Download 1) The creation of genetically identical offspring by a single parent

Mrs. Umbarger
Adv. Biology
EP Midterm 3
Name
Date
Per.
1) The creation of genetically identical offspring by a single parent, without the participation of
sperm and egg, is called
A) asexual reproduction.
B) sexual reproduction.
C) regeneration.
D) spontaneous generation.
2) Asexual reproduction requires ________ individual(s).
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
3) Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes in that they
A) are simpler.
B) are circular in structure.
C) include fewer proteins.
D) are housed in a membrane-enclosed nucleus.
4) Sister chromatids are
A) found right after a cell divides.
B) joined together at a centromere.
C) made only of DNA.
D) unique to prokaryotes.
5) Eukaryotic cells spend most of their cell cycle in which phase?
A) interphase
B) prophase
C) metaphase
D) telophase
6) Which of the following occurs during interphase?
A) a reduction in the size of the nuclear membrane
B) cytokinesis
C) cell growth and duplication of the chromosomes
D) separation of newly formed DNA to opposite ends of the cell
7) The genetic material is duplicated during
A) the mitotic phase.
B) G1.
C) the S phase.
D) G2.
8) The process by which the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell divides to produce two cells is called
A) mitosis.
B) cytokinesis.
C) binary fission.
D) telophase.
9) The phase of mitosis during which the mitotic spindle begins to form is
A) interphase.
B) prophase.
C) metaphase.
D) anaphase.
10) During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up on a plane equidistant from the
two spindle poles?
A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
11) During which phase of mitosis does the nuclear envelope re-form?
A) anaphase
B) metaphase
C) prophase
D) telophase
12) Which of the following is a feature of plant cell division that distinguishes it from animal cell
division?
A) formation of a cell plate
B) formation of a cleavage furrow
C) lack of cytokinesis
D) production of four (rather than two) new cells per mitotic division
13) Which of the following features likely accounts for the difference between plant and animal
cell cytokinesis?
A) Animal cells lack the microfilaments required for forming a cleavage furrow.
B) Animal cells lack chloroplasts.
C) Plant cells have cell walls.
D) Plant cells have two sets of chromosomes; animal cells have one set of chromosomes.
14) You are asked to culture an unidentified sample of animal tissue. You notice that the cells
seem to fail to exhibit density-dependent inhibition and divide rapidly, growing one on top of the
other. The source of this tissue sample is most likely
A) a cancer.
B) skin.
C) a fetal liver.
D) the sperm-producing tissue of the testis.
15) Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is false?
A) Meiosis only occurs in the ovaries and testes.
B) All sexual life cycles involve an alternation of diploid and haploid stages.
C) Mitosis produces daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
D) A normal human zygote has 46 chromosomes.
16) Which of the following statements is false?
A) Gametes are haploid cells.
B) Two haploid cells fuse during fertilization.
C) An X chromosome is an autosome.
D) A zygote is a fertilized egg.
17) Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is false?
A) Mitosis provides for growth and tissue repair.
B) Meiosis provides for asexual reproduction.
C) In mitosis, the chromosomes replicate only once in the preceding interphase.
D) All the events unique to meiosis occur during meiosis I.
18) Both mitosis and meiosis are preceded by
A) prometaphase.
B) interphase.
C) prophase.
D) telophase.
19) Independent orientation of chromosomes at metaphase I and random fertilization are most
like
A) shuffling cards and dealing out hands of poker.
B) cutting up a pie into eight even-sized slices.
C) alphabetizing files in a filing cabinet.
D) pairing up similar socks after washing your clothes.
20) Which of the following statements regarding genetic diversity is false?
A) Genetic diversity is enhanced by random fertilization.
B) Genetic diversity is enhanced by independent orientation of chromosomes at metaphase I.
C) Genetic diversity is enhanced by mitosis.
D) Genetic diversity is enhanced by crossing over during meiosis.
21) Nondisjunction occurs when
A) a portion of a chromosome breaks off and is lost.
B) two chromosomes fuse into one.
C) members of a chromosome pair fail to separate.
D) an entire pair of chromosomes is lost during meiosis I.
22) Mendel conducted his most memorable experiments on
A) peas.
B) roses.
C) guinea pigs.
D) fruit flies.
23) Varieties of plants in which self-fertilization produces offspring that are identical to the
parents are referred to as
A) hybrids.
B) the F2 generation.
C) monohybrid crosses.
D) true-breeding.
24) All the offspring of a cross between a black-eyed bird and an orange-eyed bird have black
eyes. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a cross between two orange-eyed birds?
A) 3 black-eyed:1 orange-eyed
B) 0 black-eyed:4 orange-eyed
C) 1 black-eyed:3 orange-eyed
D) 4 black-eyed:0 orange-eyed
25) If A is dominant to a and B is dominant to b, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of this
dihybrid cross: AaBb × AaBb?
A) 16:0:0:0
B) 8:4:2:2
C) 1:1:1:1
D) 9:3:3:1
26) Mendel's law of independent assortment states that
A) chromosomes sort independently of each other during mitosis and meiosis.
B) independent sorting of genes produces polyploid plants under some circumstances.
C) each pair of alleles segregates independently of the other pairs of alleles during gamete
formation.
D) genes are sorted concurrently during gamete formation.
27) Imagine that we mate two black Labrador dogs with normal vision and find that three of the
puppies are like the parents, but one puppy is chocolate with normal vision and another is black
with PRA (progressive retinal atrophy, a serious disease of vision). We can conclude that
A) both of the parents are homozygous for both traits.
B) the same alleles that control coat color can also cause PRA.
C) the alleles for color and vision segregate independently during gamete formation.
D) the alleles for color and vision segregate dependently during gamete formation.
28) A testcross is
A) a mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual homozygous
recessive for the trait of interest.
B) a mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual heterozygous for the
trait of interest.
C) a mating between two individuals heterozygous for the trait of interest.
D) a mating between two individuals of unknown genotype.
29) Using a six-sided die, what is the probability of rolling either a 5 or a 6?
A) 1/6 × 1/6 = 1/36
B) 1/6 + 1/6 = 1/3
C) 1/6 + 1/6 = 2/3
D) 1/6
30) Dr. Smith's parents have normal hearing. However, Dr. Smith has an inherited form of
deafness. Deafness is a recessive trait that is associated with the abnormal allele d. The normal
allele at this locus, associated with normal hearing, is D. Dr. Smith's parents could have which of
the following genotypes?
A) DD and dd
B) dd and dd
C) Dd and Dd
D) Dd and DD
31) A carrier of a genetic disorder who does not show symptoms is most likely to be ________
to transmit it to offspring.
A) heterozygous for the trait and able
B) heterozygous for the trait and unable
C) homozygous for the trait and able
D) homozygous for the trait and unable
32) A person with AB blood illustrates the principle of
A) incomplete dominance.
B) codominance.
C) pleiotropy.
D) polygenic inheritance.
33) Which of the following terms refers to a situation where a the phenotypic characteristic is
in-between the 2 parental phenotypes?
A) incomplete dominance
B) codominance
C) pleiotropy
D) polygenic inheritance
34) The individual features of all organisms are the result of
A) genetics.
B) the environment.
C) the environment and individual needs.
D) genetics and the environment.
35) What is the normal complement of sex chromosomes in a human male?
A) two Y chromosomes
B) two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome
C) one X chromosome and one Y chromosome
D) one Y chromosome
36) Sex-linked conditions are more common in men than in women because
A) men acquire two copies of the defective gene during fertilization.
B) men need to inherit only one copy of the recessive allele for the condition to be fully
expressed.
C) the sex chromosomes are more active in men than in women.
D) the genes associated with the sex-linked conditions are linked to the Y chromosome, which
determines maleness.
37) The core theme of biology, which explains both the unity and diversity of life, is
A) genetics.
B) ecology.
C) evolution.
D) metabolism.
38) Which of the following assumptions or observations is not part of Darwin's idea of natural
selection?
A) Whether an organism survives and reproduces is almost entirely a matter of random chance.
B) Heritable traits that promote successful reproduction should gradually become more common
in a population.
C) Populations produce more offspring than their environment can support.
D) Organisms compete for limited resources.
39) A dog breeder wishes to develop a breed that does not bark. She starts with a diverse mixture
of dogs. Generation after generation, she allows only the quietest dogs to breed. After 30 years of
work she has a new breed of dog with interesting traits, but on average, the dogs still bark at
about the same rate as other dog breeds. Which of the following would be a logical explanation
for her failure?
A) There is no variation for the trait (barking).
B) The tendency to bark is not a heritable trait.
C) The selection was artificial, not natural, so it did not produce evolutionary change.
D) There was no selection (differential reproductive success) related to barking behavior.
40) Which of the following statements regarding natural selection is false?
A) Natural selection depends on the local environment at the current time.
B) Natural selection starts with the creation of new alleles that are directed toward improving an
organism's fitness.
C) Natural selection and evolutionary change can occur in a short period of time (a few
generations).
D) Natural selection can be observed working in organisms alive today.
41) Which of the following would prevent an organism from becoming part of the fossil record
when it dies?
A) It is fully decomposed by bacteria and fungi.
B) It is buried in fine sediments at the bottom of a lake.
C) It gets trapped in sap.
D) It is frozen in ice.
42) Humans share several of the same features with salamanders. Certain genes and proteins are
nearly identical between the two species; both species have four limbs with a similar skeletal
structure; the species' early embryos are very similar; and where the salamander has a functional
tail, humans have a vestigial tailbone. In evolutionary terms, these are examples of
A) biogeographic similarity.
B) homology.
C) adaptation by natural selection.
D) coincidental similarity.
43) What evidence is used to determine the branching sequence of an evolutionary tree?
A) experiments in artificial selection
B) anatomical or molecular homologous structures
C) the genetic code
D) as overall assessment of general similarities between organisms
44) A woman struggling with a bacterial illness is prescribed a month's supply of a potent
antibiotic. She takes the antibiotic for about two weeks and feels much better. Should she save
the remaining two-week supply, or should she continue taking the drug?
A) She should save the drug for later, because if she keeps taking it the bacteria will evolve
resistance.
B) She should save the drug for use the next time the illness strikes.
C) She should save the drug because antibiotics are in short supply and she may need it to defend
herself against a bioterrorism incident.
D) She should continue taking the drug until her immune system can completely eliminate the
infection. Otherwise the remaining bacteria in her system may recover, and they will probably be
resistant.
45) Round bacterial found in groups of 2 are known as
A) coccus
B) streptococcus
C) staphylococcus
D) diplococcus
46) Rod-shaped bacteria are called
A) cocci.
B) bacilli.
C) spirochetes.
D) vibrios.
47) Which of the following options correctly pairs a structure with its function in prokaryote
cells?
A) fimbriae = help prokaryotes stick to each other and to surfaces
B) capsule = rigid protective structure enclosing cell
C) flagella = feeding appendages
D) endospore = food digestion vacuole
48) A bacterium living in an underground septic tank thrives by absorbing organic compounds
from decomposing wastes. What is it?
A) a chemoheterotroph / saprophyte
B) a chemoautotroph
C) a photoautotroph
D) a photoheterotroph
49) Intestinal gas is evidence of active ________ in one's digestive tract.
A) thermophiles
B) methanogens
C) yeast cultures
D) halophiles
50) Cyanobacteria
A) are chemoautotrophs.
B) are photosynthetic archaea.
C) are eukaryotes and are the earliest type of algae.
D) are the only prokaryotes with plantlike oxygen-generating photosynthesis.