Download Exam 3 Practice Test - Iowa State University

Unit 3 Exam Review
Supplemental Instruction
Iowa State University
Leader:
Course:
Instructor:
Date:
Paige Stieneke
BIOL 256
Dr. Karri Haen
March 25, 2013
1. Cushing’s Syndrome and Addison’s Disease results due to the imbalance of the in the following
hormone:
a. Testosterone
b. Thyroid
c. Cortisol
d. Glucagon
e. Melatonin
2. Which of the following classes of hormones can enter a cell through direct gene activation?
a. Steroids
b. Peptides
c. Biogenic Amines
d. Kinases
3. Which of the following is NOT a tropic hormone?
a. Growth hormone
b. Prolactin
c. Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone
d. Adrenocorticotropic Hormone
e. Luteinizing Hormone
4. Glucocorticoid is to cortisol as mineralcorticoid is to:
a. Androgens
b. Epinephrine
c. Norepinephrine
d. Somatostatin
e. Aldosterone
5. Calcitonin and Parathyroid Hormone both control the level of calcium in the blood. ____
promotes calcium withdrawal; _____ promotes bone mineralization
a. Calcitrol, calcitonin
b. Calcitonin, parathyroid
c. Parathyroid, calcitrol
d. Parathyroid, calcitonin
6. True or False: The posterior pituitary is not glandular tissue (it’s neural tissue, the anterior
pituitary is glandular but both controlled by Hypothalamus by releasing/inhibiting hormones)
7. Rigor mortis occurs because:
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a.
b.
c.
d.
Proteins are breaking down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions
The cells are dead
ATP required to detach myosin from actin molecules are depleted
Sodium ions leak out of the muscle
8. The number of muscle fibers in a contracted state in an otherwise relaxed muscle is known as
its:
a. Refractory period
b. Muscle tone
c. Muscle twitch
d. Action potential
9. Mild exercise causes skeletal muscles to use ____ (primarily) for their energy needs.
a. Fatty acids
b. Glucose
c. Glycogen
d. Creatine phosphate
10. Type I fibers are ____ in color and are ____.
a. White, fast
b. White, slow
c. Red, fast
d. Red, slow
11. Immediate following the arrival of the stimulus of a skeletal muscle there is a short period called
the ___ period during which calcium ions are released from the terminal cisterae.
a. Refractory
b. Contraction
c. Latent
d. Relaxation
12. Which provides a fast way to replete ATP in exercising muscle?
a. Pyruvate
b. Creatine phosphate
c. Glucose
d. Glycogen
13. Which of the following is the type of hemoglobin that binds to carbon dioxide?
a. Cyanohemoglobin
b. Carboxyhemoglobin
c. Carbaminohemoglobin
d. Deoxyhemoglobin
e. Oxyhemoglobin
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14. James has a hematocrit of 62%. This is:
a. Abnormally low
b. Normal
c. Above normal
15. Which is NOT a normal plasma protein?
a. Hemoglobin
b. Albumin
c. Globulin
d. Fibrinogen
16. The least abundant human leukocytes are the:
a. Neutrophil
b. Eosinophil
c. Basophil
d. Lymphocyte
e. Monocyte
17. Red blood cells do not consume any of the oxygen they transport because they:
a. Convert oxygen to globin during transport
b. Cannot remove oxygen from Heme once it is attached
c. Use carbon dioxide in the respiratory chain instead of oxygen
d. Do not have mitochondria
e. Do not need to generate any ATP
18. Which is NOT a nutrient required for erythropoiesis?
a. Folic acid
b. Iodine
c. Carbohydrate
d. Iron
e. Vitamin B12
19. Which of the following initiates the action potential in the heart?
a. Sinoatrial Node
b. Atrioventricular Node
c. Purkinje Fibers
d. Bundle of His
20. Which of the following waves represents repolarization of the ventricles?
a. P wave
b. QRS complex
c. T wave
d. U wave
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21. Cardiac ischemia can result in:
a. An arrhythmia
b. A heart murmur
c. Patent ductus arteriosus
d. A myocardial infarction
22. A Dicrotic notch refers to the:
a. Brief rise in aortic pressure caused by the backflow of blood rebounding off the aortic
semilunar valve
b. Isovolumetric contraction where rising ventricular pressure causes the AV valves to
close
c. Ventricular filling where blood enters the atria and flows into the ventricles
d. AV valves opening, and atria emptying blood into the ventricles
23. Which of the following hormones provides a positive chronotropic effect on the heart?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Dopamine
d. Serotonin
e. Erythropoeitin
24. A heart rate above 100 beats per minute might indicate
a. Bradycardia
b. A normal heart rate
c. Tachycardia
25. Normal cardiac output is about ___ L/min.
a. 3.2
b. 4.2
c. 5.2
d. 6.2
26. The “lubb” sound occurs with the ___ valves closing, while the “dub” sounds occur as the __
valves close.
a. Semilunar, atrioventricular
b. Atrioventricular, semilunar
c. Mitral, stenosis
d. Stenosis, mitral
27. The myocardium requires ___ oxygen than skeletal muscle and has ___ mitochondria.
a. Less, more
b. More, less
c. Less, less
d. More, more
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28. Which of the following is the correct relationship between blood pressure (BP), cardiac output
(CO) and peripheral resistance (PR)?
a. CO = BP x PR
b. BP = CO x PR
c. PR = CO x BP
d. BP = CO/PR
29. A drop in blood pressure stimulates the cardiovascular center to:
a. Increase blood pressure and heart rate via epinephrine
b. Increase blood pressure and heart rate via alcohol
c. Decrease blood pressure and heart rate via nitric oxide
d. Decrease blood pressure and heart rate via atrial natriuretic peptide
30. Initiation of the cardiac action potential in contracting cardiac muscle cells begins with:
a. Opening voltage-gated slow calcium channels
b. Opening voltage-gated slow potassium channels
c. Opening voltage-gated fast sodium channels
d. Opening voltage-gated fast chlorine channels
31. When neither anti-A or anti-B agglutinates with a patient’s blood, then their blood type is:
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O
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