Download AP Biology End of Chapter Questions-Campbell 2011

AP Biology Summer reading end of chapter questions
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End-of-Chapter Questions
Chapter 1:
1. All the organisms on your campus make up
A) an ecosystem.
B) a community.
C) a population.
D) an experimental group.
E) a taxonomic domain.
2. Which of the following is a correct sequence of levels in life's hierarchy, proceeding downward from
an individual animal?
A) brain, organ system, nerve cell, nervous tissue
B) organ system, nervous tissue, brain
C) organism, organ system, tissue, cell, organ
D) nervous system, brain, nervous tissue, nerve cell
E) organ system, tissue, molecule, cell
3. Which of the following is not an observation or inference on which Darwin's theory of natural
selection is based?
A) Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring.
B) There is heritable variation among individuals.
C) Because of overproduction of offspring, there is competition for limited resources.
D) Individuals whose inherited characteristics best fit them to the environment will generally produce
more offspring.
E) A population can become adapted to its environment over time.
4. Systems biology is mainly an attempt to
A) analyze genomes from different species.
B) simplify complex problems by reducing the system into smaller, less complex units.
C) understand the behavior of entire biological systems.
D) build high-throughput machines for the rapid acquisition of biological data.
E) speed up the technological application of scientific knowledge.
5. Protists and bacteria are grouped into different domains because
A) protists eat bacteria.
B) bacteria are not made of cells.
C) protists have a membrane-bounded nucleus, which bacterial cells lack.
D) bacteria decompose protists.
E) protists are photosynthetic.
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6. Which of the following best demonstrates the unity among all organisms?
A) matching DNA nucleotide sequences
B) descent with modification
C) the structure and function of DNA
D) natural selection
E) emergent properties
7. A controlled experiment is one that
A) proceeds slowly enough that a scientist can make careful records of the results.
B) tests experimental and control groups in parallel.
C) is repeated many times to make sure the results are accurate.
D) keeps all variables constant.
E) is supervised by an experienced scientist.
8. Which of the following statements best distinguishes hypotheses from theories in science?
A) Theories are hypotheses that have been proved.
B) Hypotheses are guesses; theories are correct answers.
C) Hypotheses usually are relatively narrow in scope; theories have broad explanatory power.
D) Hypotheses and theories are essentially the same thing.
E) Theories are proved true; hypotheses are often falsified.
9. Which of the following is an example of qualitative data?
A) The temperature decreased from 20°C to 15°C.
B) The plant's height is 25 centimeters (cm).
C) The fish swam in a zigzag motion.
D) The six pairs of robins hatched an average of three chicks.
E) The contents of the stomach are mixed every 20 seconds.
10. Which of the following best describes the logic of scientific inquiry?
A) If I generate a testable hypothesis, tests and observations will support it.
B) If my prediction is correct, it will lead to a testable hypothesis.
C) If my observations are accurate, they will support my hypothesis.
D) If my hypothesis is correct, I can expect certain test results.
E) If my experiments are set up right, they will lead to a testable hypothesis.
Chapter 2:
1. In the term trace element, the modifier trace means that
A) the element is required in very small amounts.
B) the element can be used as a label to trace atoms through an organism's metabolism.
C) the element is very rare on Earth.
D) the element enhances health but is not essential for the organism's long-term survival.
E) the element passes rapidly through the organism.
2. Compared with 31P, the radioactive isotope 32P has
A) a different atomic number.
B) a different charge.
C) one more proton.
D) one more electron.
E) one more neutron.
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3. The reactivity of an atom arises from
A) the average distance of the outermost electron shell from the nucleus.
B) the existence of unpaired electrons in the valence shell.
C) the sum of the potential energies of all the electron shells.
D) the potential energy of the valence shell.
E) the energy difference between the s and p orbitals.
4. Which statement is true of all atoms that are anions?
A) The atom has more electrons than protons.
B) The atom has more protons than electrons.
C) The atom has fewer protons than does a neutral atom of the same element.
D) The atom has more neutrons than protons.
E) The net charge is 1-.
5. Which of the following statements correctly describes any chemical reaction that has reached
equilibrium?
A) The concentrations of products and reactants are equal.
B) The reaction is now irreversible.
C) Both forward and reverse reactions have halted.
D) The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal.
E) No reactants remain.
6. We can represent atoms by listing the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons for example,
2p+; 2n0; 2e- for helium. Which of the following represents the 18O isotope of oxygen?
A) 6p+, 8n0, 6eB) 8p+, 10n0, 8eC) 9p+, 9n0, 9eD) 7p+, 2n0, 9eE) 10p+, 8n0, 9e7. The atomic number of sulfur is 16. Sulfur combines with hydrogen by covalent bonding to form a
compound, hydrogen sulfide. Based on the number of valence electrons in a sulfur atom, predict the
molecular formula of the compound:
A) HS
B) HS2
C) H2S
D) H3S2
E) H4S
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8. What coefficients must be placed in the following blanks so that all atoms are accounted for in the
products?
C6H12O6 → ____ C2H6O + ____ CO2
A) 1; 2
B) 3; 1
C) 1; 3
D) 1; 1
E) 2; 2
Chapter 3:
1. Many mammals control their body temperature by sweating. Which property of water is most directly
responsible for the ability of sweat to lower body temperature?
A) water's change in density when it condenses
B) water's ability to dissolve molecules in the air
C) the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds
D) the absorption of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds
E) water's high surface tension
2. The bonds that are broken when water vaporizes are
A) ionic bonds.
B) hydrogen bonds between water molecules.
C) covalent bonds between atoms within water molecules.
D) polar covalent bonds.
E) nonpolar covalent bonds.
3. Which of the following is a hydrophobic material?
A) paper
B) table salt
C) wax
D) sugar
E) pasta
4. We can be sure that a mole of table sugar and a mole of vitamin C are equal in their
A) mass in daltons.
B) mass in grams.
C) volume.
D) number of atoms.
E) number of molecules.
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5. Measurements show that the pH of a particular lake is 4.0. What is the hydrogen ion concentration of
the lake?
A) 4.0 M
B) 10-10 M
C) 10-4 M
D) 104 M
E) 4%
6. Measurements show that the pH of a particular lake is 4.0. What is the hydroxide ion concentration of
the lake?
A) 10-10 M
B) 10-4 M
C) 10-7 M
D) 10-14 M
E) 10 M
7. A slice of pizza has 500 kcal. If we could burn the pizza and use all the heat to warm a 50-L container
of cold water, what would be the approximate increase in the temperature of the water? (Note: A liter of
cold water weighs about 1 kg.)
A) 50°C
B) 5°C
C) 1°C
D) 100°C
E) 10°C
8. How many grams of acetic acid (C2H4O2) would you use to make 10 L of a 0.1 M aqueous solution
of acetic acid? (Note: The atomic masses, in daltons, are approximately 12 for carbon, 1 for hydrogen,
and 16 for oxygen.)
A) 10 g
B) 0.1 g
C) 6.0 g
D) 60 g
E) 0.6 g
Chapter 4:
1. Organic chemistry is currently defined as
A) the study of compounds made only by living cells.
B) the study of carbon compounds.
C) the study of vital forces.
D) the study of natural (as opposed to synthetic) compounds.
E) the study of hydrocarbons.
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2. Which functional group is not present in this molecule?
A) carboxyl
B) sulfhydryl
C) hydroxyl
D) amino
3. Which chemical group is most likely to be responsible for an organic molecule behaving as a base?
A) hydroxyl
B) carbonyl
C) carboxyl
D) amino
E) phosphate
4. Which of the following hydrocarbons has a double bond in its carbon skeleton?
A) C3H8
B) C2H6
C) CH4
D) C2H4
E) C2H2
5. Choose the term that correctly describes the relationship between these two sugar molecules:
A) structural isomers
B) cis-trans isomers
C) enantiomers
D) isotopes
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Answer the following questions based on the figure below.
6. Identify the asymmetric carbon in this molecule.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
7. Which action could produce a carbonyl group?
A) the replacement of the OH of a carboxyl group with hydrogen
B) the addition of a thiol to a hydroxyl
C) the addition of a hydroxyl to a phosphate
D) the replacement of the nitrogen of an amine with oxygen
E) the addition of a sulfhydryl to a carboxyl
Chapter 6:
1. Which structure is not part of the endomembrane system?
A) nuclear envelope
B) chloroplast
C) Golgi apparatus
D) plasma membrane
E) ER
2. Which structure is common to plant and animal cells?
A) chloroplast
B) wall made of cellulose
C) central vacuole
D) mitochondrion
E) centriole
3. Which of the following is present in a prokaryotic cell?
A) mitochondrion
B) ribosome
C) nuclear envelope
D) chloroplast
E) ER
4. Which structure-function pair is mismatched?
A) nucleolus; production of ribosomal subunits
B) lysosome; intracellular digestion
C) ribosome; protein synthesis
D) Golgi; protein trafficking
E) microtubule; muscle contraction
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5. Cyanide binds with at least one molecule involved in producing ATP. If a cell is exposed to cyanide,
most of the cyanide will be found within the
A) mitochondria.
B) ribosomes.
C) peroxisomes.
D) lysosomes.
E) endoplasmic reticulum.
6. What is the most likely pathway taken by a newly synthesized protein that will be secreted by a cell?
A) ER → Golgi → nucleus
B) Golgi →ER →lysosome
C) nucleus →ER →Golgi
D) ER →Golgi →vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane
E) ER →lysosomes →vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane
7. Which cell would be best for studying lyosomes?
A) muscle cell
B) nerve cell
C) phagocytic white blood cell
D) leaf cell of a plant
E) bacterial cell
Chapter 52:
1. Which of the following areas of study focuses on the exchange of energy, organisms, and materials
between ecosystems?
A) population ecology
B) organismal ecology
C) landscape ecology
D) ecosystem ecology
E) community ecology
2. Which lake zone would be absent in a very shallow lake?
A) benthic zone
B) aphotic zone
C) pelagic zone
D) littoral zone
E) limnetic zone
3. Which of the following is true with respect to oligotrophic lakes and eutrophic lakes?
A) Oligotrophic lakes are more subject to oxygen depletion.
B) Rates of photosynthesis are lower in eutrophic lakes.
C) Eutrophic lake water contains lower concentrations of nutrients.
D) Eutrophic lakes are richer in nutrients.
E) Sediments in oligotrophic lakes contain larger amounts of decomposable organic matter.
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4. Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with the description of its climate?
A) savanna–low temperature, precipitation uniform during the year
B) tundra–long summers, mild winters
C) temperate broadleaf forest–relatively short growing season, mild winters
D) temperate grasslands–relatively warm winters, most rainfall in summer
E) tropical forests–nearly constant day length and temperature
5. Which of the following is characteristic of most terrestrial biomes?
A) annual average rainfall in excess of 250 cm
B) a distribution predicted almost entirely by rock and soil patterns
C) clear boundaries between adjacent biomes
D) vegetation demonstrating vertical layering
E) cold winter months
6. The oceans affect the biosphere in all of the following ways except
A) producing a substantial amount of the biosphere's oxygen.
B) removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
C) moderating the climate of terrestrial biomes.
D) regulating the pH of freshwater biomes and terrestrial groundwater.
E) being the source of most of Earth's rainfall.
7. Which statement about dispersal is false?
A) Dispersal is a common component of the life cycles of plants and animals.
B) Colonization of devastated areas after floods or volcanic eruptions depends on dispersal.
C) Dispersal occurs only on an evolutionary time scale.
D) Seeds are important dispersal stages in the life cycles of most flowering plants.
E) The ability to disperse can expand the geographic distribution of a species.
8. When climbing a mountain, we can observe transitions in biological communities that are analogous
to the changes
A) in biomes at different latitudes.
B) at different depths in the ocean.
C) in a community through different seasons.
D) in an ecosystem as it evolves over time.
E) across the United States from east to west.
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9. Suppose that the number of bird species is determined mainly by the number of vertical strata found
in the environment. If so, in which of the following biomes would you find the greatest number of bird
species?
A) tropical rain forest
B) savanna
C) desert
D) temperate broadleaf forest
E) temperate grassland
10. If the direction of Earth's rotation reversed, the most predictable effect would be
A) no more night and day.
B) a big change in the length of the year.
C) winds blowing from west to east along the equator.
D) a loss of seasonal variation at high latitudes.
E) the elimination of ocean currents.
Chapter 53:
1. Population ecologists follow the fate of same-age cohorts to
A) determine a population's carrying capacity.
B) determine the birth rate and death rate of each group in a population.
C) determine if a population is regulated by density-dependent processes.
D) determine the factors that regulate the size of a population.
E) determine if a population's growth is cyclic.
2. A population's carrying capacity
A) may change as environmental conditions change.
B) can be accurately calculated using the logistic growth model.
C) generally remains constant over time.
D) increases as the per capita growth rate (r) decreases.
E) can never be exceeded.
3. Scientific study of the population cycles of the snowshoe hare and its predator, the lynx, has revealed
that
A) the prey population is controlled by predators alone.
B) hares and lynx are so mutually dependent that each species cannot survive without the other.
C) multiple biotic and abiotic factors contribute to the cycling of the hare and lynx populations.
D) both hare and lynx populations are regulated mainly by abiotic factors.
E) the hare population is r-selected and the lynx population is K-selected.
4. Based on current growth rates, Earth's human population in 2012 will be closest to
A) 2 million.
B) 3 billion.
C) 4 billion.
D) 7 billion.
E) 10 billion.
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5. A recent study of ecological footprints concluded that
A) Earth's carrying capacity for humans is about 10 billion.
B) Earth's carrying capacity would increase if per capita meat consumption increased.
C) current demand by industrialized countries for resources is much smaller than the ecological footprint
of those countries.
D) it is not possible for technological improvements to increase Earth's carrying capacity for humans.
E) the ecological footprint of the United States is large because per capita resource use is high.
6. The observation that members of a population are uniformly distributed suggests that
A) the size of the area occupied by the population is increasing.
B) resources are distributed unevenly.
C) the members of the population are competing for access to a resource.
D) the members of the population are neither attracted to nor repelled by one another.
E) the density of the population is low.
7. According to the logistic growth equation
dN
(K  N )
= rmaxN
K
dt
A) the number of individuals added per unit time is greatest when N is close to zero.
B) the per capita growth rate (r) increases as N approaches K.
C) population growth is zero when N equals K.
D) the population grows exponentially when K is small.
E) the birth rate (b) approaches zero as N approaches K.
8. Which pair of terms most accurately describes life history traits for a stable population of wolves?
A) semelparous; r-selected
B) semelparous; K-selected
C) iteroparous; r-selected
D) iteroparous; K-selected
E) iteroparous; N-selected
9. During exponential growth, a population always
A) grows by thousands of individuals.
B) grows at its maximum per capita rate.
C) quickly reaches its carrying capacity.
D) cycles through time.
E) loses some individuals to emigration.
10. Which of the following statements about human population in industrialized countries is incorrect?
A) Life history is r-selected.
B) Average family size is relatively small.
C) The population has undergone the demographic transition.
D) The survivorship curve is Type I.
E) Age distribution is relatively uniform.
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Chapter 54:
1. The feeding relationships among the species in a community determine the community's
A) secondary succession.
B) ecological niche.
C) species richness.
D) species-area curve.
E) trophic structure.
2. The principle of competitive exclusion states that
A) two species cannot coexist in the same habitat.
B) competition between two species always causes extinction or emigration of one species.
C) competition in a population promotes survival of the best-adapted individuals.
D) two species that have exactly the same niche cannot coexist in a community.
E) two species will stop reproducing until one species leaves the habitat.
3. Based on the intermediate disturbance hypothesis, a community's species diversity is increased by
A) frequent massive disturbance.
B) stable conditions with no disturbance.
C) moderate levels of disturbance.
D) human intervention to eliminate disturbance.
E) intensive disturbance by humans.
4. According to the equilibrium model of island biogeography, species richness would be greatest on an
island that is
A) large and close to a mainland.
B) large and remote.
C) small and remote.
D) small and close to a mainland.
E) environmentally homogeneous.
5. Keystone predators can maintain species diversity in a community if they
A) competitively exclude other predators.
B) prey on the community's dominant species.
C) allow immigration of other predators.
D) reduce the number of disruptions in the community.
E) prey only on the least abundant species in the community.
6. Food chains are sometimes short because
A) only a single species of herbivore feeds on each plant species.
B) local extinction of a species causes extinction of the other species in its food chain.
C) most of the energy in a trophic level is lost as it passes to the next higher level.
D) predator species tend to be less diverse and less abundant than prey species.
E) most producers are inedible.
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7. Which of the following could qualify as a top-down control on a grassland community?
A) limitation of plant biomass by rainfall amount
B) influence of temperature on competition among plants
C) influence of soil nutrients on the abundance of grasses versus wildflowers
D) effect of grazing intensity by bison on plant species diversity
E) effect of humidity on plant growth rates
8. The most plausible hypothesis to explain why species richness is higher in tropical than in temperate
regions is that
A) tropical communities are younger.
B) tropical regions generally have more available water and higher levels of solar radiation.
C) higher temperatures cause more rapid speciation.
D) diversity increases as evapotranspiration decreases.
E) tropical regions have very high rates of immigration and very low rates of extinction.
Chapter 55:
1. Which of the following organisms is incorrectly paired with its trophic level?
A) cyanobacterium primary producer
B) grasshopper primary consumer
C) zooplankton primary producer
D) eagle tertiary consumer
E) fungus detritivore
2. Which of these ecosystems has the lowest net primary production per square meter?
A) a salt marsh
B) an open ocean
C) a coral reef
D) a grassland
E) a tropical rain forest
3. The discipline that applies ecological principles to returning degraded ecosystems to a more natural
state is known as
A) population viability analysis.
B) landscape ecology.
C) conservation ecology.
D) restoration ecology.
E) resource conservation.
4. Nitrifying bacteria participate in the nitrogen cycle mainly by
A) converting nitrogen gas to ammonia.
B) releasing ammonium from organic compounds, thus returning it to the soil.
C) converting ammonia to nitrogen gas, which returns to the atmosphere.
D) converting ammonium to nitrate, which plants absorb.
E) incorporating nitrogen into amino acids and organic compounds.
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5. Which of the following has the greatest effect on the rate of chemical cycling in an
ecosystem?
A) the ecosystem's rate of primary production
B) the production efficiency of the ecosystem's consumers
C) the rate of decomposition in the ecosystem
D) the trophic efficiency of the ecosystem
E) the location of the nutrient reservoirs in the ecosystem
6. The Hubbard Brook watershed deforestation experiment yielded all of the following results except:
A) Most minerals were recycled within a forest ecosystem.
B) The flow of minerals out of a natural watershed was offset by minerals flowing in.
C) Deforestation increased water runoff.
D) The nitrate concentration in waters draining the deforested area became dangerously high.
E) Calcium levels remained high in the soil of deforested areas.
7. Which of the following would be considered an example of bioremediation?
A) adding nitrogen-fixing microorganisms to a degraded ecosystem to increase nitrogen availability
B) using a bulldozer to regrade a strip mine
C) dredging a river bottom to remove contaminated sediments
D) reconfiguring the channel of a river
E) adding seeds of a chromium-accumulating plant to soil contaminated by chromium
8. If you applied a fungicide to a cornfield, what would you expect to happen to the rate of
decomposition and net ecosystem production (NEP)?
A) Both decomposition rate and NEP would decrease.
B) Both decomposition rate and NEP would increase.
C) Neither would change.
D) Decomposition rate would increase and NEP would decrease.
E) Decomposition rate would decrease and NEP would increase.
Chapter 56:
1. One characteristic that distinguishes a population in an extinction vortex from most other populations
is that
A) its habitat is fragmented.
B) it is a rare, top-level predator.
C) its effective population size is much lower than its total population size.
D) its genetic diversity is very low.
E) it is not well adapted to edge conditions.
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2. The main cause of the increase in the amount of CO2 in Earth's atmosphere over the past 150 years is
A) increased worldwide primary production.
B) increased worldwide standing crop.
C) an increase in the amount of infrared radiation absorbed by the atmosphere.
D) the burning of larger amounts of wood and fossil fuels.
E) additional respiration by the rapidly growing human population.
3. What is the single greatest threat to biodiversity?
A) overharvesting of commercially important species
B) introduced species that compete with native species
C) pollution of Earth's air, water, and soil
D) disruption of trophic relationships as more and more prey species become extinct
E) habitat alteration, fragmentation, and destruction
4. Which of the following is a consequence of biological magnification?
A) Toxic chemicals in the environment pose greater risk to top-level predators than to primary
consumers.
B) Populations of top-level predators are generally smaller than populations of primary consumers.
C) The biomass of producers in an ecosystem is generally higher than the biomass of primary
consumers.
D) Only a small portion of the energy captured by producers is transferred to consumers.
E) The amount of biomass in the producer level of an ecosystem decreases if the producer turnover time
increases.
5. Which of the following strategies would most rapidly increase the genetic diversity of a population in
an extinction vortex?
A) Capture all remaining individuals in the population for captive breeding followed by reintroduction
to the wild.
B) Establish a reserve that protects the population's habitat.
C) Introduce new individuals transported from other populations of the same species.
D) Sterilize the least fit individuals in the population.
E) Control populations of the endangered population's predators and competitors.
6. Of the following statements about protected areas that have been established to preserve biodiversity,
which one is not correct?
A) About 25% of Earth's land area is now protected.
B) National parks are one of many types of protected areas.
C) Most protected areas are too small to protect species.
D) Management of a protected area should be coordinated with management of the land surrounding the
area.
E) It is especially important to protect biodiversity hot spots.
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