode of
reproduction.
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45) In Fred Griffith's experiments, harmless R strain pneumococcus became lethal S strain
pneumococcus as the result of which of the following?
1. horizontal gene transfer
2. transduction
3. conjugation
4. transformation
5. genetic recombination
A) 2 only
B) 4 only
C) 2 and 5
D) 1, 3, and 5
E) 1, 4, and 5
46) Hershey and Chase performed an elegant experiment that convinced most biologists that
DNA, rather than protein, was the genetic material. This experiment subjected bacteria to the
same gene transfer mechanism as occurs in
A) transduction.
B) transformation.
C) conjugation.
D) binary fission.
E) endosymbiosis.
47) Match the numbered terms to the description that follows. Choose all appropriate terms.
1. autotroph
2. heterotroph
3. phototroph
4. chemotroph
an organism that relies on photons to excite electrons within its membranes
A) 1 only
B) 3 only
C) 1 and 3
D) 2 and 4
E) 1, 3, and 4
48) Mitochondria are thought to be the descendants of certain alpha proteobacteria. They are,
however, no longer able to lead independent lives because most genes originally present on their
chromosome have moved to the nuclear genome. Which phenomenon accounts for the
movement of these genes?
A) plasmolysis
B) conjugation
C) translation
D) endocytosis
E) horizontal gene transfer
49) Which of the following traits do archaeans and bacteria share?
1. composition of the cell wall
2. presence of plasma membrane
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3. lack of a nuclear envelope
4. identical rRNA sequences
A) 1 only
B) 3 only
C) 1 and 3
D) 2 and 3
E) 2 and 4
50) The thermoacidophile, Sulfolobus acidocaldarius, lacks peptidoglycan, but still possesses a
cell wall. What is likely to be true of this species?
1. It is a bacterium.
2. It is an archaean.
3. The optimal pH of its enzymes will lie above pH 7.
4. The optimal pH of its enzymes will lie below pH 7.
5. It could inhabit certain hydrothermal springs.
6. It could inhabit alkaline hot springs.
A) 1, 3, and 6
B) 2, 4, and 6
C) 2, 4, and 5
D) 1, 3, and 5
E) 1, 4, and 5
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