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CONTENTS
Sr.
No.
Subject
Page No.
1.
Measurement
1-6
2.
Scalars and Vectors
7 - 14
3.
Projectile Motion
15 - 24
4.
Force
25 - 30
5.
Friction in Solids and Liquids
31 - 38
6.
Sound Waves
39 - 45
7.
Thermal Expansion
46 - 53
8.
Refraction of Light
54 - 61
9.
Ray Optics
62 - 77
10.
Electrostatics
78 - 88
11.
Current Electricity
89 - 96
12.
Magnetic Effect of Electric Current
97 - 106
13.
Magnetism
107 - 112
14.
Electromagnetic Waves
113 - 121
01
MEASUREMENTS
LEVEL - 1
1.
Which of the following sets can enter into the list of fundamental quantities in any system of units?
(a) length, mass and velocity
(b) length, time and velocity
(c) mass, time and velocity
(d) length, time and mass
2.
Unit consisting of seven fundamental units, two supplementary units and large number of derived units
___________ are units.
(a)
CGS
(b) MKS
(c) FPS
(d) SI
3.
Which of the following is not the unit of time ?
(a) leap year
(c) lunar month
4.
The physical quantity denoted by
(a)
(c)
5.
6.
(b)
(d)
microsecond
light year
mass × preasure
is
density
Force
Angular momentum
(b)
(d)
Momentum
Work
Which of the following is not the name of a physical quantity ?
(a) kilogram
(b) impulse
(c) energy
(d)
density
The physical quantity having the same unit in all the systems of units is
(a) length
(b) time
(c) mass
(d)
all
7.
If year is taken as the unit of time and velocity of light as the unit of velocity then unit of length is
(a) kilometre
(b) metre
(c) light year
(d) radius of the earth
8.
The physical quantity having the unit N Kg−1 is
(a) Acceleration
(b) Force
(c)
Velocity
(d)
Mass
Unit of energy can be written as
(a) gm cm s−2 .
(b) gm cm s−1
(c)
gm cm2 s−2
(d)
gm cm−1 s−2
Which of the following is not a unit of energy?
(a) electron volt
(b) kilowatt hour
(c)
watt sec
(d)
kilowatt
The unit of impulse is the same as that of
(a) moment of force
(c) rate of change of linear momentum
(b)
(d)
linear momentum
force
A pressure of 106 dyne/cm2 is equivalent to
(a) 105 N/m2
(b) 104 N/m2
(c)
106 N/m2
(d)
107 N/m2
A micron = X cm. Then X =
(a) 10−4
(b) 10−6
(c)
10−8
(d)
10−10
SI unit of luminous intensity is
(a) Lumen
(b) Candela
(c)
Lux
(d)
Watt
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
Std : XI
15.
16.
Dyne-sec is the unit of
(a) momentum
(c) work
(b)
(d)
force
angular momentum
A unitless quantity
(a) does not exist
(c) never has non zero dimension
(b)
(d)
may have a non zero dimension
always has a non zero dimension
17.
The pair of physical quantities of which one is scalar the other is vector but possess same dimensional
formulae are
(a) work and energy
(b) impulse and linear momentum
(c) speed and velocity
(d) force and energy
18.
Select the pair of quantities which have different dimensional formulae,
(a) Stress, pressure
(b) torque, work
(c) energy, torque
(d) linear momentum, angular momentum
19.
Out of the following, the quantity which has a unit but no dimensions is
(a) coefficient of friction
(b) relative density
(c) linear strain
(d) plane angle
20.
Which of the following is the dimensional formula for the specific heat?
(a) [M0 L2 T2 K−1]
(b) [M0 L T2 K−1]
2 3 −1
(c) [M L T K ]
(d) [M L2 T2 K−1]
21.
Unit of electric charge is
(a) faraday
(b)
volt
(c)
ohm
(d) coulomb
N/Kg may be unit of
(a) momentum
velocity
(c)
force
(d)
acceleration
22.
(b)
23.
Which of the following is not a fundamental quantity?
(a) mass
(b) temperature
(c) luminious intensity
(d) frequency
24.
‘joule’ is SI unit of
(a) physical work
(b) energy
Power has dimensions
(a) [M1 L2 T2 ]
(b)
25.
26.
[M 1 L 2 T 3 ]
(c)
both ‘a’ & ‘b’
(d)
none of these
(c)
[M1 L2 T3]
(d)
[M−1 L−2 T2]
Which of the following pair has same dimensions
(a) force and pressure
(b)
(c) energy and power
(d)
potential energy and work
work and momentum
27.
Which of the following is dimensionless physical quantity
(a) temperature
(b) density
(c) angle
(d) electric potential
28.
[M1 L1 T−1] are the dimensions of
(a) pressure
(b) velocity
29.
(c) displacement
Which of following is universally accepted system of units?
(a) MKS system
(b) CGS system
(c) FPS system
(d)
momentum
(d)
SI system
2
Measurements
30.
SI system of unit is mostly preferred because
(a) it is best system
(b) it consist of seven fundamental units
(c) it fascillate link between scientific informations
(d) it is famous system
31.
Ideal unit is a unit which is
(a) well defined,
(c) universally accepted
32.
33.
(b)
(d)
invariable
all above
Which of following statement is correct
(a) errors and mistakes can be avoided
(b)
(c) mistakes can be avoided but errors can not (d)
errors can be avoided
mistakes can not be avoided
One micron is related to centimetre as
(a) 1 micron = 10−8 cm
(c) 1 micron = 10−5 cm
1 micron = 10−6 cm
1 micron = 10−4 cm
(b)
(d)
34.
The dimensional formula for impulse is the same as the dimensional formula for
(a) momentum
(b) force
(c) rate of change in momentum
(d) acceleration0
35.
Dimensions of velocity gradient are the same as that of
(a) frequency
(b) time period
(c) acceleration
(d)
momentum
Dimensional formula for torque is
( a ) M L 2 T −1
( b ) M L T −2
(d)
M L2T−2
According to Laplace's law in sound the dimension formula for y is
(a) M1 L2 T0
(b) M0 L1 T2
(c) M0 L0 T0
(d)
M1 L1 T0
1 meter is equal to (in A0.
(a) 10−5
(b)
10−6
(c) 10−8
(d)
10−10
1 micron µ. is equal to
(a) 10−9 m
(b)
10 −12 m
(c)
10 −6 m
(d)
10−15 m
1 nanometer is equal to
(a) 10−9 mm
(b)
10−6 cm
(c)
10−7 cm
(d)
10−9 cm
The dimensional formula [L2 M1 T−2] represents
(a) Pressure
(b) Force
(c)
Energy
(d)
Power
The dimensions of impulse is
(a) [L1 M1 T−2
(b) [L1 M1 T−1]
[L2 M1 T−1]
(d)
[L2 M1 T−2]
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
(c)
(c)
M L T−1
43.
Which of the following pairs of physical quantities do not have the same dimensions?
(a) Pressure and modulus of elasticity
(b) Impulse & linear momentum
(c) Torque and angular momentum
(d) Work & energy
44.
Which of the following pairs of physical quantities have same dimensions?
(a) Force and power
(b) Impulse and momentum
(c) Latent heat and specific heat
(d) Work and power
45.
Which of the following physical quantities is not represented by the dimensiona formula [L1 M1 T−2] ?
(a) Pressure
(b) Stress
(c) Young's modulus
(d) Power
3
Std : XI
46.
47.
Find the order of magnitude of the day. 1 day = 86400 sec
(a) 105
(b) 104
(c) 106
(d)
Find the order of magnitude of the density of the body which is 2.9 × 10−3 kg/m
(a) 10−3
(b) 10 4
(c) 10+3
(d)
107
10− 2
LEVEL - 2
1.
Unit is always written in ___________ form.
(a) singular
(b) pural
(c)
double
(d)
none
2.
Physical quantities which do not depend upon any other quantity for their measurement are ___________
(a) derived quantity
(b) fundamental quantity
(c) ystem of units
(d) none
3.
Physical quantities which depend upon other quantities for their measurement are ___________
(a) system of units
(b) fundamental quantity
(c) derived quantity
(d) none
4.
Fundamental quantity are related with ___________ quantities.
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
5.
6.
7.
8
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
(d)
9
Physical quantity defined as power of fundamental unit are ___________
(a) dimensions
(b) specifications
(c) analysis
(d)
none
Errors caused due use of faulty instrument is ___________
(a) systematic error (b) random error
(c) instrumental error (d)
absolute error
Difference between true value and measured value is ___________
(a) random error
(b) absolute error
(c) relative error
(d)
mean error
Errors which occur due to minute change in conditions are ___________
(a) random error
(b) systematic error
(c) relative error
(d)
absolute error
Unit of electric potential is ___________
(a) Ohm
(b) ampere
(c)
coulomb
(d)
volt
[L1M1T−1] are dimension of ___________
(a) velocity
(b) momentum
(c)
pressure
(d)
displacement
Universally accepted unit is ___________ system
(a) CGS
(b) SI
(c)
MKS
(d)
FPS
___________ is dimensionless physical quantity.
(a) density
(b) current
(c)
power
(d)
angle
Length of day is ___________
(a) 5 × l014s
(b) 9 × l04s
(c)
2 × 109
(d)
1 × 1011s
Light year = ___________
(a) 9 × l09 m
(b)
(c)
8.85 × 10−11 m
(d)
6.24 × 10−34 m
9.46 × l015 m
4
Measurements
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
Solar day = ___________
(a) 86000 s
(b)
96400 s
(c)
86400 s
(d)
76400 s
Radius of earth = ___________
(a) 6 × 1012 m
(b) 6 × 106 m
(c)
9 × 103m
(d)
4 × 1016m
Mass of electron = ___________
(a) 1.6 × 10−19 kg
(b) 2 × 10−27 kg
(c)
9 × 10−31 kg
(d)
5 × 10−17 kg
___________ has same dimensions.
(a) impulse, momentum
(c) pressure, force
(b)
(d)
power, energy
speed, acceleration
Dimensions of angular frequency are ___________
(a) [LOM0T1]
(b) [LOMOT−]
(c)
[L1M°T–1]
(d)
[L1M0T1]
___________ has no unit
(a) surface tension (b)
(c)
strain
(d)
frequency
(b)
(d)
angle
Radius of gyration
angle
___________ quantity is not dimensionless.
(a) strain
(c) Reynold's number
Dimensions of radian per second are ___________
(a) [L0M0T1]
(b) [L°M1T°]
(c)
[L°M°T–l]
(d)
none
50 feet = ___________ mm.
(a) 15240
(b) 285
500
(d)
1786
Age of universe is 5 × l017s its age in years is ___________
(a) 158 × 106
(b) 158 × 109
(c) 158 × 10010
(d)
158 × 108
1 hp = ___________ watt.
(a) 756
(b)
(d)
736
Power of lens P = 1
(a)
1
–2
[L M°T ]
f
766
(c)
(c)
746
where f is focal length then its dimensions are ___________
(b)
[L−1M0T−1]
(c)
[L−1MT0]
(d)
[L−1M0T1]
27.
Time taken by electron to go from one energy band to other energy band is 108 s then time in nano second
is ___________
(a) 4 ns
(b) 100 ns
(c) 1 ns
(d) 10 ns
28.
1 ev = 1.6 × 10−19 J. Binding energy of H atom is 13.6 ev then energy in joules = ___________
(b) 21.76 × 10−19J
(c) 10 × 10−19J
(d) 8.5 × 10−I9J
(a) 13.6 × 10−19J
29.
Surface tension T = F/L then its dimensions are
(b) [L0M1T–1]
(a) [L°M1T−2]
5
(c)
[L°M1T2]
(d)
[LoM1T1]
Std : XI
− Answer Key −
LEVEL - 1
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
d
b
d
d
c
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
d
a
d
c
b
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
d
a
d
d
c
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
d
b
c
a
b
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
a
a
b
a
d
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
b
a
b
d
a
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
c
d
c
c
a
8.
18.
28.
38.
a
d
d
d
9.
19.
29.
39.
c
b
d
c
10.
20.
30.
40.
d
a
c
c
3.
13.
23.
c
b
a
4.
14.
24.
c
b
d
5.
15.
25.
a
c
c
6.
16.
26.
c
b
c
7.
17.
27.
b
c
d
8.
18.
28.
a
a
b
9.
19.
29.
d
b
a
10.
20.
b
c
LEVEL - 2
1.
11.
21.
a
b
d
2.
12.
22.
b
d
c
6
02
SCALARS AND
VECTORS
LEVEL - 1
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
Physical quantities which have magnitude only are _________
(a) vectors
(b) scalar
(c) zero vectors
(d)
unit vector
_________ is not a scalar quantity.
(a) momentum
(b) temperature
(d)
time
(c)
length
Physical quantities which have magnitude as well as direction are _________
(a) scalars
(b) vector
(c) force
(d)
pressure
Vectors having unit magnitude are _________
(a) zero
(b) negative
collinear
(c)
unit
(d)
Vectors which are parallel and lie on same line are _________
(a) parallel vectors (b) collinear vector
(c) position vectors (d)
unit vector
Vectors which are parallel and lie in same plane are _________
(a) collinear vectors (b) coplanar vectors
(c) co-initial vector (d)
component of vectors
_________ is a vector quantity.
(a) Electric charge
(c) Electrostatic potential
(b)
(d)
G G
G G
The angle between i + j and i + k is _________
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c)
time
force
45°
(d)
90°
(d)
G G
a⊥b
JG
JG
JG JG
If A =i +j + k value of B = _________ for which A + B is unit vector.
ˆ
ˆ
(a)
−(ˆj + k)
(b) −(ˆj − k)
(c) −ˆj + kˆ
(d)
ˆj + kˆ
G G
G G
Condition for vectors (a + b) and (a − b) to be parallel is _________
G G
G G
G G
(a) | a |=| b |
(b) a ≠ b
(c)
a || b
G G
G
G G G
G G G G G G
If a, b and c are unit vectors with −a − b − c = 0 then a ⋅ b + b ⋅ c + c ⋅ a = _________
3
(d) − 3
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c)
2
2
G
G
G G
If vectors x and y are greater than one. Magnitude of x × y cannot be _________
(a) equal to xy
(b) less than xy
(c) greater than xy (d) equal to x/y
Angle between ˆi + ˆj + kˆ and ˆj is _________
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c)
60°
(d)
none
G
A force f = 6iˆ − 8jˆ + 10kˆ units produces an acceleration of 1 m/s2 in a body the mass of body is
_________
(a) 10 kg
(b) 10 / 2 kg
(c)
5 / 2 kg
(d) 200 kg
Std : XI
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
JG JG JG JG JG JG
JG
If A = B + C, B = C + A then vector C = _________
JG JG
JG JG
(b) B + A
(c)
(a) A + B
JG JG
A−B
(d)
null vector
Resultant of two vectors makes an angle 60° and 30° with them and its magnitude is 40 units. Magnitude
of two vectors are _________
(b) 20 units, 20 units
(a) 20 units, 0 3 units
(c) 20 units, 40 units
(d) 20 units, 30 units
JG
JG
Two vectors A and B are perpendicular to each other then _________
JG JG
JG JG
JG JG
(a) A + B = 0
(b) A − B = 0
(c)
A⋅ B = 0
(d)
JG JG
A×B= 0
JG JG
JG JG
Angle between the direction P × Q and Q × P is _________
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d)
180°
G
A force f = 3iˆ + 3jˆ + 3kˆ N acts on a body to produce a displacement 2iˆ + 3jˆ − 3kˆ . The work done is
_________
(a) 15 J
(b) 6 J
(c) 20 J
(d) 12 J
The vectors −6iˆ + 9ˆj + 3kˆ and 2iˆ − 3jˆ − 3kˆ are _________
(a) parallel
(b) perpendicular
(c) inclined at 60°
Pressure is _________ quantity.
(a) scalar
(c) both scalar and vector
(b)
(d)
(d)
inclined at 30°
vector
neither scalar nor vector
22.
An insect moves in circular path of radius 6 m then maximum amplitude of displacement of insect is
_________
(a) 6 m
(b) 6rcm
(c) 12 Tim
(d) 12m
23.
A man travels from A to B, B to C and C to D. The magnitude of displacement of man is 10 m distance
travelled by man is _________
C
B
(a) l0 m
1m
(b) 2 m
1m
(c) 12 m
A
D
(d) 7 m
24.
Two forces of magnitude 3 N and 4 N are acted on a body. Ratio of minimum to maximum magnitude of
resultant force is _________
(a) 3/4
(b) 4/3
(c) 1/7
(d) none
25.
26.
27.
28.
G G G G
G
G
If | a + b |=| a − b | then angle between a and b is _________
(a) 0°
(b) 60°
(c) 45°
(d)
90°
Two vectors of same magnitude are acted on a point making an angle 60° then resultant of them
_________
(a) increase
(b) decreases
(c) same
(d) none
JG JG
JG JG
Angle between A × B and A + B is _________
(a) 180°
(b) 90°
(c)
JG JG
JG JG
JG JG
If A × B = 0 and B× C = 0 then A × C = _________
(a) zero vector
(b) unit vector
(c)
0°
(d)
zero scalar
(d)
60°
8
Scalars and Vectors
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
9
JG JG JG
JG
JG
JG
JG
JG
Two vectors A and B are such that A + B = R and |A |2 + | B |2 =| R |2 then _________
JG
JG
JG
JG
(b) A is perpendicular to B
(a) A is parallel to B
JG
JG
JG
JG
(c) A is antiparallel to B
(d) A and B are equal in magnitude
Two vectors of magnitude 6 m and 8 m makes an angle 10° and 100° respectively with X axis. The
resultant vector is _________
(a) 10 m
(b) 14 m
(c) 2 m
(d) none
G
A force F = 3iˆ + 2ˆj + 4kˆ units displaces an object from a point P(1, 1, 1) to another point Q (2, 0, 3). The
work done by force is _________
(a) 10J
(b) 12J
(c) 13J
(d) 9J
Maximum and minimum resultant of two forces are in ratio 5 : 2 then ratio of forces is _________
(a) 4 : 1
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 3 : 7
(d) 7 : 3
JG JG
JG
JG
P+Q
If JG JG = 1 then angle between P and Q is _________
| P−Q |
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d)
30°
Four forces, 30 N from east, 20 N from north, 50 N from west and 40N from south are acted upon a body,
the resultant of force is _________
20 2 N 60° north east
(b) 20 2 N 45° south west
(a)
20 2 N 45° south east
(d) 20 2 N 45° north east
(c)
JG
JJG
JG
Forces F1 = −3iˆ + 4ˆj N, F2 = −5k N, and F3 = −3iˆ − 4ˆj + 5kˆ N, are acted upon the body the direction of
resultant is _________
(a) along x axis
(b) along z axis
(c) along y axis
(d) none
G
The particle r = 3iˆ + 4t 2 j − t 3 kˆ is displaced in time interval 1 to 3s then resultant displacement is
_________
(b) ˆj − kˆ
(c)
3iˆ + 4ˆj − kˆ
(d) 9iˆ + 8jˆ − kˆ
(a) 32ˆj − 26kˆ
JG
JG
Unit vector perpendicular to vector P = 3iˆ + ˆj and Q = 2i − ˆj − 5kˆ is _________
ˆi − 3jˆ + 5kˆ
3iˆ + ˆj
2iˆ − 3jˆ − 5kˆ
3iˆ + ˆj − 5kˆ
(a) ±
±
(b) ±
(c)
(d) ±
11
11
11
11
G
G
ˆ N is acting on a particle with position vector r = 6iˆ + 3jˆ − 2kˆ the torque about
A force F = (2iˆ + 3jˆ − 2k)
origin is _________
(a) 4iˆ − kˆ
(b)
3iˆ + 2ˆj + 12kˆ
(c) 8iˆ + 6ˆj − 3kˆ
(d)
12iˆ + 9ˆj − 2kˆ
JG JG
JG JG
If A ⋅ B = 0 and A × B = 0 then _________ is true.
(a) θ = 0
(b) A = 0 B = 0
(c)
A ≠ 0, B = 0
(d)
A=B=θ=0
Magnitude of vector ˆi + 2ˆj + kˆ is _________
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c)
2
(d)
0
ˆ ⋅ (2iˆ + 3jˆ − k)
ˆ _________
(2iˆ + 3jˆ − k)
(b) θ = 30°
(a) θ = 0°
(c)
θ = 60°
(d)
θ = 90°
Std : XI
LEVEL - 2
1.
The resultant of two forces at right angles is 5N. When the angle between them i: 120°, the resultant
is 13 . Then the forces are
(a)
(b)
(c) 3 N, 4 N
(d)
10N, 15N
20N, 5N
12N, 13N
2.
The sum of the magnitudes of two forces acting on a particle is 18 N and the magnitude of their
resultant is 12 N. If the resultant is at 90°. With the force of smaller magnitude, then magnitudes of
those forces will be
(a) 6 N, 16 N
(b) 4 N, 14 N
(c) 5 N, 13 N
(d) 8 N, 10 N
3.
Two vectors F1 and F2 each of magnitude F are Inclined to each other such that the resultant is
JJG
JJG
JJG
3F . Then the resultant of F1 and − F2 is
equal to
(a)
4.
F
4iˆ + 3jˆ
(b)
π/3
(b)
8.
(d)
2F
12iˆ + 16jˆ
16iˆ + 8jˆ
(c)
(d)
3iˆ + 4jˆ
π/2
π/4
(c)
(d)
π/6
JG
If the resultant of the vectors ( i + 2 j − k),( i − j + 2k) and C is a unit vector also the YJG
axis, then C =
(a) −2i + k
7.
3F
(c)
JG JG JG
JG
A = i + 2 j − k and B = i + j − 2k . Then angle between A and B is
(a)
6.
2F
(b)
Vector parallel to 6iˆ + 8jˆ and having a magnitude of 5
(a)
5.
JJG
JG
(b)
JG
−2i − k
JG
2i + k
(c)
JG
JG
JG
JG
2i − k
(d)
225
JG
If P = i + 2 j − 4k and Q = i + 2 j − k then (P + Q) ⋅ (P − Q) is
(a) 10
(c) 20
(b) 15
JG
(d)
JG
If A = 5i − 2 j + 3k and B = 2i + j + 2k component of B along A is
14
38
(a)
(b)
28
38
28
38
(c)
14
(d)
38
9.
A constant force of (2i + 3 j + 4k) newton produces a displacement of (3i + 2 j + 3k) met re .
Then work done
(a) 6J
(b) 12J
(c) 24J
(d) 48 J
10.
I f A = i + j + 2k i s p e r p e n d i c u l a r t o 2i + yj − 3k t h e n y =
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
JG
(d)
12
11.
A force (4 i − 5 j + 3k) newton is acting at a point ( i + 2 j + 3k) m. The torque acting a
point (3i − 2 j − 3k)m is
(a) (42i + 30 j − 6k)Nm
(b) (42i + 30 j + 6k)
(c) (42i − 30 j + 6k)Nm
(d) zero
12.
Vector subtraction obeys
(a) Associative property
(c) Commutative property
(b)
(d)
Distributive property
All the above
10
Scalars and Vectors
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
Choose the only scalar quantity
(a) Force
(b) mass
(c)
velocity
(d)
impulse
The magnitude of a vector cannot be
(a) unity
(b) positive
(c)
negative
(d)
zero
The component of a vector is
(a) always less than its magnitude
(c) always equal to its magnitude
(b)
(d)
always greater than its magnitude
none
If a vector is along the horizontal direction, its vertical component is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d)
none
A vector is not changed if
(a) it is divided by a scalar
(c) it is slide parallel to itself
(b)
(d)
it is multiplied by a scalar
none
Product of two vectors
(a) always results a scalar
(c) is not possible
(b)
(d)
always results a vector
may result a scalar or a vector
19.
Magnitude of cross product of two vectors
(a) is maximum if they are parallel to each other I
(b) is minimum if they are perpendicular to each other
(c) is always equal to product of their magnitudes
(d) is maximum if they are perpendicular to each other
20.
If P = 2i − j + k & Q = i + 2j − k then P·Q is
(a) 5
(b) 3
JG
JG
JG JG
(c)
0
(d)
2
21.
If the angle between two forces increases, the magnitude of their resultant
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) first decreases and then increases
(d) remains unchanged
22.
If component of one vector in the direction of another vector is zero, then those two vectors
(a) are parallel to each other
(b) are perpendicular to each other
(c) are opposite to each other
(d) are coplanar vectors
23.
If the magnitude of addition of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of subtraction m of those two
vectors
(a) Those two vectors are parallel to each other
(b) Those two vectors are collinear
(c) Those two vectors are perpendicular to each other
(d) We can decide nothing
24.
If the angular displacement is large, it is a scalar quantity because
(a) its magnitude for large values cannot be calculated
(b) it will not obey the associative law of vector addition
(c) it will not obey the commutative law of vector addition
(d) all the above
25.
The resultant of two vectors will be maximum if they are
(a) equal vectors
(b) parallel vectors
(c) orthogonal vectors
(d) coplanar vectors
11
Std : XI
26.
27.
Two vectors having different magnitudes
(a) have their directions opposite
(c) cannot have their resultant zero
JG
may have their resultant zero
none of these
JG
(
JG JG
)
If A and B are given vectors and 9 be angle between then A × B = .....
A B cos θ
2
(a)
28.
(b)
(d)
(b)
JG
2
AB
(c)
A B Sin θ
(d)
A2 B sin θ
(c)
JG JG
P× Q = 0
(d)
none of these
JG
Two vectors P and Q are at right angle then
JG JG
P+Q=0
(a)
(b)
JG
JG
(P − Q ) = 0
29.
Two forces acting at point simultaneously has magnitude 12 N and 5 N and their resultant has
magnitude 13N. What will be angle between two given vectors?
(a) 0°
(b) 30°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
30.
If |A + B|=|A − B| and A and B are non zero vectors then
JG
(a)
(c)
JG
JG
JG
JG JG
A=B
JG
JG
A and B are parallel vectors
(b)
(d)
JG
JG
|A| =|B|
JG
JG
A is perpendicular to B
31.
Which of the following cannot be resultant of forces of 5 N and I O N ?
(a) 2 N
(b) 15 N
(c) 7N
(c) 5 N
32.
Which of the following is scalar quantity?
(a) momentum
(b) electric current
(c)
velocity
(d)
displacement
33.
The component of vector has magnitude
(a) always less than magnitude of vector
(b) always greater than magnitude of vector
(c) may be greater or less than magnitude of vector
(d) may be less or equal to magnitude of vector
34.
If two vectors A and B are equal vectors then which of the following is not correct
JG JG
JG JG
JG
JG
JG JG JG JG
A=B
(b) |A| =|B|
(c)
A.B = BA
(d) A + B = A + B
(a)
35.
If A.B = 0 and A × B = 0 then conditions which of the following is necessary
(b) A = 0 and B = 0 (c) A = 0 or B = 0 (d) A = 0, B = 0, θ = 0
(a) θ = 0
36.
JG
JG JG
JG
JG JG
JG JG
JG JG
|A.B|2 +|A × B|2 = ...
(a)
zero
G
(b)
G
G
A2B2 sin2 cos2 θ
(c)
A2 B2
(d)
AB
G
37. Force F = 6i − 8 j + 10k Newton produces an acceleration of 7 ×1.414 m/s2 in body The mass of
body would be
(a)
500kg
(b) 20 Kg
(c) 10Kg
(d) 5 2kg
38. Which of following is incorrect
JG
JG G
JG JG JG JG
G
(a) A × B = B × A
(b) A × B ≠ B × A
JG JG JG
JG JG JG
JG JG
JG JG
(c) (A × (B × C) = (A × B) × C
(d) A ·B = +B.A
39.
The sum vector of two vectors having magnitude 50 N and 100 N can never by
(a) 120 N
(b) 50 N
(c) 40 N
(d) 80 N
40.
To have resultant of two vectors maximum, what should be angle between them
(c) π radian
(d) 2 π radian
(a) 0
(b) π/2 radian
12
Scalars and Vectors
41.
42.
43.
44.
JG JG
JG JG
The angle between (A × B) and (B × A ) is
(a) zero
(b) π/2 radian
(c)
Which one of the following quantities is a scalar ?
(a) Force
(b)
(c) Electrostatic potential
(d)
G
G
π radian
(d)
2 π radian
Electric field
Linear momentum
G
G
A vector is represented by P = 3i + j + 2k . Its length in the XY plane is
(a) 2
(b)
5
(c)
10
(d)
G G
G
G G
15
G G
Three vector A, B and C satisfy the relation, A.B = 0,A.C = 0 the vector A is parallel to
G
B
(a)
(b)
JG
C
(c)
JG JG
B×C
(d)
JG JG
B.C
JG
JG G
work done by a force is defined by w = F·s . It is found that the work done is zero, even if F
G
s are not equal to zero. From this we conclude that
JG
G
F and s are acting in the same direction
JG
G
F and s are acting in the opposite direction .
JG
G
F and s are acting at right angles
JG
G
F and s are acting at an angle of 60°
45.
The
and
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
46.
The magnitude of the vector product of two vectors is 3 times their scalar product. The angle
between the two vectors is
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
47.
When a body has displacement of P and Q in the same direction along a straight line, then the
resultant displacement of the body is
JG JG
JG JG
JG JG
JG JG
(a) P − Q
(b) P + Q
(c) P.Q
(d) P × Q
48.
Two physical quantities, one of which is vector and other is scalar, having same dimensions are
(a) work & energy
(b) work & torque
(c) pressure & power
(d) Impulse & momentum
49.
Which pair of following displacements cannot give a resultant displacement of 2m?
(a) 1 m & 1 m
(b) 2 m & 4 m
(c) 1 m & 3 m
(d) 1 m & 4 m
50.
If the magnitude of the resultant of two forces F and F acting at a point be also F, then the angle
between the two forces is
(a) 0°
(b) 60°
(c)
90°
(d) 120°
51.
JG
JG
JG JG
JG JG
JG
JG
|P + Q|=|P − Q| then the angle between the vectors P and Q is
(a)
0
(b)
π/4
(c)
JG JG
π/2
JG
(d)
π
52.
If the magnitude of the vectors P, Q and R are 12, 5 and 13 units respectively and vector P+ vector
Q = vector R then angle between P & Q is
(a) 0
(b) π
(c) π/2
(d) π/4
53.
If |P + Q|=|P − Q| and |Q| is finite then
JG
(a)
(c)
13
JG
JG
JG
JG
JG
JG
P is parallel to Q
JG
JG
P is perpendicular to Q
(b)
(d)
JG JG
P=Q
JG
JG
|P|=|Q|
Std : XI
54.
55.
JG JG
57.
58.
JG
(c)
π/2
(d)
π
JG
(c)
JG JG
P+Q = 0
(d)
JG JG
P−Q = 0
JG JG
P.Q = 0
(c)
π/2
(d)
π
If I |P × Q|= P.Q then angle between P and Q is
(a) 0
(b) π/4
(c)
π/2
(d)
π
(b)
JG JG
P×Q = 0
JG JG
JG
JG
If P × Q = PQ then angle between P and Q is
(a) 0
(b) π/4
JG JG
JG JG
JG
JG
JG JG
JG
JG JG
JG JG
JG JG
P, Q and R and are non-zero vectors and P. Q = 0 and Q.R = 0 then magnitude of P. R is
(a)
59.
JG
If vectors P and Q are perpendicular to each other, then
(a)
56.
JG
If P.Q = PQ then angle between P and Q is
(a) 0
(b) π/4
PR
(b)
PQ
(c)
QR
(d)
P+Q
(c)
4
(d)
1
G
P = i + 2j − 2k then its magnitude is
(a)
5
(b)
3
− Answer Key −
LEVEL - 1
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
b
d
a
d
a
2.
12.
22.
32.
a
c
c
d
3.
13.
23.
33.
b
d
c
c
4.
14.
24.
34.
c
b
a
b
5.
15.
25.
35.
b
d
d
d
6.
16.
26.
36.
b
a
c
c
7.
17.
27.
37.
a
c
b
c
8.
18.
28.
38.
a
d
c
b
9.
19.
29.
39.
c
b
b
c
10.
20.
30.
40.
a
b
c
c
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
53.
a
b
c
d
c
c
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
54.
d
c
c
d
c
a
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
55.
a
a
b
c
c
a
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
56.
b
c
c
c
c
c
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
57.
b
c
c
c
b
b
8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
58.
d
d
d
c
b
a
9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
59.
c
d
d
c
d
b
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
b
c
d
a
d
LEVEL - 2
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
51.
c
a
b
a
c
c
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
52.
c
c
b
b
c
c
14
03
PROJECTILE
MOTION
LEVEL - 1
1.
If distance covered by a particle is zero, what can you say about its displacement?
(a) It mayor may not be zero
(b) It cannot be zero
(c) It is negative
(d) It must be zero
2.
The numerical ratio of average velocity to average speed is
(a) always less than one
(b) always equal to one
(c) always more than one
(d) equal to less than one
3.
Of the following the correct statement is
(a) acceleration due to gravity in vacuum is the same irrespective of the size and mass of the body
(b) acceleration due to gravity in vacuum depends on the mass of the body
(c) acceleration due to gravity in vacuum is absent
(d) acceleration due to gravity is zero at poles
4.
For a freely falling body, the nature of velocity time graph is
(a) a straight line passing through origin
(b) a straight line with positive Y-axis intercept
(c) a parabola
(d) an ellipse
5.
Which of the following decreases in motion along a straight line with constant retardation
(a) speed
(b) acceleration
(c) displacement
(d) none of the above
6.
The acceleration of a body has the direction of
(a) displacement
(b)
(c) change in velocity
(d)
velocity
none of these
7.
A particle in a plane with a constant acceleration in a direction different from the initial velocity. The path
of the particle is
(a) straight line
(b) arc of a circle
(c) parabola
(d) ellipse
8.
If a body starts from a point and returns back to the same point, then its
(a) average velocity is zero but not average speed
(b) average speed is zero, but not average velocity
(c) both average speed and velocity are zero
(d) average speed and velocity depend upon the path
9.
If a body has uniform speed, it
(a) has uniform velocity
(c) has uniform acceleration
(b)
(d)
has zero acceleration
may have acceleration
10.
Two stones of different masses are dropped simultaneously from the top of a building
(a) larger store hits the ground earlier
(b) smaller stone hits the ground earlier
(c) which of the stones reach the ground earlier depends on the composition of the stone
(d) both the stones reach the ground simultaneously
11.
Velocity - time graph for a freely falling body is a straight line with
(a) positive slope (b)
negative slope
(c) zero slope
(d)
none
Std : XI
12.
An iron ball and a wooden ball of the same radius are dropped from the same height in vacuum then
(a) iron ball reaches the ground earlier
(b) wooden ball reaches the ground earlier
(c) both reach the ground in the same time
(d) none
13.
A body is projected vertically up from the ground. On reaching the greatest height,
(a) its velocity is zero and acceleration is not zero
(b) its acceleration is zero and velocity is not zero
(c) both velocity and acceleration are non zero
(d) both velocity and acceleration are zero
14.
A body is projected vertically up from the ground. Distance travelled by it in the last second of its
upward journey is
(a) more if the initial velocity is more
(b) more if the initial velocity is less
(c) independent of the initial velocity
(d) none
15.
Shape of displacement - time graph for a body projected vertically up
(a) curve with constant slope
(b) curve with positive slope
(c) curve with decreasing slope
(d) curve with increasing slope
16.
If a body is projected horizontally from the top of a tower, the time taken by it to reach the ground
depends upon
(a) velocity of projection
(b) height of the tower
(c) both velocity of projection and height of the tower
(d) neither of these two
17.
For a projectile, the value which depends on the vertical component of velocity of projection.
(a) Time of flight (b) Maximum height (c) Neither
(d) Both
18.
A man walls 4m to the north, 12m to west and finally climbs up a vertical pole upto a height of
3m. Then his displacement and distance travelled by him are respectively
(a) 19m, 13m
(b) 13m, 15m
(c) 13m, 13m
(d) 13m, 19m
19.
A person walks a distance of 30m towards west with a speed of 2ms −1 and 40 m towards north with
a speed of 1.5ms−1. Then average speed and average velocity for his journey.
(a)
6
42
ms−1 , ms−1 (b)
5
25
42
6
ms−1 , ms−1
25
5
(c)
20ms−1 , 25 ms−1 (d)
25 ms−1 , 20ms−1
20.
A stone is dropped into water from a bridge 44.1 m above the water. Another stone in thrown
vertically downward 1 second later. Both strike the water simultaneously. Then initial speed of the
second stone is
(a) 24.5 ms−1
(b) 4.9 ms−1
(c) 9.8 ms−1
(d) 12.25 ms−1
21.
A body is allowed to fall from a height of 100 m. After 2 seconds if acceleration due to gravity
vanishes, the total time of its fall is (g = 10 ms −2 .
(a) 3 s
(b) 4 s
(c) 6s
(d) 8s
22.
When a body is projected vertically up from the ground, its velocity is reduced to 1/3 rd of its initial value
at height y above the groun(d) Then maximum height reached by the body is
(a) 3y
(b) 9y
(c) 8y/9
(d) 9y/8
23.
The range of a projectile thrown at an angle 6 with the ground is R. The time of its flight is T. Then tan θ =
(a)
gT2
2R
(b)
gT2
2R
(c)
gR2
2T
(d)
gR2
T
16
Projectile Motion
24.
The displacement time graph of a body moving along a straight line is as shown. Which of the following
graphs represents the velocity-time graph for the motion of that body?
v
1
2
3
t
4
v
v
(a)
1
2
4
3
(b)
t
2
t
4
3
v
v
(c)
1
1
2
3
4
t
(d)
1
2
3
4
t
25.
The motion of a particle is given by y = 40 t − 5t2 and x = 40 3 t where x and y are in metre and t in
seconds. Then initial velocity of the body and angle made by it to the horizontal are
(a) 40 ms−1 60° (b)
40 ms−1, 30° (c) 80 ms−1, 60°
(d) 80 ms−1, 30°
26.
A gun throws a shell with a muzzle speed of 98 ms−1. When the gun is elevated at 45°, the range is observed
as 900 m. Due to air. resistance its range is decreased by
(a) 40 m
(b) 80 m
(c) 120 m
(d) 160 m
27.
Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are dropped from heights h1 and h2 respectively. Time taken by them to
reach the ground t1 and t2 are in the ratio
(a) h1 : h2
(b) m1 . h2 : m2 h1
(c)
h1 : h 2
(d) m1 h1 : m2 h2
28.
A body thrown up with certain velocity reaches maximum height 100 m. Another body of double mass
thrown up with double the initial velocity then maximum height to which that body reached is
(a) 100m
(b) 200m
(c) 50m
(d) 400 m
29.
Body can not have
(a) constant speed and variable velocity
(c) constant velocity and variable speed
(b)
(d)
acceleration and constant speed
nonzero speed and zero acceleration
The slope of position time graph gives
(a) velocity
(c) uniform acceleration
(b)
(d)
acceleration
displacement
30.
31.
17
Car travels one position to another with velocity 30 Km/hr and returns with velocity 40 Km/hr. The
average velocity of the car is
(a) 35 Km/hr
(b) 70 Km/hr
(c) 10 Km/hr
(d) zero
Std : XI
32.
A uniformly accelerated particle covers distance 24 m in 4 sec and 64 m in next 4 se(c) Then initial
velocity of the particle is
(a) zero
(b) 1 m/s
(c) 3 m/s
(d) 4 m/s
33.
If vehicle at rest accelerates uniformly to a speed 144 Km/hr within 20 sec, it covers distance
(a) 20m
(b) 400m
(c) 1440m
(d) 2980m
34.
Train is 100 m long and is moving with 45 Km/hr. The time it will take to cross a bridge
long is
(a) 10 sec
(b) 20 sec
(c) 40 sec
(d) 88 sec
35.
For maximum vertical height the angle of projection should be
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
36.
(d)
1 Km
180°
The maximum height reached by projectile is Hmax then time of flight will be
4Hmax
g
(a)
(b)
8Hmax
g
8Hmax
g
(c)
(d)
16Hmax
g
37.
When stone is thrown at an angle 45° with horizontal. It rises to maximum height 10 m. It's
horizontal range is
(a) 40 m
(b) 80 m
(c) 20m
(d) 100m
38.
The velocity - time graph is shown in figure. The displacement of the object is
(a) 500 m
(b) 1000 m
120 •
(c) 100 m
(d) 250m
B
100 •
80 •
v
60 •
40 •
20 •
A
• • • •
1 2 3 4
time
•
5
•
6
40.
A body is thrown vertically upwards with initial velocity 9.8 m/s. It will remain in air for
(a) 1 sec
(b) 2 sec
(c) 3 sec
(d) 5 sec
41.
Player throw a ball vertically upward and then returns to his hands. Which of following graph
represents this case correctly.
(a)
(b)
Speed
A bus increases speed from 36 Km/hr to 72 Km/hr in ten seconds. If acceleration is
(a) 5 m/s2
(b) 2 m/s2
(c) 3.6 m/s2
(d) 1 m/s2
Speed
39.
time
time
Speed
(d)
Speed
(c)
time
time
18
Projectile Motion
42.
Which one of the following graphs represents a uniform speed motion?
S
S
V
V
t
t
(1)
(a)
43.
1
t
(2)
(b)
3
The speedometer of a car measures
(a) Acceleration
(c) Instantaneous speed
t
(3)
(4)
(c)
4
(d)
(b)
(d)
Average velocity
Instantaneous velocity
2
44.
The acceleration of a moving body can be found from
(a) area under velocity-time graph
(b) area under distance-time graph
(c) slope of the velocity-time graph
(d) slope of the distance-time graph
45.
The two ends of a train moving with a constant acceleration pass a certain pole with velocities u and
v. The velocity with which the middle point of the train passes the same pole is
(a)
u+v
2
(b)
u2 + v 2
2
(c)
u2 + v2
(d)
u2 + v 2
2
46.
The velocity of a body moving with uniform acceleration is 10 m/s at a particular instant. Its
velocity after 5 seconds is 20 m/s, What was the velocity of the body 3 seconds before that instant?
(a) 2 m/s
(b) 4 m/s
(c) 6 m/s
(d) 8 m/s
47.
The velocity-time graph of a body is shown in the figure. From this graph, we conclude that at
point C
v
(a) the force acting on the body is zero
(b) the force is increasing the velocity of the body
B
D
A
(c) the force Opposes the motion of the body
(d) none of the above
O
C
t
48.
The following is not an example of a projectile motion
(a) A stone is thrown horizontally from the top of a tower
(b) A football player who kicks the ball
(c) A bowling ball & a golf ball are dropped from a twenty story window
(d) A motion of a bullet from a gun
49.
Here are four pairs of initial & final positions, respectively, along an X-axis. Which pairs give a
negative displacement
(a) −3 m, +5 m
(b)
−3 m, −7 m
(c)
+ 7 m, −3 m
(d) 3 m, 7 m
50.
The following equations give the position x(t. of a particle in four cases (in each equation x is in
meters & t is in seconds and t > 0.. In which case is the velocity v of the particle constant.
(a) x =−4
( b ) x = −2/t2
(c) x = 3t−5
(d) x = −2t 2 − 2
51.
The magnitude of instantaneous velocity is given by
(a) position
(b)
(c) displacement
(d)
19
speed
none of the above
Std : XI
given by x = 9.2t −2.1t 2 . where x is in meters
sec is
17.6 m/s
can not be calculated
52.
The position of a moving particle on an X-axis is
& t is in seconds. The velocity of a particle at t = 2
(a) −0.6 m/s
(b)
(c) 0.6 m/s
(d)
53.
For a projectile motion,
(a) the horizontal velocity component retain its initial value throughout the flight but vertical
component of velocity changes with time
(b) both the horizontal & the vertical components of velocity remains unchanged throughout their
motion.
(c) the horizontal velocity component varies with time but the vertical velocity component changes
due constant downward acceleration
(d) none of the above.
54.
A ball is projected at an angle of 450 to the horizontal with a velocity 30 m/s. Then the range of a ball
is (g = 9.8 m/s2.
(a) 9.18 m
(b) 90m
(c) 918.3 m
(d) 91.83 m
55.
When a particle is launched the maximum height that can be reached is given by (g = 9.8 m/s2.
H=
(a)
u sin 2 θ
g
H=
(b)
u2 sin θ
g
(c)
H=
u2 sin 2 θ
g
(d)
None of these
56.
Suppose an object is thrown with the same initial velocity & direction on Earth and
on the moon where g is 1/6 as large as it is on earth
(a) time of fight & the horizontal range both increases
(b) time of flight increases & not the horizontal range
(c) time of flight decreases with the horizontal range
(d) time of flight decreases & horizontal range increases
57.
When a particle moves from A → B then its average velocity during that instant is does not
(a) depend on the actual distance a particle moves
(b) depends on the actual distance travelled
(c) both a & b
(d) none of the above
LEVEL - 2
1.
2.
If body is moving with uniform velocity then what is its accelerations ?
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
s
(b)
v
t
4.
(a) or (b)
Which one of the following graph represents a uniform speed motion ?
(a)
3.
(d)
The speedometer of a car measurer
(a) Acceleration
(c) Instantaneous speed
(c)
t
s
(d)
v
t
(b)
(d)
The acceleration of a moving body can be found from
(a) Area under velocity time graph
(b)
(c) Slope of velocity time graph
(d)
t
Avg. Velocity
Instantaneous velocity
Area under distance time graph
Slope of distance time graph
20
Projectile Motion
5.
The two ends of a train moving with a constant acceleration pass a certain pole with velocities u & V. The
velocity with which the middle point of the train passes the same pole is
(a)
u+v
2
(b)
u2 + v 2
2
(c)
u2 + v2
(d)
u2 + v 2
2
6.
Avg. speed of an object is ………. to magnitude of Avg. velocity over a given time interval
(a) less than
(b) greater than
(c) equal to
(d) (b) or (c)
7.
120 km/hr = _________ m/s
(a) 33.33
(b) 30
(c)
12.33
(d)
43.33
8.
Particle initially at rest covers the distance of 6m with acceleration of 3 m/s2, what is its final velocity ?
(a) 8 m/s
(b) 36 m/s
(c) 6 m/s
(d) 0.6 m/s
9.
Which one of the following is true ?
(a) time of asend > time of desend
(c) time of asend = time of desend
10.
12.
time of asend < time of desend
time of dasend ≥ time of desend
After what time a projectile returns to its original plane of Projection ?
(a)
11.
(b)
(d)
u sin θ
g
(b)
u2 sin2 θ
g
Trajectory path of projectile mathematically.
(a) Hyperbola
(c) Parabola
(c)
2u sin θ
g
(b)
(d)
arc of circle
Rectangular Hyperbola
(d)
u2 2θ
g
Which of the following formula represents horizontal range of projectile
(a)
u2 sin 2θ
g
(b)
u2 sin 2 θ
g
(c)
u2 sin θ
g
(d)
u sin θ
g
13.
The range of projectile is maximum if it is projected in a direction inclined to the horizontal at an angle of
(a) 45°
(b) 60°
(c) 30°
(d) 90°
14.
The maximum horizontal range (Rmax) is given
(a)
15.
16.
(a)
y = x tan θ −
(c)
x = y tan θ −
u2
g
(c)
2u2
g
(d)
2u
g
gx 2
u2 cos2 θ
gy2
2u2 cos2 θ
(b)
y = x tan θ −
(d)
y = x tan θ −
gx 2
2u2 cos2 θ
gx 2
2u2 cos θ
Which one of the following formula for the height (+1) is true.
H=
u2 sin θ
2g
(b)
H=
u2 sin 2 θ
g
(c)
H=
u2 sin 2 θ
2g
(d)
H=
u2 sin θ
2g
Maximum height reached by a projectile, when it is projected at an angle of 45° is given by
(a)
21
(b)
Which one of the following equation represents trajectory of the projectile
(a)
17.
u
g
u2
2g
(b)
3u2
2g
(c)
u
2g
(d)
3u
2g
Std : XI
18.
The angle of projection (θ) for a projectile is given
(a)
19.
23.
24.
(c)
⎛ R ⎞⎟
θ = tan−1 ⎜⎜
⎜⎝ 4H ⎠⎟⎟
(d)
⎛ R ⎞⎟
θ = tan−1 ⎜⎜
⎜⎝ 2H ⎠⎟⎟
(θ) & (2θ)
(b)
(θ) & (π − θ)
(c)
⎛π
⎞
( θ ) & ⎜⎜ − θ⎟⎟⎟
⎜⎝ θ
⎠
(d)
⎛π
⎞
( θ ) & ⎜⎜ − θ⎟⎟⎟
⎜⎝ 2
⎠
v=
x
t
(b)
∆v =
∆x
∆t
(c)
v = lim
∆t →0
∆x
∆t
(d)
∆v =
x
t
When the particle is projected vertically upward (i.e. θ = 90°) then range of projectile (R) is
(d)
2u2
g
What is acceleration if initial & final velocities are 10 & 30 m/s in 4sec.
(a) 5 m/s2
(b) 0.5 m/s2
(c) −5 m/s2
(d)
− 0.5 m/s2
In above question, What is distance covered in same time interval ?
(a) 80 m
(b) 8m
(c) 160 m
(d)
120 m
(a)
22.
⎛ 4H ⎞⎟
θ = tan−1 ⎜⎜
⎜⎝ R ⎠⎟⎟
Which one of the following represents instantaneous velocity ?
(a)
21.
(b)
Horizontal range of projectile is same for which two angles, when they are projected with same velocity
(a)
20.
⎛ 2H ⎞⎟
θ = tan−1 ⎜⎜
⎜⎝ R ⎠⎟⎟
0
(b)
g2
2g
(c)
u2
4g
What is acceleration in vertically upward direction ?
(a)
g m/s2
(b)
−g m/s2
(c)
g
m/s2
2
(d)
2
g m/s
25.
A sector moving at the speed of 12 m/s is stopped by applying brakes which produces uniform retardation
of 0.6m/s2. How much distance will be covered ?
(a) 120 m
(b) 180 m
(c) 12 m
(d) 18 m
26.
The distance traveled by body moving along straight line with uniform acceleration in the nth second of its
motion is
(a)
g
u − (2n − 1)
2
(b)
u−
g
2
(c)
u g
+ (n − 1)
2 2
(d)
g
u + (2n −1)
2
27.
The maximum horizontal range of a projectile is 980m then find the maximum height
(a) 245 m
(b) 98 m
(c) 980 m
(d) 490 m
28.
The slope of position time graph gives
(a) Velocity
(b) acceleration
29.
(c)
Displacement
(d)
(Velocity)2
When the body is projected horizontally which one of the following is true ?
(a)
y=
gx 2
u2
(b)
y=
gx
2u2
(c)
y=
gx 2
2u
(d)
y=
gx 2
2u2
30.
A stone is projected with velocity of 100 m/s at an angle of 60° with the horizontal find the time of flight.
(a) 1.77 sec.
(b) 17.77 sec
(c) 177.7 sec
(d) 0.17 sec
31.
In the above problem also find maximum height
(a) 382.6 m/s
(b) 38.26 m/s
(c)
0.382 m/s
(d)
3.826 m/s
In the 30th question, What is horizontal range ?
(a) 88.36 m
(b) 8.836 m/s
(c)
883.6 m
(d)
8836 m
32.
22
Projectile Motion
33.
Two stones of 200gm & 300 gm are thrown from a point with the same velocity & in the same direction,
which stone will reach the ground first ?
(a) 200 gm
(b) 300 gm
(c) both
(d) Cannot predict
34.
Which of the following isn’t a kinametical equation
(a)
JG JG G
v = u + at
(b)
JG JG
1G
S = ut + at
2
(c)
JG
GG
v 2 = u + 2as
(d)
G
v 2 = u2 + 2at
35.
A car goes from P to G with the uniform velocity 40km/hr & from G to P with the uniform velocity 30
km/hr if the distance PQ is 120 km what’s the avg. velocity of car ?
(a) 70 km/hr
(b) 35 km/hr
(c) 50 km/hr
(d) 0 km/hr
36.
If the body is projected at 30° or at 60° with the horizontal then, it has
(a) Same Horizontal range, same Maximum Height
(b) Same Horizontal range , Different maximum height
(c) Different horizontal range, same maximum height
(d) Different horizontal range, Different maximum height
37.
Find the Angle of projection at which the horizontal range & the maximum height of a projectile are equal
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 76°
(d) 120°
38.
A stone is projected with speed is at an angle of θ with the horizontal is at the top of its trajectory what is
its acceleration ?
(a) g cos θ
(b) g sin θ
(c) g
(d) g2 sin θ
39.
In above problem, what is its speed ?
(a) u sin θ
(b) u cos θ
(c)
u
(d)
u2 cos θ
40.
In the 38th problem what is the angle between directions of its velocity & acceleration ?
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
41.
The velocity of a body moving with uniform acceleration is 10m/s at a particular instant. Its velocity after
5 second is 20m/s what was the velocity of the body 3 seconds before that instant ?
(a) 2 m/s
(b) 4 m/s
(c) 6 m/s
(d) 8 m/s
42.
When the body is projected vertically upwards then R = ________
(a)
u2
g
(b)
u
g
(c)
2u
g
(d)
0
43.
A body is having zero velocity still it is accelerated this happens when projectile is at ____________ .
(a) lowest point
(b) Highest point
(c) Intermediate point
(d) at any point
44.
A projectile is projected with initial velocity of 10m/s at an angle of 90° then what is its time of flight ?
(a) 1 m/s
(b) 2 m/s
(c) 0.2 m/s
(d) 0.1 m/s
45.
A body is projected with the velocity of 60m/s at an angle of 60° with vertical then what is horizontal
range ?
(a) 180 m
(b) 180 2 m
(c) 180 3 m
(d) 90 3 m
46.
In above problem, what is maximum height ?
(a) 90m
(b) 45 m
(c)
22.5 m
(d)
180 m
In 45th problem what is time of height ?
(a) 12.0 sec
(b) 6.0 sec
(c)
18.0 sec
(d)
6 3 sec
47.
23
Std : XI
48.
When body is projected vertically upwards then its acceleration
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) decrease or increase
(d) remains same
49.
Which of the following equation represents path of projectile ?
(a) y = αx − βx2
(b) y2 = αx − βx2
(c) y = (αx − βx2)2
(where α & β are constants)
50.
(d)
y = αx3
A body is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of 10m/s has covered height of 5m then what is the
acceleration due to gravity ?
(a) 10 m/s2
(b) 20 m/s2
(c) 8 m/s2
(d) 11 m/s2
− Answer Key −
LEVEL - 1
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
51.
d
a
c
d
b
b
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
52.
d
c
d
b
b
c
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
53.
a
a
a
b
c
a
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
54.
a
c
a
d
c
d
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
55.
a
c
d
c
d
c
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
56.
c
b
b
c
b
a
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
57.
c
d
c
a
c
b
8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
a
d
d
a
c
9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
d
b
c
d
b
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
d
d
a
b
c
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
c
a
a
c
b
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
c
b
b
d
b
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
d
b
a
d
c
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
d
c
d
b
b
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
a
b
a
c
b
8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
c
b
a
c
d
9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
c
d
d
b
a
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
c
c
b
d
a
LEVEL - 2
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
c
c
a
a
b
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
c
a
c
c
d
24
04
FORCE
LEVEL - 1
1.
Swimming is based on Newton's
(a) First law of motion
(c) Third law of motion
(b)
(d)
Second law of motion
Law of gravitation
2.
Out of the four basic forces in nature, the weakest force is
(a) The electromagnetic force
(b) The strong nuclear force
(c) The gravitational force
(d) The weak nuclear force
3.
A water tap can be operated easily using two fingers because
(a) The force by one finger overcomes the friction, the other finger provides the force for operation
(b) The force available for operation will be more
(c) The rotational effect is produced by the couple framed
(d) None of the above
4.
Newton's second law gives the measure of
(a) Acceleration
(b) Force
(c)
5.
Inertial frame of reference, implies that
(a) Newton's law of motion holds good for real forces
(b) The frame accelerating uniformly
(c) Newton's laws of motion do not hold good
(d) None
6.
Centrifugal force is pseudo force because
(a) It is real
(c) It can not be detected from outside
7.
(b)
(d)
Momentum
(d)
Angular momentum
It is scalar
It is to be experienced by objects in the system
A body is acted upon by a constant force when it will have uniform
(a) Speed
(b) Momentum
(c) Velocity
(d)
Acceleration
8.
A force of 200 N acts in the opposite direction on a body moving with uniform velocity and brings it to
rest in 0.25 se(c) What is the initial momentum of the body (in kg.m/s.
(a) 50
(b) 75
(c) 100
(d) 125
9.
In a collision which of the following is conserved
(a) Linear momentum of system
(b)
(c) Both
(d)
Kinetic energy of system
None of these
10.
In elastic collision which physical quantity remains constant?
(a) Linear momentum only
(b) Kinetic energy only
(c) Linear momentum and kinetic energy
(d) Force
11.
The collision in which the relative velocity is zero after collision is
(a) Perfectly elastic
(b) Perfectly inelastic
(c) Partially elastic
(d) Sometimes elastic and sometimes inelastic
12.
In an elastic collision of two bodies, which of the following do not change after 1 collision?
(a) Total kinetic energy
(b) Total linear momentum
(c) Total energy
(d) Total angular momentum
Std : XI
13.
14.
Two balls at same temperature collide. What is conserved?
(a) Temperature
(b) Velocity
(c) Kinetic energy
(d)
Momentum
The coefficient of restitution for a perfectly inelastic collision is
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c)
∞
(d)
−1
15.
A ball is released from some height which strikes ground. If the collision is perfectly elastic
(a) The ball sticks to the ground
(b) The ball rebounds to the same height
(c) The ball rebounds to a greater height
(d) The ball moves along the ground
16.
A bullet hits and get embedded in a solid block resting on a horizontal friction less table, what is
conserved?
(a) Momentum and kinetic energy
(b) Kinetic energy alone
(c) Momentum alone
(d) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy
17.
A sphere of mass 2 kg strikes another sphere of mass 3 kg at rest with a velocity of 5 m/s. If they move
together after collision then common velocity is
(a) 1 m/s
(b) 2 m/s
(c) 4 m/s
(d) Zero
18.
A gun of mass 10 kg fires a bullet of 10 g mass with a muzzle velocity of 200 m/s. Recoil velocity of the
gun is
(a) 0.1 m/s
(b) 0.2 m/s
(c) 0.4 m/s
(d) 0.8 m/s
19.
A fielder catches a ball of mass 200 gm in 0.1 sec moving with speed 30 m/s then he experiences a force
(a) 0.6 N
(b) 600 N
(c) 60 N
(d) 6 N
20.
The force of 500 N acts on body of mass 5 kg for 10 seconds. The change in momentum of the body is
(a) 1000 N
(b) 25000 N
(c) 10000 N
(d) 5000 N
21.
Coefficient of restitution depends upon ________ of colliding bodies
(a) Masses
(b) Direction of motion (c) Materials
(d)
Acceleration
22.
Two identical bullets are fixed from two guns 'A' and 'B'. If mass of A is less than mass of B, then
which gun experiences more push in backward direction
(a) Same for both
(b) A
(c) B
(d) Depend upon shooter
23.
A body is in translational equilibrium it
(a) Resultant force on it is zero
(c) Body is in accelerated motion
(b)
(d)
It is in uniform motion or at rest
'a' and 'b'
Torque has dimensions same as that of
(a) Momentum
(b) Force
(c)
Energy
24.
25.
Impulse
Two bodies of masses M and m have equal kinetic energy. The ratio of their momenta is
(a)
26.
(d)
M
m
(b)
m
M
Centre of mass of body lies
(a) Always inside the body
(c) Always at geometric centre
(c)
(b)
(d)
M
m
(d)
⎛ M ⎞⎟2
⎜⎜ ⎟
⎝⎜ m ⎠⎟
May inside or outside the body
On the surface of body
26
Force
LEVEL - 2
1.
Every body continues its motion or comes to rest after certain period of time unless and until ________
is applied to it.
(a) inertia
(b) force
(c) momentum
(d) none
2.
Tendency of a body to maintain its state of rest or state of uniform motion in a straight line is ________
(a) inertia
(b) force
(c) momentum
(d) none
3.
Rate of change of momentum of a body is proportional to impressed ________ which is in its direction.
(a)
inertia
(b) impulse
(c) force
(d) none
4.
Inertia of a body is measured by ________ of body.
(a) weight
(b) volume
(c)
5.
6.
7.
size
(d)
mass
Linear momentum of a body is product of its mass and ________
(a) acceleration
(b) velocity
(c) displacement
(d)
none
S.I. unit of linear momentum is ________
(a) netwon
(b) netwon meter
(c)
netwon second
(d)
netwon//meter
Dimension of momentum is ________
(a) [L1M1T1]
(b) [L1M1T−1]
(c)
[L−1M1T1]
(d)
[L1M1T−2]
8.
Force produced due to interaction between the objects is ________
(a) real force
(b) pseudo force
(c) gravitational force
(d) electromagnetic force
9.
A vehicle moves along a curved path, passengers in the vehicle experience a force in out ward direction,
this force is ________
(a) real force
(b) pseudo force
(c) gravitational force
(d) electromagnetic force
10.
Existence of force of attraction between a body and earth is ________
(a) real force
(b) pseudo force
(c) gravitational force
(d) electromagnetic force
11.
Force of attraction between the particle is inversely proportional to ________
(a) product of masses
(b) gravitation force
(c) distance between particle
(d) square of distance between the particle
12.
Constant of gravitation is ________
(a) 1.6 × 10−19C
(c) 6.67 × 10−11 Nm2/kg2
(b)
(d)
8.85 × 10−12 C2/Nm2
6.63 × 10−34 Nm2/kg2
Force between two charges at rest is ________
(a) electrostatic force
(c) real force
(b)
(d)
electromagnetic force
none
Force between electric charges in motion is ________
(a) electrostatic force
(b)
(c) real force
(d)
electromagnetic force
dynamic force
13.
14.
15.
27
A particle is moving with a constant speed along a straight line. A force is not required to ________
(a) increase its speed
(b) decrease of interia
(c) reversing the direction
(d) keeping it moving with uniform velocity
Std : XI
16.
Kicking of weighted ball hurts the legs due to ________
(a) velocity
(b) inertia
(c) reaction
(d)
momentum
17.
A body at rest on earth's surface has ________
(a) only weight of body acts on body
(b) no force is acting on body
(c) net downward force is equal to net upward force
(d) none
18.
A force of interaction which binds protons and neutrons in nucleus of an atom is ________
(a) electrostatic force
(b) electromagnetic force
(c) nuclear force
(d) real force
19.
As per work energy theorem, work done by a force in displacing a body is due to ________
(a) change in potential energy
(b) change in kinetic energy
(c) change in mass
(d) change in momentum
20.
For elastic collision, total kinetic energy of colliding particle is ________
(a) unconserved
(b) conserved
(c) changed
(d)
none
For inelastic collision, total kinetic energy of colliding particle is ________
(a) unconserved
(b) conserved
(c) changed
(d)
none
21.
22.
Ratio of relative velocity of separation after collision to relative velocity of approach before collision
between two colliding object is ________
(a) coefficient of friction
(b) coefficient of restitution
(c) coefficient of inertia
(d) none
23.
Inertial frame of reference is applicable to netwon's ________ law of motion.
(a) second
(b) third
(c) first
(d)
fourth
24.
Non inertial frame of reference have ________ motion with respect to inertial frame of reference.
(a) circular
(b) straight
(c) accelerated
(d) decelerated
25.
If relative distance between any two particles does not change under application of force then body is
________
(a) elastic
(b) expanded
(c) rigid
(d) compressed
26.
Ability of force to produce rotational motion which is measure of turning effect is ________
(a) momentum
(b) inertia
(c) acceleration
(d) torque
27.
Two equal and opposite forces acting in opposite direction at two points of a object form ________
(a) moment of couple
(b) couple
(c) dipole
(d) none
28.
Ability of couple to produce rotational motion is ________
(a) moment of couple
(b) couple
(c) momentum of force
(d) elasticity
29.
S.I. unit of moment of couple is ________
(a) netwon
(b) netwon-meter
(c)
netwon/meter
(d)
netwon meter2
Dimensions of moment of force are ________
(a) [L2M1T−2]
(b) [L2M2T−2]
(c)
[L2M1T1]
(d)
[L2M1T−1]
30.
28
Force
31.
A point at which whole mass of body is supposed to be concentrated is ________
(a) centre of gravity
(b) centre of acceleration
(c) centre of mass
(d) centre of force
32.
A point at which whole weight of body acts vertically downward is ________
(a) centre of gravity
(b) centre of mass
(c) centre of force
(d) centre of acceleration
33.
The C.G. of sphere is ________
(a) point on circumference
(c) centre point
(b)
(d)
point on top of sphere
point on bottom of sphere
34.
If points of C.G. and CM. coincide with each other then body is ________ size.
(a) irregular
(b) regular
(c) small
(d) large
35.
C.G and CM. of any body is related to ________
(a) velocity
(b)
(c) acceleration
(d)
displacement
acceleration due to gravity
36.
A rigid body is said to be in translation equilibrium if the resultant force acting on it is ________
(a) same
(b) changes
(c) zero
(d) none
37.
A body is in rotational equilibrium if the resultant ________ acting on the body is zero.
(a) momentum
(b) inertia
(c) torque
(d) force
38.
Couple acting on rigid body produces ________
(a) translation motion
(c) rotational motion
(b)
(d)
translation equilibrium
rotational equilibrium
39.
A ball of mass 300 grams is hit with a hockey stick. It gives a impulse of 0.075 N, velocity of ball is
________
(a) 0.5m/s
(b) 0.2m/s
(c) 0.4m/s
(d) 0.25 m/s
40.
A body of 700 grams mass initially at rest is acted upon by a force 0.49N then displacement of body after
6 seconds is ________
(a) 12 m
(b) 12.6 m
(c) 12.4 m
(d) 12.6 cm
41.
A bullet of 300 gm is fired from 25 kg gun with velocity 600 m/s then recoil velocity of the gun is
________
(a) 0.8 m/s
(b) 0.9 m/s
(c) 0.7 m/s
(d) 0.72 m/s
42.
900 grams mass of body at rest is displaced to 250 m in 10 s then force acted on body is ________
(a) 4.0N
(b) 5.5N
(c) 4.5N
(d) 3.5N
43.
Bullet of mass 40 gm fired with velocity 500 m/s is brought to rest in 0.O2 s the impulse on it is
________
(a) 20 Ns
(b) 10 Ns
(c) 30 Ns
(d) 40 Ns
44.
Bullet of mass 250 gram fired with velocity 300 m/s strikes a target having thickness 0.05 m the retarding
force is ________
(a) 22000 N
(b) 22500 N
(c) 21500 N
(d) 23500 N
45.
A fielder catches a 100 gram ball which was hit with velocity 10 m/s in 0.1 s the force acted on ball was
________
(a) 10N
(b) 20N
(c) 30N
(d) 40N
29
Std : XI
46.
A ball of mass 5 kg is acted on force 500 N for 10 seconds then change in momentum of ball is ________
(a) 1000N
(b) 5000N
(c) 2000N
(d) 25000 N
47.
Two bullets identical in shape one having less mass than other were fired from two guns A and B then
________ gun gets more push in backward direction.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) both
(d) depend upon shooter
48.
Centre of mass is ________
(a) inside the body
(c) inside or outside the body
(b)
(d)
at geometric centre
on surface of body
49.
A bullet is fired at angle 45° with velocity 9.8 m/s. The horizontal range of bullet is ________
(a) 98 m
(b) 9.8 m
(c) 980m
(d) 0.98 m
50.
Coefficient of restitution depends upon ________ at bodies colliding on each other
(a) mass
(b) acceleration
(c) direction of motion
(d) material
51.
Horizontal flying helicopter releases a bomb. The path traced by bomb is ________
(a) straight line
(b) circle
(c) ellipse
(d) parabola
52.
Flight of a projectile is 10 s and range is 500 m. Maximum height attained by projectile is ________
(a) 200 m
(b) 125 m
(c) 150m
(d) 100m
53.
A cricket ball is thrown with velocity 15 m/s at an angle 30° to horizontal. Time of flight of ball is
________
(a) 2.5 s
(b) 2s
(c) 1.25 s
(d) 1.5 s
54.
A ball is thrown horizontally on the lake surface attains 100 m. Greatest height to which boy can thrown
ball is ________
(a) 50 m
(b) 70m
(c) 60m
(d) 80m
− Answer Key −
LEVEL - 1
1.
11.
21.
c
b
c
2.
12.
22.
c
c
b
3.
13.
23.
c
d
d
4.
14.
24.
b
b
c
5.
15.
25.
a
b
c
6.
16.
26.
d
d
b
7.
17.
d
b
8.
18.
c
b
9.
19.
a
c
10.
20.
c
d
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
53.
c
a
c
c
a
c
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
54.
d
b
c
c
b
b
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
b
d
c
d
a
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
c
c
d
c
b
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
b
c
b
c
a
8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
a
c
a
d
c
9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
b
b
b
d
b
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
c
b
a
b
d
LEVEL - 2
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
51.
b
d
a
c
d
d
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
52.
a
c
b
a
c
b
30
05
FRICTION IN SOLIDS
AND LIQUIDS
LEVEL - 1
1.
Forces of attraction between molecules of the same substance are called ________ forces
(a) Cohesive
(b) adhesive
(c) Nuclear
(d) Electromagnetic
2.
Adhesive forces between molecules of different substance are _______ as compared to cohesive force
between molecules of same substance.
(a) greater
(b) smaller
(c) equal
(d) (a) or (c)
3.
Which one of the following relation between limiting force of static friction (Fs) and normal reaction (N)
holds true ?
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
1
N
1
(c)
Fs ∝ N2
(d)
Fs ∝
Dimensions for coefficient of static friction is
(a) [M1 L1 T−2]
(b) [M1 L° T°]
(c)
[M° L° T°]
(d)
[M1 L1 T1]
µ i.e. coefficient of friction does not depend on
(a) Nature of surface
(c) extent of contamination
(b)
(d)
temperature
Area of contact
(a)
Fs ∝ N
(b)
Fs ∝
Co-efficient of static friction is _______ than co-efficient of kinetic friction .
(a) greater
(b) smaller
(c) equal
(d)
N2
greater or equal
Pressure is the ratio of ________ and _________
(a) force and (Area)2
(b)
(c) (Force)2 and Area
(d)
Area and Force
Force and Area
SI unit of pressure is _________
(a) N/m
(b) N/m2
(c)
m/N
(d)
m2/N
Dimensions of pressure is
(a) [L−1 m1 T−2]
(b)
(c)
[L−1 m−1 T2]
(d)
[L−1 m−1 T−2]
One atmosphere = ___________
(a) 76 cm of Hg
(b) 760 cm of Hg
(c)
7.6 cm of Hg
(d)
0.76 cm of Hg
Pressure is _________ quantity
(a) Scalar
(b) Vector
(c)
phasor
(d)
None
(d)
h δ g2
[L1 m1 T−2]
Pressure due to liquid coloumn of height ‘h’ and density ‘δ’ is given by
(a) h2 δ g
(b) h δ g
(c) h δ2 g
13.
The shape of the vessel containing the liquid does not affect the pressure. This is known as __________
(a) Hydrostatic paradox
(b) Twin paradox
(c) Pascal’s law
(d) none
14.
Pressure exists ___________ of fluid
(a) At every point
(c) At bottom
15.
(b)
(d)
At surface
At intermediate point
“Extraction of oil by crushing the oil seeds” This works on ___________ law
(a) Newton’s
(b) Stoke’s
(c) Pascal’s
(d)
Einstein’s
Std : XI
16.
Which one of the following is not application of Pascal’s law ?
(a) Hydraulic press (b) Hydraulic lift
(c) Hydraulic brakes (d)
Vaccum brakes
17.
In absence of gravity Pressure at every point inside the liquid in equilibrium would be __________
(a) different
(b) same
(c) more
(d) less
18.
The property of fluid by virtue of which it opposes the relative motion between its layer is called
__________.
(a) Elasticity
(b) Viscosity
(c) Conductivity
(d) Resistivity
19.
Flow of liquid over plane surface so long as the velocity of fluid is less than a certain limiting value is
called ________
(a) streamline flow (b) laminar flow
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) turbulent flow
20.
In turbulent flow of fluid, the velocity of fluid at any point _________.
(a) remains constant
(b) varies
(c) increases continuously
(d) can’t predict
21.
The rate of change of velocity with distance measured from stationary layer is called ___________.
(a) Viscosity gradient
(b) Velocity gradient
(c) Temperature gradient
(d) None
22.
Dimensions of velocity gradient are
(a) [M° L° T1]
(b) [M1 L° T°]
(c)
[M1 L° T1]
(d)
[M° L° T−1]
23.
For streamline flow, viscous force acting on any layer is directly proportional to _________
(a) Area of layer
(b) Velocity gradient
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) Velocity of layer
24.
What is the SI unit of co-efficient of viscosity ?
(a)
25.
26.
Ns
m
(b)
1 Ns/m2 = _________ poise
(a) 100
(b)
N 2s
m
(c)
1
(c)
The viscosity of liquid _________ with temperature
(a) Increases
(b)
(c) may increase or decrease
(d)
Ns
(d)
m2
0.1
(d)
Ns 2
m2
10
remains same
decrease
27.
The viscous force acting on a small sphere falling through a medium does not depend on
(a) radius of sphere
(b) velocity
(c) viscosity of fluid
(d) material of sphere
28.
By stoke’s law viscous force acting on sphere of radius ‘r’ is given by
(a) F = 6πηrv
(b) F = 4πηrv
(c) F = ηrv
(d)
29.
Terminal velocity of sphere falling through medium is _______
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases with time
(c) remains constant
(d) depends on medium
30.
Which one of the following equations is true for terminal velocity (v) ?
(a)
v=
2rg(s − σ)
9η
(b)
v=
2r 2 g(s − σ)
9η
(c)
v=
2rg 2 (s − σ)
9η
(d)
F = πηrv
v=
2r 2 g(s + σ)
9η
32
Friction in Solids and Liquids
31.
32.
Reynold’s number is inversely proportional to
(a) Critical velocity
(c) Coefficient of viscosity
(b)
(d)
density of liquid
Diameter of tube
Which one of the following correctly represents the Bernoulli’s principle ?
(a)
(c)
1
P + (sv 2 ) + sgh = cons tan t
2
1 2
P + (sv ) + gh = cons tan t
2
(b)
(d)
P 1 2
+ (sv ) + gh = cons tan t
s 2
P 1 2
+ (sv ) + sgh = cons tan t
s 2
33.
The velocity of efflux increases as the height of liquid above orifice is ________
(a) decreased
(b) increased
(c) does not depend of height
(d) kept constant
34.
The speed of freely falling body from height ‘h’ is given by
(a)
2gh
(b)
2gh 2
(c)
2gh
(d)
2g 2 h
35.
Who discovered that the speed of efflux from an open tank given by a formula identical to that a freely
falling body ?
(a) Pascal
(b) Torricelli
(c) Bernoulli
(d) Newton
36.
Dimensions for Reynold’s number are
(a) [M° L° T°]
(b) [M° L° T1]
(c)
[M1 L° T1]
(d)
[M1 L° T°]
Venturi – meter is the application of _______
(a) Pascal’s law
(b) Newton’s law
(c)
Torricell’s law
(d)
Bernaulli’s law
37.
38.
A block of mass 20kg just slides over a horizontal surface through a distance of 2m. If the co-efficient of
friction between the surface is 0.5, find the work done against friction
(a)
196 J
(b)
400 J
(c)
100 J
(d)
98 J
39.
A metal place of area 50sq. cm rests on a layer of oil 1mm thick. A force of 0.32N applied parallel to the
plate horizontally keeps is moving with a speed of 4cm/s along the surface of the oil. Find the co-efficient
of viscosity of the oil.
(a) 1.0 Ns/m2
(b) 1.6 Ns/m2
(c) 0.8 Ns/m2
(d) 3.2 Ns/m2
40.
A block of weight 1kg sliding on a surface with a velocity of 2m/s is stopped by friction in a 10s. The
force of friction will be
(a) −2 N
(b) 2N
(c) 0.2 N
(d) −0.2 N
41.
The coefficient of sliding friction for steel on ice is 0.05. What is the force required to keep a man with
steel skates, moving at constant speed along the ice, if the mass of the man is 80 kg
(a) 20 N
(b) 40 N
(c) 80 N
(d) 50 N
42.
The working of a spray painting gun depends on
(a) Archimede’s principle
(c) Bernoulli’s principle
(b)
(d)
Newton’s law of motion
Boyle’s law
43.
The liquid flows through a horizontal tube of variable cross section . The pressures is lowest where the
(a) the velocity is zero
(b) the velocity is maximum
(c) the diameter is maximum
(d) Both diameter and velocity are maximum
44.
In a hydraulic press, the diameters of larger and smaller pistons are 50cm and 5cm respectively. What is
the force exerted on larger piston, when a force of 4kg wt is exerted on a smaller piston
(a) 200 kg. wt
(b) 100 kg. wt
(c) 800 kg. wt.
(d) 400 kg. wt
33
Std : XI
45.
Water enters a pipe of internal diameter 21mm with a speed of 0.1m/s. The pipe has a non-uniform cross
section. What is the speed of water, at a point, where diameter becomes 7mm ?
(a) 0.9 m/s
(b) 0.3 m/s
(c) 0.1 m/s
(d) 1.2 m/s
46.
A water tank has a small hole in one vertical wall. If the centre of the hole is 4.9m below the surface level,
the velocity of efflux will be
(a) 4.9 m/s
(b) 9.8 m/s
(c) 2.45 m/s
(d) 19.6 m/s
47.
The relative velocity between two layers of fluid separated by 0.1mm is 2cm/s. Calculate the velocity
gradient
(a) 20 /s
(b) 2000/s
(c) 200/s
(d) 2/s
48.
Water is flowing in a horizontal pipe of nonuniform cross section . The velocities of water at points A and
B in tube, are in ratio of 4 : 1, What is the ratio of diameters of pipe at A and B ?
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 4 : 1
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 1 : 2
49.
A rectangular block of mass 10kg, is held against a vertical wall by applying a force of 200N normal to
the wall. If the frictional force just prevents the block from the coefficient of static friction between block
and wall.
(a) 0.49
(b) 0.07
(c) 0..98
(d) 0.14
50.
A glass slab of length 5cm and breadth 2cm is kept on a thin layer of glycerine of thickness 1mm. A
horizontal force of 0.08N is just sufficient to move the slab over glycerine with velocity of 2 cm/s,
calculate η.
(a) 2 Ns/m2
(b) 8 Ns/m2
(c) 4 Ns/m2
(d) 12 Ns/m2
LEVEL - 2
1.
A force which opposes relative motion between two surfaces in contact is __________
(a) nuclear force
(b) electromagnetic force
(c) pseudo for
(d) frictional force
2.
Friction causes loss of __________
(a) power
(b) energy
3.
4.
5.
(c)
charges
(d)
displacement
Due to friction __________ of machine decreases.
(a) efficiency
(b) energy
(c)
torque
(d)
none
To reduce friction __________ is used in machines.
(a) gas
(b) paints
(c)
lubricants
(d)
paper
During friction, area of contact bodies is __________
(a) transparent area (b) contact area
(c)
solid area
(d)
apparent area
6.
Point of contact between different types of molecules which exert adhesive force on each other gets
__________ together.
(a) joint
(b) separated
(c) cold welded
(d) hot welded
7.
Friction is caused due to __________
(a) force of repulsion between two surfaces in contact.
(b) force of attraction between two surfaces in contact.
(c) intermolecular force of attraction between two surfaces in contact.
(d) none
34
Friction in Solids and Liquids
8.
Particular value of force applied to block which just starts to move on the table is __________
(a) limited static frictional force.
(b) limited kinetic factional force
(c) limited rotational frictional force.
(d) none
9.
Particular value of force applied to block which slides continuously with uniform speed over the table is
__________
(a) limited static frictional force.
(b) limited kinetic frictional force,
(c) limited rotational frictional force.
(d) none
10.
Friction between two bodies in contact when one body rolls over the other is __________
(a) static friction
(b) kinetic friction
(c) rolling friction (d) none
11.
__________ force of friction is greater than other two.
(a) static
(b) kinetic
(c)
rolling
(d)
none
__________ force of friction is less than other two.
(a) static
(b) kinetic
(c)
rolling
(d)
none
12.
13.
Limited force of static friction is proportional to __________ between two surfaces in contact.
(a) area
(b) length
(c) normal reaction (d) material of surface
14.
Limited force of static friction is independent of __________ between two surfaces in contact.
(a) apparent area
(b) apparent length
(c) normal reaction (d) material of surface
15.
Limited force of static friction is dependent on __________ between two surfaces in contact.
(a) apparent area
(b) apparent length
(c) material of surface
(d) none
16.
Force of kinetic friction is proportional to __________ between two surfaces in contact.
(a) apparent area
(b) apparent length
(c) normal reaction (d) material of surface
17.
Force of kinetic friction is dependent on __________ between two surfaces in contact.
(a) normal reaction (b) apparent area
(c) apparent length (d) material
18.
Force of kinetic friction is independent of __________ between two surfaces in contact.
(a) normal reaction (b) apparent area
(c) apparent length (d) material
19.
Thrust exerted by a liquid at rest per unit area normal to surfaces in contact with liquid is __________
(a) density
(b) volume
(c) pressure
(d) temperature
20.
S.I. unit of pressure is __________
(a) Nm2
(b) Nm
(c)
N/m2
(d)
N/m
Dimensions of pressure are __________
(a) [L1M1T–2]
(b) [L1M1T–1]
(c)
[L1M1T2]
(d)
[L1M1T1]
Pressure is __________ quantity.
(a) unitless
(b) scalar
(c)
vector
(d)
none
Pressure of liquid depends upon __________
(a) area
(b) volume
(c)
density
(d)
none
Device used to measure pressure is __________
(a) thermometer
(b) micrometer
(c)
pressure gauge
(d)
cylindrical tube
21.
22.
23.
24.
35
Std : XI
25.
Shape of vessel containing liquid which does not affect pressure is __________
(a) hydrokinetic paradox
(b) hydrostatic paradox
(c) hydraulic press
(d) hydraulic lift
26.
__________ is not exerted on walls of container into which fluid is passed.
(a) temperature
(b) force
(c) torque
(d)
27.
Atmospheric pressure is measured with __________
(a) pressure gauge
(b)
(c) mercury barometer
(d)
pressure
measuring cylindrical tube
none
28.
To measure small pressure at high density __________ is used.
(a) mercury barometer
(b) open tube manometer
(c) closed tube manometer
(d) none
29.
A small force applied on a column of liquid converts it into large force in upward direction in __________
(a) hydraulic lift
(b) hydraulic press
(c) hydraulic brakes (d) none
30.
A small force pushed on small piston in downward direction produces greater thrust on large piston in
__________
(a) hydraulic lift
(b) hydraulic press
(c) hydraulic brakes (d) none
31.
In stationary liquid pressure at each point is same due to __________
(a) acceleration
(b) gravity
(c) temperature
(d)
friction
32.
Property of fluid by virtue of which it opposes relative motion between its layers is __________
(a) density
(b) viscosity
(c) pressure
(d) temperature
33.
Quantity of water leaving the water tank per second is equal to quantity of water entering the water tube
per second is __________ flow of water.
(a) larger
(b) smaller
(c) turbulent
(d) streamline
34.
Streamline flow is called __________ flow.
(a) luminous
(b) laminar
35.
36.
(c)
major
(d)
minor
In streamline flow __________ of liquid at a point is constant
(a) acceleration
(b) velocity
(c) density
(d)
temperature
In turbulent flow __________ of liquid at a point is not constant.
(a) acceleration
(b) density
(c) velocity
(d)
temperature
37.
If velocity of fluid in streamline flow is increased to critical velocity of fluid then flow is __________
(a) major flow
(b) minor flow
(c) turbulent flow
(d) none
38.
In turbulent flow some points of liquid have __________ motion which give rise to eddy.
(a) translation
(b) rotational
(c) curved path
(d) none
39.
Storms are due to __________
(a) streamline flow (b) turbulent flow
(c)
major flow
(d)
none
40.
Tangential force acting on adjacent layer of fluid which opposes relative motion between layer of liquid or
gases is __________ force.
(a) frictional force
(b) pseudo force
(c) gravitational force
(d) viscous force
41.
Rate of change of velocity with distance measured from stationary layer is __________
(a) critical velocity (b) saturated velocity (c) velocity gradient (d) acceleration
36
Friction in Solids and Liquids
42.
43.
Unit of velocity gradient is __________
(a) m/s
(b) m/s2
(c)
1/s
(d)
1/s2
Dimensions of velocity gradient is __________
(a) [L0M1T1]
(b) [L0M0T1]
(c)
[L0M0T–1]
(d)
[L0M1T–1]
44.
For streamline flow viscous force acting on a layer is proportional to __________ of layer.
(a) pressure
(b) area
(c) volume
(d) density
45.
When force of one dyne per square centimeter exists between two layers of fluid with unit velocity
gradient then coefficient of viscosity is __________
(a) one netwon
(b) one N/m
(c) one poise
(d) one viscous
46.
Viscous force acting on small sphere falling through medium is proportional to __________
(a) radius of sphere (b) length of sphere
(c) volume of sphere (d) none
47.
If Reynold's number is between 0 to 2000 then flow of liquid is __________
(a) streamline
(b) major
(c) mirror
(d)
turbulent
If Reynold's number is greater than 2000 then flow of liquid is __________
(a) streamline
(b) major
(c) minor
(d)
turbulent
48.
49.
__________ is related to hydrodynamic
(a) Newton's formula
(c) Pascal's law
(b)
(d)
Stoke's law
Bernoulli's principle
50.
Relation between height of fluid, velocity of fluid and pressure is called __________
(a) Bernoulli's principle
(b) Stoke's law
(c) Newton's law
(d) Pascal's law
51.
Bernoulli's principle is related to __________ flow.
(a) turbulent
(b) streamline
(c)
luminous
(d)
52.
Device used to measure flow speed of incompressible fluid is __________
(a) pressure gauge
(b) open tube manometer
(c) mercury barometer
(d) venturi-meter
53.
__________ brakes are used to stop train.
(a) hydraulic
(b) pressure
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
37
(c)
major
vacuum
(d)
mechanical
For spraying fragrance in air __________ is used.
(a) air filter
(b) air purifier
(c)
air compressor
(d)
air conditioners
Operating principle of hydraulic press is __________
(a) Pascal's law
(b)
(c) Newton's law
(d)
Bernoulli's principle
none
Use of bunsens burner is __________
(a) Pascal's law
(c) Newton's law
Bernoulli's principle
none
(b)
(d)
If temperature is decrease then viscosity of liquid __________
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remain constant
(d) none
If acceleration due to gravity is increased then mercury height of barometer __________
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remain constant (d) none
Std : XI
59.
Velocity of liquid flow through a tube at a certain distance along its axis __________ with distance.
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remain same
(d) none
60.
With 90 N force a body of mass 10 kg moves on horizontal surface then coefficient of kinetic friction is
__________
(a) 9.8
(b) 0.98
(c) 0.918
(d) 0.92
61.
A block of mass 50 kg is applied with static force of friction 0.45 then force required to move is
__________
(a) 20N
(b) 22N
(c) 21N
(d) 32N
62.
With 100 hp engine train of mass 2 × 106 kg moves with velocity 20 m/s then coefficient of friction is
__________
(a) 1.93 × 10−3
(b) 1.93 × 10−2
(c) 1.93 × 10−1
(d) 1.93 × 101
63.
Water flowing through pipe of radius 1.5 cm with average velocity 15 cm/s given n = 10−3 kg/ms ρ = 103
kg/m3 then nature of flow is __________
(a) turbulent
(b) streamline
(c) major
(d) minor
64.
If a pin having tip of 0.1 mm2 is pressed into a board with force 20N then pressure exerted on tip of pin is
__________
(a) 2 × 105 N/m2
(b) 2 × 106 N/m2
(c) 2 × 107 N/m2
(d) 2 × 108 N/m2
− Answer Key −
LEVEL - 1
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
a
a
b
c
b
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
b
b
d
a
c
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
a
a
c
b
b
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
c
a
c
c
d
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
d
c
d
b
a
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
a
d
d
a
b
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
d
b
d
d
c
8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
b
b
a
a
d
9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
a
c
d
b
a
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
a
b
b
d
c
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
53.
63.
a
c
c
d
c
c
a
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
54.
64.
c
a
c
b
b
b
d
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
55.
d
c
a
b
c
a
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
56.
c
c
d
c
a
b
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
57.
c
d
c
c
a
b
8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
58.
a
b
b
b
d
b
9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
59.
d
c
b
b
d
a
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
60.
c
c
a
d
a
c
LEVEL - 2
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
51.
61.
d
a
a
b
c
b
b
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
52.
62.
b
c
b
b
c
d
a
38
06
SOUND WAVE
LEVEL - 1
1.
Motion which repeats itself in equal interval of time is __________
(a) vibrating motion
(b) periodic motion
(c) oscillatory motion
(d) none
2.
Motion in which particles move to and fro about their mean position is __________
(a) oscillatory motion
(b) periodic motion
(c) non periodic motion
(d) none
3.
Time taken by particle to complete one oscillation is __________
(a) amplitude
(b) frequency
(c) period
(d)
phase
Number of oscillations performed by particle per second is __________
(a) amplitude
(b) frequency
(c) phase
(d)
period
Maximum displacement of particle from its mean position is __________
(a) amplitude
(b) frequency
(c) phase
(d)
period
4.
5.
6.
Oscillation set by particle with decreasing amplitude before reaching zero is __________
(a) periodic oscillation
(b) undamped oscillation
(c) damped oscillation
(d) none
7.
In a wave __________ is transferred from one point to other
(a) particle
(b) energy
(c) medium
(d)
none
(d)
none
Transfer of energy through elastic medium is __________
(a) wave motion
(b) oscillatory motion (c) periodic motion (d)
none
In a waves transfer of energy is due to __________ property of medium.
(a) momentum
(b) inertia
(c) force
(d)
none
Propagation of wave through medium is possible if it possess __________
(a) momentum
(b) chemical properties (c) elasticity
(d)
none
Progressive wave travels continuously in __________ direction.
(a) perpendicular
(b) opposite
(c) same
inclined at 60°
8.
Propagation of disturbance through medium is __________
(a) oscillatory motion
(b) periodic motion
(c) non-periodic motion
(d) wave motion
9.
Wave motion is periodic in __________ and __________
(a) time, distance
(b) distance, space
(c) time, space
10.
11.
12.
13.
(d)
14.
A wave in which particles of medium vibrate in direction perpendicular to direction of propagation of
wave is __________ wave.
(a) mechanical wave
(b) light wave
(c) electromagnetic wave
(d) transverse wave
15.
In longitudinal wave particle of medium vibrate in direction __________ to direction of propagation of
wave.
(a) parallel
(b) perpendicular
(c) opposite
(d) none
Std : XI
16.
In transverse wave __________ and __________ are produced.
(a) compression, rarefaction
(b) crest, through
(c) trough, rarefaction
(d) condensation, extension
17.
In longitudinal wave __________ and __________ are produced.
(a) compression, rarefaction
(b) crest, through
(c) trough, rarefaction
(d) condensation, extension
18.
When transverse wave is passed through medium there is no change in __________
(a) force
(b) energy
(c) pressure
(d) power
19.
Velocity of longitudinal wave depends upon __________
(a) tension
(b) mass per unit length (c) density
(d)
none
Sound wave is produced when object is set into __________
(a) straight line
(b) perpendicular line (c) parallel line
(d)
vibration
Relation between ν η and λ is __________
(a) ν = η/λ
(b) ν = νλ
(d)
νλ = η
As per Netwon's formula velocity of sound at NTP is __________
(a) 340m/s
(b) 332.3 m/s
(c) 279.9 m/s
(d)
290m/s
For gaseous medium velocity of sound changes with change in
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) density
(d)
note
20.
21.
22.
23.
(c)
ν/λ = η
24.
Velocity of sound is directly proportional to square root of __________
(a) absolute pressure
(b) relative pressure
(c) absolute temperature
(d) relative temperature
25.
Velocity of sound in __________ air is greater.
(a) moist
(b) dry
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
(c)
clean
(d)
impure
__________ characteristic of sound distinguish two sound of same frequency.
(a) pitch
(b) loudness
(c) quality
(d)
none
__________ characteristic of sound distinguishes notes.
(a) pitch
(b) soundness
(c) quality
(d)
none
Musical instrument having fundamental tone and overtones in ratio 1: 2 : 3 is
(a) loudness
(b) pitch
(c) harmonic
(d)
noise
__________ is a pleasant sound.
(a) musical
(b) harmonic
(c)
noise
(d)
overtones
__________ is unpleasant sound.
(a) musical
(b) tone
(c)
noise
(d)
none
31.
Two notes when sounded simultaneously produce __________ sensation to ear.
(a) noise
(b) unpleasant
(c) pleasant
(d) none
32.
Two notes producing pleasant sensation in ear are __________
(a) consonance
(b) dissonance
(c) resonance
(d)
none
Two notes producing unpleasant sensation in ear are __________
(a) consonance
(b) dissonance
(c) resonance
(d)
none
33.
40
Sound Wave
34.
Frequency range for note Sa, Re, Ga, Ma, Pa, Dha, Ni, Sa is __________
(a) 250 to 520 Hz
(b) 300 to 400 Hz
(c) 200 to 400 Hz
(d) 320 to 640 Hz
35.
If two or more notes are sound together produces pleasant effect due to conchord is __________
(a) melody
(b) loudness
(c) harmony
(d) pitch
36.
If two or more notes are sound one after other produces pleasant effect due to conchord is __________
(a) melody
(b) loudness
(c) harmony
(d) pitch
37.
Series of notes separated by fixed musical interval is __________
(a) musical interval (b) musical scale
(c) music melody
38.
39.
40.
41.
Interval between two major tone is __________
10
8
(b)
(a)
9
9
Interval between two minor tone is __________
9
10
(a)
(b)
8
9
Decibel is unit of __________
(a) wavelength
(b) amplitude
(d)
music harmony
(c)
16
15
(d)
9
8
(c)
16
15
(d)
8
9
(c)
velocity
(d)
loudness
solid
(d)
vacuum
Longitudinal wave cannot travel through __________
(a) gases
(b) liquid
(c)
42.
When tunning fork is set into vibration producing sound then __________is same in material of tuning
force and in air.
(a) phase
(b) amplitude
(c) frequency
(d) velocity
43.
Mechanical waves produced at water surface are __________
(a) transverse
(b) longitudinal
(c) SHM
(d) transverse at longitudinal
44.
When pressure of air is doubled then velocity of sound is __________
(a) gets halved
(b) gets double
(c) remain same
(d)
45.
Laplace's formula is derived by considering that wave motion is __________
(a) isothermal change
(b) isobaric change
(c) adiabatic change
(d) none
46.
Due to change of temperature __________ factor of sound wave change.
(a) frequency
(b) wavelength
(c) amplitude
47.
(d)
become four times
phase
If frequency of sound is 340 Hz and its velocity is 340 m/s then wavelength is __________
(a) 1.2 m
(b) 1.6m
(c) 0.8m
(d) 1 m
LEVEL - 2
1.
2.
41
A motion that repets itself in equal interval of time is called ……….. motion .
(a) Periodic
(b) Non-periodic
(c) Harmonic
(d)
linear
In a wave, Which of the following is transferred from one point to another point ?
(a) Matter
(b) Energy
(c) both
(d) None
Std : XI
3.
Waves on water surface , represents which type of wave from the following ?
(a) Electromagnetic (b) (a) & (c)
(c) Mechanical
(d)
Non – Mechanical
4.
Which of the following are essential Properties for the progration of Mechanical wave through medium ?
(a) only Inertia
(b) only elasticity
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) None
5.
The shortest distance between two successive particle which are in the same state of vibration is
called ……….
(a) Amplitude
(b) Frequency
(c) Time Period
(d) Wave length
6.
If particle of medium are vibrating in X-Y plane then what is the direction of prapogation of transverse
wave ?
(a) X-axis
(b) Y-axis
(c) Z-axis
(d) Any axis (Cann’t predict)
7.
Which of the following (test) Phenomena distinguishes between longitudinal & Transverse wave.
(a) Reflection
(b) Polarization
(c) Refraction
(d) Interference
8.
Velocity of longitudinal wave is
(a)
γp
s
(b)
γ
p
s
(c)
γp
s
(d)
p
s
9.
For Transverse wave. If Density of metal is 0.6 kg/m3 & Area occupied by metal plate is 10m2 & Tension
is 6N then what is velocity of sound in plate ?
(a) 0.1 m/s
(b) 1m/s
(c) 10 m/s
(d) 0.5 m/s
10.
Velocity of sound in air is directly proportional to
(a)
T2
(b)
T
(c)
T3
(d)
1
T
{where, T is Temperature of gas }
11.
For every 1°C rise in temp. What is factor by which velocity of sound in air, if velocity at 0°C is
332 m/s ?
(a) 0.61 m/s
(b) 6.1 m/s
(c) 61 m/s
(d) 0.061 m/s
12.
The maximum displacement of particle from its mean position is called .
(a) Amplitude
(b) Frequency
(c) Time period
13.
14.
For a given frequency, Intensity of sound is proportional to ………….
(a) A
(b) A3
(c) A2
{A is the Amplitude of sound wave }
(d)
(d)
Wavelength
A
The velocity of transverse wave traveling along a stretched string is given by
(a)
m
T
(b)
m3
T
(c)
T
m
(d)
T
m3
Where, T is tension in string, m is mass per unit length of string
15.
16.
Sound is ……… wave propagation
(a) Electromagnetic (b) Transverse
(c)
Longitudinal
(d)
None of these
A 23°C, the velocity of sound wave at pressure p is v m/s, if pressure becomes twice at the same
temperature then what is the velocity of sound ?
(a) 2v m/s
(b) v m/s
(c) 3v m/s
(d) 4v m/s
42
Sound Wave
17.
18.
Velocity of sound in moist air is ……… than its velocity in day air
(a) greater
(b) smaller
(c) equal to
Wave motion is periodic in …………
(a) space
(c) both space and time
(b)
(d)
(d)
(a) or (b)
time
None of these
19.
Due to transverse wave propagation there is …………. in pressure and density of the medium at any
instant.
(a) change
(b) no change
(c) change in pressure but no change in density (d) change in density but no change in pressure
20.
The speed of sound – waves is greater in
(a) Solids
(b) liquid
21.
(c)
gases
(d)
in all medium it is same.
(d)
F=
If F is the frequency and T is time period then they are related as,
(a)
F=T
(b)
F = T2
(c)
F=
1
T
2
1
T
22.
If a body travels at a speed which is more than the speed of sound, it is said to travel at …….. speed.
(a) Infrasonic
(b) Supersonic
(c) Ultrasonic
(d) Ultrahigh
23.
When sound waves travel through air, the changes in the medium are ………….
(a) adiabatic
(b) isothermal
(c) isobaric
(d) isochoric
24.
The speed (v) of wave is related to frequency (f) and wavelength (x) as
(a)
v=
f
λ
(b)
v=
λ
F
(c)
v=fλ
(d)
v = 2 fλ
25.
Let v0 and V be the velocities of sound at 0°c and t°c respectively then they are related as
(a) V0 = v + (0.61)t
(b) V = V0 + (0.61) t
(d) V0 = (0.61) V + t
(c) V = (0.61)V0 + t
26.
Two musical sounds may differ from one another in Which of the following ways
(a) loudness
(b) pitch
(c) timbre
(d) all of these
27.
When two notes are simulatanemsly sounded together and if they produce pleasant sensation then it is
called
(a) Conchord
(b) Dischord
(c) Consonance
(d) (a) or (c)
28.
If the pleasant effect is produced, by the two or more notes, when they are sounded one after another,
known as _________
(a) Harmony
(b) melody
(c) Overtone
(d) dischord
29.
Velocity of sound (v) is related to density (δ) of gas at constant pleasure related as
1
1
v∝
(b) v ∝ δ
(c)
(d) v ∝
(a) v ∝ δ
δ
δ
What is velocity of sound in vaccum?
(a) 230 m/s
(b) 332 m/s
(c) 0 m/s
(d) 100 m/s
30.
31.
32.
43
The frequencies lying between 20Hz and 20,000 Hz is called
(a) Audible
(b) Infrasonic
(c) Ultrasonic
(d)
Supersonic
In longitudinal waves, particles of the medium ascillate in a direction ________ to the direction of
propagation of the wave.
(a) perpendicular
(b) parallel
(c) at angle of 60° (d) at angle of 30°
Std : XI
33.
An observer standing at the sea-coast, observes 48 waves reaching the coast per minutes. If the
wavelength of each wave is 10 m, then velocity of wave is,
(a) 5m/s
(b) 8 m/s
(c) 10 m/s
(d) 12 m/s
34.
VH and VD denote the speed of sound in humid air and dry air. We find that
(a) VH > VD
(b) VH = VD
(c) VH < VD
(d)
none
35.
The velocity of sound in air is Vs. If the density of air is doubled, then velocity of sound will be
VS
(a) VS
(b)
(c)
2VS
(d) 2 VS
2
36.
A radio station broadcasts its programme at a wavelength of 500 m. What is the frequency of the
radiowaves transmitted by the radiostation, if the speed of radiowaves is 3 × 108 m/s?
(b) 6 × 105 Hz
(c) 12 × 105 Hz
(d) 12 × 104 Hz
(a) 6 × 104 Hz
37.
A tunning fork has frequency 256 Hz produces a wave of wavelength 1.25 m. Calculate velocity of sound
wave.
(a) 230 m/s
(b) 640 m/s
(c) 800 m/s
(d) 320 m/s
38.
Find the temperature at which velocity of sound in air will be double its velocity at .0° C.
(c) 273 K
(d) 273° C
(a) 819 K
(b) 819°C
39.
A tunning fork makes one complete vibration in
the wavelength of sounded waves.
(a) 2 m
(b) 1.65 m
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
Wavelengths of two sound waves in air are
46.
47.
(c)
4m
(d)
3.65 m
80
80
m and
m. If the difference between the frequencies
177
175
of two notes is 8, compute velocity of sound.
(a) 3.20 m/s
(b) 640 m/s
(c)
160 m/s
(d)
800 m/s
Dimension of frequency are
(a) [L0M0T1]
(b)
(c)
[L0 M0 T−1]
(d)
[L−1 M0T0]
Who connected the formula of Newton for velocity of sound:
(a) Pascal
(b) Laplace
(c) Stroke
(d)
Einstein
For adiabatic changes for given mass of an ideal gas, the relation is
(a) PV = constant
(b) PT = constant
(c) PVy = constant
(d)
PTy = constant
(d)
K iso =
The frequencies which are below audible range are called
(a) infrasonic
(b) ultrasonic
(c) supersonic
(d)
None of these
The speed of light in vaccum is
(a) 3 × 108 m/s
(b) 320 m/s
(d)
3.2 × 108 m/s
[L1M0T0]
Isothermal elasticity (Kiso) of gas related to pressure (P) as
(a)
45.
1
S and the velocity of sound wave is 330 m/s. Find
200
Kiso = P
(b)
Kiso = 2P
(c)
(c)
Kiso = P2
3 × 109 m/s
1
P
The speed of sound in air is 330 m/s. The frequency of vibration of tunning fork is 480 Hz. Find period of
vibration.
1
1
1
1
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
240
480
120
960
44
Sound Wave
48.
In above question also find the wavelength of sound waves produced
11
16
12
(b)
(c)
(a)
16
11
16
(d)
5
8
49.
A source of sounds sends out a wave of wavelength 0.5 m in air and 1.5 m in a gas. If the velocity of
sound in air is 330 m/s. Find the velocity of sound in gas
(a) 825 m/s
(b) 1650 m/s
(c) 320 m/s
(d) 420 m/s
50.
The velocity of sound in air is 320 m/s . How for will a sound wave starting form a tunning fork of
frequency 256 Hz travel, when the tunning fork completes 4 vibrations ?
(a) 10 m
(b) 5 m
(c) 15 m
(d) 2.5 m
− Answer Key −
LEVEL - 1
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
b
b
b
c
d
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
a
c
c
a
c
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
c
c
b
b
a
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
b
d
c
a
c
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
a
a
a
c
c
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
b
d
b
a
b
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
b
a
a
b
d
8.
18.
28.
38.
d
c
c
d
9.
19.
29.
39.
c
c
b
b
10.
20.
30.
40.
a
d
c
d
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
c
c
a
b
c
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
c
c
c
a
a
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
d
c
b
b
a
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
c
b
d
b
a
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
b
a
d
d
b
8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
a
c
b
b
a
9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
b
b
c
b
a
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
b
a
c
a
b
LEVEL - 2
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
45
a
a
d
a
c
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
b
a
b
b
b
07
THERMAL EXPANSION
LEVEL - 1
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Thermal radiations are
(a) Mechanical waves
(b) Electrical waves
(c)
(d)
Electromechanical waves
Electromagnetic wave
Which of the following is slow process?
(a) Conduction
(b) Convection
(c)
Radiation
Thermal conductivity of material depends upon
(a) Nature of material
(c) Heat conducted
(b)
(d)
Material and temp difference
Atmospheric pressure
(d)
None of these
The value of thermal conductivity is higher in case of
(a) Insulator
(b) Good conductor
(c)
Thick body
A steady state temperature of different layers
(a) Increases with time
(c) Do not change with time
(b)
(d)
Decreases with time
Either increases or decreases
By increasing temperature of liquid it's
(a) Volume and density decreases
(c) Volume increases and density decreases
(b)
(d)
Volume and density increases
Volume decreases and density increases
When water is heated from 0° C to 10° C, it's volume
(a) Decreases continuously
(b)
(c) First increases then decreases
(d)
(d)
Thin body
First decreases then increases
Increases continuously
8.
A metal road having linear coefficient of expansion 2 × 10−5/0C and has length 1 m at 20° C the
temperature at which it is shortened by 1 mm is J(a) 30° C
(b) −30° C
(c) 50° C
(d) −50°C
9.
The volume of metal block changes by 0.18 % when it is heated through 20° C then its coefficient of
cubical expansion will be
(a) 9 × 10 −5 / 0 C
(b) 3 × 10 −5 / 0 C
(c) 6 × 1 0 − 5 / 0 C
(d) 4 × 10 −5 / 0 C
10.
Which of the following is not the unit of thermal conductivity?
(a) J/m s 0c
(b) kcal/m s 0k
(c) watt/m 0c
(d)
J/m2 s0c
11.
Two rods of same material, equal in length but one has cross-sectional area double of the other. If they
are heated through same temperature then which rod expands more?
(a) Thick
(b) Thin
(c) Both expand equally
(d) None of these
12.
Two metal rods has lengths in the ratio 3:2 and coefficient of linear expansion are in the ratio 2 : 3. If
they are heated from 35° C to 95° C then ratio of their linear expansion is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 1 : 3
13.
Iron sheet 50 cm × 20 cm is heated through 100° C If ∝ = 12 × 10−6/°C then change in area is
(a) 2.4 cm2
(b) 3.4 cm2
(c) 4.4 cm2
(d) 5.4 cm2
14.
The relation between ∝ and β is
(a) ∝ = ½ β
(b) β = ½ ∝
(c)
β=∝
(d)
2∝=3β
Thermal Expansion
15.
Liquid is filled in flask upto 2/3 of its capacity. When it is heated then level of liquid
(a) Initially increases then decreases
(b) Initially decreases then increases
(c) Increases abruptly
(d) Doesn't change
16.
In a room containing air, heat go from one place to another
(a) By conduction
(b) By convention
(c) By radiation
(d) By all the three ways
17.
Two holes are made in copper plate. The plate is heated The distance between the holes
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
(d) None of these
18.
In cold countries water pipes sometimes burst, because
(a) Pipe contracts
(b) Water expands on freezing
(c) Pressure is greater outside
(d) Water freezes, pressure increases
19.
Why do birds after swells their feathers
(a) It is their natural behaviours
(c) To trap air between their feathers
(b)
(d)
To smoothen the itching
None of these
20.
Eskimos build double walled houses of the blocks of ice because
(a) Heat can't flow outside from inside
(b) Ice is available in plenty
(c) To make the house appear spacious
(d) None of the above
21.
In cold countries, windows are made of double glass
(a) For strength
(b)
(c) To maintain the heat inside
(d)
For faint of light from outside
None of the above
Cubical expansion is undergone by
(a) Solids alone
(c) Solids, liquids and gases
Solids and liquids
Only liquids and gases
22.
(b)
(d)
23.
Four iron rods of different radii and lengths are used to connect two reservoirs of heat at different
temperatures. Which one will conduct more heat?
(a) r = 1 cm L = 1 m
(b) r = 2 m L = 2m
(c) r = 2 cm L = 0.5 m
(d) r = 0.5 cm L = 0.5 m
24.
Real expansion of liquid does not depend up on
(a) Nature of liquid
(b) Temperature difference of liquid
(c) Initial volume of liquid
(d) Pressure of liquid exerted on walls of container
25.
The coefficient of volume expansion in liquid which does not take into account the expansion of the
container is
(a) Real expansion
(b) Apparent expansion
(c) Linear expansion
(d) A real expansion
26.
There is a hole in metal plate. Upon heating the plate, the diameter of the hole
(a) Will increase
(b) Will decrease
(c) Will not change
(d) Increase or decrease depending upon the coefficient of surface expansion of the plate.
27.
If a liquid of coefficient of real expansion D is heated in a container having coefficient of linear
expansion r/3 then level of the liquid in the container will
(a) Rise
(b) Fall
(c) Remain almost stationary
(d) First rise then fall
47
Std : XI
28.
Coefficient of areal expansion for a solid is
(a) 3 times the coefficient of its linear expansion
(b) 3/2 times the coefficient of its volume expansion
(c) 2/3 times the coefficient of its volume expansion
(d) More than its coefficient of apparent expansion
29.
Railway tracks are laid with gaps for expansion. The gap between the steel rails 20 m long is 1.2 cm at 10°
(C) The temperature at which the steel rails will just touch each other is (∝ steel = 12 × 10−6/°C)
(a) 50° C
(b) 40° C
(c) 60° C
(d) 30° C
30.
Solids expand on heating because
(a) The K.E. of atoms increases
(c) Total energy of atoms increases
31.
32.
(b)
(d)
The P.E. of atoms increases.
internal atomic separation increases
An iron ball is heate(d) Then percentage increase will be largest in
(a) Diameter
(b) Surface area
(c) Volume
(d)
Density
Which of the following has minimum coefficient of linear expansion?
(a) Glass
(b) Copper
(c) Platinum
(d)
Invar steel
33.
A solid ball of metal has a spherical cavity inside it. If the ball is heated, then volume of the cavity will
(a) Decrease
(b) Increase
(c) Remains same .
(d) None of the above
34.
A copper wire of length l increases in length by 0.2% on heating from 20°C to 40°C) Then percentage
change in area of copper plate of dimensions 3 I × 21 on heating from 20° C to 40° C is
(a) 0.1%
(b) 0.2%
(c) 0.4%
(d) 0.6%
35.
The real expansion of liquid is greater than cubical expansion of the container then the liquid level
(a) Rises on heating
(b) Falls on heating
(c) First rises then falls on heating
(d) First falls then rises on heating
36.
If the apparent expansion of liquid is less than cubical expansion of the container, then
(a) Liquid level continuously increases on heating
(b) Liquid level continuously decreases on heating
(c) Liquid level first increases then decreases on heating
(d) Liquid level first decreases then increases on heating
37.
The apparent expansion of liquid doesn't depend upon
(a) Nature of liquid
(b)
(c) Change in temp
(d)
Colour of liquid
Material of vessel
38.
What should be lengths of steel and copper rods at 0° C so that the length of steel rod is 5 cm longer than
copper rod at all temperature? (∝ cu = 1.7 × 10 −5 / 0 C, ∝ steel , = 1 × 10 −5 / 0 C)
(a) 7.14 cm, 8.42 cm
(b) 12.14 cm, 7.14 cm
(c) 5 cm, 10 cm
(d) 10 cm, 5 cm
39.
If the coefficient of apparent expansion of liquid is 5/6th of coefficient of absolute expansion, then
coefficient of cubical expansion of vessel is times coefficient of real expansion of liquid
(a) 1/5
(b) 1/6
(c) 5/6
(d) 6/5
40.
The density of liquid at 0° C is 13.6 gm/cc and its coefficient of real expansion is 18 × 10−5/°C If the
temperature is increased to 200° C, the percentage change in density will be
(a) 0.36%
(b) 3.6%
(c) 36%
(d) 24.4%
41.
In a lake when it cools to the point where it is about to freeze, at 4° C water settles to bottom because it is
(a) Less dense
(b) More dense
(c) Very cold
(d) Very hot
48
Thermal Expansion
42.
One end of a copper rod is in contact with water at 100° C and other end in contact with ice at 0°C The
length of the rod is 100 cm. At a point which is at a distance of 35 cm from cold end, temp is (assuming
steady state heat flow.
(a) 35° C
(b) 65° C
(c) 70° C
(d) 55° C
43.
The amount of heat flowing in 10 seconds through copper rod of length 50 cm and area 15 cm2 when ends
are at 100° C and 0° C is (k = 380 W m−1k−1.
(a) 1140 J
(b) 1260J
(c) 1520J
(d) 1380J
44.
During steady state of a rod heated at one end and surrounded by bad conductor, the rate of heat flow is
(a) Same through any cross-section
(b) More through nearer cross-section
(c) More through nearer cross-section at lower temp
(d) None of the above
45.
Temperature gradient is variation of temperature with
(a) Time
(b) Variation in surrounding temperature
(c) Distance from hot end
(d) The fluctuations in the heat flow
46.
A thickness of 2 cm of wool is required to conduct 42 Joule per square meter per second for a temperature
difference of 20 k. The value of thermal conductivity for wool is
(a) 0.42 W/mk
(b)
0.042 Watt/mk
(c) 0.24 W/mk
(d) 0.021 Watt/mk
47.
Liquid show
(a) Linear expansion
(c) Volume expansion
48.
49.
(b)
(d)
Cloudy nights are usually warmer because clouds
(a) Have high thermal conductivity
(b)
(c) Absorbs heat
(d)
Superficial expansion
Both (b) & (c)
Have low thermal conductivity
Do not absorb heat
The density of liquid at 0° C is 0.8 gm/cc Its density at 80° C is (D = 5 × 10−4/°C)
(a) 768 gm/cc
(b) 7.68 gm/cc
(c) 0.768 gm/cc
(d) 76.8 gm/cc
LEVEL - 2
1.
SI unit of heat energy is …………
(a) ergs
(b) Kelvin
(c)
joule
(d)
kilo – joule
2.
Heat transfer takes place between system and the surrounding medium, until the body temperature is
…….. to the temperature of surrounding
(a) greater
(b) equal
(c) less
(d) greater or equal
3.
The temperature at which pure water freezes at standard atmospheric pressure is called as ……..
(a) Ice point
(b) Steam point
(c) Freezing point
(d) both (a) and (c)
4.
SI unit of temperature is ………..
(a) Kelvin
(b) celcius
5.
49
(c)
joule
(d)
ohm
The boiling point is the temperature at which vapour pressure of liquid becomes ………… pressure of
temperature
(a) equal to
(b) greater than
(c) less than
(d) different than
Std : XI
6.
7.
8.
Which one of the follow relation is true ?
t f − 32 t c − 0
t f − 32 t c − 0
=
=
(a)
(b)
100
180
180
100
(c)
t f + 32 t c − 0
=
180
100
On Fahrenheit scale, the steam point is marked as …………..
(a) 32° F
(b) 212 °F
(c) 100° F
Mathematically, Boyle’s law can be represented as
(a) V ∝ P at constant temperature
(b)
1
(c) V ∝ at constant temperature
(d)
P
(d)
t f + 32 t c − 0
=
100
180
(d)
0°F
V ∝ P under varying temperature
1
V ∝ under varying temperature
P
9.
Which law states that at constant pressure, volume of a given mass of a gas is directly proportional to
absolute temperature ?
(a) Boyle’s law
(b) Arogadro’s law
(c) Gay-Lussac’s law
(d) Charle’s law
10.
Ideal gas equation is __________
(a) Pv = nRT
(b) PT = VRn
(c)
PR = Vnt
11.
The value of universal gas constant (R) is __________ for all gases
(a) Same
(b) different
(c) same for some gases
(d) varying under different experimental conditions
12.
Value of universal gas constant (R) is _______
(a) 8.3 Jk mol
(b) 8.3 Jk mol−1
13.
14.
15.
(c)
(d)
8.3 J−1 k−1 mol−1 (d)
Pn = VRT
8.3 J k−1 mol−1
The lowest possible temperature attained by an object is ___________
(a) 0°C
(b) −100°C
(c) −273.15°C
(d)
273.15°C
The absolute temperature T and celcius temperature tc are related as
(a) T = tc + 273.15 (b) tc = t + 273.15
(c) T + 200 = tc
(d)
T = tc
The energy related to thermal expansion is _______
(a) Electrical energy
(b)
(c) Thermal energy
(d)
mechanical energy
Chemical energy
16.
There is a hole in a metal plate upon heating the plate, the diameter of the hole
(a) Will increase
(b) Will decrease
(c) Will not change
(d) increase or decreases depending upon co-efficient of surface expansion of plate
17.
A solid which expands equally in all directions on heating is called.
(a) Isotropic
(b) Transperent
(c) Opaque
18.
19.
(d)
Increase in length of rod is directly proportional to
(a) Its original length
(b)
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d)
rise in temperature
None of the above
Which one of the following relation is true ?
(a) L0 = Lt (1 + ∝t) (b) Lt = L0 (1 + ∝t)
Lt = L0 (1 − ∝t)
(c)
(d)
Anisotropic
L0 = Lt (1 − ∝t)
50
Thermal Expansion
20.
21.
The unit co-efficient of linear expansion of solid is ___________
(a) m/k
(b) k/m
(c) 1/k
(d)
k
(d)
β=
The co-efficient of areal expansion (β) is given by
(a)
β=
A 2 + A1
A1 (t 2 − t1 )
(b)
β=
A 2 − A1
A 2 (t 2 − t1 )
(c)
β=
A 2 + A1
A 2 (t 2 − t1 )
A 2 − A1
A1 (t 2 − t1 )
22.
Co-efficient of cubical expansion (γ) is related with co-efficient of areal expansion (β) by relation
(a) 3β = 2y
(b) 2β = 3y
(c) 2β = y
(d) β = 2y
23.
On heating water from 0°C to 100°C which of the following thing happens ?
(a) 0°c to 100°c its density decreases
(b) 0°c to 100°c its density increases
(c) 0°c to 4°c its density increase and then upto 100°c its density decreases
(d) 0°c to 4°c its density decreases and then upto 100°c its density increases
24.
The heat absorbed or evolved (Q), mass of substance (M) and rise in temperature (∆T) and specific heat
(C) can be specific heat (C) can be related as
(a)
25.
C=
m
Q∆T
(b)
SI unit of specific heat is
(a) J kg k−1
(b)
C=
Q
m∆T
J kg−1 k
(c)
C=
∆T
mQ
(d)
C=
m∆T
Q
(c)
J−1 kg k
(d)
J kg−1 k−1
26.
In case of gas, specific heat at constant pressure is _________ specific heat at constant volume.
(a) greater than
(b) less than
(c) equal to
(d) depends on gas
27.
The number of molecules in one mole of gas is
(a) 6.023 × 1024
(b) 6.023 × 1023
(c)
6.023 × 1026
(d)
6.023 × 1025
28.
If M is molecular weight the molar specific heat at constant volume (CV) and principal specific heat at
constant volume (CV) are related as
(a) Cv = M × cv
(b) cv = M × Cv
(c) Cv = cv
(d) Cv = M × cv × 2
29.
The specific heat of substance can be measured by
(a) Thermometer
(b) Ohmeter
(c)
Ammeter
(d)
Calorimeter
30.
A point where water in a solid, liquid and gas states coexists in equilibrium is called __________ .
(a) Melting point
(b) boiling point
(c) Triple point
(d) Sublimation point
31.
The pressure at triple point of water is _______ of mercury
(a) 4.58 m
(b) 4.58 cm
(c) 4.58 mm
(d)
45.8 cm
S.I. unit of latent heat is __________
(a) J
(b) J/kg
(d)
1/J
(d)
m
32.
(c)
kg/J
33.
For conduction of heat to take place which conditions should be satisfied ?
(a) The two points should be at different temperatures
(b) There should be a medium between two points
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
34.
Temperature gradient has the unit of __________
(a) k
(b) m/k
(c)
51
k/m
Std : XI
35.
The quantity of heat conducted in the steady state through section is directly proportional to
(a) its cross-sectional area
(b) temperature gradient
(c) time for which the heat is conduced
(d) All the above
36.
The dimensions of thermal conductivity are
(a) [L1 M1 K−1 T−3] (b) [L1 M1 K1 T−3]
37.
38.
(c)
[L1 M−1 K1 T−3]
(d)
[L1 M−1 K−3 T−1]
Which of the following mode of transfer of heat does not require medium ?
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d)
None of the above
Which of the following is fastest mode of transfer of heat ?
(a) radiation
(b) conduction
(c) convection
none of these
(d)
39.
According to Newton’s law of cooling, rate of fall of temperature of a body is directly proportional to
(a) temperature of body
(b) excess temperature of body over surrounding
(c) temperature of surrounding
(d) square of temperature of body
40.
Four iron rods of different radii and lengths are used to connect two reservoirs of heat at different
temperatures which one will conduct more heat ?
(a) r = 1cm L = 1m
(b) r = 2m L = 2m
(c) r = 2cm L = 0.5m
(d) r = 0.5cm L = 0.5m
41.
If room temperature is 30°C the what is its temperature in degree Fahrenheit ?
(a) 30°F
(b) 62°F
(c) 22°F
(d)
86°F
42.
Railway tracks are laid with gaps for expansion . The gap between steel rails 20m long is 1.2cm at 10°C .
The temperature at which steel rails will just touch each other is ________ .
[αsteel = 12 × 10−6/°C]
(a) 50°C
(b) 40°C
(c) 60°C
(d) 30°C
43.
How much will a bar of aluminium 100cm long expand when heated from 20°C to 100°C ?
(αAL = 25 × 10−6/°C)
(a) 0.2cm
(b) 2cm
(c) 20cm
(d) 0.02cm
44.
The volume of water at 10°C is 50cm3. When water is heated upto 30°C, its volume changes by 0.3cm3 .
Calculate co-efficient of its cubical expansion.
(a) 3 × 10−5/k
(b) 3 × 10−6 /k
(c) 3 × 10−4/k
(d) 3 × 10−3/k
45.
At what temperature do the Kelvin and Fahrenheit scale coincide ?
(a) 500°F
(b) 600°F
(c) 100°F
(d)
574.6°F
46.
A sheet of Cu has area 50 sq. cm. at 20°C. Find its area at 100°C, if co-efficient of linear expansion for Cu
is 16 × 10−6/K
(a) 50.128 sq.cm
(b) 49.128 sq.cm
(c) 40.128 sq.cm
(d) 60.128 sq. cm
47.
If 7.65 kcal of heat is required to raise temperature from 10°C to 40°C and specific heat of body is 0.51
kcal/kg °C then what is the mass of body ?
(a) 0.05 kg
(b) 0.5kg
(c) 50 kg
(d) 5 kg
48.
A steel rod at temperature 27°C is heated to 97°C. If length of rod at 97°C is 1.0m, calculate original
length
αsteel = 12 × 10−6/°C
(a) 1.8m
(b) 1.2m
(c) 0.5m
(d) 0.999m
52
Thermal Expansion
49.
A rod of copper 20cm long of cross sectional area 4cm2 is maintained at 100°C at one end and 50°C at
other end compute amount of heat conducted per minute
Kcu = 9.2 × 10−2 Kcal/m sec k
(a) 1.552 kcal
(b) 5.552 kcal
(c) 0.552 kcal
(d) 10.552 kcal
50.
A glass window pan has an area of 0.5m2 and is 0.3cm thick. The temperature difference between inside
and outside of room is 10°C. Calculate the heat conducted through glass per minute.
Kglass = 15 × 10−5 SI units
(a) 15 kcal
(b) 20 kcal
(c) 30 kcal
(d) 60 kcal
− Answer Key −
LEVEL - 1
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
d
c
c
c
b
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
a
c
c
d
b
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
a
a
c
b
a
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
b
a
d
c
a
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
c
a
b
a
c
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
c
b
a
b
b
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
b
c
c
b
c
8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
b
b
c
b
b
9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
a
c
c
b
c
10.
20.
30.
40.
d
a
d
b
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
d
c
c
c
a
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
a
a
b
c
c
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
a
c
d
d
d
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
b
a
a
a
a
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
b
a
b
c
b
8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
a
c
a
a
a
9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
d
b
d
b
c
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
a
c
c
c
a
LEVEL - 2
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
53
c
a
d
c
d
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
b
d
a
b
c
08
REFRACTION
OF LIGHT
LEVEL - 1
1.
2.
3.
4.
Light travels with a velocity ________ in vacuum or air.
(a) 3 × 107m/s
(b) 3 × 108m/s
(c) 3 × 105m/s
(d)
3 × 106m/s
Light is an ________ radiation.
(a) electromagnetic (b) magnetic
(d)
none
(d)
phase
(c)
electrical
If medium of light changes then ________ remains unchanged.
(a) wavelength
(b) velocity
(c) frequency
A light ray of single frequency is ________
(a) chromatic light
(c) monochromatic light
(b)
(d)
achromatic light
none
5.
When a ray of light travels from one medium to other medium then there is change in its direction called
________
(a) reflection
(b) diffraction
(c) refraction
(d) incidence
6.
Bending of ray of light when it travels from one medium to another of different optical density is
________
(a) diffraction of light
(b) refraction of light
(c) scattering of light
(d) none
7.
When a ray of light travels from rarer medium to denser medium then light ray bends ________ the
normal.
(a) parallel to
(b) perpendicular
(c) away from
(d) towards
8.
When a ray of light travels from denser medium to rarer medium then light ray bends ________ the
normal.
(a) away from
(b) towards
(c) parallel to
(d) perpendicular to
9.
When a light ray is incident on a glass slab surface part of light is ________ and remaining part is
(a) reflected, reflected
(b) refracted, refracted
(c) reflected, refracted
(d) refracted, diffracted
10.
Ratio of sine of angle of incidence to sine of angle of refraction is ________
(a) reflection constant
(b) refraction constant
(c) diffraction constant
(d) none
11.
When one of medium is air or vacuum then ratio of refractive indices of medium is ________
(a) relative refractive index
(b) absolute refractive index
(c) unity refractive index
(d) none
12.
Absolute refractive index of any medium is ________
(a) greater than zero (b) greater than one
(c)
13.
zero
(d)
unity
Velocity of light in first medium to velocity of light in second medium is ________
(a) refractive index of first medium with respect to second medium
(b) refractive index of second medium with respect to first medium
(c) absolute refractive index
(d) none
Refraction of Light
14.
Angle of incidence for such a ray at which angle of refraction is 90° and refracted ray is along the surface
this angle is
________
(a) vertical angle
(b) reflecting angle
(c) glancing angle
(d) critical angle
15.
Angle of incidence greater than critical angle at which complete reflection of light back into same medium
take place is ________
(a) internal reflection
(b) partial internal reflection
(c) total internal reflection
(d) none
16.
Refractive index of ________ material is more.
(a) water
(b) crown glass
(c)
flint glass
(d)
diamond.
Critical angle of ________ material is greater.
(a) water
(b) crown glass
(c)
flint glass
(d)
diamond
________ are used to transmit light rays.
(a) co-axial cable
(b) twin cable
(c)
fibre optic cable (d)
17.
18.
none
19.
Separation of light into its constituent colours is ________
(a) refraction of light
(b) scattering of light
(c) dispersion of light
(d) none
20.
Light emerging from prism is seen on screen in the form of colour bands called ________
(a) width
(b) length
(c) band
(d) spectrum
21.
Difference between deviation suffered by two colours when light ray is passed through a prism is
________
(a) angular separation
(b) angular dispersion
(c) angular deviation
(d) none
22.
Ratio of angular dispersion between two extreme colours to deviation of mean colour is ________
(a) angular deviation
(b) angular separation
(c) dispersive power
(d) none
23.
Dispersive power of prism is independent of ________
(a) refractive index of material
(b) material of prism
(c) refracting angle of prism
(d) none
24.
Rainbow occurs in ________ season.
(a) winter
(b) summer
(c)
rainy
(d)
none
25.
Combination of refraction of light by spherical water droplets present in air and total internal reflection is
________
(a) scattering of light
(b) dispersion of light
(c) rainbow
(d) refraction of light
26.
Primary rainbow is ________ of secondary rainbow.
(a) same size
(b) smaller size
(c)
greater size
(d)
none
27.
Violet colour ray makes ________ deviation angle with sun rays for primary rainbow.
(a) 41°
(b) 43°
(c) 42°
(d) 52°
28.
Red colour ray makes ________ deviation angle with sun rays for primary rainbow.
(a) 41°
(b) 43°
(c) 42°
(d) 52°
29.
Yellow colour makes ________ deviation with sun rays for primary rainbow.
(a) 41°
(b) 43°
(c) 42°
(d)
55
52°
Std : XI
30.
31.
Red colour makes ________ deviation with sun rays for secondary rainbow.
(a) 53°
(b) 41°
(c) 51°
(d)
52°
Violet colour makes ________ deviation with sun rays for secondary rainbow.
(a) 43°
(b) 51°
(c) 52°
(d)
53°
32.
Yellow colour makes ________ deviation with sun rays for secondary rainbow.
(a) 53°
(b) 42°
(c) 52°
(d) 45°
33.
Deflection of light rays in different direction when ray of light is incident on very small object is
________
(a) dispersion of light
(b) scattering of light
(c) refraction of light
(d) none
34.
Intensity of scattered light is inversely proportional to ________ power of the wavelength of light.
(a) fourth
(b) second
(c) third
(d) one
35.
Scattering of light does not occur in ________ layer at atmosphere.
(a) below
(b) above
(c) between
(d)
none
36.
A ray of light is incident at an angle of 55° on the face of an equilateral prism and gets deviated through
40°, then the angle of emergence is ________
(a) 40°
(b) 55°
(c) 45°
(d) 60°
37.
If refracting angle of prism is 60° and a ray of light is passed with minimum angle of deviation 36° then
its refractive index is ________
(a) 1.42
(b) 1.486
(c) 1.386
(d) 1.586
38.
For refracting angle 10° the refractive indices for red and violet colour of prism are 1.64 and 1.66 then its
angular dispersion is ________
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.1
39.
Angular deviation of red and violet colour through prism is 6° and 9° then dispersive power of prism is
________
(a) 0.4
(b) 0.2
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.1
40.
Absolute refractive index of denser medium is refractive index of the medium with respect to ________
(a) water
(b) glass
(c) rarer medium
(d) air
41.
A light having wavelength 6500°A in air is passed through water having refractive index 1.3 the
percentage change in wavelength is ________
(a) 15%
(b) 30%
(c) 25%
(d) 23%
42.
Refractive index of glass with respect to water is 1.25 the wavelength of light in glass is 6000 A then
wavelength of light in water is ________
(a) 6000°A
(b) 6500°A
(c) 7500°A
(d) 8000°A
56
Refraction of Light
LEVEL - 2
1.
When a ray of light enters into air from a glass slab
(a) its wavelength decreases
(b)
(c) its frequency increases
(d)
its wavelength increases
its frequency decreases
2.
Refraction means
(a) Light travel in straight line when there is a change of medium
(b) Light travel in zinzac line when there is a change of medium
(c) Light travel from one transparent medium into another medium there is a change in its direction
(d) None of these.
3.
Duration of day time is greater than night time due to this property of light
(a) refraction
(b) reflection
(c) diffraction
(d)
4.
A monochromatic of light after passing through the prism should be made of
(a) seven colours
(b) five colours only
(c) two colours only .
(d) one colour only
5.
Which of the following has maximum refractive index?
(a) water
(b) diamond
(c) glass
6.
One cannot see through fog because
(a) a fog absorbs light
(b) refractive index of fog is unity
(c) light is scattered by the droplets in fog
(d) light suffers total internal reflection at the droplets in fog
7.
when a straight rod is put into water obliquely then rod appears as
(a) bent
(b) obliquely
(c) straight line
8.
(d)
air
(d)
half broken
Total internal reflection is possible when a ray of light passes from
(a) air into water
(b) air into glass,
(c) glass into water (d)
9.
The phenomenon of total internal reflection does not play any role in the
(a) formation of rainbow
(b) sparkling of diamond
(c) phenomenon of mirage
(d) none of these
10.
Rainbow is due to
(a) scattering of light by water droplets
(b) refraction and total internal reflection by water droplets
(c) dispersion and total internal reflection of light by water droplets
(d) none of these
11.
Optical fibres are based on
(a) total internal reflection
(c) refraction
12.
13.
57
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
water into glass
less scattering
less absorption coefficient
A prism is placed in water. The angle of minimum deviation
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
Dispersive power depends upon
(a) shape of prism
(c) material of prism
scattering
(d)
none of these
refracting angle of prism
both material and angle of prism
Std : XI
14.
The refractive index of glass is 3/2. The time taken by a monochromatic light rays to travel distance in
air is 4s. The time taken by the light ray to travel the same distance in glass is
(a) 4s
(b) 6s
(c) 8/3 s
(d) 3s
15.
The electrical signals through light pipes can be transported due to
(a) Refraction
(b) Reflection
(c) Total internal reflection
(d) Diffraction
16.
The distance travelled by a ray of light in two media, in the same time are in the ratio 2 : 3. The ratio of
refractive index of first medium with respect second medium is
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 4 .: 9
(d) 9 : 8
17.
The wavelength of a wave in vacuum is 5700 A°. Wavelength of the same wave in glass of refractive
index 3/2 is
(a) 1900 A0
(b) 5400 A0
(c) 3800 A0
(d) 8500 A0
18.
If the angle of incidence and angle of refraction at the first refracting surface are 45° and 30°
respectively, then refractive index of the material of the prism is
(a) 2
(b)
2
(c) 1/2
(d)
1/ 2
19.
A ray of light passing through a prism having refractive index 2 suffers minimum deviation. It is
found that the angle of incident is double the angle of refraction with in the prism. Then angle of the
prism is
(a) 45°
(b) 60°
(c) 75°
(d) 90°
20.
The angle of minimum deviation of a prism of refractive index
the refracting angle of that prism is
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
3 is equal to its refracting angle. Then
(d)
90°
21.
A prism of refractive index 2 has a angle of refracting 60°. At what angle must a ray be incident on
it so that it undergoes minimum deviation?
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
22.
The angle of a prism is 6° and its refractive index is 1.5. Then angle of deviation produced by the prism
is
(a) 3°
(b) 9°
(c) 12°
(d) 15°
23.
The refractive index of the prism for violet colour is 1.7 and that for red is 1.65. If the refractive index
for mean colour is 1.66, dispersive power of that material is
(a) 0.0157
(b) 0.07575
(c) 0.0525
(d) 0.7575
24.
Critical angle of light passing from glass to air is minimum for
(a) red
(b) green
(c) yellow
(d)
violet
25.
If the critical angle for total internal reflection-from a medium to vacuum is 30°. The velocity of light
in the medium is
(a) 3 × 108 m/s
(b) 1.5 × 108 m/s
(c) 6 × 108 m/s
(d)
2 × 108 m / s
26.
A ray of light is incident on reflecting surface at an angle of 60° with surface. The angle of reflection of
light will be
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 45°
(d) 90°
27.
During the refraction of light, which of the following remains unchanged
(a) velocity
(b) wavelength
(c) direction
(d)
amplitude
58
Refraction of Light
28.
Light travel fastest in
(a) Glass
(b)
Water
(c)
Oil
(d)
Vaccum
29.
Speed of light
(a) Changes in different media
(b) Remain same in a different medium
(c) First increase then decreases in different media
(d) First decrease then increases in different media
30.
The refractive index of glass with respect to water is 5/4. The wavelength of light in glass is 6000 A.U. The
wavelength of light in water will be
(a) 5000 A.U.
(b) 6500 A.U.
(c) 7500 A.U.
(d) 8000 A.U.
31.
If i is angle of incidence of ray of light in denser medium and c is critical angle. For total internal reflection
(a) i = c
(b) i < c
(c) i > c
(d) i ≤ c
32.
Absolute refractive index of a denser medium is the refractive index of that medium w.r.t.
(a) water
(b) glass
(c) air
(d) it self
33.
When light passes from water to glass then its wavelength
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c)
remains same
(d)
uncertain
34.
A light of wavelength 6500 (A)U. in air is passed through water of refractive index 1.3. The percentage change in
wavelength will be
(a) 15 %
(b) 23 %
(c) 25 %
(d) 30 %
35.
Principles of reversibility of light means
(a) Light travel in different direction when reflected at normal incidence .
(b) Light travel across the same path in opposite direction when reflected in normal incidence
(c) Light travel in same path in same direction when reflected at normal incidence
(d) Light disappear after reflected at normal incidence
36.
Critical angle of light passing from glass to air is minimum for
(a) red colour
(b) green colour
(c) blue colour
(d)
violet colour
37.
A ray of light travelling in a glass slab of refractive index 2 , is incident on the glass air interface at on angle
of incidence of 45°. The refractive index of air is one. Under these condition is the ray
(a) will be absorbed
(b) will travel in air without any deviation
(c)
will emerge into air with an angle of refraction equal to 90°
(d) will suffer total internal reflection
38.
A prism of angle 4° gives a deviation of 2.4°. The refractive index of the material of the prism is
(a) 1.5
(b) 1.55
(c) 1.6
(d)
1.8
39.
In an achromatic combination of prisms, we use .
(a) deviation without refraction
(b)
(c) dispersion without reflection
(d)
dispersion without deviation
deviation without dispersion
40.
The blue colour of the sky is due to the phenomenon of
(a) reflection of light
(b) total internal refraction
(c) scattering
(d) refraction of light
41.
When a ray of light travels from rarer medium into denser medium it's velocity
(a) Remains same
(b) Decreases
(c) Increases
(d) All of them are possible
59
Std : XI
42.
In total internal reflection
(a) Light ray travel from denser to rarer medium
(b) Light ray travel in straight line in denser medium
(c) Light ray bends towards normal in denser medium
(d) Light ray does not emerges in rarer medium from denser medium
43.
Critical angle is
(a) The ray traveling in the denser medium is refracted with any angle with surface
(b) The ray traveling in denser medium is refracted with 45° with surface
(c) The ray traveling in denser medium is refracted with angle of 90° with surface
(d) The ray traveling in denser medium is refracted with angle of 0° with surface
44.
When a ray of light travels from one transparent medium into other transparent medium it's frequency
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Remains same
(d) All possible
45.
Mirage is example of
(b) Refraction only
(c) Both refraction & refraction
(b)
(d)
Refraction only
Total internal reflection
An air bubble in water would behave as a
(a) divergent lens
(c) reflecting surface
(b)
(d)
convergent lens
dispersive surface
46.
47.
In prism formula angle of deviation is minimum if
(a) Angle of incidence is equal to angle of deviation.
(b) Angle of incidence is equal to angle of refraction.
(c) Angle of incidence is equal to angle of emergence.
(d) Angle of incidence is equal to angle of prism.
48.
A thin prism T1 with angle 4° and made up of glass of refractive index 1.54 is combined with another
prism T2 to produce dispersion without deviation. The angle of prism T2 is
(a) 5.33°
(b) 4°
(c) 3°
(d) 2.6°
49.
Relationship between critical angle & R.I. of medium is
50.
1
µa
(a)
sin i c =w µ a
(b)
sin i c =
w
(c)
sin ic = aµw
(d)
sin i c =
a
For stopping the vehicle red colour is used because
(a) It is scattered more
(b)
(c) It is scattered very little
(d)
1
µw
It is reflected more
It is fascinating colour
51.
Optical fibre is called light pipes because
(a) They are flexible, thin tubes & carrying light
(b) They are non flexible, thin tubes & carrying light
(c) They are flexible, thick tubes & carrying light
(d) They are flexible, thick tubes & carrying no light
52.
A yellow light travels from rarer medium into denser medium at the value of critical angle, the! ray
will
(a) Graze along the surface with 90° of angle of refraction I
(b) Be reflected back only
(c) Be dispersed into another medium
(d) None of them
60
Refraction of Light
53.
A ray of light traveling in a transparent medium falls on a surface separating two media, one air and
other transparent medium, an angle of incidence of 45°. The ray undergoes total internal reflection. If
µ is the refractive index of the medium w.r.t. air. The possible value of µ is
(a) 1.3
(b) 1.4
(c) 1.5
(d) 1.6
54.
A person wears spectacle with left eye glass of red colour and right eye glass of yellow
stands infront of plane mirror. He observes
(a) Both eyes of red colour
(b) Right eye yellow colour and left eye red colour
(c) Right eye red colour and left eye yellow colour
(d) Both eyes of yellow colour
55.
In rainbow the sun is always
(a) at the back of an observer
(c) on the right hand side of an observer
(b)
(d)
facing an observer
on the left hand side of an observer
In Periscope
(a) Incident ray of emergent ray are of 90°
(c) Incident ray of emergent ray at 0°
(b)
(d)
Incident ray of emergent ray are at 180°
Incident ray of emergent ray at 45°
In case of Diamond
(a) R.I. is low & Critical angle is high
(c) R.I. is high & Critical is low
(b)
(d)
R.I. is low & Critical is low
R.I. is high & Critical is high
55.
57.
colour.
− Answer Key −
LEVEL - 1
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
b
b
b
d
d
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
a
b
c
c
c
3.
13.
23.
33.
c
b
c
b
4.
14.
24.
34.
c
d
c
a
5.
15.
25.
35.
c
c
c
b
6.
16.
26.
36.
b
d
b
c
7.
17.
27.
37.
d
a
a
b
8.
18.
28.
38.
a
c
b
a
9.
19.
29.
39.
c
c
c
a
10.
20.
30.
40.
b
d
c
d
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
53.
a
c
b
b
c
b
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
54.
d
b
d
b
c
d
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
55.
b
c
b
b
d
a
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
56.
d
a
a
d
a
a
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
57.
a
c
d
c
c
c
8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
c
b
d
c
c
9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
a
d
a
d
d
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
a
c
c
c
c
LEVEL - 2
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
51.
61
b
a
b
c
b
a
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
52.
c
b
a
c
d
d
He
09
RAY OPTICS
LEVEL - 1
1.
2.
2.
4.
In reflection of light wave ________ changes.
(a) amplitude
(b) frequency
(c)
phase
(d)
speed
If reflection takes place from inner surface of mirror then it is ________
(a) concave
(b) corivex
(c) spherical
(d)
plane
If reflection takes place from outer surface of mirror then it is ________
(a) concave
(b) convex
(c) spherical
(d)
plane
Focal length of spherical mirror is ________ its radius of curvature.
(a) same
(b) double
(c) half
(d)
one fourth
5.
Rays coming parallel to principal axis pass through ________ after reflection.
(a) centre
(b) pole
(c) radius of curvature
(d) focus
6.
Light rays coming through focus of mirror becomes ________ to principal axis after reflection.
(a) parallel
(b) perpendicular
(c) inclined at angle 60°
(d) inclined at 45°
7.
Image formed by convex mirror of real object is larger than object if ________
(a) µ < 2f
(b) µ > 2f
(c) for all values of µ (d)
none
Ratio of speed of light in vacuum to speed of light in medium is ________
(a) reflection
(b) refraction
(c) diffraction
(d)
refractive index
Convex lens is ________ lens.
(a) divergent
(b) convergent
(c)
plane
(d)
spherical
Concave lens is ________ lens.
(a) divergent
(b) convergent
(c)
plane
(d)
spherical
8.
9.
10.
11.
Point on lens where incident ray refracts without deviation in its path is ________
(a) centre of curvature
(b) focus
(c) optical centre
(d) focal point
12.
Ray of light passing through optical centre go ________ after refraction.
(a) straight way
(b) opposite way
(c) inclined at some angle
(d) none
13.
Diffraction of light causes change in ________ of light.
(a) speed
(b) wavelength
(c) amplitude
14.
15.
(d)
frequency
As per law of reflection, angle of incidence is ________ angle of reflection.
(a) greater than
(b) smaller than
(c) equal to
(d)
none
Incident ray and reflected ray lie on ________ side of normal.
(a) opposite
(b) same
(c) perpendicular
parallel
(d)
Ray Optics
16.
Line joining pole and centre of curvature is ________
(a) principal focus
(b)
(c) radius of curvature
(d)
principal axis
focal plane
17.
Distance between centre of curvature and spherical surface is ________
(a) centre of curvature
(b) radius of curvature
(c) pole
(d) principal axis
18.
Light rays which are parallel to principal axis of lens can converge at a point on axis after reflection is
________
(a) centre of curvature
(b) radius of curvature
(c) principal focus
(d) optical centre
19.
Distance between optical centre and principal focus is ________
(a) radius of curvature
(b) focal length
(c) focal plane
(d) thickness of lens
20.
Ratio of linear size of image to linear size of object is ________
(a) magnifying power
(b) linear magnification
(c) optical magnification
(d) none
21.
M.P. of simple microscope for image at DDV is ________
(a) zero
(b) unity
(c) maximum
(d)
minimum
M.P. of simple microscope for image at infinity is ________
(a) unity
(b) zero
(c) maximum
(d)
minimum
22.
23.
Ratio of angle subtended at eye by image to angle subtended at unaided eye by object at DDV is
________
(a) M.P. of telescope
(b) M.P. of terrestrial telescope
(c) M.P. of compound microscope
(d) M.P. of simple microscope
24.
Ratio of angle subtended at eye by final image to angle subtended at unaided eye when object is at DDV
is ________
(a) M.P. of compound microscope
(b) M.P. of simple microscope
(c) M.P. of terrestrial microscope
(d) M.P. of telescope
25.
Ratio of focal length of objective to focal length of eye piece is ________
(a) M.P. of terrestrial microscope
(b) M.P. of telescope
(c) M.P. of compound microscope
(d) M.P. of simple microscope
26.
In compound microscope objective is of ________ focal length and eye piece is of ________ focal length.
(a) small, small
(b) large, large
(c) small, large
(d) large, small
27.
In compound microscope aperture of objective is ________ and that of eye piece is
(a) small, large
(b) large, small
(c) large, large
(d) small, small
28.
Astronomical telescope objective has ________ focal length and ________ aperture.
(a) small, small
(b) large, large
(c) large, small
(d) small, large
29.
If object is placed at 6cm from convex lens having focal length 12 cm then image formed is at ________
distance.
(a) 6 cm
(b) 5cm
(c) 4cm
(d) 12cm
30.
If object is place at 6cm from concave lens having radius of curvature 30 cm then image is formed at
________ distance.
(a) 10 cm
(b) 20cm
(c) 30cm
(d) 6cm
63
Std : XI
31.
A piano convex lens has focal length 60 cm and refractive index 1.5 then radius of curvature is ________
(a) 60 cm
(b) 15 cm
(c) 30cm
(d) 10cm
32.
Two thin convex lens has focal length 15 cm and 10 cm then its effective focal length is ________
(a) 5 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 6 cm
(d) 15 cm
33.
Simple microscope has focal length 4 cm then M.P. at DDV is ________
(a) 100 cm
(b) 6.25 cm
(c) 7.25 cm
(d)
4cm
34.
Telescope has objective of focal length 200 cm and eye piece of 8 cm focal length then M.P. of it is
________
(a) 25
(b) -25
.(c) -15
(d) 10
35.
A convex lens has radii of curvature 15 cm and 10 cm. Lens material is having refractive index 1.6 then
focal length of the lens is ________
(a) 5 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 20 cm
36.
Image formed by simple microscope at the eye piece is ________
(a) virtual and erect
(b) virtual and inverted
(c) real and inverted
(d) real and erect
37.
Minimum value of absolute refractive index is ________
(a) one
(b) zero
(c) more than unity
(d)
less than unity
38.
An object is placed at distance f/2 from lens image will be ________
(a) at one of foci, virtual and double in size
(b) at 1.5 f, real and inverted
(c) at 2f, virtual and erect
(d) at f, real and inverted
39.
Length of tube is equal to sum of focal length of field and eye lens in ________ telescope.
(a) Astronomical
(b) Galilean
(c) Terrestrial
(d) none
40.
If ray of light is incident normally on plane mirror then angle of reflection is ________
(a) 0°
(b) 90°
(c) will not be reflected
(d) none
41.
Image formed by convex lens is ________
(a) virtual
(b) inverted
42.
43.
44.
(c)
real
(d)
enlarged
Diminished and virtual image is formed at ________ lens.
(a) Concave
(b) Convex
(c) Piano- Concave (d)
Bi-concave
Virtual image of larger size then object is obtained by ________
(a) concave mirror (b) convex mirror
(c) plane mirror
concave lens
(d)
If light travels from one medium to other then refractive index will change and which of following will
change ________
(a) frequency, wavelength, velocity
(b) frequency and wavelength
(c) wavelength and velocity
(d) frequency and velocity
64
Ray Optics
LEVEL - 2
1.
Which of the following properties show that light is a transverse wave ?
(a) Reflection
(b) Interference
(c) Diffraction
(d)
Polarization
2.
Two sources are called coherent if they produce waves
(a) of equal wavelength
(b) Of equal velocity
(b) Having same shape of wavefront
(c) Having a constant phase difference
3.
Which of the following properties of light conclusively support wave theory of light ?
(a) Light obeys laws of reflection
(b) Speed of light in water is smaller than the speed in vacuum
(c) Light doesn't show interference
(d) Light shows photoelectric effect
4.
A normal eye is not able to see objects closer than 25 cm because
(a) The focal length of the eye is 25 cm
(b) The distance of the retina from the eye-lens is 25 cm
(c) The eye is not able to decrease the distance between the eye-lens and the retina beyond a limit
(d) The eye is not able to decrease the focal length beyond a limit
5.
When red glass is heated in dark room, it will seem
(a) Green
(b) Purple
(c)
Black
(d)
Yellow
6.
The one parameter that determines the brightness of a light source sensed by an eye is
(a) Energy of light entering the eye per second (b) Wavelength of the light
(c) Total radiant flux entering the eye
(d) Total luminous flux entering the eye
7.
As the wavelength is increased from violet to red, the luminosity
(a) Continuously increases
(b) Continuously decreases
(c) Increases then decreases
(d) Decreases then increases
8.
The intensity produced by a long cylindrical light source at a small distance r from the source is
proportional to
1
1
1
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) None of these
2
3
r
r
r
9.
Mark the incorrect option
(a) Luminous flux and radiant flux have same dimensions
(b) Luminous flux and luminous intensity have same dimensions
(c) Radiant flux and power have same dimensions
(d) Relative luminosity is a dimensionless quantity
10.
Luminous flux and luminous intensity are related as
I
(c)
(a) φ = 4 πI
(b) φ =
4π
11.
65
φ=
4π
I
(d)
I = 4πφ
To demonstrate the phenomenon of interference, we require two sources which emit radiation
(a) Of the same frequency
(b) Of different wavelengths
(c) Of the same frequency and having a definite phase relationship
(d) Of nearly the same frequency
Std : XI
12.
Consider telecommunication through optical fibres. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(a) Optical fibres are subject to electromagnetic interference from outside
(b) Optical fibres have extremely low transmission loss
(c) Optical fibres may have homogeneous core with a suitable cladding
(d) Optical fibres can be of graded refractive index
13.
A man's near point is 0.5 m and far point is 3 m. Power of spectacle lenses required for (i) reading
purposes, (ii) seeing distant objects, respectively, are
(a) − 2D and + 3D
(b) + 2D and − 3D
(c) +2 D and − 0.33 D
(d) − 2 D and + 0.33 D
14.
The luminous intensity of 100 W unidirectional bulb is 100 candela. The total luminous flux emitted from
bulb will be
(a) 100 π lumen
(b) 200 π lumen
(c) 300 π lumen
(d) 400 π lumen
15.
A lamp of 250 candle power is hanging at a distance of 6 m from a wall. The illuminance at a point on the
wall at a minimum distance from lamp will be
(a) 9.64 lux
(b) 4.69 lux
(c) 6.94 lux
(d) None of these
16.
Two light sources with equal luminous intensity are lying at a distance of 1.2 m from each other. Where
should a screen be placed between them such that illuminance on one of its faces is four times that on
another face ?
(a) 0.2 m
(b) 0.4m
(c) 0.8 m
(d) 1.6 m
17.
A lamp is hanging along the axis of a circular table of radius r. At what height should the lamp be placed
1
above the table, so that the illuminance at the edge of the table is of that at its centre?
8
(a) r/2
(b) r / 2
(c) r/3
(d) r / 3
18.
An electric bulb illuminates a plane surface. The intensity of illumination on the surface at a point 2 m
away from the bulb is 5 × 10−4 phot (lumen/cm2). The line joining the bulb to the point makes an angle of
60° with the normal to the surface. The luminous intensity of the bulb in candela (candle power) is
(a) 40 3
(b) 40
(c) 20
(d) 40 × 10–4
19.
If two mirrors are kept at 60° to each other, then the number of images formed by them is
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
20.
Wavelength of light used in an optical instrument are λ1 = 4000 Å and λ2 = 5000 Å, then ratio of their
respective resolving powers (corresponding to λ1 and λ2) is
(a) 16 : 25
(b) 9 : 1
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 5 : 4
21.
The critical angle for light going from medium X into medium Y is θ. The speed of light in medium X is
v. the speed of light in medium Y is
(b) v/sin θ
(c) v/cos θ
(d) v cos θ
(a)
v(1 − cos θ)
22.
Monochromatic light of wavelength λ1 travelling in a medium of refractive index µ1 enters a denser
medium of refractive index µ2. The wavelength in the second medium is
(a) λ1 (µ1/µ2)
(b) λ1 (µ2/µ1)
(c) λ1(µ2 − µ1)/µ2
(d) λ1(µ2 − µ1)/µ1
23.
A ray of light is incident on the surface of a glass plate at an angle of incidence equal to Brewster's angle
φ. If u represents the refractive index of glass with respect to air, then the angle between the reflected and
the refracted rays is
(a) 90 + φ
(b) sin−1 (µ cos φ)
⎛ sin φ ⎞⎟
⎟
(d) 90o − sin−1 ⎜⎜
(c) 90°
⎜⎝ µ ⎠⎟⎟
66
Ray Optics
24.
A rectangular block of glass is placed on a mark made on the surface of the table and it is viewed from the
vertical position of eye. If refractive index of glass be µ and its thickness d, then the mark will appear to
be raised up by
(µ + 1)d
(µ −1)d
(µ + 1)
(µ −1)µ
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
d
µ
µ
µd
25.
A vessel of depth 2 d cm is half filled with a liquid of refractive index µ1 and the upper half with a liquid
of refractive index µ2. The apparent depth of the vessel seen perpendicularly is
⎛ µµ ⎞
⎛1
⎛1
⎛ 1 ⎞⎟
1⎞
1⎞
⎟⎟ 2d
(a) ⎜⎜⎜ 1 2 ⎟⎟⎟ d
(b) ⎜⎜⎜ + ⎟⎟⎟ d
(c) ⎜⎜⎜ + ⎟⎟⎟ 2d
(d) ⎜⎜⎜
⎝ µ1 + µ 2 ⎠⎟
⎝ µ1 µ 2 ⎠⎟
⎝ µ1 µ 2 ⎠⎟
⎝ µ1µ 2 ⎠⎟
26.
Light travels through a glass plate of thickness t and having refractive index µ. If c be the velocity of light
in vacuum, the time taken by the light to travel this thickness of glass is
1
µt
tc
(b) tµc
(d)
(c)
(a)
c
µc
µ
27.
Light passes through a glass plate of thickness d and refractive index µ. For small angle of incidence i, the
lateral displacement is
id(µ −1)
idµ
(a) i d
(b) i d(µ − 1)
(c)
(d)
µ
µ −1
A fish looking up through the water sees outside world contained in a circular horizon. If the refractive
index of water is 4/3 and fish is 12 cm below the surface, the radius of the circle in centimetres is
(b) 4× 5
(c) 12× 3× 7
(d) 12× 3/ 7
(a) 12× 3× 5
28.
29.
A glass slab of thickness 4 cm contains the same number of waves as 5 cm of water when both are
traversed by the same monochromatic light. If the refractive index of water is 4/3, what is that of glass ?
(a) 5/3
(b) 5/4
(c) 16/15
(d) 1.5
30.
The refractive index of water is 1.33. What will be speed of light in water ?
(b) 2.25 × 108 m/s
(c) 4 × 108 m/s
(d)
(a) 3 × 108 m/s
31.
A beam of monochromatic blue light of wavelength 420 nm in air travels in water (µ. = 4/3). Its
wavelength in water will be
(a) 280 nm
(b) 560 nm
(c) 315 nm
(d) 400 nm
32.
When light falls on a given plate at angle of incidence of 60°, the reflected and refracted rays are found to
be normal to each other. The refractive index of the matertial of the plate is then
(a) 0.866
(b) 1.5
(c) 1.732
(d) 2
33.
An air bubble in glass slab (µ = 1.5) from one side is 6 cm and from other side is 4 cm. The thickness of
glass slab is
(a) 10 cm
(b) 6.67 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) None
34.
A vessel is half filled with a liquid of refractive index µ. The other half of the vessel is filled with an
immiscible liquid of refrative index 1.5 µ. The apparent depth of the vessel is 50% of the actual depth.
Then µ is
(a) 1.4
(b) 1.5
(c) 1.6
(d) 1.67
35.
A man 160 cm high stands in front of a plane mirror. His eyes are at a height of 150 cm from the floor.
Then the minimum length of the plane mirror for him to see his full length image is
(a) 85 cm
(b) 170 cm
(c) 80 cm
(d) 340 cm
67
1.33 × 108 m/s
Std : XI
36.
A convex mirror of focal length f produces an image (1 / n)th of the size of the object. The distance of the
object from the mirror is
(b) f/n
(c) (n + 1)f
(d) nf
(a) (n − 1) f
37.
A concave mirror of focal length f produces an image n times the size of object. If image is real, then
distance of object from mirror, is
(b) {(n − 1)/n} f
(c) {(n + 1)/n} f
(d) (n + 1) f
(a) (n − 1) f
38.
It is desired to photograph the image of an object placed at a distance of 3 m from plane mirror. The
camera, which is at a distance of 4.5 m from mirror should be focussed for a distance of
(a) 3 m
(b) 4.5m
(c) 6m
(d) 7.5m
39.
In a concave mirror, an object is placed at a distance x1 from focus, and image is formed at a distance x2
from focus. Then focal length of mirror is
x1 − x 2
x1 + x 2
x1
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
x1x 2
x2
2
2
40.
A convex lens of focal length f1 and a concave lens of focal length f2 are placed in contact. The focal
length of the combination is
f1f 2
f1f 2
(a) (f1 + f2)
(b) (f1 − f2)
(c)
(d)
f 2 − f1
f1 + f 2
A lens of power + 2 diopter is placed in contact with a lens of power − 1 diopter. The combination will
behave like
(a) A convergent lens of focal length 50 cm
(b) A divergent lens of focal length 100 cm
(c) A convergent lens of focal length 100 cm (d) A convergent lens of focal length 200 cm
41.
42.
A convex lens of focal length 40 cm is in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The power of
combination is
(b) − 6.5 diopters
(c) + 6.5 diopters
(d) + 6.67 diopters
(a) − 1.5 diopters
43.
Light takes t, sec to travel a distance x in vacuum and the same light takes t2 sec to travel 10 cm in a
medium. Critical angle for corresponding medium will be
⎛10t ⎞
⎛t x⎞
⎛10t ⎞
⎛tx⎞
(a) sin −1 ⎜⎜⎜ 2 ⎟⎟⎟
sin −1 ⎜⎜⎜ 1 ⎟⎟⎟
(b) sin −1 ⎜⎜⎜ 2 ⎟⎟⎟
(c)
(d) sin −1 ⎜⎜⎜ 1 ⎟⎟⎟
⎝ t1x ⎠⎟
⎝10t1 ⎠⎟
⎝ t 2 x ⎠⎟
⎝10t 2 ⎠⎟
44.
Two thin lenses are in contact and the focal length of the combination is 80 cm. If the focal length of one
lens is 20 cm, then the power of the other lens will be
(d) − 3.75 D
(a) 1.66 D
(b) 4.00 D
(c) − 100 D
45.
A thin convergent glass lens (µg = 1.5) has a power of+ 5.0 D. When this lens is immersed in a liquid of
must be
refractive index µ, it acts as a divergent lens of focal length 100 cm. The value of µ
(a) 4/3
(b) 5/3
(c) 5/4
(d) 6/5
46.
Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in contact and coaxial. Its power is same as power of a single
lens given by
⎛ f1 ⎞⎟
⎛ f 2 ⎞⎟
f1 + f 2
f1 + f 2
⎜⎜ ⎟
⎜⎜ ⎟
(a)
(c)
(d)
(b)
⎟
⎟
⎜
⎜
2
f1f 2
⎝ f 2 ⎠⎟
⎝ f1 ⎠⎟
47.
A double convex lens of focal length 6 cm is made of glass of refractive index 1.5. The radius of curvature
of one surface is double that of other surface. The value of small radius of curvature is
(a) 6 cm
(b) 4.5 cm
(c) 9 cm
(d) 4cm
48.
A prism has a refracting angle of 60°. When placed in the position of minimum deviation, it produces a
deviation of 30°. The angle of incidence is
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 15°
(d) 60°
68
Ray Optics
49.
A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism such that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of
emergence and the latter is equal to 3/4th of the angle of prism. The angle of deviation is
(a) 45°
(b) 39°
(c) 20°
(d) 30°
50.
A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism (µ = 1.5). The angle of minimum deviation is
(a) 45°
(b) 37°12'
(c) 20°
(d) 30°
51.
Two lenses in contact form an achromatic lens. Their focal lengths are in the ratio 2:3. Their dispersive
powers must be in the ratio of
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 3 : 1
52.
A combination is made of two lenses of focal length f and f′ in contact, the dispersive powers of the
materials of the lenses are ω and ω'. The combination is achromatic, when
(a) ω = ω0, ω' = 2ω0 f′ = 2f
(b) ω = ω0, ω' = 2ω0 f = f/2
(d) ω = ω0, ω' = 2ωo f = − 2f
(c) ω = ω0, ω' = 2ω0 f′ = −f/2
53.
An achromatic convergent lens of focal length 20 cms is made of two lenses (in contact) of materials
having dispersive powers in the ratio of 1 : 2 and having focal lengths f1 and f2 Which of the following is
true ?
(b) f1 = 20 cms, f2 = 10 cms
(a) f1 = 10 cms, f2 = −20 cms
(c) f1 = −10 cms, f2 = − 20 cms
(d) f1 = 20 cms, f2 = − 20 cms
54.
An achromatic convergent doublet of two lenses in contact has a power of + 2D. The convex lens has
power + 5D. What is the ratio of dispersive powers of convergent and divergent lenses ?
(a) 2 : 5
(b) 3 : 5
(c) 5 : 2
(d) 5 : 3
55.
The dispersive power of material of a lens of focal length 20 cm is 0.08. What is the longitudinal
chromatic aberration of the lens ?
(a) 0.08 cm
(b) 0.08/20 cm
(c) 1.6cm
(d) 0.16cm
56.
The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays, the distance between the
objective and the eye piece is found to be 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are
(a) 18 cm, 2 cm
(b) llcm,9cm
(c) 10cm, 10cm
(d) 15 cm, 5 cm
57.
A simple telescope, consisting of an objective of focal length 60 cm and a single eye lens of focal length 5
cm is focussed on a distant object in such a way that parallel rays emerge from the eye lens. If the object
subtends an angle of 2° at the objective, the angular width of the image is
(a) 10°
(b) 24°
(c) 50°
(d) (1/6)°
58.
The focal length of the objective of a telescope is 60 cm. To obtain a magnification of 20, the focal length
of the eye piece should be
(a) 2 cm
(b) 3cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 5 cm
59.
An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects. The separation
between the objective and the eye-piece is 36 cms and the final image is formed at infinity. The focal
length f0 of the objective and fe of the eye piece are
(b) f0 = 50 cm and f = 10 cm
(a) f0 = 45 cm and f, = − 9 cm
(d) f0 = 30 cm and f = 6 cm
(c) f0 = 7.2 cm and f = 5 cm
60.
The focal lengths of objective and eye lens of an astronomical telelscope are respectively 2 meter and 5
cm. Final image is formed at (i) least distance of distinct vision (ii) infinity Magnifying power in two
cases will be
(b) − 40, − 48
(c) − 40, +48
(d) − 48, + 40
(a) − 48, − 40
69
Std : XI
61.
An astronomical telescope has a large aperture to
(a) reduce spherical aberration
(b)
(c) increase span of observation
(d)
have high resolution
have low dispersion.
62.
If two mirrors are kept at 60° to each other, then the number of images formed by them is
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
63.
Wavelength of light used in an optical instrument are λ1 = 4000 Å and λ2 = 5000 Å , then ratio of their
respective resolving powers (corresponding to λ1 and λ2)
(a) 16 : 25
(b) 9 : 1
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 5 : 4.
64.
Which of the following is used in optical fibres?
(a) total internal reflection
(c) diffraction
(b)
(d)
scattering
refraction.
65.
Consider telecommunication through optical fibres. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Optical fibres can be of graded refractive index
(b) Optical fibres are subject to electromagnetic interference from outside
(c) Optical fibres have extremely low transmission loss
(d) Optical fibres may have homogeneous core with a suitable cladding.
66.
The image formed by an objective of a compound microscope is
(a) virtual and diminished
(b) real and diminished
(c) real and enlarged
(d) virtual and enlarged
67.
To get three images of a single object, one should have two plane mirrors at an angle of
(a) 60°
(b) 90°
(c) 120°
(d) 30°
68.
A light ray is incident perpendicularly to one face of a 90° prism and is totally internally reflected at the
glass-air interface. If the angle of reflection is 45°, we conclude that the refractive index n
1
(a) n >
2
(b)
(c)
(d)
n> 2
1
n<
2
n< 2
45°
45°
45°
69.
A piano convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and radius of curvature 30 cm. Is silvered at the curved
surface. Now this lens has been used to form the image of an object. At what distance from this lens an
object be placed in order to have a real image of size of the object
(a) 60 cm
(b) 30cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 80 cm
70.
mount of light entering into the camera depends upon.
(a) focal length of objective lens
(b) product of focal length and diameter of the objective lens
(c) distance of object from camera
(d) aperture setting of the camera
71.
Two lens of focal length f1 and f2 are kept in contact coaxially. The resultant power of combination will be
f1f 2
f1 + f 2
f1 f 2
(c) f1 + f2
(a)
(d)
(b)
+
f1 − f 2
f1f 2
f 2 f1
70
Ray Optics
72.
When white light enters a prism, its gets split into its constituent colours. This is due to
(a) high density of prism material
(b) because µ is different for different wavelength
(c) diffraction of light
(d) velocity changes for different frequency
73.
In optical fibres,-propagation of light is due to
(a) diffraction
(c) reflection .
(b)
(d)
total internal reflection
refraction
74.
Rectilinear motion of light in a medium is caused due to
(a) high frequency
(b) short wavelength
(c) velocity of light
(d) uniform refractive index of the medium
75.
Resolving power of a telescope increases with
(a) increase in focal length of eye-piece
(c) increase in aperture of eye piece
(b)
(d)
increase in focal length of objective
increase in apeture of objective
76.
A pencil of light rays falls on a plane mirror and form a real image, so the incident rays are
(a) parallel
(b) diverging
(c) converging
(d) statement is false
77.
Astronauts look down on earth surface from a space ship parked at an altitude of 500 km. They can
resolve objects of the earth of the size (It can be assumed that the pupils diameter is 5 mm and wavelength
of light is 500 nm)
(a) 0.5 m
(b) 5m
(c) 50m
(d) 500m
78.
We wish to see inside an atom. Assume the atom to have a diameter of 100 pm. This means that one must
be able to resolve a width of say 10 pm. If an electron microscope is used the energy required should be
(a) 1.5 keV
(b) 50 keV
(c) 150 keV
(d) 1.5 MeV
79.
A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in water (refractive index 4/3). A light beam incident
normally on the face AB is totally reflected to reach on the face BC if
8
(a) sin θ ≥
A
B
9
θ
2
8
(b)
< sin θ <
3
9
2
(c) sin θ ≤
3
(d) none of these
80.
A ray of light from a denser medium strike a rarer medium at an angle of incidence i (see Fig). The
reflected and refracted rays make an angle of 90° with each other. The angles of reflection and refraction
are r and r' The critical angle is
(a) sin–l (tan r)
(c) sin−1 (tan i)
(b) sin−1 (tan r′)
i r
(d) tan−1 (sin i)
81.
Spherical aberration in a thin lens can be reduced by
(a) using a monochromatic light
(b)
(c) using a circular annular mark over the lens (d)
71
using a doublet combination
increasing the size of the lens.
Std : XI
82.
An equilateral prism is placed on a horizontal surface. A ray PQ is incident onto it. For minimum
deviation
(a) PQ is horizontal
R
(b) QR is horizontal
S
Q
(c) RS is horizontal
P
(d) Any one will be horizontal
83.
Which of the following is false ?
(a) convex lens always forms image with m < 1
(b) a simple mirror produces virtual, erect and same-sized image
(c) a concave mirror produces virtual, erect and magnified image
(d) a convex lens can produce real and same-sized image.
84.
A lens produces an image of an object on a screen. If a slab of refractive index n is placed in between lens
and screen, the screen has to be moved by distance d behind. The thickness of slab is
n −1
(n −1)d
nd
(c)
(d)
(a) nd
(b)
nd
n
n −1
85.
The refractive index of the material of a prism is 2 and its refracting angle is 30°. One of the refracting
surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards. A beam of monochromatic light enters the prism from the
mirrored surface if its angle of incidence of the prism is
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 0°
86.
A telescope has an objective lens of 10 cm diameter and is situated at a distance of one kilometer from
two objects. The minimum distance between these two objects, which can be resolved by the telescope,
when the mean wavelength of light is 5000 Å, is of the order of
(a) 5 cm
(b) 0.5 m
(c) 5 m
(d) 5 mm
87.
An object is moved along the principal axis of a converging lens from a position 5 focal lengths from the
lens to a position that is 2 focal lengths from the lens. Which statement about the resulting image is most
accurate?
(a) The image increases in size and decreases in distance from the lens
(b) The image increases in size and increases in distance from the lens
(c) The image decreases in size and decreases in distance from the lens
(d) The image decreases in size and increases in distance from the lens
88.
An object is placed upright on the axis of a thin convex lens at a distance of four focal lengths (4f) from
the center of the lens. An inverted image appears at a distance of 4/ 3 f on the other side of the lens. What
is the ratio of the height of he image of the height of the object?
(a) 1/3
(b)
3/4
(c) 4/3
(d) 3/1
89.
A convex lens of focal length 80 cm and a concave lens of focal length 50 cm are combined together.
What will be their resulting power?
(c) +7.5D
(d) –0.75D
(a) +6.5D
(b) −6.5D
90.
If fV and fR are the focal lengths of a convex lens for violet and red light respectively and FV and FR are the
focal lengths of concave lens for violet and red light respectively, then we have
(b) fV < fR and FV < FR
(a) fV < fR and FV > FR
(c) fV > fR and FV > FR
(d) fV > fR and FV < FR
91.
Light travels through a glass plate of thickness t and refractive index µ. If c is the speed of light in
vacuum, the time taken by light to travel this thickness of glass is
tc
t
µt
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a) µtc
µ
µc
c
72
Ray Optics
92.
One face of a rectangular glass plate 6 cm thick is silvered. An object held 8 cm in front of the first face,
forms an image 12 cm behind the silvered face. The refractive index of the glass is
(a) 0.4
(b) 0.8
(c) 1.2
(d) 1.6
93.
An electromagnetic radiation of frequency n, wavelength λ, travelling with velocity v in air enters in a
glass slab of refractive index (µ). The frequency, wavelength and velocity of light in the glass slab will be
respectively
λ
v
v
n λ
v
2π λ
, and
, and v
(a) n, and
(b) n, 2λ and
(c)
(d)
µ
µ
µ
µ µ
µ
µ µ
94.
A luminous object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the convex lens of focal length 20 cm. On the
other side of the lens, at what distance from the lens a convex mirror of radius of curvature 10 cm be
placed in order to have an upright image of the object coincident with it?
(a) 12 cm
(b) 30 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 60 cm
95.
Light enters at an angle of incidence in a transparent rod of refractive index n. For what value of the
refractive index of the material of the rod the light once entered into it will not leave it through its lateral
face whatsoever be the value of angle of incidence?
(b) n = 1
(c) n = 1.1
(d) n = 1.3
(a) n > 2
96.
A plano-convex lens is made of material of refractive index 1.6. The radius of curvature of the curved
surface is 60 cm. The focal length of the lens is
(a) 50 cm
(b) 100 cm
(c) 200 cm
(d) 400 cm
97.
The refractive index of the material of the prism is 3 ; then the angle of minimum deviation of the prism
is
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 75°
98.
The radius of curvature of a thin plano-convex lens is 10 cm (of curved surface) and the refractive index is
1.5. If the plane surface is silvered, then it behaves like a concave mirror of focal length
(a) 10 cm
(b) 15 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 5cm
99.
A person is six feet tall. How tall must a vertical mirror be if he is able to see his entire length?
(a) 3 ft
(b) 4.5 ft
(c) 7.5 ft
(d) 6 ft
100. An air bubble in a glass slab (µ = 1.5) is 5 cm deep when viewed from one face and 2 cm deep when
viewed from the opposite face. The thickness of the slab is
(a) 7.5 cm
(b) 10.5 cm
(c) 7 cm
(d) 10 cm
101. A paper, with two marks having separation d, is held normal to the line of sight of an observer at a
distance of 50m. The diameter of the eye-lens of the observer is 2 mm. Which of the following is the least
value of d, so that the marks can be seen as separate ? The mean wavelength of visible light may be taken
as 5000 Å
(a) 1.25 m
(b) 12.5 cm
(c) 1.25 cm
(d) 2.5 mm
102. A light ray falls on a rectangular glass slab as shown. The index of refraction of the glass, if total internal
reflection is to occur at the vertical face, is
45°
3/ 2
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
73
(
(
)
3 +1
2
)
2 +1
2
5/2
Glass
Std : XI
103. An equiconvex lens is cut into two halves along (i) XOX' and (ii) YOY' as shown in the figure. Let f, f, f′′
be the focal lengths of the complete lens, of each half in case (i), and of each half in case (ii), respectively
Y′
Choose the correct statement from the following
(a) f′ = 2f, f′' = 2f
(b) f′ = f, f′' = 2f
X′
X
O
(c) f′ = 2f, f′' = f
(d) f′ = f, f′′ = f
Y
104. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the refractive index of the lens. Then
its focal length will
(a) remain unchanged
(b) become zero
(c) become infinite
(d) become small, but non-zero
105. A star having wavelength λ is reaching with velocity vS from earth. The apparent shift in wavelength will
be
2
2
λvs
λv
λv
λvs
(d)
(b) − s
(c) − 2s
(a)
c
c
c
c2
106. A plane mirror reflects a beam of light to form a real image. The incident beam is
(a) parallel
(b) convergent
(c) divergent
(d) any one of the above
107. An object is placed between two parallel mirrors. The number of images formed is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) infinite
108. A diver inside water sees the setting sun at
(a) 41° to the horizon
(c) 0° to the horizon
(b)
(d)
49° to the horizon
45° to the horizon
109. An object is placed at a distance 2f from the pole of a convex mirror of focal length f. The linear
magnification is
1
2
3
(b)
(c)
(d) 1
(a)
3
3
4
110. A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours is incident on a right-angled prism as shown.
The refractive index of the material of the prism for the above red, green and blue wavelengths are 1.39,
1.44 and 1.47 respectively. The prism will
B
90°
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
45°
45°
C
A
separate part of the red colour from the green and blue colours.
separate part of the blue colour from the red and green colours.
separate all the three colours from one another,
not separate even partially any colour from the other two colours.
74
Ray Optics
111. A concave mirror forms the image of an object on a screen. If the lower half of the mirror is covered with
an opaque card, the effect would be
(a) to make the image less bright.
(b) to make the lower half of the image disappear.
(c) to make the upper half of the image disappear.
(d) to make the image blurred.
⎛ 1 ⎞th
112. A convex mirror of focal length f produces an image ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎟ of the size of the object. The distance of the
⎜⎝ n ⎠
object from the mirror is
f
(a) nf
(b)
(c) (n + 1)f
(d) (n − 1)f
n
113. A concave mirror of focal length f produces a real image n times the size of the object. The distance of the
object from the mirror is
⎛ n + 1⎞⎟
⎛ n −1⎞⎟
(b) (n + 1) f
(c) ⎜⎜
(a) (n − 1) f
(d) ⎜⎜
f
f
⎜⎝ n ⎠⎟⎟
⎜⎝ n ⎠⎟⎟
114. A concave mirror of focal length f. in vacuum is placed in a medium of refractive index 2. Its focal length
in the medium is
f
(b) f
(c) 2f
(d) 4f
(a)
2
115. The distance between an object and its real image formed by a convex lens cannot be
(a) greater than 2 f (b) less than 2 f
(c) greater than 4 f (d) less than 4 f
116. The layered lens as shown is made of two types of transparent materials-one indicated by horizontal lines
and the other by vertical lines. The number of images formed of an object will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
1
2
3
6
117. The maximum and minimum distance between a convex lens and an object, for the magnification of a real
image to be greater than one are
(a) 2f and f
(b) f and zero
(c) ∞ and 2f
(d) 4f and 2f
118. A plane convex lens of focal length 16 cm, is to be made of glass of refractive index 1.5. The radius of
curvature of the curved surface should be
(a) 8 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 16 cm
(d) 24 cm
119. In the displacement method, a concave lens is placed in between an object and a screen. If the
magnification in the two positions are m, and m2 (m1 > m2), and the distance between the two positions of
the lens is x, the focal length of the lens is
x
x
x
x
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
2
m1 + m 2
m1 − m 2
(m1 + m 2 )
(m1 − m 2 ) 2
120.
75
A thin lens has focal length f, and its aperture has diameter D. It forms an image of intensity I. If the
D
, is blocked by an opaque paper, the focal length of the lens and
central part of the aperture, of diameter
2
the intensity of image will become
f 1
1
3f I
3I
,
,
(b) f ,
(c)
(d) f ,
(a)
2 2
4
4 2
4
Std : XI
121. A real image is formed by a convex lens. If we put a concave lens in contact with it, the combination
again forms a real image. The new image
(a) is closer to the lens system.
(b) is farther form the lens system.
(c) is at the original position.
(d) may be anywhere depending on the focal length of the concave lens,
122. Spherical aberration in a thin lens can be reduced by
(a) using a monochromatic light.
(b)
(c) using a circular annular mask over the lens, (d)
using a doublet combination.
increasing the size of the lens.
123. The graph shows the variation of magnification m produced by a convex lens with the image distance v.
The focal length of the lens is
m
b
(a)
(a +, b)
c
c
(b)
b
b
(c) b
ab
v
(d)
a
c
c
(a, b)
124. A plano-convex lens of focal length 30 cm has its plane surface silvered. An object is placed 40 cm from
the lens on the convex side. The distance of the image from the lens is
(a) 18 cm
(b) 24cm
(c) 30 cm
(d) 40cm
125. A real image of an object is formed by a convex lens at the bottom of an empty beaker. The beaker is now
filled with a liquid of refractive index 1.4 to a depth of 7 cm. In order to get the image again at the bottom,
the beaker should be moved
O
(a) downwardly 2 cm
(b) upward by 2 cm
(c) downward by 3 cm
(d) upward by 3 cm
I
126. Two convex lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are mounted coaxially separated by a distance. If the power
of the combination is zero, the distance between the lenses is
f1f 2
f1f 2
(b) f1 + f2
(c)
(a) | f1 − f2|
(d)
| f1 − f 2 |
f1 + f 2
127. A convex lenses of focal length 40 cm is held coaxially 12 cm above a concave mirror of focal length 18
cm. An object held x cm above the lens gives rise to an image coincident with it. The x is equal to
(a) 12 cm
O
(b) 15 cm
(c) 18 cm
x cm
(d) 30cm
12 cm
76
Ray Optics
− Answer Key −
LEVEL - 1
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
c
c
c
c
a
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
a
a
d
c
a
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
b
b
d
b
a
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
c
c
a
b
c
5.
15.
25.
35.
d
a
b
a
6.
16.
26.
36.
a
b
c
a
7.
17.
27.
37.
d
b
a
a
8.
18.
28.
38.
d
c
b
a
9.
19.
29.
39.
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
57.
67.
77.
87.
97.
107.
117.
127.
c
d
c
c
b
b
b
c
b
c
d
a
b
8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
58.
68.
78.
88.
98.
108.
118.
c
b
d
d
b
b
b
b
a
c
a
a
d
b
c
a
10.
20.
30.
40.
a
b
a
b
LEVEL - 2
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
51.
61.
71.
81.
91.
101.
111.
121
77
d
c
b
c
c
b
b
b
c
d
b
a
b
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
52.
62.
72.
82.
92.
102.
112.
122
c
a
a
c
a
d
a
b
b
c
a
d
c
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
53.
63.
73.
83.
93.
103.
113.
123
b
c
c
c
c
a
d
b
a
a
b
c
b
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
54.
64.
74.
84.
94.
104.
114.
124
d
d
b
d
d
b
a
d
b
c
c
b
b
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
55.
65.
75.
85.
95.
105.
115.
125
a
c
b
c
b
c
d
d
b
a
a
d
a
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
56.
66.
76.
86.
96.
106.
116.
126
d
c
c
a
a
a
c
c
d
b
b
b
b
9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
59.
69.
79.
89.
99.
109.
119.
a
a
a
a
d
d
c
a
d
a
a
b
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
60.
70.
80.
90.
100.
110.
120.
a
d
b
c
b
a
d
a
b
b
a
d
10
ELECTROSTATICS
LEVEL - 1
1.
Electrostatics deals with ________
(a) moving charge (b) circular charge
(c)
stationary charge (d)
spherical charge
2.
Amber when rubbed with fur attracts light object was demonstrated by ________
(a) W Gilbert
(b) Galileo
(c) Miletus
(d) Ampere
3.
When two objects are rubbed with each other they produce ________
(a) thermal electricity
(b) solar electricity
(c) electricity produce from chemical
(d) frictional electricity
4.
________ discovered that there are two kinds of charges.
(a) Gilbert
(b) Galileo
(c) Miletus
(d)
Franklin
5.
When two substances are rubbed together then transfer of ________ takes place.
(a) proton
(b) atom
(c) neutron
(d) electron
6.
When glass rod is rubbed on silk cloth then ________ charge is developed on glass rod.
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) no charge
(d) none
7.
When ebonite rod is rubbed with fur ________ charge is developed on ebonite rod.
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) no charge
(d) none
8.
Total charge of isolated system ________
(a) increases
(b) decreases
9.
10.
11.
(c)
remain constant (d)
none
Like charge ________ each other and unlike charges
(a) repel, attract
(b) attract, repel
(c)
each other.
repel, repel
(d)
attract, attract
Dielectric constant of air is ________
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c)
∞
(d)
none
Dimension of dielectric constant are ________
(a) (L3M1T−4I−1)
(b) (L3 M1 T−4I−2)
(c)
(L3 M1 T−3I−2)
(d)
(L3 M1 T−4 I2)
12.
If distance between two charge is 1 meter and force exerted on charge is 9 × 109 N then magnitude of
charge is ________
(a) 2C
(b) 3C
(c) 1C
(d) 4C
13.
Charge on an electron is ________
(a) 1.6 × 10−18 C
(b) 1.6 × 1017C
(c)
1.6 × 10−19C
(d)
1.6 × 1016C
1C = ________ state coulomb.
(a) 4 × 109
(b) 9 × 109
(c)
7 × 109
(d)
3 × 109
14.
15.
Ratio of forces between two charges when held in vacuum to that of other medium is ________
(a) proportionality constant
(b) Ohmic constant
(c) dielectric constant
(d) none
16.
If charge is not collected by some part but spread uniformly is ________ charge distribution.
(a) radial
(b) non uniform
(c) uniform
(d) none
Electrostatics
17.
If a glass rod is rubbed with silk it acquires positive charge because ________
(a) protons are added to them
(b) protons are removed from them
(c) electrons are added to them
(d) electrons are removed from them
18.
Charge conductor has charge on its ________
(a) inner surface
(b) outer surface
(c)
centre
(d)
surrounding
19.
Electrostatic force between electron is ________ to electrostatic force between proton.
(a) greater
(b) equal
(c) smaller
(d) zero
20.
When 1014 electrons are removed from a metallic sphere then the charge on the sphere is ________
(a) −16µC
(b) 16µC
(c) 32µC
(d) −32µC
21.
Two point charges are separated by x distance which repel with force of 9N. If they are separated by 3x
distance then force of repulsion is ________
(a) IN
(b) 3N
(c) 27N
(d) 6N
22.
Three equal and like charges are situated at vertices of equilateral triangle. Electric field at centre is
________
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) infinity
(d) none
23.
Electric field intensity at a point in space is same as ________
(a) potential difference
(b) electric charge
(c) force per unit charge
(d) none
24.
When an electric dipole is placed in uniform electric field forming a couple. Moment of couple is
minimum when dipole is ________
(a) along direction of field
(b) against direction of field
(c) perpendicular to direction of field
(d) Inclined at 60° to direction of field.
25.
Irregular shape conductor has charge distributed ________ over its surface.
(a) uniformly
(b) regularly
(c) non-uniformly
(d) irregularly
26.
When charge is distributed uniformly over the conductor in space then it is ________
(a) surface charge density
(b) linear charge density
(c) volume charge density
(d) none
27.
When charge is distributed uniformly over the area of conductor in space then it is ________
(a) surface charge density
(b) volume charge density
(c) linear charge density
(d) none
28.
When charge is distributed uniformly over the volume in space then it is ________
(a) volume charge density
(b) linear charge density
(c) surface charge density
(d) none
29.
S.I. unit of linear charge density is ________
(a) C-m
(b) C/m
(c)
C/m2
(d)
C-m2
S.I. unit of volume charge density is ________
(a) C-m3
(b) C-m2
(c)
C/m|s
(d)
C/m|s
Dimensions of surface charge density are ________
(a) [L−1M°T1I1]
(b) [L2M2T1I1]
(c)
[L−3M°T1I1]
(d)
[L1 M° T111]
Dimensions of volume charge density are ________
(a) [L−1M°T1I1]
(b) [L2M°T1I1]
(c)
[L−3M° T1I1]
(d)
[L1M°T1I1]
30.
31.
32.
79
Std : XI
33.
Space around electric charge where other charge experience a force is ________
(a) electric dipole
(b) electric potential
(c) electric field
(d) electric field intensity
34.
Force exerted by a unit positive charge in electric field is ________
(a) electric dipole
(b) electric potential (c) electric field
(d)
electric field intensity
S.I. unit of electric field intensity is ________
(a) N-C
(b) N-m
N/C
(d)
N/m
[L1 M1 T−1I1]
(d)
[L1 M° T1I−1]
35.
36.
(c)
Dimension of electric field intensity is ________
(a) [L1 M1 T −2I−1]
(b) [L1 M1 T −3I−1]
(c)
37.
If magnitude and direction of electric field at all points in electric field are same then it is ________
(a) radial electric field
(b) uniform electric field
(c) non uniform electric field
(d) none
38.
If magnitude and direction of electric field intensity is different at different points in electric field then it is
________
(a) non uniform electric field
(b) uniform electric field
(c) radial electric field
(d) none
39.
If electric field intensity at point in electric field is directed away from the centre is ________
(a) uniform electric field
(b) non uniform electric field
(c) radial electric field
(d) none
40.
A path along which unit positive charge moves is ________
(a) electric field
(b) electric field intensity
(c) lines of force
(d) electric dipole
41.
Lines of force start at ________ and end at ________
(a) negative, positive
(b)
(c) negative, negative
(d)
positive, negative
positive, positive
Two lines of force are ________ to each other.
(a) perpendicular
(c) opposite
perpendicular bisector
parallel
42.
(b)
(d)
43.
Lines of force pass through ________ and donot pass through ________
(a) insulator, conductor
(b) insulator, semiconductor
(c) conductor, semiconductor
(d) conductor, insulator
44.
At high electric intensity point, lines of force are ________ and at low electric intensity point lines of
force are ________
(a) separated, crowded
(b) crowded, separated
(c) crowded, crowded
(d) separated, separated
45.
Lines of force contract in length. This property explains ________ between unlike charge.
(a) repulsion
(b) attraction
(c) high intensity
(d) low intensity
46.
Lines of force exert lateral pressure on each other explains________ between like charge.
(a) repulsion
(b) attraction
(c) high intensity
(d) low intensity
47.
Two equal and opposite electric charges separated by finite distance form ________
(a) electric field
(b) electric intensity
(c) electric dipole
(d) none
48.
Substance whose molecule possess electric dipole are ________ substance.
(a) unipolor
(b) non polar
(c) polar
(d)
none
80
Electrostatics
49.
Line passing through centre of two charges forming dipole is________ of dipole.
(a) equator
(b) pole
(c) axis
(d) none
50.
Product of magnitude of one charge and distance between two charge forming dipole is ________
(a) electric dipole
(b) electric dipole moment
(c) electric intensity
(d) electric potential
51.
When axis of dipole is perpendicular to uniform electric field moment of couple is ________
(a) zero
(b) minimum
(c) maximum
(d) unity
52.
Work required to set system of charge by bringing them from infinity to a point is ________
(a) electric potential
(b) electric potential energy
(c) electric intensity
(d) electric field
53.
Work done in bringing unit positive charge from infinity to a point against direction of electric intensity is
________
(a) electric potential
(b) electric potential energy
(c) electric intensity
(d) electric field
54.
S.I. unit of electric potential is ________
(a) Joule-Coulomb (b) Joule/Coulomb
(c)
Coulomb/joule
S.I. unit of potential gradient is ________
(a) V-m
(b) V/m
(c)
V/m2
55.
(d) Ampere
(d)
V-m2
56.
Negative rate of change of potential with respect to distance a point is ________
(a) electric potential
(b) electric potential energy
(c) electric field intensity
(d) none
57.
Surface having same potential at all points is ________
(a) potential surface
(b) equipotential surface
(c) uniform surface
(d) non uniform surface
58.
Smallest unit of energy of electron is ________
(a) volt
(b) micro-volt
(c)
pico-volt
(d)
electron volt
1 ev = ________ J
(a) 1.6 × 10−18
(c)
1.6 × 10−17
(d)
1.6 × 10−16
59.
(b)
1.6 × 10−19
60.
Force between two point charge 5µC and 5µC separated by distance 0.2 m in air is ________
(a) 1 1.25 N
(b) 5.629 N
(c) 5.5 N
(d) 5N
61.
Electric field intensity at distance of 0.5 m from a point charge 10µC situated in air is ________
(a) 7.2 × 104N/C
(b) 14.4 × 104N/C
(c) 36 × 104N/C
(d) 18 × 104N/C
62.
Number of lines of force originating from point charge 4.425µC is ________
(a) 2 × 105
(b) 3 × 105
(c) 4 × 105
(d)
63.
Force between two charges when situated in air is F and when situated in other medium is F/8 then
dielectric constant is ________
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 5
64.
Two charges 1 µC and 5µC have force acting on each other. Ratio of forces is ________
(a) 1:5
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 5 : 1
(d) 1 : 2
81
5 × 105
Std : XI
65.
A negative charge body ________
(a) gives excess of electron
(c) removes some electron from it
(b)
(d)
gives excess of proton
removes some proton from it
66.
Electric circuit gives 20C charge to battery if the p.d. of battery is 20V work done by battery is ________
(a) 400J
(b) 300J
(c) 200J
(d) 100J
67.
Proton is moved between two points having potential difference 20 V energy acquired by proton is
________
(a) 32 × 10−19J
(b) 32 × 10−16J
(c) 32 × 10−14J
(d) 32 × 10−13J
68.
Two charges −10µC and 30µC are separated by 30 cm. Ratio of forces acting on them are ________
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 1 : 4
LEVEL - 2
1.
The number of electrons removed from a body in order to produce positive charge of 5 × 10−19 coulomb
on it, will be
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 9
2.
Two point charges 9 e and e are situated at a distance of 16 cm. Where a charge q be placed between
them so that it remains in equilibrium?
(a) at 24 cm from + 9e charge
(b) at 12 cm from + 9 e charge
(c) at 24 cm from + e charge
(d) at 12 cm from + e charge
3.
What will be the potential on the surface of gold nucleus if its radius is 6.6 × 10−15 m and Z = 79 ?
(a)
1.7 × 107 V
(b)
zero
(c) 3.14 × 107 y
(d) 0.7 × 107 V
4.
On being negatively charged, a soap bubble
(a) expands
(c) neither expands nor contract?
(b)
(d)
contracts
none of these
5.
The Coulomb's repulsive force between two point charges placed at distance d apart, is F. If the
distance is increased to 2d then the repulsive force between the charges, as compared to its previous
value, will become
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/2
(c) 3/4
(d) same
6.
When a glass rod is rubbed with silk it gains positive charge, because
(a) electrons are removed from it
(b) protons are removed from it
(c) protons are added to it
(d) electron are added to it
7.
An electric dipole consists of two equal and opposite charges of magnitude 2 µC placed 0.03 m apart. It
is lying in an electric field of intensity 2 × 105 N/(C) The maximum torque acting on the dipole will
be
(a) 2.4Nm
(b) 1.2Nm
( c ) 1 . 2 × 1 0 −2 N m (d) 2.4 × 10−2 N m
8.
Which of the following quantities is a vector quantity?
(a) intensity of electric field
(b) electric charge density
(c) electric charge
(d) electric potential
9.
Two point charges of 2 coulomb and 6 coulomb repel each other with a force of 12 newton. If each
charge is given an additional charge of -2 coulomb then the force between them will become
(a) 4N attractive
(b) 4N repulsive
(c) 8N attractive
(d) zero
82
Electrostatics
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
Static electricity can be produced by
(a) only induction
(c) only chemical reaction
(b)
(d)
only friction
induction and friction
The electric potential while moving along the lines of force
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
(d)
becomes infinite
The Coulomb's law is valid for the charges which are
(a) stationary and point charges
(b)
(c) both' a' and 'b'
(d)
moving and point charges
none of these
The unit of intensity of electric field is
(a) newton / coulomb (b) joule/ coulomb
(c)
coulomb/ Newton
Dielectric constant is
(a) dimensionless quantity
(c) conversion factor
(b)
(d)
universal constant
none of these
(d) none of these
15.
If a dielectric is placed between two charges in place of vacuum or air, then the force between the charges
will be
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain unchanged
(d) none of these
16.
A drop of water of radius 10−5 cm has charge equal to that of electron. The electric field required to keep
the drop suspended in air will be approximately
(a) 260 N/C
(b) 260 V/Cm
(c) 130 V/Cm
(d) 130 N/C
17.
The potential gradient is a
(a) vector quantity
(b) scalar quantity
(c)
(d)
conversion factor
constant
18.
When the separation between two charges is increased, the electric potential energy of the charges
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) may increase or decrease
19.
If a body is charged by rubbing, its weight
(a) decreases slightly
(c) remains constant
(b)
(d)
increases slightly
may increase or decrease slightly
20.
A charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q to establish equilibrium. The
system of three charges will be in equilibrium if q is equal to
(a) +Q/4
(b) +Q/2
(c) −Q/2
(d) −Q/4
21.
The electric intensity in air at a point 20 cm from a point charge Q coulombs is 4.5 × 105
newtons/coulom(b) The magnitude of Q is
(a) 0.1µC
(b) 0.2 µ C
(c) 1 µC
(d) 2 µC
22.
In a uniform electric field a charge of 3 C experiences a force of 3000N. The potential difference
between two points 1 cm apart along the electric lines of force will be
(a) 10 V
(b) 30 V
(c) 100 V .
(d) 300 V
23.
The unit of dipole moment is
(a) coulomb-m
(b) coulomb-m2
24.
83
(c)
metre/coulomb
(d)
coulomb/m
It two electrons are approaching each other, the potential energy of the system will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain constant
(d) become zero
Std : XI
25.
A charge of 5 C is given a displacement of 0.5 m. The work done in the process is 10 J. The potential
difference between the two points will be
(a) 2V
(b) 0.25 V
(c) 1 V
(d) 25 V
26.
Two positive charges of same magnitude are kept 20 cm apart. A point between charges will have zero
intensity is at
(a) 5 cm from first charge
(b) 5 cm from second charge
(c) midway between two charges
(d) can not be predicted
27.
The electric intensity at a point at 10 cm from point charge is 5 N/(C) The potential at same point will
be
(a) 5 volt
(b) 1 volt
(c) 0.5 volt
(d) 0.05 volt
28.
The number of tubes of force starting from a charge of 8.85 µC in a medium of dielectric constant 5
are
(a) 2 × 105
(b) 5 × 104
(c) 3 × 104
(d) 4 × 105
29.
Coulomb's force between two point charges separated by certain distance in air is F. If the charges are
situated in medium at same place then Coulomb's force reduces to F/4. The dielectric constant of
medium will be
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
30.
The permittivity of medium is 26.55 × 10−12 C2/Nm2. The dielectric constant of medium will be
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
31.
The charge on conductor is + 1.6 Coulomb then it has
(a) excess of 1019 electrons
(b) shortage of 1019 electrons
20
(c) excess of 10 electrons
(d) shortage of 1020 electrons
32.
If the distance between two point charges is doubled and magnitude of charges at also doubled, the
Coulomb's force between them will be
(a) same
(b) half
(c) two times
(d) four times
33.
The work done to displace the charge of 5 µC on equipotential surface of potential volt is
(a) zero
(b) 2.5 × 10−5 J
(c) 25 × 10−5 J
(d) infinity
34.
Two point charges 20 µC and 45 µC are 25 cm apart in vacuum. The electric potential at a point where
intensity is zero will be
(a) 2 × 10 5 volt
(b) 4.5 × 105 volt
(c) 9 × 10 6 volt
(d) 4.5 × 106 volt
35.
The energy acquired by a charge of 8 × 10−19 C when passed through a potential difference of 200 volt
(a) 500 eV
(b) 1000 eV
(c) 1500 eV
(d) 2000 eV
36.
Two identical metallic spheres A and B of exactly equal masses m and m are taken A is given a + ve
charge of q coulomb and B is given an equal negative charge. If mA and mB are the mass of A and B
after charging then
(a) mA = mB
(b) mB > mA
(c) mB < mB
(d) none of the above
37.
An electron and a proton are freely placed in an electric fiel(d) If ap and ae are the acceleration s
produced in them, by the electric field them
(a) ap = ae
(b) ap > ae
(c) ap < ae
(d) ap = 1836 ae
38.
When the distance between two charged particles is halved, the electrostatic force between them becomes
(a) double
(b) one half
(c) fourtime
(d) one fourth
84
Electrostatics
39.
A charge spherical conductor of radius R carries a charge +Q. A point test charge +q0 is placed at a
distance x from the surface of the sphere. The force experienced by the test change will be proportional to
(a)
x2
(b)
(R + x.2
(c)
1
(R + x)2
(d)
1
(R − x)2
40.
An electric dipole consisting of two opposite charges of 2 × 10−6 each separated by a distance of 3 cm is
placed in all electric field of 2 × 105 newton/coulomb. The maximum torque acting on the dipole is
(a) 12 × 10−1 coulomb
(b) 12 × 10−2 coulomb
−3
(c) 12 × 10 coulomb
(d) 24 × 10−3 coulomb
41.
Electric lines of force about a negative point charge are
(a) circular, clockwise
(b) circular, anticlockwise
(c) radial, inward
(d) radial, outward
42.
A point P is at a certain distance from a point charge q. At p, there is an electric field of intensity 3 v/m,
and a potential of 24 v. Then the distance of p from the point charge is
(a) 6 m
(b) 8 m
(c) 12 m
(d) 10 m
43.
Which of the following is inverse square law?
(a) Newton's law of universal gravitation
(b) Ohm's law
(c)
(d)
Coulomb's law
both (a) & (c)
SI unit of electric intensity is
(a) (A) m
(b) V/m
(c)
Nm2/C2
44.
(d)
C2/N.m2
45.
Two charges ql and q2 are placed in air, distance r apart from each other. Each charge is doubled,
distance between them is doubled and they are placed in a medium of dielectric constant 2. Then the
force acting between the two charges will be
(a) doubled
(b) halved
(c) quadrupled
(d) none of the above
46.
If a charge is moved against electrostatic force in an electric field
(a) energy is emitted by the charge
(b) energy is stored in the system
(c) work is done by an external source
(d) both b and c
47.
Electric potential due to a point charge at distance ‘r’ from it is
(a) directly Proportional to r
(b) inversely proportional to r
(c) inversely proportional to r2
(d) independent of r
48.
Electric intensity due to a point charge at distance ‘r’ is
(a) inversely proportional to r2
(b) inversely proportional to r
(c) independent of r
(d) directly proportional to r
49.
Electric intensity due to a straight infinitely long charged conductor at distance r is
(a) inversely proportional to r2
(b) independent of r
(c) inversely proportional to r
(d) none of the above
50.
A uniform electric field of intensity 40 N/c is along positive X-axis. Electric potential at x = 10 cm is
500 volt. Electric potential at x = 20 cm is
( a ) 496 volt
(b) 400 volt
(c) 4 volt
(d) 40 volt
51.
A charge + q0 is moved through distance x on a charged conductor, (an equipotential surface.. The
amount of work done during this displacement is
(a) E q0 . x
(b) E . q0 . x cos 0
(c) E. q0 . r. sin 8
(d) zero
85
Std : XI
52.
A charge of 6 µC experiences a force of 0.24 N in an electric fiel(d) The potential gradient at this point
is
(a) 4 × 105 V/m
(b) 4 × 106 V/m
(c) 4 × 104 V/m
(d) 4 × 103 V/m
53.
A p d. of 200 volt is maintained across two parallel plates of a parallel plate capacitor. Distance
between the two plates is 4 mm. Calculate electric field intensity between the two plates
(a) 5 × 105 V/m
(b) 5 × 104 N/C
(c) zero
(d) 2 × 104 V/m
54.
Static electricity is produced due to
(a) conduction
(c) convection
(b)
(d)
radiation
friction and induction
55.
Every charge q that exists on the surface of a body can be represented by (where n = 1, 2, 3, ... . e →
electric charge
(a) n2/e
(b) n . e
(c) e/n
(d) n/e
56.
If 'R' is radius of a sphere and Q is charge supplied to it, then the surface charge density
given by
(a)
σ=
Q
2πR
(b)
σ=
Q
⎛ 5 2 ⎞⎟
⎜⎜ πR ⎟
⎝⎜ 3
⎠⎟
(c)
σ=
Q
4 πR 2
(d)
σ=
(σ. is
Q
πR2
57.
A charge q is placed at the centre of a line joining two equal charges Q. The system of the three charges
will be in equilibrium if q is equal to
(a) +Q/2
(b) −3Q
(c) −Q/4
(d) −Q/2
58.
The branch of physics which deals with the study of static charges is
(a) Current electricity
(b) Electronics
(c) Electrostatics
(d) Modern physics
59.
The positive & negative name of the charges were given by
(a) Ohm
(b) Franklin
(c) Coulomb
60.
(d)
Gilbert
The bodies get charged when rubbed with each other due to transistor of
(a) Atoms
(b) Molecules
(c) Electrons
(d)
Protons
61.
If an isolated metallic conductor is positively charged then its mass will
(a) Decrease
(b) Increase
(c) Remains the same
(d) Becomes double
62.
Two equal & opposite charges separated by a short distance is called an
(a) Electric pole
(b) Electric dipole
(c) Electric dipole moment
(d) Electric torque
63.
The force on a unit positive charge due to a charged conductor is called
(a) Electromotive force
(b) Electric permittivity
(c) Electric intensity
(d) Dielectric constant
64.
The negative gradient of potential at any point in electric field is
(a) Electric flux
(b) Electric intensity
(c) Electric dipole
(d) Electric potential
65.
The ratio of the force between two point charges in air to that in a medium of dielectric constant K is
(a) K : 1
(b) 1: K
(c) K2 : 1
(d) 1 : K2
86
Electrostatics
JJG
66.
The electric flux passing through a given surface of area ds perpendicular to electric field is
JG JJG
JG JJG
JG JJG
(a) E.ds
(b) E × ds
(c) Zero
(d) |E|ds|
67.
Which of the following expressions represents a volt?
(a) Joule/Coulomb (b)
Joule. Coulomb
(c)
erg. Coulomb
The electric lines of force
(a) Are parallel lines of force
(b) Are perpendicular to each other
Are intersecting lines
Do not cross each other
68.
(c)
(d)
(d)
Coulomb/tig
69.
Two positive charges are placed a certain distance apart. A slab of dielectric medium is introduced
between them. As a result, the repulsion between the two charges
(a) Changes to attraction
(b) Remains constant
(c) Decreases
(d) Increases
70.
To charge a body to+1C
(a) One electron has to be removed from it
(c)
18
6.25 × 10 electrons are to be added to it
(b)
One electron has to be added to it
(d)
1
electrons are to be removed from it
1.6 × 10−19
71.
Two electric charges are 8 cm apart. They are brought nearer so that the distance between them is 2 cm.
The force between them is now
(a) Greater by factor 16
(b) Smaller by factor 16
(c) Greater by factor 8
(d) Smaller by factor 4
72.
An electric line of force is the path followed by
(a) An electron
(c) A unit positive
(b)
(d)
A neutron
A unit negative charge
73.
The work done during the displacement of a charge from one point to another on an equipotential
surface is
(a) Zero
(b) Minimum
(c) Maximum
(d)
Infinite
74.
Electron volt is the unit of
(a) Potential
(c) Energy
75.
Potential-difference
Work
(c)
1.6 × 10 −19 C
(d) 1.6× 10−19V
(c)
Negative
(d)
1 ev =
(a)
76.
(b)
(d)
1
C
1.6 × 10−19
(b)
1.6 × 10−19J
The potential due to a negative charge is
(a) Zero
(b) Positive
77.
An electric field can be described in terms of a vector quantity called the
(a) Electric flux
(b) Electric potential
(c) Electric current
(d) Electric field intensity
78.
An electric field can be described in terms of a scalar quantity called the
(a) Electric flux
(b) Electric potential
(c) Electric current
(d) Electric field intensity
79.
The SI unit of linear charge density is
(a) C/cm
(b) C/m
87
(c)
C/m2
(d)
Infinite
C/m3
Std : XI
80.
81.
The SI unit of surface charge density is
(a) C/cm2
(b) C/m
(c)
C/m2
(d)
C/m3
The SI unit of volume charge density is
(a) C/cm3
(b) C/m
(c)
C/m2
(d)
C/m3
82.
The uniform charge distribution along the length of the thin rod or wire is called the
(a) Linear charge density
(b) Surface charge density
(c) Volume charge density
(d) Superficial charge density
83.
The uniform charge distribution over the entire area of a plane is called the
(a) Linear charge density
(b) Surface charge density
(c) Volume charge density
(d) Cubical charge density
84.
The charge on conductor is +1.6 coulombs then it has
(a) Excess of 1019 electrons
(b) Excess of 10−19 electrons
−19
(c) Shortage of 10 electrons
(d) Shortage of 1019 electrons
85.
The permittivity of medium is 26.55 × 10−12 c2/Nm2. The dielectric constant of the medium will be
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
− Answer Key −
LEVEL - 1
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
51.
61.
c
b
a
b
b
c
c
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
52.
62.
c
c
a
c
d
b
d
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
53.
63.
d
c
c
c
a
a
b
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
54.
64.
d
d
c
d
b
b
a
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
55.
65.
d
c
c
c
b
b
a
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
56.
66.
a
c
b
b
a
c
a
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
57.
67.
b
d
a
b
c
b
a
8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
58.
68.
c
b
a
a
c
d
a
9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
59.
a
b
b
c
c
b
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
60.
b
b
c
c
b
b
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
53.
63.
73.
83.
a
a
a
a
d
b
c
b
b
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
54.
64.
74.
84.
a
a
a
d
b
d
b
c
c
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
55.
65.
75.
85.
a
a
a
b
b
b
a
b
b
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
56.
66.
76.
a
a
c
b
d
c
c
c
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
57.
67.
77.
c
a
c
c
b
c
a
d
8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
58.
68.
78.
a
d
a
c
a
c
d
b
9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
59.
69.
79.
d
d
b
c
c
b
c
b
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
60.
70.
80.
d
d
b
c
a
c
d
c
LEVEL - 2
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
51.
61.
71.
81.
a
a
d
b
c
d
a
a
d
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
52.
62.
72.
82.
b
a
a
a
b
c
a
c
a
88
11
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
LEVEL - 1
1.
2.
3.
Electricity is a source of ________
(a) power
(b) energy
current
(d)
voltage
Motion of electric charge through wire causes ________
(a) power
(b) current
(c) voltage
(d)
energy
Flow of electron is from ________
(a) high potential to low potential
(c) same potential
(c)
(b)
(d)
low potential to high potential
none
4.
When one coulomb charge flows through conductor in one second then current through conductors
________
(a) one ampere
(b) two ampere
(c) zero ampere
(d) one volt
5.
Current through conductor is proportional to ________
(a) resistance
(b) power
(c) conductance
(d)
potential difference
Reciprocal of resistance is ________
(a) resistivity
(b) conductivity
(d)
suspectance
6.
(c)
conductance
7.
Due to motion of electron with vibrating atom they collide with atom give rise to ________
(a) conductance
(b) suspectance
(c) resistance
(d) none
8.
At room temperature electron collides with atom with a velocity ________
(a) 103 m/s
(b) 104 m/s
(c) 102 m/s
(d)
105 m/s
Drift velocity of free electron is ________
(a) 102m/s
(B) 101 m/s
(d)
10−3 m/s
Before setting electric field average velocity of electron is ________
(a) decrease
(b) constant
(c) increase
(d)
zero
Drift velocity of electron is caused due to ________
(a) light energy
(b) chemical energy
(c)
thermal energy
(d)
none
Resistance of conductor increases with ________
(a) decrease in length of conductor
(b)
(c) increase in area of conductor
(d)
increase in length of conductor
keeping length and area of conductor
Unit of specific resistance is ________
(a) Ohm
(b) Ohm/meter
(c)
Ohm/meter2
(d)
Ohm-meter
Recriprocal of resistivity is ________
(a) conductivity
(b) susbility
(c)
formity
(d)
none
Minimum resistivity materials are ________
(a) insulator
(b) conductor
(c)
semiconductor
(d)
none
Maximum resistivity materials are ________
(a) insulate
(b) conductor
(c) semiconductor
(d)
none
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
(c)
10−2 m/s
Std : XI
17.
Increase in resistance due to rise in temperature is proportional to ________
(a) initial resistance
(b) internal resistance
(c) external resistance
(d) none
18.
If resistivity of material increases with increase in temperature then it has ________
(a) NTC
(b) PTC
(c) RTD
(d) none
19.
If resistivity of material decreases with increase in temperature then it has ________
(a) NTC
(b) PTC
(c) RTD
(d) none
20.
Material having small temperature coefficient is ________
(a) metal
(b) insulator
(c) semiconductor
(d)
alloy
________ is temperature sensitive semiconductor device.
(a) thermometer
(b) thermistor
(c) thermal resistor
(d)
none
Thermistor denotes temperature as small as ________
(a) 1°C
(b) 0.1°C
(c)
(d)
100°C
21.
22.
0.001°C
23.
Phenomenon of loosing resistivity completely at certain temperature is ________
(a) conductivity
(b) resistivity
(c) superconductivity
(d) fidelity
24.
Superconductivity exist at ________ temperature.
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c)
zero
(d)
room
Colour code of orange is ________
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c)
4
(d)
5
________ colour has least colour code.
(a) black
(b) white
(c)
brown
(d)
grey
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
The resistor having colours Red Red then its resistance value is ________
(a) 220Ω
(b) 2200Ω
(c) 22Ω
(d)
The colour for Ik resistance are ________
(a) brown, black, red
(c) brown, black, orange
(b)
(d)
22000Ω
brown, black, black
black, brown, yellow
Energy given by cell to circulate unit charge around the circuit is ________
(a) Voltage
(b) MMF
(c) EMF
(d)
Current
30.
Energy given by cell to circulate unit charge around external resistance is ________
(a) mmf
(b) emf
(c) current
(d) potential difference
31.
Series combination of cell increases ________
(a) current rating
(c) power rating
(b)
(d)
voltage rating
none
Parallel combination of cell increases ________
(a) current rating
(b) power rating
(c)
voltage rating
32.
33.
34.
(d) none
In parallel combination of cell ________ remain constant.
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) power
(d)
none
In series combination of cell ________ remain constant.
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) power
(d)
none
90
Current Electricity
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
Work done by electron in overcoming resistance is converted into ________
(a) light
(b) heat
(c) voltage
(d)
current
Rate of doing work by electric source is ________
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c)
power
(d)
energy
1 hp = ________ watt.
(a) 846
(b)
103
(c)
746
(d)
500
1k Wh = ________ joule.
(a) 3.6 × 109J
(b)
3.6 × 106J
(c)
3.6 × 103J
(d)
3.6 × 104J
Specific resistance of material of conductor depend on ________
(a) temperature
(b) length
(c) pressure
(d)
area
Ideal cell has internal resistance ________
(a) 1
(b) 0
(d)
∞
(c)
2
41.
A wire of 10cm has resistance 5Ω. It is stretched upto 60 cm its resistance will be ________
(a) 20Ω
(b) 40Ω
(c) 30Ω
(d) 10Ω
42.
A current of 1A flows through conductor for 1.6 sec. number of electron passed through conductor are
________
(a) 1018
(b) 1020
(c) 1019
(d) 1.6 × 1019
43.
A resistance of 1KΩ is connected to source of 6V then current through the resistance is ________
(a) 6A
(b) 6mA
(c) 1A
(d) 1mA
44.
A conductor of length 20 cm has resistance 2Ωm and if p.d. applied across it is 2V then current through it
is ________
(a) 6A
(b) 5A
(c) 4A
(d) 3A
45.
If resistor are in ratio 1 : 4 have length in ratio 1 :2 and radii in ratio 3 : 1 then specific resistance are in
ratio ________
(a) 2:9
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 9 : 2
(d) 4:3
46.
Resistance of wires are in ratio 1: 4 then length of wires are in ratio ________
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 2 : 1
(d)
1:4
IK resistance has conductance ________
(a) 10−2 mho
(b) 10−1 mho
1000 mho
47.
48.
(c)
10−3 mho
(d)
100 w bulb is applied to source 250 V then current through bulb is ________
(a) 0.1 A
(b) 0.2A
(c) 0.4A
(d)
0.3A
LEVEL - 2
1.
A thick wire of resistance 25 Ω. is drawn into a thin wire such that its length becomes four times. The new
resistance of the wire will be
(a) 50 Ω
(b) 25 Ω
(c) 100 Ω
(d) 400 Ω
2.
A current of 1 mA is flowing in a copper wire. The number of electrons crossing any point in the conductor
per second will be
(a) 6.25 × 10 31
(b) 6 . 2 5 × 1 0 8
(c) 6 . 2 5 × 1 0 l 5
(d) 6.25 × 1019
91
Std : XI
3.
The e.m.f. of a primary cell is 2 volt. When it is shorted then it gives a current of 4(A) Its internal
resistance will be
(a) 2Ω
(b) 8Ω
(c) 5Ω
(d) 0.5 Ω
4.
When two resistances are connected in parallel then the equivalent resistance is 6/5 Ω. When one of the
resistances is removed then the effective resistance is 2Ω. The resistance of the wire removed will be
(a) 3 Ω
(b) 2 Ω
(c) 3/5 Ω
(d) 6/5 Ω
5.
The resistance of a conductor is 60 Ω. The curve between log V and log I will be
(a) circle
(b) hyperbola
(c) straight line
(d) parabola
6.
The following wires are made of same material. The wire whose resistance is maximum will be
(a) 2 mm radius and 80 m length
(b) 2 mm radius and 40 m length
(c) 1 mm radius and 40 m length
(d) 1 mm radius and 80 m length
7.
Ohm's law is valid for
(a) only metallic conductors
(c) non-metallic conductors
8.
9.
(b)
(d)
insulators
only conductor
The specific resistance of the material of a conductor depends on its
(a) temperature
(b) length
(c) radius
(d)
The best material for making resistance boxes is
(a) iron
(b) silver
(d) constantan
(c)
brass
size
10.
An electric cable contains a single copper wire of radius 9 mm. Its resistance is 5Ω . This cable is
replaced by six insulated copper wires, each of radius 3 mm. The resultant resistance of cable will be
(a) 7.5Ω
(b) 45Ω
(c) 90 Ω
(d) 270 Ω
11.
The e.m.f. of a cell of negligible internal resistance is 2 V. It is connected to the series combination of
2 Ω, 3 Ω and 5 Ω resistances. The potential difference across 3 Ω resistance will be in volt.
(a) 0.6
(b) 2/3
(c) 3
(d) 6
12.
The length of four wires are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4. All the four wires are of same material and their
radii are also same. If the wires are connected to a battery in succession, then the ratio of currents
flowing in them will be
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4
(b) 4 : 3 : 2 : 1
(c) 12 : 6 : 4 : 3
(d) none of these
13.
A potential difference of 20 V is applied across the ends of a coil. The amount of heat generated in it is
800 cal/s. The value of resistance of the coil will be
(a) 12 Ω
(b) 1.2 Ω
(c) 0.12 Ω
(d) 0.012 Ω
14.
A wire emits 80 J energy in 10 second when a current of 2A is passed through it. The resistance of the,
wire in ohm will be
(a) 0.5
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 20
15.
40 mA current flows for 40 second in a wire. The charge on the wire is
(a) 1.6 C
(b) 0
(c) 9.1 C
(d)
1.6 × 10 − 1 9 C
The radius of a copper wire is double(d) Its specific resistance
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d)
none of these
16.
17.
The equivalent resistance of resistors in series is always
(a) equal to the mean of component resistors
(b) less than the lowest of component resistors
(c) in between the lowest and the highest of component resistors
(d) equal to the sum of the component resistors
92
Current Electricity
18.
Conductivity is the reciprocal of
(a) drift velocity
(b) resistivity
(c)
inductance
(d)
permittivity
19.
Given a current carrying wire of non uniform cross section. Which of the following is constant
throughout the length of the wire?
(a) current, electric field and drift speed
(b) drift speed only
(c) current and drift speed
(d) current only
20.
Overloading of an electric circuit implies
(a) connecting a number of electric devices in series with the power supply
(b) connecting high resistance device
(c) drawing a large current
(d) non of these
21.
The terminal voltage across a cell is more than its e.m.f. if the another cell of
(a) higher e.m.f. is connected in parallel to it (b) less e.m.f. is connected in parallel to it
(c) less e.m.f. is connected in series with it
(d) higher e.m.f. is connected in series with it
22.
Copper and silicon is cooled from 300 K to 60 K, the specific resistance
(a) decreases in copper but increases in silicon (b) increases in copper but decreases in silicon
(c) increases in both
(d) decreases in both
23.
EMF of a cell is 2.2 volt. When resistance R = 5 Ω. is connected in series potential drop across the cell
becomes 1.8 volt. Value of internal resistance of the cell is
(a) 10/9
(b) 9/10
(c) 7/12
(d) 12/7
24.
A 100 W, 200 V bulb is connected to a 160 volts supply. The actual power consumption would be
(a) 64 W
(b) 125 W
(c) 100 W
(d) 80 W
25.
The potential difference between two electrodes of a galvanic cell, in an open circuit, is known as
(a) current
(b) electromotive force
(c) potential difference
(d) impedance
26.
The number of equal resistance connected in series have effective resistance of 32 Ω. When the same
resistances are connected in parallel then effective resistance is 2 Ω. The number of resistances are
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 5
(d) 10
27.
The work done by a cell to circulate the charge of 2 µC is 10 × 10− 6 J. The e.m.f. of cell is
(a) 5 volt
(b) 2 volt
(c) 3 volt
(d) 1.5 volt
28.
The specific resistance of the material of conductor depends on
(a) area of cross-section
(b) temperature
(c) length
(d) pressure
29.
The internal resistance of an ideal cell is
(a) 1 Ω
(c) zero
(b)
(d)
infinite
changes irregularly
30.
Two wires of same material and same length are connected in series. The area of cross section of wires is
in ratio 3 : 1. The resistance of thicker wire is 10 Ω. The total resistance of combination is
(a) 10Ω
(b) 20 Ω
(c) 30 Ω
(d) 40 Ω
31.
A wire of length 20 cm has resistance 5 Ω. It is stretched up to 60 cm, its resistance will be
(a) 10 Ω
(b) 30Ω
(c) 45 Ω
(d) 60 Ω
93
Std : XI
32.
If R is the resultant resistance of n similar resistance connected in parallel. The resultant resistance when
these resistances are connected in series will be
(a) nR
(b) n2R
(c) R/n
(d) R/n2
33.
How many cells of e.m.f. 1.5 volt and internal resistance 0.5 Ω must be connected in series with 20 Ω
resistance to give the current of 0.6 A in circuit?
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 8
34.
Six cells each of e.m.f. 1.4 volt and internal resistance 1/6 Ω are connected in series. It is found that two
cells are wrongly connected. The current through external resistance of 1.8 Ω is
(a) 0.5 A
(b) 1A
(c)1.5A
(d) 2 A
35.
Two resistance of 3 Ω and 2 Ω are connected in series to a cell of e.m.f. 3 volt and internal resistance of
1 n. The P.(D) across 3 Ω resistance will be
(a) 1 volt
(b) 0.5 volt
(c) 1.5 volt
(d) 2 volt
36.
In which one of the following substances the resistance decreases with increase of temperature?
(a) copper
(b) silver
(c) carbon
(d) constantan
37. One volt is equal to
(a) 1 Joule
(b) 1 ohm/ampere
38.
(c)
(d)
1 Joule/coulomb
1 newton/second
If R1 and R2 are the filament resistances of a 100 watt bulb and 200 watt bulb, designed to operate on
the same voltage, then
(a)
R1 =
R2
2
(b)
R1 = 2 R2
(c)
R1 = 3 R2
(d)
R2 = 3 R1
39.
A uniform copper wire of resistance 5 Ω is uniformly stretched, doubled the new resistance of the wire
will be
(a) 10 Ω
(b) 15 Ω
(c) 20 Ω
(d) 5 Ω
40.
A Current of 3.2 ampere is flowing in a conductor. The number of electrons per second through the
conductor will be [Charge on the electron = 1.6 × 10− 19 coulomb]
(a) 3 × 1019 electrons/sec
(b) 2 × 1019 electrons/sec
20
(c) 3 × 10 electrons/sec
(d) 6.4 × 1020 electrons/sec
41.
The length of a conductor is halve(d) Its conductance will be .
(a) unchanged
(b) halved
(c)
42.
doubled
1
of the original conductance
4
In the statement of Ohm's law, the word ‘Physical state of a conductor' includes
(a) its length and area of cross section
(b) material of the conductor
(c) temperature of the conductor
(d) all the above
43. When P.(D) is not applied across a conductor,
(a) charges inside a conductor do not move
(c) net rate of flow of charges is zero
44.
(d)
(b)
(d)
net flow of charges is in one direction
none of the above
A wire carries a current of 1 (A) The number of electrons passing through a cross section of wire per
second is (given: e = 1.6 × 10− 19 C)
(a) 6.25 × 1018
(b) 6.25 × 1019
(c) 6 × 1020
(d) 6 × 1015
94
Current Electricity
45.
A wire of resistance 100 Ω is cut into 10 equal parts and all 10 parts are bundled together. The
equivalent resistance of the wire now becomes
(a) 1 0 Ω
(b) 50Ω
(c) 1 Ω
(d) 100 Ω
46.
A thin, uniform wire of resistance 40 Ω is bent to form a circle. The resistance between any two
diametrically opposite points is
(a) 20 Ω
(b) 10 Ω
(c) 15 Ω
(d) None of the above
47.
A wire of resistance R is cut into 'n' equal parts. They are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance
now becomes,
(a) R/n2
(b) n2R
(c) R/n
(d) n . R
48.
Two wires have their lengths in the ratio 5 : 3 and radii in the ratio 1 : 2. Ratio of their resistivity is
3 : 4. The ratio of resistance is
(a) 1 : 5
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 5 : 1
49.
If a resistor has three colour bands namely red, red & orange and the fourth band is gold, then its value is
(a) 22 k ± 5%
(b) 2.2 k
(c) 22 k
(d) 0.22 k
50.
A battery of emf 2V sends a current of 0.1 A when connected to a resistance of 18 Ω, The internal
resistance of cell is
(a) 2 Ω
(b) 1 Ω
(c)
3Ω
(d) 4 Ω
51.
A wire of resistance 20 n is uniformly stretched to thrice its original length. The length change in its
resistance is
(a) 180 Ω
(b) 160 Ω
(c) 200 Ω
(d) 60 Ω
52.
A battery of e.m.f. 10 volt is connected to a voltmeter of resistance 135 Ω. Find the reading of the
voltmeter if internal resistance of the cell is 15 Ω
(a) 10 volt
(b) 9 volt
(c) 8 volt
(d) none of the above
53.
As the temperature of a metallic conductor increases, its resistance
(a) always increases
(b) always decreases
(c) may increase or decrease
(d) none of the above
54.
Equivalent resistance in parallel combination is
(a) greater than the greatest resistance in the combination
(b) less than the least resistance in the combination
(c) average of all the resistors in the combination
(d) equal to sum of all the resistors in the combination
55.
When resistors are connected in parallel combination,
(a) p.d across each resistor is same
(b) different current passes through unequal resistors
(c) equivalent resistance is equal to sum of the reciprocals of the resistors in the combination
(d) a and b
95
Std : XI
− Answer Key −
LEVEL - 1
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
b
c
b
b
c
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
b
b
c
a
c
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
b
d
c
b
b
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
a
a
b
a
b
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
d
b
b
b
c
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
c
a
a
c
a
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
c
a
b
c
c
8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
d
b
a
b
c
9.
19.
29.
39.
d
a
c
a
10.
20.
30.
40.
d
d
d
b
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
53.
d
c
a
a
c
a
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
54.
a
b
d
b
a
b
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
55.
d
a
b
c
c
d
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
d
c
a
c
b
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
a
d
a
c
a
8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
a
b
b
b
d
9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
d
d
c
c
a
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
a
c
d
b
a
LEVEL - 2
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
51.
d
a
a
c
c
a
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
52.
c
d
a
b
d
b
96
12
ELECTRIC CURRENT
MAGNETIC EFFECT OF
LEVEL - 1
1.
A charge particle placed in a uniform magnetic field experiences ________
(a) force in direction of field
(b) force in opposite direction of field
(c) force perpendicular to direction of field
(d) zero force at all
2.
Circular coil carrying a current in clock wise direction has a line of force inside the coil ________
(a) pointing away from you
(b) pointing towards you
(c) pointing towards centre along its radius
(d) pointing away from centre along its radius
3.
Magnetic field of an infinitely long solenoid of radius R carrying current ________
(a) is constant inside and outside
(b) is constant inside and zero outside
(c) increases inside and decreases outside
(d) increases inside and outside
4.
Two parallel wires carrying current in same direction attract each other due to ________
(a) mutual inductance between them
(b) magnetic force between them
(c) electric force between them
(d) potential difference between them
5.
Current loop placed in a magnetic field behaves like a ________
(a) magnetic pole
(b) magnetic dipole
(c) magnetic substance
(d) none
6.
Magnetic field ________
(a) exerts a force if charge particle moves along magnetic field.
(b) always exert force on charge particle
(c) always exert force on discharge particle
(d) exerts a force if charge particle moves perpendicular to magnetic field
7.
Positive charge is moving upward in magnetic field towards north then particle will be deflected towards
________
(a) south
(b) east
(c) north
(d) west
8.
An electron accelerates with a potential difference V enters a uniform magnetic field and experience force
F. If accelerating potential difference is increased to 2V then electron in same magnetic field experience
force ________
1
(a) F
(b) F/2
(c)
(d) F
2F
9.
When a charge particle move in a magnetic field its kinetic Energy always ________
(a) decrease
(b) increases
(c) remain same
(d) charges
10.
Uniform electric and magnetic field are acting in same direction in a region. Now if electron is projected
along the direction of field having some velocity then ________
(a) its velocity is increased
(b) its velocity is same
(c) its velocity is decreased
(d) its velocity is zero
11.
Charge particle moving in magnetic field in perpendicular direction has orbital magnetic moment is
directed ________
(a) parallel to magnetic field
(b) perpendicular to magnetic field
(c) opposite to magnetic field
(d) none of above
Std : XI
12.
Two thin long parallel wires separated by a distance b are carrying current I. Magnitude of force per unit
length exerted by wire on other is ________
µ 0 I2
µ0I
µ0I
µ 0 I2
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
2
2πb
2πb
b
2b
13.
Suppose a charge particle is projected in a region of magnetic field then ________
(a) speed of particle decrease
(b) speed of particle increases
(c) speed of particle remain constant
(d) speed of particle continously changes
14.
Two charged particle of same mass and charge are projected in a uniform magnetic field with same speed
perpendicular to magnetic field then ________
(a) magnetic force on them are same to each other
(b) kinetic energy of particle are same to each other
(c) moves in circular path having same radius
(d) all above
15.
Magnetic effect of electric current was first discovered by ________
(a) Faraday
(b) Oersted
(c) Weber
16.
Current carrying conductor set up ________ around it.
(a) electric field
(b)
(c) both electric and magnetic field
(d)
(d)
Biot
magnetic field
none
17.
Direction of magnetic field produced around current carrying conductor depend upon ________
(a) amount of current through conductor
(b) type of conductor
(c) direction of current through conductor
(d) amount of magnetic field produced
18.
Strength of electric field at a point determine ________
(a) electric intensity
(b) electric field intensity
(c) electric density
(d) magnetic density
19.
Strength of magnetic field at a point determine ________
(a) electric intensity
(b) electric field intensity
(c) electric density
(d) magnetic density
20.
Magnetic induction is ________
(a) electric flux
(c) electric flux per unit area
(b)
(d)
magnetic flux
magnetic flux per unit area
Electric intensity is ________
(a) total electric flux
(c) electric flux pef|jpt area
(b)
(d)
total magnetic flux
magnetic flux per unit area
S.I. unit of magnetic induction is ________
(a) weber
(b) weber per meter
(c)
weber meter
21.
22.
(d)
tesla
23.
Magnitude of magnetic induction due to current carrying through conductor is inversely proportional to
________
(a) distance of point from centre
(b) square of distance of point from centre
(c) length of conductor
(d) square of length of conductor
24.
S.I. unit of permeability of vacuum is ________
(a) weber-meter
(b) weber-Ampere
25.
(c)
weber per meter (d)
weber per ampere
Direction of magnetic induction in perpendicular to plane of figure and is directed ________
(a) outside the plane
(b) perpendicular to plane
(c) parallel to plane
(d) inside the plane
98
Magnetic Effect of Electric Current
26.
If a current carrying conductor held in the right hand with thumb outstretched indicates direction of
current then curled finger of hand indicates ________
(a) direction of electric field
(b) direction of magnetic field
(c) both direction of electric and magnetic field (d) none of above
27.
If current flowing through a conductor is pointed in upward direction then magnetic induction around
conductor is in ________
(a) same direction
(b) opposite direction
(c) anticlockwise direction
(d) clockwise direction
28.
If current flowing through a conductor is pointed in downward direction then magnetic induction around
conductor is in ________
(a) same direction
(b) opposite direction
(c) anticlockwise direction
(d) clockwise direction
29.
Magnetic induction at the centre of a circular coil carrying current does not depend on ________
(a) quantity of current.
(b) perimeter of conductor.
(c) sine of angle between element and line joining centre of element.
(d) square of distance of point from centre.
30.
Magnetic induction is always directed ________
(a) inward at right angle to plane
(b)
(c) parallel to plane
(d)
perpendicular to plane
outward at right angle to plane
31.
When a current carrying conductor is kept parallel to magnetic induction the force experience is ________
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) none
32.
When a current carrying conductor is kept perpendicular to magnetic induction then force experienced is
________
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) none
33.
A current i flows along infinitely long straight thin tube-well then magnetic induction at a point inside
tube is ________
µ 0 2i
i
(a)
(b) 2
(c) infinite
(d) zero
4π r
r
34.
In a steady and uniform region, two fields electric and magnetic fields are present and they are parallel to
each other. If a charge particle is released in this region from rest then path of particle is ________
(a) circle
(b) ellipse
(c) straight line
(d) helix
35.
Value of magnetic field at a distance r from straight long current carrying conductor is proportional to
________
(a) r
(b) r2
(c) 1/r2
(d) 1/r
36.
Magnetic field of 5 × 104 T balance a perpendicular electric field of 15 kV/m in their effect of electron
beam passing through these two field in perpendicular direction then speed of electron is ________
(a) 1.2 × 107m/sec. (b) 6.0 × 107m/sec.
(c) 3.4 × 1012m/sec. (d) 3 × 107m/sec.
37.
Total magnetic field due to earth is 28 Am−1 then its magnetic induction is ________
(a) 3.5 × 10−6 T
(b) 3.5 × 10−5 T
(c) 3.5 × 105 T
(d) 3.5 × 10−4 T
38.
Charge particle having velocity 2 × 103 m/sec passes undeflected through electric and magnetic field if
electric field intensity is 1.5 × 103 N/C then magnetic field is ________
(a) 2T
(b) 3T
(c) 1.5T
(d) 1T
99
Std : XI
39.
Time period of charge particle undergoing a circular motion in a uniform magnetic field does not depend
upon ________
(a) mass
(b) charge
(c) speed
(d) magnetic induction
40.
If the resistance of the upper half of a rigid circular loop is twice then lower half the magnitude of
magnetic induction at centre is ________
µ0I
µ0I
µ0I
µ0I
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
2a
4a
8a
12a
41.
Three concentric circular wires of radii r, 2r, 3r carries current 3I, 2I and I respectively. The magnetic
field at centre is ________
µ0I
(a)
a
r
I
I
µ0I
O
(b)
2r
13µ 0 I
(c)
6r
µ0I
(d)
6r
42.
Suppose current is passed through small spring then it will ________
(a) expand
(b) remain same
(c) compress
43.
Magnetic field at point Q of circuit is ________
(a) one
(b) infinite
(c) zero
R
(d) none of above
(d)
none
R
•
Q
V
V
44.
Two long parallel wires carrying current I are separated by distance r then magnitude of force per unit
length exerted by one on other is ________
µ0I
µ 0 I2
µ0I
µ0I
(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
2r
2πr
2πr
2πra 2
45.
Static charge produces ________ and moving charge produces a ________
(a) electric field, electric force
(b) magnetic field, magnetic force
(c) electric field, magnetic field
(d) none
46.
As per Fleming left hand rule, if first finger indicates direction of magnetic field and middle finger
indicates direction of electric field then thumb indicates direction of ________ acting on conductor.
(a) velocity
(b) acceleration
(c) force
(d) momentum
47.
Two straight parallel conductor carrying current I, and I2 are separated by distance r then force of
attraction per unit length of conductor is ________
µ 0 I1I 2
µ 0 I1I 2
µ 0 I1I 2
µ 0 I1I 2
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
2
2πr
2r
r
r
48.
Quantity of charge flowing through given cross-section of wire in one second is ________
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) force
(d) magnetic field
100
Magnetic Effect of Electric Current
LEVEL - 2
1.
The charge on a particle is 100 times that of electron. It is revolving in a circular path of radius 0.8 m at
a frequency of 1011 revolutions per second. The magnetic field at the centre of path will be
(b) 10−7/µ0
(c) 10−17 µ0
(d) 10−6 µ0
(a) 10−7 µ0
2.
The magnetic flux density at a point distant d from a long straight current carry-inn conductor is B, then
its value at distance d/2 will be
(a) 4 B
(b) 2 B
(c) B / 2
(d) B/4
3.
The magnetic induction at the centre of square frame of a conducting wire, when its diagonally opposite
corners are connected to a battery will be.
(a) zero
(b) µ0 / πa
(c) 2 µ0 i / π a
(d) 4 µ0 i / π a
4.
The magnetic moment of electron revolving in a circular orbit will be
(a) e A t
(b) e A/t
(c) e t / A
5.
(d)
eA
The magnetic induction at the centre of a circular current carrying coil of radius a will be
(a)
2 × 10−7 ×
πni
a
(b)
µ 0 ni
a
(c)
2µ 0 ni
a
(d)
zero
6.
Two parallel wires, each of length 0.5 m, are lying at a distance of lm. If the current flowing in each wire
is 1 ampere then the force between them will be
(b) 10−7 N
(c) 0.5 N
(d) 107 N
(a) 2 × 10−7 N
7.
A current of 50 ampere is flowing in a copper wire of diameter 0.5 × 10−2 m. The magnetic induction on
its surface will be
(b) 4 × 10−3 gauss
(c) 4 × 103 tesla
(d) 4 × 104 gauss
(a) 4 × 10−3 tesla
8.
The ratio of magnetic induction at the centre of a circular coil of radius a and on its axis at a distance
equal to its radius, will be
(a)
1
2
(b)
2
1
(c)
1
2 2
(d)
2 2
1
9.
The magnetic induction due to a long straight conductor at a distance 2 cm from it is 10−6 tesla. The
current flowing in the conductor will be
(a) zero
(b) 1 A
(c) 0.1 A
(d) 10 A
10.
The magnetic lines of force due to straight current carrying conductor are
(a) circular lines
(b)
straight lines
(c) concentric lines (d)
elliptical lines
11.
The phenomenon of production of magnetic field on passing an electric current in a straight conducting
wire is based on the law of
(a) Faraday
(b) Coulomb
(c) Ampere
(d) Oersted
12.
On passing electric current in two long straight conductors in mutually opposite 1 directions, the
magnetic force acting between them will be
(a) attractive
(b) repulsive
(c) both attractive and repulsive
(d) neither attractive nor repulsive
13.
A 0.5 m long straight wire in which a current of 1.2 A is flowing is kept at right angles to a uniform
magnetic field of 2.0 tesla. The force acting on the wire will be
(a) 2 N
(b) 2.4 N
(c) 1.2 N
(d) 3 N
101
Std : XI
14.
Two parallel straight conductors, in which current is flowing in the same direction attract each other.
The cause of it is
(a) magnetic force between the two
(b) electric force between the two
(c) potential difference between the two
(d) mutual induction between the two
15.
A magnetic needle placed in a non uniform magnetic field experiences
(a) only force
(b) force and torque
(c) only torque
(d) neither force nor torque
16.
The force between two parallel conductors, each of length 50 m and distant 20 cm apart, is 1 newton. If
the current in one conductor is double that in another one, then their values will respectively be
(a) 100 A and 200 A (b) 50 A and 400 A
(c) 10 A and 30 A (d) 5 A and 25 A
17.
Which of the following quantity is not affected by a magnetic field?
(a) stationary charge
(b) moving charge
(c) change in magnetic flux
(d) current flowing in a conductor
18.
A proton, a deutron and an α-particle are moving with same momentum in a uniform magnetic fiel(d)
The ratio of magnetic forces acting on them will be
(a) 1: 1 : 2
(b) 1: 2 : 3
(c) 2 : 1 : 1
(d) 1: 1 : 1
19.
A current carrying loop lying in a magnetic field behaves like a
(a) magnetic dipole
(b) magnetic pole
(c) magnetic material
(d) nonmagnetic material
20.
A current carrying conductor is free to move in a magnetic fiel(d) The direction of its motion is
determined by
(a) Fleming's left hand rule
(b) Laplace's rule
(c) Swimming rule
(d) Right handed screw rule
21.
A current of 10 A is flowing in a wire of length 1.5 m. A force of 15 newton acts on it when it is
placed in a uniform magnetic field of 2 tesla. The angle between the direction of current flow and the
magnetic field will be
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
22.
Two circular coils are made of two identical wires of the same length. If the number of turns of the
two coils are 4 and 2, then the ratio of magnetic inductions at the centres will be
(a) 4 : 1
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 1: 1
23.
Two long parallel copper wires carrying currents in the opposite direction of 5 A each. If the wires
are separated by a distance of 0.5 m then the force between the two wires is
(a) 10−5 N/m attractive force
(b) 10−5 N/m repulsive force
(d) 2 × 10−5 N/m repulsive force
(c) 2 × 10−5 N/m attractive force
24.
A circular loop has a radius of 5 cm and it is carrying a current of 0.1 (A) Its magnetic moment is
(c) 5.25 × 10−4 A m2
(a) 1.32 × 10−4 Am2
(d) 7.85 × 10−4 Am2
(b) 2.62 × 10− 4 Am2
25.
A charge of 1 C is moving in a magnetic field of 0.5 tesla with a velocity of 10 m/se(c) Force experienced
is
(a)
5N
(b) 10 N
(c) 0.5 N
(d)
0N
26.
If the force acting on a charge moving in magnetic field is zero, the direction of motion of charge is
(a) perpendicular to field
(b) parallel to field
(c) inclined to field
(d) random
102
Magnetic Effect of Electric Current
27.
A circular coil carrying current I not touches to a wire carrying same current as shown in figure. The
magnetic induction at the centre of coil will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
µ0I
2πr
µ0I
r
2
2πr
µ 0 I ⎛⎜
1⎞
⎜⎜1 − ⎟⎟⎟
π⎠
2r ⎝
O
I
µ 0 I ⎛⎜
1⎞
⎜⎜1 + ⎟⎟⎟
2r ⎝
π⎠
28.
How many number of turns of circular coil of radius 12.56 cm and current 1 A will produce the magnetic
induction of 5 × 10−5 T at its centre?
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 20
29.
Two circular coils of turns ratio 1 : 2 and ratio of radii 3 : 4. The ratio of currents to produce same
magnetic induction at their centres will be
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 4
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 4 : 3
30.
The magnetic induction at the centre of circular coil for double turns and half radius will be
(a) B/4
(b) 2 B
(c) B/2
(d) 4 B
31.
A current carrying conductor experiences the force in magnetic fiel(d) The ratio of forces if current and
magnetic field are doubled as
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 4
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 2 : 3
32.
If the current in circular coil is clockwise, the pole produced on its front face will be
(a) N-pole
(b) S-pole
(c) either N-pole or S-pole
(d) neither N-pole nor S-pole
33.
The direction of force acting on current carrying conductor of length vector A when placed in magnetic
JG
field B by making an angle θ
JG
G
JG
G
(a) parallel to both B and A
(b) perpendicular to both B and A
JG
G
JG
G
(d) perpendicular to B and parallel to A
(c) parallel to B and perpendicular to A
34.
Two long parallel conductor 5 cm apart experiences the force of 4 × 10−3 N/m. If the current through 1st
conductor is 2 A, the current through 2nd conductor is
(a) 1 A
(b) 2A
(c) 4A
(d) 5 A
35.
At what angle between current carrying conductor and magnetic field is the force on conductor be
maximum?
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
36.
The electric current at the centre of a circular coil of one turn produces a magnetic induction of 0.1
tesla at its centre. The Coil is unwound and is rewound in a circular coil of four turns. If the same
current is allowed to pass through the coil, then the new value of the magnetic induction at the centre
will be
(a) 0.4T
(b) 0.8T
(c) 1.2T
(d) 1.6T
37.
A charge +q is projected with a velocity v in a magnetic field of induction B . The force acting on the
JG
JG
charge will be maximum, when the angle between the directions of v and B is
(a) 0°
(b) 30°
(c) 90°
(d) 45°
103
G
JG
JG
Std : XI
38.
Two parallel conductors having currents in opposite directions,
(a) attract each other
(b) repel each other
(c) do not affect each other
(d) may attract or repel each other depending upon their material
39.
A and B are two conductors, carrying a current i in the same direction and x and y are two electron
beams moving in the same direction.
A
B
x
y
There will be
(a) repulsion between A and B and attraction between x and y
(b) repulsion between A and B as well as between x and y
(c) attraction between A and B and repulsion between x and y
(d) attraction between A and B and also between x. and y
40.
A conductor of length 5 m and carrying a current of 2A, is kept inclined at 30° to a uniform magnetic
field of induction 0.4 T. The force acting on the conductor is
(a) 1 N
(b) 2 N
(c) 3 N
(d) 0.5 N
41.
The direction of magnetic field produced due to a current carrying conduc tor is given by
(a) Fleming's left hand rule
(b) Biot-Savart law
(c) Right hand rule
(d) Lenz's law
42.
The magnitude of magnetic field produced due to small current element is given by
(a) Fleming's left hand rule
(b) Biot-Savart's law
(c) Right hand rule
(d) Lenz's law
43.
The two phenomena, electricity and magnetism are related to each other. This was first discovered by
(a) Hans Christian Oersted
(b) James Joule
(c) Faraday
(d) Henry
44.
In the adjacent figure, the path followed by an election n the magnetic field will be
JG
(a) linear
X
X
B
(b) circular and annclockwise
e
(c) irregular & can't be defined
v
•
(d) circular and clockwise
X
X
45.
Two identical cods tarrying same amount of current are placed at right angles having a common centre
Each produces magnetic field B at the centre The resultant magnetic field at the centre is
(a) 2B
(b) 1/3
(c) zero
(d) B/2
46.
A steady current flows through a circular oil or radius r’ . The magnetic induction at the centre of the coil
varies as
(a) B ∝ r0
(b) B ∝ r1
(c) B ∝ r
(d) B ∝ r2
47.
A charge q moves with velocity v at right angles co b magnetic field (B) Another charge 2q, enters the
same magnetic field with velocity v/2 at right angles to the field. The forces experimented by the two
charges are in the ratio
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 4 : 1
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 1
104
Magnetic Effect of Electric Current
48.
A wire of length 1 m carrying current of 1 A is Dent to form a rircle The magnerii induction produced at
the centre is
(a) 4 π × 10−7 Wb/m2
(b) µ0 π Wb/m
(c) 2 × 10−7 Wb/m2
(d) (a) &. (b) both
49.
Magnetic field produced at distance r due to current element d carrying current through it is
(a)
a·dB =
(c)
dB =
µ 0 I(dl × r)sin θ
4π
r2
(b)
µ 0 I(dl × r)
4π
r2
(d)
µ 0 I(dl × r)
4π
r3
2
µ I (dl × r)
dB = 0
4π
r2
dB =
50.
A conductor of length ‘A’ carrying current I is placed in a magnetic field B making are angle θ with the
field The force experienced by the conductor is given by
(b) F = I A B cos θ
(a) F = I A B sin θ
(c) F = 0
(d) F = Infinite
51.
A steady magnetic field does not exert force on
(a) a stationary charge
(b) a current carrying conductor
(c) a charge moving with constant velocity making angle with the field
(d) an accelerated charge
52.
The magnetic dipole moment of a circular coil carrying current is given by
(a) M = n I A
(b) M = n2IA
(c) M = nI/A
(d)
53.
A single turn of a circular wire is placed very near to a current carrying conductor as shown in the
figure. Then the magnetic field produced at the centre of the coil will be approximately
(a)
(b)
54.
105
M = nA/7
µ0I
4r
⎞
µ 0 I ⎛⎜ 1
⎜⎜ + 1⎟⎟⎟
⎠
2r ⎝ π
(c)
µ 0 I2
2π(r + A )
(d)
zero
i
O
r
i
Two infinitely long, straight parallel conductors carry currents I1 and I2 as shown in the figure. The
nature of force acting between the two conductors is
(a) repulsion
(b) attraction
I1 I2
(c) Can not be said as values of Ii & I2 are not known
(d) Sometimes attraction and sometimes repulsion
Std : XI
− Answer Key −
LEVEL - 1
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
d
c
c
c
c
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
a
b
d
a
c
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
b
c
b
d
c
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
d
d
d
c
b
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
b
b
d
d
c
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
d
d
b
d
c
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
d
c
c
d
b
8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
a
a
d
c
b
9.
19.
29.
39.
c
b
c
c
10.
20.
30.
40.
a
d
d
d
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
53.
a
c
a
b
a
b
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
54.
b
a
d
d
d
b
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
a
b
a
d
b
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
b
a
b
d
c
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
a
a
d
c
d
8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
d
c
b
b
d
9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
c
a
c
c
b
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
a
a
d
b
a
LEVEL - 2
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
51.
d
a
a
b
c
a
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
52.
b
b
a
b
a
a
106
13
MAGNETISM
LEVEL - 1
1.
The origin of magnetism is in
(a) stationary charge
(c) oscillating charge
(b)
(d)
circulating charge
random motion of charge
2.
If two identical magnets are kept with unlike pole together. The resultant magnetic moment of
combination is
(a) zero
(b) 2 M
(c) M / 2
(d) infinite
3.
A magnet of magnetic length 10 cm. The distance of end of magnet from centre will be
(a) 5 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 6cm
(d) 12 cm
4.
The magnetic lines of force of magnet start from
(a) N-pole
(b)
(c) centre of magnet
(d)
S-pole
from any point of magnet
5.
The direction of magnetic induction at an equatorial point of magnet is
(a) along magnetic moment
(b) opposite to magnetic moment
(c) perpendicular to magnetic moment
(d) inclined to magnetic moment
6.
Which of the following is wrong in case of magnet
(a) magnetic length is less than geometric length
(b) single pole of magnet can not be isolated
(c) origin of magnetism is in 'static charges
(d) magnetic lines of force can not intersect
7.
Magnetic lines of force contract in its length leads to the conclusion that
(a) force of attraction between unlike poles
(b) force of repulsion between like poles
(c) absence of monopole of magnet
(d) magnetic induction has only one direction at a point
8.
The magnetic induction at an axial point of short magnet is equal to the magnetic induction at an
equatorial point. The ratio of distances of points from centre of magnet is
(a) 1.3/2
(b) 1.26/1
(c) 3/1.26
(d) 5/1.33
9.
A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is cut into two parts of equal length. The magnetic moment of
either part is:
(a) M
(b) 2M
(c) M/2
(d) Zero
10.
The unit of pole strength of a given short bar magnet is
(a) J/Amp-m
(b) Amp - m
(c) Wb/m
(d)
Amp / m2
11.
A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is cut into two parts of equal length. The pole strength of either
part is
(a) 1 : 4
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 1 : 1
12.
Tangent law in magnetism is applicable in the case of
(a) any two magnetic fields which are far away from each other
(b) any two uniform magnetic fields which are close to each other
(c) any two uniform magnetic fields which are at 45°
(d) any two uniform magnetic fields mutually perpendicular
Std : XI
13.
A short magnet is placed horizontally in N-S direction, with its N-pole pointing to south of earth. For
such a magnet, the neutral point on its axis will be obtained when :
(a) Bequ = BH
(b) Baxis = BH
(c) Baxis = BH / 2
(d) Baxis = 2 BH
14.
A circular coil of radius lcm having 2000 turns carries a current of 7(A) It is placed in a magnetic field
of intensity 0.5 Weber/ m2. The magnetic dipole moment of the coil is
(a) 4.4 amp × m 2
(b) 3 amp × m 2
(c) 4 amp × m 2
(d) 6 amp × m 2
15.
Of the following the most suitable material for making permanent magnet is
(a) Steel
(b) Soft iron
(c) Copper
(d)
Nickel
The unit of magnetic moment is
(a) amp-meter2
(b) amp-meter
amp/meter 2
16.
(c)
amp/meter
(d)
17.
Magnetic field produced by electrons in atoms and molecules is due to their
(a) Spin motion only
(b) orbital motion only
(c) Spin and orbital motion both
(d) neither spin nor orbital motions
18.
The magnetic length of a magnetic dipole is 15 cm. Therefore ,its geometric length will be
(a) 12 cm
(b) 15cm
(c) 18 cm
(d) 20 cm
19.
Tesla is the unit of
(a) Magnetic flux
(c) Magnetic Induction
(b)
(d)
Magnetic field
Magnetic Moment
20.
A magnet of pole strength 50 and the magnetic length 10 cm is suspended horizontally making an
angle of 30° with the meridian. Calculate the magnetic moment of the magnet.
(a) 5 Am2
(b) 50 A m2
(c) 0.5 A m2
(d) 500 A m2
21.
The magnetic field of a bar magnet is due to
(a) the rotation of the Earth
(c) The particles of the metal
(b)
(d)
Spin motion of electrons in the metal
None of the above
The 2 poles of a magnet
(a) Are always of the same strength
(c) Can be of any strength
(b)
(d)
Are of slightly different strength
None of the above.
22.
23.
A steel wire of magnetic moment M has a length L It is made into a semi circular
arc The new magnetic moment is
(a) M × 2 π L
(b) 2M / π
(c) M /2
(d) M L
24.
The magnetic moment of a bar magnet is 400 units. If it is now cut into two equal pieces, each piece
will then have a magnetic moment of
(a) 400 units
(b) 200 units
(c) 100 units
(d) 50 units
25.
A magnetic field produce maximum torque to a bar magnet when keep
(a) parallel
(b) perpendicular
(c)
any angle
26.
The region around a stationary electric charge contains
(a) magnetic field only
(b) electric field only
(c) both magnetic and electric field
(d) no field
27.
An electromagnet is a
(a) Soft iron core
(b) Steel core
(c) A soft iron core with current passing round it
(d) Steel core with current passing round it
(d)
anti parallel
108
Magnetism
28.
The ratio of intensities of magnetic fields due to a short magnet along axis and equator at the same
position is
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 4 . 1
29.
The Magnetic moment M of a magnet is expressed in
(a) m × 4 A
(b) m × A
(c)
30.
m×2A
(d) m × 3 A
A bar magnet is placed in a magnetic field of o.4 T making an angle of 30° with its axis. If the torque
acting on it is 2Nm, then the magnetic moment will be
(a) 10 Am2
(b) 20 Am2
(c) 30 Am2
(d) 40 Am2
LEVEL - 2
1.
2.
Magnetic lines of force of magnet start from ________
(a) south pole
(b) north pole
(c) centre
Magnetism originates at ________
(a) oscillating charge
(c) random motion charge
(b)
(d)
(d)
stationary charge
circulating charge
3.
Region around a magnet in which another magnet experience a force is called
(a) magnetisation
(b) magnetic intensity
(c) magnetic moment
(d) magnetic field
4.
Magnetism is a ________ phenomenon.
(a) oscillatory
(b) vibratory
(c)
any point
universal
(d)
linear
5.
Equal and opposite poles of magnet are separated by finite distance called ________
(a) magnetic pole
(b) magnetic dipole
(c) magnetic moment
(d) magnetic length
6.
Distance between two poles of magnet is ________
(a) magnetic length
(b)
(c) magnetic Geometric length
(d)
magnetic dipole
half magnetic length
Power of attraction of pole is ________
(a) magnetic intensity
(c) pole strength
magnetic moment
magnetic dipole moment
7.
(b)
(d)
8.
Magnet of magnetic length 20 cm then distance of end of magnet from centre will be ________
(a) 5 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 40 cm
9.
When a bar magnet is cut into two equal parts along its length then pole strength of each pole is
(a) 2 m
(b) m/2
(c) m
(d) 3m
10.
Line joining two poles of magnet is ________
(a) equatorial line
(b) axis of magnet
(c)
centre line
(d)
none
11.
Line passing through centre of magnet and which is perpendicular to its axis is ________
(a) equatorial line
(b) axis of magnet
(c) centre line
(d) none
12.
SI unit of pole strength is ________
(a) Ampere
(b) Ampere-meter
109
(c)
Ampere / meter
(d)
Ampere / meter2
Std : XI
13.
Product of pole strength and magnetic length is ________
(a) magnetic dipole
(b) magnetic dipole moment
(c) magnetic moment
(d) none
14.
SI unit of magnetic moment is ________
(a) Ampere
(b) Ampere-meter
(c)
Ampere-meter2
(d)
Ampere/meter2
15.
If a bar magnet is cut into two equal parts perpendicular to its length then pole strength become ________
(a) half
(b) same
(c) double
(d) none
16.
If a bar magnet is cut into two equal parts perpendicular to its length then its magnetic moment is
________
(a) half
(b) same
(c) double
(d) none
17.
A path along which unit positive north pole moves when placed in a magnetic field is ________
(a) magnetic induction
(b) magnetic lines of force
(c) magnetic moment
(d) magnetic dipole
18.
Magnetic lines of force represent ________
(a) magnetic induction
(c) magnetic dipole
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
(b)
(d)
magnetic field
magnetic moment
Magnetic lines of force start from ________ pole and ends at ________ pole.
(a) south, north
(b) north, south
(c) north, north
(d)
south, south
At any point on the magnet, magnetic induction has ________ direction.
(a) single
(b) double
(c) infinite
(d)
none
Due to large magnetic induction magnetic lines of force are ________
(a) separated
(b) single
(c) double
(d)
crowded
Magnetic lines of force ________ in its length.
(a) remain same
(b) expands
(c)
contracts
(d)
double
Magnetic lines of force has ________ pressure.
(a) universal
(b) same
(c)
lateral
(d)
none
Direction of magnetic moment is________ to its axis.
(a) parallel
(b) perpendicular
(c)
along
(d)
opposite
25.
Torque required to hold the magnet at right angle to uniform field having unit magnetic induction is
________
(a) magnetic moment
(b) magnetic dipole
(c) magnetic dipole moment
(d) none
26.
Direction of magnetic induction at an equatorial point of a magnet is ________
(a) perpendicular to magnetic moment
(b) parallel to magnetic moment
(c) along magnetic moment
(d) opposite to magnetic moment
27.
A bar magnet of magnetic moment 80 unit is cut into two halves of equal length the magnetic moment of
each half is ________
(a) 80 unit
(b) 40 unit
(c) 60 unit
(d) 20 unit
28.
A long magnetic needle of length 21 magnetic moment M and pole strength m units is broken into two
pieces at middle then magnetic moment and pole strength of each piece will be ________
(a) M/2, m/2
(b) M, m/2
(c) M/2,m
(d) M,m
110
Magnetism
29.
Ratio of magnetic field due to small bar magnet at end position to broad side position is ________
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/2
(c) l
(d) 2
30.
Magnetic needle in a plane perpendicular to magnetic meridian will be ________
(a) vertical
(b) at an angle of 45° to horizontal
(c) at an angle of dip to horizontal
(d) horizontal
31.
If distance between two similar magnetic poles held one cm apart is doubled then force of interaction
between them will be ________
(a) halved
(b) doubled
(c) remain same
(d) one quarter of original value
32.
The dipole moment of short bar magnet is 1.25 Am2. The magnetic field on its axis at a distance of 0.5 m
from centre of magnet is ________
(a) 2 × 10−6 N/Am (b) 2 × 10−6 N/Am
(c) 4 × 10−6 N/Am
(d) 2.5 × 10−6 N/Am
33.
A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is placed in a magnetic field of induction B the torque exerted on it
is ________
JJG
JG
JJG JG
JJG
JG
JJG JG
(a) M . B
(b) M × B
(c) −M ⋅ B
(d) −M × B
34.
A bar magnet of length 3 cm has points A and B along its axis at distance 24 cm and 48 cm on opposite
sides. Ratio of magnetic field at these points will be ________
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 6
35.
Magnetic lines of force inside bar magnet is ________
(a) from south pole to north pole
(b) from north pole to south pole
(c) do not exist
(d) depend on length of bar magnet and its cross sectional area
36.
Two similar equal magnetic poles separated by a distance of 1 m repel with force of 10−3 N. Its pole
strength is ________
(a) 20 Am
(b) 10 Am
(c) 50Am
(d) 100 Am
37.
A magnetic wire of dipole moment 4xAm2is bent into semi circle then its magnetic moment is ________
(a) 4πAm2
(b) 16πAm2
(c) 8πAm2
(d) 4Am2
38.
A straight line around which earth spin is ________
(a) magnetic axis
(b)
(c) magnetic meridian
(d)
geographic axis
none
39.
Straight line passing through magnetic poles of earth is ________
(a) magnetic axis
(b) geographic axis
(c) magnetic meridian
(d) none
40.
Inclination between earth geographic axis and magnetic axis is ________
(c) 11.3°
(d)
(a) 11.2°
(b) 11.1°
41.
Vertical plane passing through geographic north and south of earth is ________
(a) geographic axis
(b) magnetic axis
(c) magnetic meridian
(d) geographic meridian
42.
Vertical plane passing through magnetic north and south of the earth is ________
(a) geographic axis
(b) magnetic axis
(c) magnetic meridian
(d) geographic meridian
111
11°
Std : XI
43.
Great circle on surface of earth in plane perpendicular to geographic axis is ________
(a) geographic equator
(b) magnetic equator
(c) magnetic meridian
(d) geographic meridian
44.
Great circle on surface of earth in plane perpendicular to magnetic axis is ________
(a) geographic equator
(b) geographic meridian
(c) magnetic equator
(d) magnetic meridian
45.
Angle between magnetic meridian and geographic meridian at a place is ________
(a) magnetic axis
(b) magnetic moment
(c) angle of dip
(d) magnetic declination
46.
Angle between earth's magnetic field at place and its horizontal is ________
(a) magnetic axis
(b) magnetic moment (c) angle of dip
(d)
magnetic declination
Angle of dip on magnetic equator is ________
(a) 90°
(b) 60°
47.
48.
(c)
30°
(d)
0°
Angle of dip at magnetic poles of earth is ________
(a) 90°
(b) 60°
(c)
30°
(d)
0°
49.
Material of an electromagnet has high value of ________
(a) retentivity
(b) coercivity
(c) saturation magnetization
(d) none
50.
Material of an electromagnet has ________
(a) small copper loss
(c) small hystersis loss
51.
(b)
(d)
Material of electromagnet has low value of ________
(a) coercivity
(b)
(c) copper loss
(d)
small iron loss
high hystersis loss
saturation magnetisation
none
− Answer Key −
LEVEL - 1
1.
11.
21.
b
d
b
2.
12.
22.
a
b
a
3.
13.
23.
c
b
b
4.
14.
24.
a
a
b
5.
15.
25.
b
a
b
6.
16.
26.
c
a
c
7.
17.
27.
a
c
c
8.
18.
28.
b
c
a
9.
19.
29.
d
c
c
10.
20.
30.
c
a
a
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
d
c
c
b
a
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
c
c
c
c
c
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
b
b
a
a
d
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
a
a
d
d
c
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
b
b
b
d
d
8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
b
b
c
b
a
9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
b
b
d
a
c
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
b
b
c
c
c
LEVEL - 2
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
51.
b
a
d
d
d
a
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
d
b
c
c
c
112
14
ELECTROMAGNETIC
WAVES
LEVEL - 1
1.
Motion obtained due to oscillatory disturbance through medium without change in its form is ________
(a) periodic motion (b) unperiodic motion (c) wave motion
(d) none of above
2.
The speed of electromagnetic wave is same for
(a) odd frequencies (b) even frequencies
(c)
all frequencies
(d)
3.
Michael Faraday showed that
(a) a varying magnetic field induces an e.m.f in the coil
(b) a current carrying conductor produces magnetic field
(c) two long straight current carrying wires repel each other
(d) a moving charge produces a magnetic field in the surrounding space
4.
Electromagnetic waves are produced by
(a) an accelerating charge
(c) static charge
5.
(b)
(d)
Electromagnetic waves obeys principle of ________
(a) Interference
(b) Reflection
(c)
all intensities.
chargeless particles
a moving charge with constant velocity
Refraction
(d)
superposition
6.
Whose experiments mark the beginning of the field of communication using electromagnetic waves?
(a) Maxwell
(b) Hertz
(c) Marconi
(d) J.C.Bose
7.
1 GHz = ________ Hz.
(a) 103
(b)
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
10"
(c)
1012
(d)
The velocity of electromagnetic waves in vacuum (or free space) is equal to
1
1
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b) µ0ε0
µ 0ε0
µ 0 ε0
The electromagnetic waves do NOT transport
(a) information
(b) charge
(c)
pressure
Wavelength of ________ rays ranges from 10−12m to 10−10 m.
(a) alpha
(b) beta
(c) gamma
The electromagnetic waves are
(a) longitudinal in nature
(c) transverse in nature
(b)
(d)
(d)
energy
(d)
Infra-red
(d)
Which of the following electromagnetic waves have the longest wavelength?
(a) heatwaves
(b) lightwaves
(c) radiowaves
(d)
(c)
µ 0ε0
stationary in nature
polarising waves
Electromagnetic waves were first produced in the laboratory by
(a) Marconi
(b) J.C.Bose
(c) Maxwell
14. Which of the following relation is correct?
(a)
ε0 E 0 = µ 0 B0 (b) B0 = µ 0 ε0 E 0
10"
E 0 µ 0 ε 0 B0
(d)
Hertz
microwaves.
E 0 = µ 0 B0
Std : XI
15.
If the accelerated charge is oscillating,
(a) both the electric and magnetic fields vary with time
(b) electric field vary with time and magnetic field vary with distance
(c) magnetic field vary with time and electric field vary with distance
(d) all of these
16.
The wavelength range of electromagnetic spectrum is
(a) 3 × 10−13 m to more than 1044 m
(b) 6 × 10−l5 m to 1024 m
−l3
7
( c ) 6 × 1 0 m to more than 10 m
(d) 0 to5 × 10 −1 3 m
17.
Gamma rays are detected by means of
(a) Galvanometer
(b) Naked eye
(c)
Microscope
(d)
Geiger counter
18.
The magnetic field out of the parallel plated capacitor is maximum
(a) along the wire
(b) on the axis of wire
(c) at distance equal to radius of plated
(d) at distance larger than radius of plates.
19.
X-rays are produced by using cathode rays (fast moving electrons) when
(a) they are cooled
(b) they are accelerated
(c) they are suddenly stopped by an obstacle
(d) they are slowed down by applying electric field
20.
Gamma rays ranges from ________ Hz.
(a) 3 × 1018 to 5 × 1020 Hz
(c) 5 × 1015 to 4 × 1014 Hz
(b)
(d)
2 × 1016 to 3 × 1017 Hz
6 × 1016 to 7 × 1018 Hz
21.
When X-rays are incident on metal surface they show
(a) ionizing effect
(b) photoelectric effect
(c) polishing effect
(d) Raman's effect
22.
X-rays are used to detect
(a) fracture in bone and foreign objects in human being
(b) alloying elements in alloy
(c) dust particles in atmosphere
(d) elements in solution
23.
Orderly distribution of electromagnetic waves according to their wavelength having distinct groups and
different properties is ________
(a) Magnetic spectrum
(b) Light spectrum
(c) Electromagnetic spectrum
(d) none of above
24.
Ultra violet rays can NOT pass through
(a) quartz
(b) fluorite
(c)
glass
25.
Ultra violet rays are used in the scientific study of
(a) molecular structure
(b) crystal structure
(c) radio waves production
(d) radioactivity'
26.
X-rays are produced by jumping of
(a) electrons from lower to higher energy orbit of atom
(b) electrons from higher to lower energy orbit of atom
(c) protons from lower to higher energy orbit of nucleus
(d) proton from higher to lower energy orbit of nucleus.
(d)
rock salt
114
Electromagnetic Waves
27.
Visible light is emitted due to
(a) interaction between two metals at low temperature
(b) atomic excitation
(c) molecular reactions at room temperature
(d) interaction between gases and liquids at room temperature
28.
X-rays and γ-rays of same energies are distinguished by their
(a) frequencies
(b) charges
(c) ionizing power
(d) method of production
29.
Microwaves are the electromagnetic waves having frequencies in the range
(a) 4 × 10 I 4 Hz to8 × 10 l 4 Hz
(b) 1 × 10 l2 Hz to 4 × 10 14 Hz
9
12
(c) 5 × 10 Hz to 1 × 10 Hz
(d) 1 × 1011 Hz to 5 × 108 Hz
30.
Relation between velocity frequency and wavelength is ________
(a) C = f/λ
(b) C = λ/f
(c) Cλ = f
31.
In mesosphere as the height increases the temperature
(a) increases
(b) remains constant
(c) decreases
(d) becomes zero
32.
The part of electromagnetic spectrum used in operating radar is
(a) γ-rays
(b) visible rays
(c) infra-red rays
(d)
C = fλ
(d)
microwaves
33.
In the transmission of radio waves, out of following which is NOT used?
(a) transmitting antenna
(b) receiving antenna
(c) a metallic conductor of suitable shape and size through which oscillating current of high
frequency superimposed on converted electrical signal from transmitter
(d) the frequency range of 100 MHz to 200 MHz can be only transmitted using space wave
propagation
34.
The height of the communication satellite above the earth's surface is
(a) 3600 km
(b) 6300 km
(c) 36000 km
(d)
63000 km
35.
If the wavelength of electromagnetic wave is doubled, the energy of photon will become
(a) half
(b) same
(c) double
(d) four times
36.
For transmission of T.V. signals large height antennas are used because of
(a) curvature of the earth
(b) large surface are of the earth
(c) resistance of air
(d) small area available for transmission
37.
The ground waves travel close to the surface of the earth hence
(a) acquire energy
(b) loose energy by absorption
(c) transport maximum energy
(d) gain energy from the earth
38.
Dimensions of
(a)
39.
40.
115
1
, are
µ 0ε0
(b)
[L –1 M 0 T 1 ]
[L2M0T2]
(c)
An excitation of atoms spark and arc flame produce
(a) ultra violet light (b) visible light
(c)
[L2M0T–2]
(d)
[L1M0T–1 ]
infra-red rays
(d)
microwaves
The radio waves with frequencies ______ are transmitted by ground wave propagation
(a) less than 2 MHz
(b) greater than 2 MHz
(c) between 3 to 5 MHz
(d) any frequency
Std : XI
41.
Microwave link repeaters are typically 50 km apart,
(a) because of atmospheric attenuation
(b) because of the earth's curvature
(c) to ensure that the signal voltage may not harm the repeater
(d) to change the weather conditions
42.
Which of the following has the longest wavelength?
(a) microwaves
(b)
(c) visible light
(d)
43.
gamma rays
ultraviolet rays
The type of electromagnetic radiation used in RADAR is
(a) X-rays
(b) gamma rays
(c) radio waves
44.
To induce an e.m.f in the coil
(a) high temperature is required
(b) string wind is required
(c) constant electromagnetic field only is choosed
(d) varying electromagnetic field is required
45.
The photography in complete darkness is possible by using
(a) ultra violet light (b) visible light
(c) sunlight
(d)
microwaves
(d)
infra-red light
LEVEL - 2
1.
Wave motion is defined as the motion of oscillatory disturbance travelling through a medium
(a) without change of form
(b) with change of form
(c) carried by the particles with shifting of them
(d) all of these
2.
________ waves can travel through vacuum solids liquids and gases i.e space.
(a) Electromagnetic (b) Magnetic
(c) Electric
(d)
Square
Existence of electromagnetic waves was demonstrated by ________
(a) A.D. Oersted
(b) H.R. Hertz
(c) James Maxwell
Michael
3.
(d)
4.
First scientist to establish wireless communication was ________
(a) Jagdish Chandra Bose
(b) James Maxwell
(c) H.R. Hertz
(d) G Marconi.
5.
Electromagnetic waves carry both electric and magnetic field in ________ direction.
(a) parallel
(b) perpendicular
(c) same
(d) opposite
6.
Electromagnetic waves are ________ in nature.
(a) transverse
(b) longitudinal
(c)
SHM
(d)
none of above
________ discovered X-rays.
(a) Willard
(b) Ritter
(c)
Hershell
(d)
Wilhelm conral Rontgen
(d)
Infra red
7.
8.
9.
For disinfection of wheat and flour from insect ________ are used.
(a) X-rays
(b) Gamma rays
(c) Ultraviolet rays
________ are used to kill living tissue present in animals and plants.
(a) X-rays
(b) Gamma rays
(c) Ultra violet rays (d)
Infra red rays
116
Electromagnetic Waves
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
Gamma rays are used for ________
(a) production of nuclear
(c) study structure of molecular structure
(b)
(d)
study structure of crystal
none of above
X-rays are used for ________
(a) production of nuclear
(c) study structure of molecular structure
(b)
(d)
study structure of crystal
none of above
Ultra-violet rays are used for ________
(a) production of nuclear
(c) study structure of molecular structure
(b)
(d)
study structure of crystal
none of above
________ are used for preservation of food.
(a) X-rays
(b) Ultraviolet rays
(c)
Infra-red rays
(d)
Gamma rays
Wavelength of X-rays ranges from ________
(a) 10−12 to 10−10 m (b) 10−11 to 10−8m
(c)
10−8 to 10−6 m
(d)
10−13 to 10−11m
15.
From the nuclei of radioactive element such as uranium, radium ________ are emitted.
(a) Ultra-violet rays (b) X-rays
(c) Gamma rays
(d) Infra-red rays
16.
Using coolidge tube ________ are produced.
(a) Ultra violet rays (b) X-rays
17.
18.
(c)
Gamma rays
(d)
Infra-red rays
To distinguish real diamond gems from artificial ones ________ are used.
(a) Ultra violet rays (b) Gamma rays
(c) Infra-red rays
(d)
X-rays
To use radiotherapy for treatment of cancer ________ are used.
(a) X-rays
(b) Ultra violet rays
(c) Gamma rays
Infra-red rays
(d)
19.
To detect bone fracture or presence of foreign object in human body ________ are used.
(a) X-rays
(b) Ultra violet rays
(c) Gamma rays
(d) Infra-red rays
20.
Which of the following is NOT used for the production of microwaves?
(a) Klystrons
(b) Magnetrons
(c) Gunn diodes
(d)
Cyclotron
Microwaves are used in
(a) gas cutter
(b)
(d)
sterilizing
(d)
radio waves
21.
22.
23.
ovens
(c)
For Wireless communication purposes _____ are used.
(a) ultra violet rays (b) infrared rays
(c) visible rays
JG
JG
If E is an electric field and B is the magnetic induction, then the energy flow per unit area per unit time in
an electromagnetic field is given by
JG JG
JG JG
(a) E × B
(b) E . B
(c) E2 + B2
(d) E/B.
24.
Radio waves and visible light in vacuum have
(a) same velocity and different wavelength
(b) same velocity and same wavelength
(c) different velocity and same wavelength
(d) different velocity and different wavelength
25.
The lower layer of the earth's atmosphere is called
(a) stratosphere
(b) mesosphere
(c)
117
burglar alarm
ionosphere
(d)
troposphere
Std : XI
26.
To destroy tumour in the body of patient are used ________
(a) X-rays
(b) Ultra violet rays
(c) Gamma rays
(d)
Infra-red rays
27.
Wavelength of ultra-violet rays ranges from ________
(a) 6.2 × 10−7 to 7.5 × 10−7 m
(b)
−8
−7
(d)
(c) 10 to 4 × 10 m
5 × 10−7 to 5.7 × 10−7 m
4 × 10−7 to 4.7 × 10−7 m
28.
________ are produced by arc of mercury or iron.
(a) X-rays
(b) Ultra-violet rays
(c)
Gamma rays
(d)
Infra-red rays
Ultra violet rays were discovered by ________
(a) Maxwell
(b) Willard
Rontgen
(d)
Ritter
X-rays
(d)
Infra-red rays
29.
30.
(c)
To detect real and false gems ________ are used.
(a) Ultra-violet rays (b) Gamma rays
(c)
31.
In a rainbow (VIGBYOR) spectrum ________ has larger wavelength and ________ has smaller
wavelength.
(a) Red, blue
(b) Red, violet
(c) Green, Blue
(d) Orange, Red
32.
________ discovered Infra-red rays.
(a) Ritter
(b) Rontgen
33.
34.
35.
36.
(c)
Hershell
(d)
Maxwell
Thermocouple bolometer are used to detect ________
(a) Infrared rays
(b) Ultrasonic rays
(c)
Gamma rays
(d)
X-rays
________ are used in remote control of TV set.
(a) Infrared rays
(b) Ultrasonic rays
(c)
Gamma rays
(d)
X-rays
________ are used to keep green house warm.
(a) Gamma rays
(b) Infrared rays
(c)
Ultrasonic rays
(d)
X-rays
Frequency range of micro waves is from ________
(a) 6 × 106 to 8 × 109Hz
(b)
9
12
(d)
(c) 5 × 10 to 1 × 10 Hz
7 × 107 to 8 × 108 Hz
5 × 106 to 5 × 109 Hz
37.
Vacuum tubes such as klystron magnetron gunn diodes used to produce ________
(a) Infra red rays
(b) Gamma rays
(c) Radio waves
(d)
Micro waves
38.
________ are used for TV signal transmission.
(a) Micro waves
(b) Radio waves
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
(c)
Ultra violet rays (d)
X-rays
Density of air ________ with increase in height above earth surface.
(a) same
(b) increase
(c) decrease
(d)
none of above
Part of atmosphere close to earth surface is ________
(a) Ionosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c)
Strato sphere
(d)
Troposphere
Troposphere is part of atmosphere that we ________
(a) feel
(b) sense
(c)
breathe
(d)
none of above
Temperature of troposphere ranges from ________
(a) 220 k to 180 k
(b) 180 to 200 k
(c)
150 to 200 k
(d)
200 to 220 k
Most of ________ in atmosphere is present in troposphere.
(a) humidity
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) water vapor
(d)
none of above
118
Electromagnetic Waves
44.
45.
46.
47.
Stratosphere extends ________ above earth surface.
(a) 12 km
(b) 80 km
(c)
400 km
(d)
50 km
Stratosphere contains ________
(a) HCF layer
(b) H2S layer
Ozone layer
(d)
none of above
Part of atmosphere above 80 km from earth surface is ________
(a) Mesosphere
(b) stratosphere
(c) Ionosphere
(d)
Troposphere
Part of atmosphere from 50 to 80 km from earth surface is ________
(a) Mesosphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Ionosphere
(d)
Troposphere
(c)
48.
Ionosphere reflects ________ waves transmitted by the earth which is used in communication system.
(a) radio
(b) Audio
(c) Video
(d) none of these
49.
Radio waves transmitted from transmitting antenna along the surface of earth to receiving antenna is
________
(a) Space wave propagation
(b) Sky wave propagation
(c) Ground wave propagation
(d) none of above
50.
Through ground wave propagation most of radio waves energy is ________
(a) reflected
(b) transmitted
(c) absorbed
(d)
none of above
51.
Radio waves having frequency upto hundred of kilohertz is transmitted through ________
(a) Ground wave propagation
(b) space wave propagation
(c) sky wave propagation
(d) none of above
52.
Radio waves transmitted from transmitting antenna reaches receiving antenna after reflection from
troposphere is ________
(a) Ground wave propagation
(b) space wave propagation
(c) sky wave propagation
(d) none of above
53.
T.V signals are broadcasted through ________
(a) Ground wave propagation
(c) sky wave propagation
54.
(b)
(d)
space wave propagation
none of above
Maximum distance that the signal covers is called ________
(a) wavelength
(b) length
(c) range
(d)
band
55.
Radio waves transmitted from transmitting antenna reaches receiving antenna after reflection from
ionosphere is ________
(a) Ground wave propagation
(b) space wave propagation
(c) sky wave propagation
(d) none of above
56.
Signals which are transmitted through sky wave propagation ranges from ________
(a) 3 to 30 MHz
(b) 30 to 300 MHz
(c) 300 to 3 MHz
(d) 3 to 30 GHz
57.
Maximum value of frequency of radio waves reflected back to the earth from ionosphere is ________
(a) Resonant frequency
(b) transmitted frequency
(c) received frequency
(d) critical frequency
58.
Shorter distance measured along the surface of earth from transmitter to receiver at which wave of fixed
frequency returned to earth is ________
(a) skip distance
(b) wave distance
(c) communication length
(d) none of above
119
Std : XI
59.
Height of Geostationary satellite above the earth surface is ________
(a) 3600 km
(b) 36000 km
(c) 360 km
(d)
36km
60.
Artificial satellite projected in circular orbit round the earth having same rotation of 24 hours about its
axis is ________
(a) space craft
(b) geostationary satellite
(c) communication satellite
(d) planet
61.
Satellite used for long distance telecommunication is called ________
(a) communication satellite
(b) planet
(c) space craft
(d) none of above
62.
An electric charge oscillating with frequency 1kHz can radiate EM wave of wavelength ________
(a) 100 km
(b) 200 km
(c) 300 km
(d) 400 km
63.
EM wave of much short wavelength (25mm to 5mm) was produced and observed by ________
(a) Hertz
(b) Maxwell
(c) Marconi
(d) J.C. Bose
64.
JG
JG
If E is electric field and B is magnetic induction then energy flow per unit area per unit time is given by
________
JG JG
JG JG
JG JG
JG JG
(b) E ⋅ B
(c)
E+B
(d) E ÷ B
(a) E × B
65.
In plane electromagnetic wave propagation in space has an electric field of amplitude 9 × 103 V/m then
amplitude of magnetic field is ________
(a) 9 × 103J
(b) 3 × 10−4J
(c) 3 × 10−5J
(d) 2.7 × 1012J
66.
Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature is evident by ________
(a) interference
(b) polarization
(c) reflection
67.
(d)
diffraction
An EM wave of frequency f = 3MHz passes from vacuum into dielectric medium with permittivity ε = 4
then ________
(a) wavelength is double and frequency remains the same
(b) wavelength and frequency remains the same
(c) wavelength is halved and frequency remains the same
(d) wavelength and frequency are doubled
120
Electromagnetic Waves
− Answer Key −
LEVEL - 1
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
c
c
b
c
b
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
d
d
a
d
a
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
a
c
c
d
d
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
a
b
c
c
d
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
d
a
a
a
d
6.
16.
26.
36.
c
c
b
a
7.
17.
27.
37.
d
d
b
b
8.
18.
28.
38.
c
a
c
d
9.
19.
29.
39.
b
c
c
b
10.
20.
30.
40.
c
a
d
a
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
53.
63.
b
d
a
a
c
b
c
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
54.
64.
d
b
a
a
b
c
a
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
55.
65.
b
c
d
b
c
c
c
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
56.
66.
a
b
a
c
c
a
b
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
57.
67.
d
d
c
d
a
d
c
8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
58.
b
c
b
b
a
c
9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
59.
a
a
d
c
c
b
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
60.
a
d
a
d
c
b
LEVEL - 2
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
51.
61.
121
a
b
b
b
c
a
a
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
52.
62.
a
c
d
b
a
b
d