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Organismal Biology Biol 1030 Sections A & B, Final Exam, Spring 2010, Steven M. Thompson
Questions from “Core Curriculum Committee” all in bold.
1. A fundamental form of matter that cannot be chemically broken down to a simpler form is a(n):
A. Compound
B. Molecule
C. Isotope
D. Atom
E. Ion
2. An acid:
A. Is a chemical that takes hydrogen ions from a solution, and has a value above seven on the pH scale
B. Is a chemical that adds hydrogen ions to a solution, and has a value below seven on the pH scale
C. Is a chemical that doesn’t change the hydrogen ions in a solution, and has a value of seven on the pH scale
D. Is a psychotropic chemical that causes hallucinations
E. Is a chemical that all other chemicals are based upon
3. A covalent bond is a bond:
A. Formed by atoms of opposite charge attracting one another
B. Formed by atoms that share electrons
C. Formed by the interaction of a hydrogen atom and another electronegative atom
D. That is a strong bond, except in the presence of water
E. That is a weak bond
4. An ionic bond is a bond:
A. Formed by atoms of opposite charge attracting one another
B. Formed by atoms that share electrons
C. Formed by the interaction of a hydrogen atom and another electronegative atom
D. That is a weak bond, except in the presence of water
E. That is not important to living cells
5. Osmosis is the diffusion of _________ across a selectively permeable membrane.
A. Solutes
B. Solvents
C. Ions
D. Glucose
E. Water
6. __________ consist of sugar units, ___________ include fats, and amino acids build ___________.
A. Lipids, carbohydrates, nucleic acids
B. Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids
C. Vitamins, steroids, minerals
D. Proteins, lipids, nucleic acids
E. Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins
7. DNA and RNA are both:
A. Nucleic acids
B. Amino acids
C. Proteins
D. Polypeptides
E. Nucleotides
8. The primary building block (monomer) of DNA or RNA is:
A. A glucose molecule
B. A fatty acid
C. A nucleotide
D. An amino acid
E. A phospholipid
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9. The ______ is the smallest physical entity having all the properties of life.
A. Atom
B. Cell
C. Protein
D. Nucleus
E. Bacteria
10. A eukaryotic cell:
A. Has membrane-bounded organelles
B. Does not have membrane-bounded organelles
C. Is usually smaller than a Bacterial or Archaeal cell
D. Has a cell wall with peptidoglycan
E. Does not have a nucleus
11. In eukaryotic cells DNA is not found in the:
A. Mitochondria
B. Chromosome
C. Ribosome
D. Chloroplast
E. Nucleus
12. The Domains of life (in the modern, Woese system of classification) are:
A. Prokaryota, Protista and Eukaryota
B. Archaea, Bacteria and Eukaryota
C. Prokaryota, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia
D. Archaea, Bacteria, Protista and Eukaryota
E. Prokaryota, Plantae and Animalia
13. The theory of endosymbiosis is strengthened by the fact that:
A. Chloroplasts and mitochondria have their own DNA, very similar in sequence to bacterial DNA
B. Ribosomes are structures found in all life
C. Nuclei are structures only found in Eukaryota
D. Cell membranes are structures found in all life
E. Endosymbiosis is false – all evidence points at its contradiction
14. Which item does not pertain to mitochondria?
A. They have their own DNA
B. They are the product of an endosymbiotic event
C. They occur in plants and some protists
D. They carry out photosynthesis to produce glucose
E. They extract energy in the form of ATP from nutrients
15. Which item does not pertain to chloroplasts?
A. They have their own DNA
B. They are the product of an endosymbiotic event
C. They occur in plants and some protists
D. They carry out photosynthesis to produce glucose
E. They extract energy in the form of ATP from nutrients
16. The primary structural component of a cell membrane is:
A. A phospholipid molecule
B. A protein molecule
C. A cholesterol molecule
D. A sugar molecule attached to a protein
E. An enzyme
17. Enzymes speed chemical reactions by:
A. Lowering the amount of reactants that are needed
B. Lowering the energy required to activate a chemical reaction
C. By supplying energy to the reaction process
D. Raising the temperature of the surroundings
E. Maintaining chemical equilibrium
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18. Competitive inhibition of enzymes:
A. Occurs when a substance binds to an enzyme at a site away from the active site
B. Occurs when a substance other than the substrate binds at the active site of an enzyme
C. Occurs when one enzyme shames another enzyme into inhibition
D. Is never used to regulate the metabolism of the cell
E. Cannot be initiated with drugs
19. The first, second, and third stages of aerobic respiration occur in which order?
A. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain
B. Glycolysis, Calvin cycle, and the electron transport chain
C. Fermentation, Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain
D. The electron transport chain, the Krebs cycle, and glycolysis
E. Photosystem I, Photosystem II, and the Calvin cycle
20. The sole source of ATP production in cells only using fermentation is:
A. Glycolysis
B. The Kreb's cycle
C. Photosynthesis
D. The Calvin cycle
E. Electron transport
21. The process of phosphorylation does not:
A. Release a phosphate group from one molecule
B. Add a phosphate group to another molecule
C. Often change the shape of the target molecule
D. Usually occur independent of ATP/ADP
E. Energize the target molecule
22. The electron transport chain produces a chemiosmotic _____________ gradient across the membrane:
A. ATP
B. Proton
C. Electron
D. NADH
E. Oxygen
23. In Eukaryotes the Kreb’s cycle and the electron transport system both occur in the:
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Mitochondria
C. Cytoplasm
D. Ribosome
E. Nucleus
24. The reactants (things that go in) of cellular respiration are:
A. Water and ATP
B. Glucose and ATP
C. Oxygen and ATP
D. Glucose and oxygen
E. Glucose and carbon dioxide
25. The products (things that come out) of cellular respiration are:
A. Carbon dioxide, glucose, and water
B. Glucose, carbon dioxide, and ATP
C. Carbon dioxide, water, and ATP
D. Oxygen, ATP, and water
E. Glucose, water, and ATP
26. ___________________ is the process of making sugars by using sunlight and carbon dioxide.
A. Digestion
B. Respiration
C. Metabolism
D. Fermentation
E. Photosynthesis
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27. The energy source for the process of photosynthesis is:
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Chlorophyll
C. Sunlight
D. Glucose
E. Oxygen
28. The two stages of photosynthesis are:
A. The light reactions and the carbon (a.k.a. light-independent) reactions
B. The light-independent reactions and the Calvin cycle
C. The Calvin cycle and the Hobbes reaction
D. The light reactions only
E. The Calvin cycle only
29. The main product of the carbon (a.k.a. light-independent) reactions is:
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Glucose
C. Oxygen
D. NADPH
E. ATP
30. Leaves appear green because:
A. Most of the wavelengths of green light are absorbed by chlorophyll
B. Most of the wavelengths of green light are absorbed by carotenoids
C. Most of the wavelengths of green light are reflected by chlorophyll
D. Most of the wavelengths of green light are reflected by carotenoids
E. That’s the only wavelength we can detect
31. Which phrase does not belong? The polymerase chain reaction:
A. Is used to amplify minute quantities of DNA into enough to analyze with sequencing techniques
B. Can be used to identify missing persons or identify body parts
C. Can be used to identify disease-causing microbes
D. Can be used on any random piece of unknown DNA
E. Requires a pair of laboratory made primers of a known sequence
32. A sequence of DNA nucleotides coding for a specific protein or RNA molecule is a:
A. Gene
B. Plasmid
C. Genome
D. Ribosome
E. Chromosome
33. The process by which a bacterium uses a sex pilus to transfer genetic information to another bacterium is:
A. Parthenogenesis
B. Recombination
C. Conjugation
D. Translation
E. Cloning
34. A zygote is:
A. A haploid cell
B. The haploid product of fertilization
C. The diploid product of fertilization
D. A product of meiosis
E. A product of mitosis
35. A cell with two full sets of chromosomes would be termed a _______________ cell.
A. Sister
B. Somatic
C. Diploid
D. Haploid
E. Germ
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36. One of two identical copies of a replicated chromosome attached by the centromere defines the term:
A. Telomere
B. Chromatin
C. Chromatid
D. Centrosome
E. Spindle
37. The replication of DNA during the overall cell cycle occurs during:
A. Mitosis
B. Interphase
C. Cytokinesis
D. Prophase
E. Telophase
38. The division of the nucleus proper during the overall cell cycle is named:
A. Mitosis
B. Synthesis
C. Interphase
D. Replication
E. Cytokinesis
39. The actual splitting of one cell into two daughter cells in the overall cell cycle is named:
A. Mitosis
B. Synthesis
C. Interphase
D. Replication
E. Cytokinesis
40. The correct sequence for the phases of mitosis is:
A. Anaphase - prophase - metaphase - telophase
B. Metaphase - anaphase - prophase - telophase
C. Prophase - telophase - metaphase - anaphase
D. Prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase
E. Prophase - anaphase - telophase - metaphase
41. The phase of mitosis in which the chromosomes condense and centrosomes move to opposite poles of the cell is:
A. This doesn’t happen in mitosis
B. Anaphase
C. Prophase
D. Telophase
E. Metaphase
42. The phase of mitosis in which the chromosomes are aligned along the equator of the cell is:
A. This doesn’t happen in mitosis
B. Anaphase
C. Prophase
D. Telophase
E. Metaphase
43. Meiosis is a process that produces:
A. Polyploid cells
B. Haploid sperm or egg gametes
C. Diploid somatic cells
D. Diploid sperm or egg gametes
E. Haploid somatic cells
44. _______________ creates cells that are genetically different from the parent cells.
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Cloning
D. Cytokinesis
E. This is impossible and never happens
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45. In meiosis, DNA replicates during:
A. Prophase one
B. Prophase two
C. Interphase one
D. Interphase two
E. Metaphase two
46. In meiosis, homologous chromosomes (not sister chromatids) separate and are pulled to opposite poles during:
A. Prophase one
B. Prophase two
C. Metaphase one
D. Anaphase one
E. Anaphase two
47. If the two alleles for a particular gene are identical the gene pair is:
A. Heterozygous
B. Homozygous
C. Homologous
D. Recessive
E. Dominant
48. Mendel's monohybrid cross of "Tt" parents resulted in a tall to short phenotypic ratio of:
A. 9:3:3:1
B. 4:1
C. 3:1
D. 2:1
E. 1:1
49. If any of the traits that Mendel worked with had been due to linked genes, his dihybrid crosses:
A. Would have produced less offspring
B. Would have produced more offspring
C. Would have produced sterile offspring
D. Would have exhibited a phenotypic ratio of 3:1
E. Would have exhibited a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1
50. To inherit an autosomal dominant disorder requires a person to receive the disease causing allele from:
A. Both parents
B. The father only, not the mother
C. The mother only, not the father
D. Only the parent having the disease
E. Only the parent who does not exhibit the disease
51. To inherit an autosomal recessive disorder requires a person to receive the disease causing allele from:
A. Both parents
B. The father only, not the mother
C. The mother only, not the father
D. Only the parent having the disease
E. Only the parent who does not exhibit the disease
52. The "Central Dogma" of biology refers to the flow of:
A. Genetic information in cells from RNA to DNA
B. Genetic information in cells from protein to RNA
C. Genetic information in cells from DNA to RNA to protein
D. Genetic information in cells from the nucleus to the cytoplasm
E. Genetic information in cells from atoms to molecules to protein
53. Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries coded information that specifies the production of a particular:
A. Protein
B. DNA molecule
C. Lipid molecule
D. Transfer RNA (tRNA)
E. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
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54. The type of RNA that carries each amino acid to the ribosome is:
A. MicroRNA (miRNA)
B. Transfer RNA (tRNA)
C. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
D. Messenger RNA (mRNA)
E. Small nuclear RNA (snRNA)
55. The process used by cells to convert an RNA "message" into a sequence of amino acids is:
A. Transcription
B. Translation
C. Replication
D. Mitosis
E. Meiosis
56. A three base sequence (loop) in tRNA that is complementary to a sequence of three bases in mRNA is:
A. An anticodon
B. A promoter
C. A terminator
D. An operator
E. An amino acid attachment site
57. A tRNA molecule is "bilingual" because it binds to:
A. Amino acids and DNA
B. DNA and mRNA codons
C. Promoters and terminators
D. Promoters and amino acids
E. Codons of mRNA and amino acids
58. A group of Bacterial genes and regulator sequences that have related functions and are controlled together is:
A. An operon
B. A genome
C. A ribosome
D. A chromosome
E. A replication fork
59. Which statement does not apply to a "frameshift" mutation?
A. It may be caused by an addition of any number of nucleotides (bases) not in multiples of three
B. It may be caused by a deletion of any number of nucleotides (bases) not in multiples of three
C. It always disrupts the reading frame of a gene
D. It almost always destroys a protein's ability to function
E. It usually does not harm a protein's ability to function
60. If a "silent" (synonymous) mutation occurs in an exon:
A. The codon is changed by the deletion of a nucleotide
B. The codon is changed by the insertion of a nucleotide
C. The substitution in the codon causes a change in the amino acid specified
D. The substitution in the codon does not cause a change in the amino acid specified
E. The substitution in the codon causes a stop codon to occur instead of the placement of an amino acid
61. If a "missense" (nonsynonymous) mutation occurs in an exon:
A. The codon is changed by the deletion of a nucleotide
B. The codon is changed by the insertion of a nucleotide
C. The substitution in the codon causes a change in the amino acid specified
D. The substitution in the codon does not cause a change in the amino acid specified
E. The substitution in the codon causes a stop codon to occur instead of the placement of an amino acid
62. Most all plants are:
A. Autotrophs
B. Saprotrophs
C. Heterotrophs
D. Chemolithotrophs
E. Photoheterotrophs
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63. An embryonic leaf of a plant that often helps provide nutrition to the developing embryo is a:
A. Sepal
B. Petiole
C. Stomata
D. Rhizome
E. Cotyledon
64. The cells that surround each stoma and control its opening and closing are:
A. Companion cells
C. Sieve tube cells
C. Vascular cells
D. Guard cells
E. Pith cells
65. Which of the following edible plant foods is not a reproductive part (fruit) of a plant?
A. Cucumber
B. Eggplant
C. Tomato
D. Walnut
E. Celery
66. Most carnivorous plants use their prey as a primary source of:
A. Energy
B. Carbon
C. Nitrogen
D. Potassium
E. Magnesium
67. Nitrogen fixation is the process of:
A. Adding nitrates or ammonia to the soil with fertilizers
B. Converting atmospheric nitrogen gas to ammonia
C. Converting ammonia to atmospheric nitrogen gas
D. Plants taking nitrates or ammonia from the soil
E. Regulating the amount of nitrogen in the soil
68. The assimilation of atmospheric nitrogen into organic compounds can only be achieved by this type of organism:
A. Animals
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
D. Plants
E. Algae
69. The products of photosynthesis (sugar) move from the leaf to other parts of the plant via the:
A. Xylem
B. Cuticle
C. Phloem
D. Stomata
E. Cambium
70. The ____________ transports water and dissolved minerals from the roots of the plant to the shoots of the plant.
A. Xylem
B. Cuticle
C. Phloem
D. Stomata
E. Cambium
71. If water is scarce a plant's guard cells will ______________ and the stomata will _________________.
A. Swell, close
B. Collapse, close
C. Collapse, open
D. Swell, open
E. Die, open
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72. Key angiosperm adaptations that contribute to angiosperms’ widespread distribution do not include:
A. The production of fruits
B. The production of pollen
C. The production of flowers
D. The production of seeds
E. The production of spores
73. The portion of a flower that receives the pollen is the:
A Style
B Stigma
C. Anther
D. Ovary
E. Sepal
74. According to the Botany of Desire, the apple was spread across the US Western Territory mainly because of:
A. The National Prohibition Act
B. Their delicious, sweet, edible fruit
C. The American Black Bear’s like of the fruit
D. The saying “an apple a day, keeps the doctor away”
E. The readily production of a fermented alcoholic beverage (hard cider) from its fruit
75 Cannabis’ psychoactive component, THC (tetrahydrocannabinol), is not:
A. A chemical that mimics an endogenous (naturally inside of us) chemical named anandamide
B. Smilar to an endogenous (naturally inside of us) chemical system that helps us to forget
C. Manufactured by humans from the plant
D. Directly manufactured by the plant
E. A chemical that vertebrates desire
76. The part of the brain that controls the qualities of what we consider intelligence, learning, and the “mind” is the:
A. Pons
B. Cerebrum
C. Cerebellum
D. Hypothalamus
E. Medulla oblongata
77. The part of the brain that is responsible for homeostatic control of most organ systems is the:
A. Pons
B. Cerebrum
C. Cerebellum
D. Hypothalamus
E. Medulla oblongata
78. Which statement is not true concerning feedback loops in organisms?
A. Feedback loops are monitored by sensors in an organism
B. Positive feedback loops control most of an organism’s homeostasis
C. Negative feedback loops control most of an organism’s homeostasis
C. Positive feedback loops reinforce themselves, i.e. some change causes more of that change
E. Negative feedback loops counteract themselves, i.e. some change causes less of that change
79. Which statement is not true concerning myelin?
A. Schwann cells form myelin sheaths
B. Myelin serves as an ‘insulator’ on axons
C. Myelin prevents ion flow across the membrane
D. The neural impulse ‘jumps’ beween nodes of Ranvier
E. Myelinated axons conduct impulses much slower than unmyelinated axons
80. The part of the eye that regulates the size of the opening for light coming into the eye is the:
A. Iris
B. Lens
C. Pupil
D. Cone
E. Cornea
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81. Insulin is not:
A. A hormone
B. Produced by the pancreas
C. Involved in the control of blood sugar levels
D. Produced in the Islets of Langerhans (in its beta cells)
E. Used to treat Type II diabetes mellitus (this is adult onset diabetes)
82. Red marrow:
A. Is found in compact bone
B. Is primarily found in the liver
C. Is primarily found in the brain
D. Is where blood cells are produced
E. Is where nerve cells are produced
83. Ligaments are connective tissues that connect _______________ to _________________.
A. Muscle, bone
B. Tendons, bone
C. Muscle, muscle
D. Bone, bone
E. Cartilage, bone
84. A thick filament (versus a thin filament) of muscle is composed primarily of the protein:
A. Hemoglobin
B. Myoglobin
C. Collagen
D. Myosin
E. Actin
85. The huge blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body (except the lungs) is:
A. The aorta
B. The pulmonary vein
C. The pulmonary artery
D. The inferior vena cava
E. The superior vena cava
86. The major blood vessel that delivers oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart is the:
A. Aorta
B. Pulmonary vein
C. Pulmonary artery
D. Inferior vena cava
E. Superior vena cava
87. The blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the heart muscle itself is the:
A. Aorta
B. Coronary artery
C. Pulmonary artery
D. Inferior vena cava
E. Superior vena cava
88. In the systemic capillaries, ___________ leaves red blood cells and _____________ enters the blood.
A. Nitrogen, oxygen
B. Oxygen, carbon dioxide
C. Carbon dioxide, oxygen
D. Carbon dioxide, nitrogen
E. Sodium, oxygen
89. The small air sacs of the lungs where gas diffusion occurs between air and capillaries are the:
A. Bronchioles
B. Arterioles
C. Spiracles
D. Alveoli
E. Uvula
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90. In herbivores, cellulose is primarily broken down:
A. By powerful digestive enzymes produced by the herbivores’ stomach and intestinal glands
B. By powerful digestive enzymes produced by the herbivores’ salivary glands
C. By protists, Fungi, Bacteria, and Archaea living within the herbivores’ gut
D. By parasitic worms living within the herbivore
E. By nothing — it passes through undigested
91. The normal Bacterial and Archaeal residents of our intestines
A. Make us sick
B. Provide no benefits to us
C. Use up essential nutrients and vitamins
D. Are only of a very limited number of species
E. Help prevent pathogens from infecting the intestine
92. A bulb-like capillary bed within the kidney that is used to collect blood that needs to be filtered is the:
A. Collecting duct
B. Renal medulla
C. Renal cortex
D. Glomerulus
E. Nephron
93. Physical and chemical barriers that form the first line of innate defense do not include:
A. Mucus and cilia of the respiratory tract
B. The acidity of the stomach
C. Tear fluid from the eye
D. An unpunctured skin
E. Antibody production
94. Lymphocytes can produce millions of different types of antibodies because of a process termed:
A. Gene shuffling or recombination
B. Meiotic variation
C. Clonal deletion
D. Crossing over
E. Conjugation
95. The primary "antigen presenting cell" that engulfs (phagocytosis) and dismantles invaders to present an antigen
on its surface is:
A. A B cell
B. A T cell
C. A platelet
D. An erythrocyte
E. A macrophage
96. In adaptive humoral immunity:
A. Cytotoxic T cells destroy virus-infected cells
B. Nonspecific, rapid, broad-spectrum defenses are launched
C. Defensive cells attack and kill invading agents by direct cell to cell contact
D. The primary response is much faster and stronger than the secondary response
E. Antigens initiate the production of antibodies and the particular antigen is ‘memorized’
97. The stage of animal development in which the three primary germ layers — the endoderm, mesoderm, and
ectoderm — form is the:
A. Zygote
B. Morula
C. Blastula
D. Gastrula
E. Fetal stage
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98. Based on the videos we saw on genetic engineering, which of the following is not true?
A. Human insulin is now routinely produced through genetic engineering
B. Genetic engineered crops can reduce the need for insecticides on fields
C. Genetically modified organisms are always a danger to the environment
D. Recombinant DNA is the laboratory production of DNA from a mixture of organisms
E. Genetic engineered transgenic animals can be used to produce therapeutic proteins in their milk
99. What did you fill in on the very end of the computerized answer sheet?
A. Nothing!
B. None of your business!
C. The wrong VSU student ID!
D. Only the printed number, no bubbles!
E. My VSU student ID, printed and bubbled in
100. Have a great summer and thanks for taking my class. I hope you learned a lot!
A. Get lost
B. It was a complete waste of time
C. I endured and/or enjoyed it, and learned quite a bit
D. The huge class size made it difficult, but we did the best we could given the circumstances
E. Molecular and cellular biology, genetics, and physiology have no relevance to everyday life
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