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AMITY INSTITUTE
FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS
E - 25, Defence Colony, New Delhi - 110024. Ph. : 24336143/44.
B - 1/623, Main Najafgarh Road, Janakpuri, New Delhi - 110058. Ph.: 25573111/12/13/14.
Amity Campus, Sector-44, Noida - 201303. Ph.: 95120-2431842, 2431839.
(MEDICAL – 2011)
C.B.S.E.PATTERN
(OBJECTIVE)
S
-1
TESTET
CODE - 1
Class XI Module Test – 2
Time : 3 hours
Date : 04/12//2011
M.M. : 800
TOPICS COVERED:
P HYSICS
CHEMISTRY
Botany
:
:
:
Centre of Mass, Conservation of Momentum, Rotational Mechanics
Zoology
:
Cell Biology
Gaseous State, Thermodynamics, Chemical Equilibrium
Photosynthesis and Respiration
INSTRUCTIONS :
(1) The paper contains 200 objective type questions (50 each in Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology). Four
alternatives are given for each question out of which only one is correct. Darken the correct alternative
on the given answer-sheet, with a pencil or pen.
(2) All the questions carry four marks each.
(3) For each incorrect answer 1 mark will be deducted.
(4) For unattempted questions the award is neither positive nor negative.
(5) No student is permitted to leave examination hall before the time is complete.
(6) Use of calculator is not permitted.
(7) Use of unfair means shall invite cancellation of the test.
(8) Answer once marked should not be changed.
Physics
Chemistry
Botany
Zoology
Objective
Total
Name of the Student :________________________________________________________
Centre
:________________________________________________________
Invigilator’s Signature:________________________________________________________
PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY
10 N
Choose the correct answers :
1.
The centre of mass of a uniform quarter of a ring
shown is
R
5N
R
5.
R R
2R 2R
,
,
(2)
 
 
3R 3R
3R 3R
,
,
(3)
(4)
2 2
 
Centre of mass of the frustum of a cone shown is at
a distance y. Then y is
R
(1)
2.
cm
4N
H
6.
2R
11
9
(2)
H
2
26
11
9
(3)
H
(4)
H
28
28
Centre of mass of a uniform wire, bent as shown, is
at a distance l from P. Then l is
(1)
3.
60°
P
7.
a
60°
60°
2a
4.
cm
B
(1) 2.5
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7.5
Two forces are applied on particles as shown, then
the magnitude of acceleration of the centre of mass
of the two particles is
5kg
4N
10kg
4
4 2
(2)
15
15
4
2 2
(3)
(4)
13
13
A particle of mass 2kg, moving on frictionless
horizontal plane with speed 3m/s, collides with
another particle of mass 4kg, moving with speed
1m/s in the opposite direction. The speed of the
centre of mass, after collision, will be
(1) 1/3 ms
(2) 2/3 m/s
(3) 1/2 m/s
(4) 1/4 m/s
A particle is thrown vertically downwards from a
high tower, of mass m, with speed 2u while another
particle of mass 2m, speed v, is projected vertically
upwards from the base of the tower. The distance
travelled by the centre of mass of the two particles
in the first two seconds, in metres, is
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 20
A particle mass 1kg, travelling with velocity 12iˆ m/s
collides with two particles of 2kg and 3kg, initially at
rest. After collision, the 2kg particle moves with
speed 3 ˆj m/s. Find the velocity of the three kg,
particle after collision, if the 1kg particle comes to
rest after collision
(1)
y
A
8.
(1) 2.2a
(2) 1.75a
(3) 2.1a
(4) 1.95a
A, rod, mass 2 kg, is lying flat on frictionless horizontal surface. If forces 5 N and 10 N are applied on it
as shown, the acceleration of its centre of mass, in
m/s, is
Rough Work
[2]
(1) 7iˆ  ˆj
9.
(2) 9iˆ  ˆj
(3) 8iˆ  2 ˆj
(4) 8iˆ  2 ˆj
If the force shown in the graph is applied to a particle of mass 2kg at rest, its velocity at time t = 10
seconds will be (in m/s)
F
(1) The spool will roll towards left
(2) The spool may not roll
(3) The spool wil roll towards right
(4) Data is insufficient
15. If the pulley has mass 1 kg and radius 20 cm, then
the acceleration of the 2 kg block, (assume the
pulley to be disc shaped) in m/s, is
F(N)
2
t(s)
10
(1) 8
(2) 2.5
(3) 5
(4) 10
10. A man of 60 kg is standing on a plank of 120kg which
is lying on frictronless horizontal floor. If the man
takes 24 steps on the plank towards east, the plank
will move a distance equal to
(1) 8 steps towards west
(2) 8 steps towards east
(3) 16 steps towards west
(4) 16 steps towards east
11. A block of mass m, moving with speed v0, collides
with the spring attatched to mass 2m, initially at rest.
The maximum compression in spring will occur when
speed of block of mass m is
m
2kg
1kg
(1) 22/7
(2) 20/7
(3) 4
(4) None of the above
16. The moment of inertia of a sphere of mass m, radius
R is I. Then moment of inertia of a sphere, twice
the radius and same density is
(1) 2I
(2) 4I
(3) 32I
(4) 64I
17. Moment of inertia of a hollow thin spherical shell is I,
while of another spherical shell of same outer radius and thick wall thickness of the same mass is I2.
Then
(1) I1 < I2
(2) I1 = I2
(3) I1 > I2
(4) Data is insufficient
18. A thin pipe is being pulled by a string as shown. The
force of friction on the ring due to the ground is
F
2m
(1) V0 /3
(2) V0 /4
(3) V0 /5
(4) v0/6
12. Two particles of mass 1kg and 2 kg are projected
horizontally from a high building, in opposite directions. The acceleration of the centre of mass of the
particles is
(1) g/3
(2) 2g/3
(3) g/2
(4) g
13. A ball mass m collides head on with another of mass
2m. If the lighter ball comes to rest immediately
after collision, the coefficient of restitution is
(1) 1/5
(2) 1/4
(3) 1/3
(4) 1/2
14. The spool shown is being pulled by the thread wound
on it as shown. If the spool does not slip on the floor,
then
(1) Towards right
(2) Depends on radius
(3) Zero
(4) Depends on radius of ring
19. A solid cylinder and a hollow cylinder roll without
slipping down an inclined plane with accelerations
a1 and a2. Then
(1) a1 = a2
(2) a1 < a2
(3) a1 > a2
(4) cannot be compared
Rough Work
[3]
20. The moment of inertia of a thin triangular plate of
mass m, as shown, about the axis xx´, is
a
(1)
a
x´
ma 2
(2)
6
(1) tan  
ma 2
ma 2
(4)
12
24
21. The angular velocity of a rod of length l, hinged at
one end, when it is vertical, if it was released from
rest when it was making an angle of 60° to the
vertical, is
g
l
(2)
26.
3g
2l
27.
2g
g
(4)
3l
2l
22. Moment of inertia of a disc of radius R mass m, out
of which a circle of radius R/2 has been cut out,
about its diameter, is
mR 2
4
(2)
28.
7 mR 2
32
17 mR 2
15mR 2
(4)
60
64
23. Angular acceleration of a rod, length l, hinged at
one end, when it is making an angle of 30° to the
vertical, is
(3)
(1)
3g
4l
(2)
a
h
(2) tan  
29.
3g
2l
3g
4g
(4)
8l
9 l
24. A plank is rolling a cylinder of radius R. There is no
slipping any where. The angular velocity of the
cylinder is
(3)
l/2
m0
V0
Rough Work
[4]
h
a
h
(4) h > a
a
The moment of inertia of a thin square plate, about
one of its sides is I0. The moment of inertia of plate
of same thickness, but twice in linear dimensions,
about one of its sides, is
(1) 2I0
(2) 8I0
(3) 16I0
(4) 64I0
If a cylinder slips down an inclined plane of angle 
and coefficient of friction , which is insufficient to
prevent slipping, then its acceleration is
(1) Greater than gsin
(2) gsin – gcos
(3) gcos – gsin
(4) 2/3 gsin
If a sphere is rolling down an inclined plane without
slipping, then the work done by the friction force, on
the sphere
(1) is positive
(2) is negative
(3) is zero
(4) may be positive or negative
A particle of mass m collides with the rod length l, as
shown, and comes to rest immediately after
collision. If the collision is perfectly elastic, the
angular velocity of the rod, just after collision, is
(3) sin  
(3)
(1)
2V0
R
V0
2V0
(4)
2R
3R
25. A block with square base of side a and height h is
kept on a rough inclined plane of angle . Assuming
that it does not slip, it will not topple if
(3)
(1)
(2)
(3)
90°
x
ma 2
(1)
4
V0
R
V0
(1)
V0
l
(2)
2V0
l
(3)
V0
2l
(4)
V0
4l
30. The moment of inertia of the hemisphere of mass m,
radius R, about xx´ is
x´
x
35. A disc radius R, is given initial linear velocity V0 and
initial angular velocity W0, as shown. Due to friction
w0
V0
2
13
mR 2
mR 2
(2)
5
18
13
2
mR
(3)
(4) None of the above
20
31. An impulse is given horizontaly to a cylinder lying on
flat horizontal surface, as shown in figure.
(1) It will stop slipping and move towards right
(2) It will stop slipping and will move towards left
(3) It will come to rest
(4) Any of the above is possible
36. A plate mass m1 is kept in equlibrium by steel shots
fired at it vertically from below with speed v. If mass
of each shot is m2 and collisions are perfectly elastic, then the number of shots required to hit it per
second is
(1)
h
The height h at which it must strike, so that the cylinder starts rolling immediately after collision is
(1)
R
4
(2)
R
3
R
2R
(4)
2
3
32. A particle P, mass m, speed 2a collides with Q, mass
2m, speed a, travelling in opposite direction, head
on. If P comes to rest than
(1) Q will rebound
(2) Q will keep moving in the same direction with
reduced speed
(3) Q will come to rest
(4) Q will nto come to rest
33. A rod, length l, mass m, is resting on two wedges, as
shown. The normal reaction, due to B, on the rod, is
(3)
(1)
mg
2
B
(2)
m1
(2) 2m v g
2
m2
(3) m v g
1
m2
(4) 2m v g
1
37. A disc P rolling on horizontal surface encounters an
inclined plane sufficiently rough to prevent slipping.
Another identical disc Q rolling with same speed
encounters a smoth inclined plane. Then if P climbs
to height h1 and Q to height h2, then
(1) h1 = h2
(2) h1 > h2
(3) h1 < h2
(4) h1 < h2 if radius of discs is large
38. A particle mass m hits a rod of mass 2m, length l,
lying on smooth horizontal surface perpendicular to
the length of the rod, as shown. If the particle comes
to rest just after collision, the angular velocity of the
rod, just after collision is
l/5
A
m1
(1) m v g
2
2mg
3
6
5
mg
mg
(4)
11
8
34. A block of square base end height h is sliding on
smooth horizontal floor. It encounters rough
horizontal surface. It will not topple if
(3)
(1)  
h
a
(3)   1
(2)  
m u
o
a
h
(4) If will never topple
Rough Work
[5]
(1)
u
l
(2)
6u
l
(3)
3u
l
(4)
9u
l
39. A cone mass m is pasted to a hemisphere, also of
mass m, as shown. It will be unstable if
(1)
H
45.
3R
(1) H > R
(2) H 
2
(3) H > 2R
(4) It will never be unstable
40. A moving particle mass m collides with another
particle mass 2m at rest head on. After collision the
particle of mass m
(1) May rebound
(2) May move in the same direction
(3) May come to rest
(4) Any of the above is possible
41. The centre of mass of the three identical rods, of
length l each is at x =
y
46.
x
(1) l/2
(2) l/3
(3) l/4
(4) l/6
42. A disc, rotating about its axis with angular speed w0
stops with uniform deceleration  after n revolutions.
Then  is
w02
n
(2)
(2)
3
2
2
2
(4)
3
3
Blocks A and B are connected by light string. B is
given speed 4m/s away from A. The speed of A just
after the string gets tight, assuming that the string is
inelastic in nature but the extension in the string is
negligible, will be in (m/s)
4m/s
3kg
2kg
A
B
(1) 8/5
(2) 8/3
(3) 5/3
(4) 5/2
A disc is rolling on rough horizontal surface. The
surface ahead is smooth and horizontal. Then the
disc will
(1) Start slipping
(2) Continue to roll without slipping
(3) Point of contact will not be the instantaneous
exis of roation
(4) None of the above
A is given a push towards B. After collision
B collides with C. All collisions are elastic. For
maximum energy transfer from A to C m2 should be
equal to
m1
m2
m3
A
B
C
m1  m3
(1)
(2)
m1m2
2
2m1  m3
(3)
(4) None of the above
2
A cylinder rolls down an inclined plane without
slipping, starting from rest. Its velocity after it has
descended height h will be
(3)
R
(1)
3
2
47.
w02
2n
w02
w02
(4)
4n
6n
43. A and B are lying on smooth horizontal surface
connected by a spring. Suddenly an impulse of 10Ns
is delivered to A as shown. The maximum speed of
B, during subsequent motion will be (in m/s)
1kg
2kg
10Ns
A
B
(1) 5/3
(2) 10/3
(3) 20/3
(4) 5/6
44. Initially the spring is compressed by 20cm and the
blocks are at rest. The system is released on smooth
horizontal surface. The speed of block A when the
extension in spring is 10cm is (in m/s)
1kg K=100M/m 1kg
A
B
(3)
48.
3
gh
2
2
1
gh
gh
(3)
(4)
3
2
49. A disc is rolling without slipping with speed v. The
speed of point B, at the instant shown, will be
(1)
(2)
2gh
B V
A
Rough Work
[6]
3
V
(2) 2V
2
V
3
V
(3)
(4)
2
2
50. Block V0 is sliding on horizontal surface, coefficient
of friction m. A ball B is dropped on A and the
collision is perfectely elastic and the ball is smooth.
Then the speed of block A, just after collision
B
(1)
55.
56.
V0
A
(1) Will remain the same
(2) Will decrease
(3) Will stop
(4) Data is insufficient
51. Which of the following statements is not ture ?
(1) The pressure of a gas is due to collision of the
gas molecules with the walls of the container
(2) The molecular velocity of any gas is proportional
to the square root of the absolute temperature
(3) The rate of diffusion of a gas is directly
proportional to the density of the gas at constant
pressure
(4) Kinetic energy of an ideal gas is directly
proportional to the absolute temperature
57.
58.
59.
52. The r.m.s. velocity of hydrogen is
7 times the r.m.s.
velocity of nitrogen. If T is the temperature of the
gas
(1) T(H2) = T(N2)
(2) T(H2) > T(N2)
(3) T(H2) < T(N2)
60.
(4) T(H2) =
7 T(N2)
53. The volume of 0.0168 mol of O2 obtained by decomposition of KClO3 and collected by displacement of
water is 428 ml at pressure of 754 mm Hg at 25°C.
The pressure of water vapour at 25°C is
(1) 18 mm Hg
(2) 20 mm Hg
(3) 22 mm Hg
(4) 24 mm Hg
54. Equal volumes of two gases which do not react
together are enclosed in separate vessels. Their pressures at 100 mm and 400 mm respectively. If the
two vessels are joined together, then what will be the
pressure of the resulting mixture (temperature remaining constant) ?
(1) 125 mm
(2) 500 mm
(3) 10000 mm
(4) 250 mm
Equal weights of two gases of molecular weight 4
and 40 are mixed. The pressure of the mixture is 1.1
atm. The partial pressure of the light gas in this mixture is
(1) 0.55 atm
(2) 0.11 atm
(3) 1 atm
(4) 0.1 atm
A pre-weighed vessel was filled with oxygen at N.T.P.
and weighed. It was then evacuated, filled with SO2
at the same temperature and pressure, and again
weighted. The weight of oxygen will be
(1) The same as that of SO2
(2) 1/2 that of SO2
(3) Twice that of SO2
(4) One fourth that of SO2
The rate of diffusion of two gases X and Y is in the
ratio of 1 : 5 and that of Y and Z in the ratio of 1 : 6.
The ratio of the rate of diffusion of Z with respect to
X is
(1) 5/6
(2) 1/30
(3) 6/5
(4) 30
If X is the total number of collisions which a gas
molecule registers with others per unit time under
particular conditions, then the collision frequency of
the gas containing N molecules per unit volume is
(1) X/M
(2) NX
(3) 2NX
(4) NX/2
A bottle of cold drink contains 200 ml liquid in which
CO2 is 0.1 molar. Suppose CO2 behaves like an ideal
gas, the volume of the dissolved CO2 at STP is
(1) 0.224 litre
(2) 0.448 litre
(3) 22.4 litre
(4) 2.24 litre
Four molecules of a gas have sppeds of 1, 2, 3,
4 cm s–1 respectively. The root mean square
velocity is
(1) 7.5
(2) 30
(3) 30
(4) 0.15
61. The V density of a gas A is three times that of a gas
B. If the molecular mass of A is M, the molecular
mass of B is
(1) 3 M
3M
(3) M/3
(4) M/ 3
62. Reducing the pressure from 1.0 and 0.5 atm would
change the number of molecules in one mole of
ammonia in closed container to
Rough Work
[7]
(2)
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
(1) 75% of initial value
(2) 50% of initial value
(3) 25% of initial value
(4) None of these
Air contains 79% N2 and 21% O2 by volume. If the
barometric pressure is 750 mm Hg, the partial pressure of oxygen is
(1) 157.5 mm of Hg (2) 175.5 mm of Hg
(3) 3125.0 mm of Hg (4) None of these
How much should the pressure be increased in order to decrease the volume of a gas by 5% at constant temperature ?
(1) 5%
(2) 5.26%
(3) 10%
(4) 4.26%
When equal weights of O2 and N2 are placed in
separate containers of equal volume at the same temperature, which of the following statement is true?
(1) Both flasks contain the same number of
molecules
(2) The pressure in oxygen flask is smaller than the
one in the nitrogen flask
(3) More molecules are present in the oxygen flask
(4) Molecules in the nitrogen flask are moving
slower on the average than ones in the oxygen
flask
To raise the volume of a gas by four times, the
following methods may be adopted. Which of the
methods is wrong ?
(1) T is doubled and P is also doubled
(2) Keeping P constant, T is raised by four times
(3) Temperature is doubled and pressure is halved
(4) Keeping temperature constant, pressure is
reduced to 1/4 of its initial value
The kinetic energy for 10 grams of nitrogen gas at
127°C is nearly (mol. mass of nitrogen = 28 and gas
constnat = 8.31 JK–1mol–1)
(1) 1.0 J
(2) 4.15 J
(3) 2493 J
(4) 3.3 J
Given that C + O2  CO2 H° = – xkJ
2CO + O2 2CO2 H° = – ykJ
the enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide will
be
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
2x  y
y  2x
(2)
2
2
(3) 2x – y
(4) y = 2x
69. The favourable conditions for a spontaneous
reaction are
(1)
Rough Work
[8]
(1) TS > H, H = + ve, S = + ve
(2) TS > H, H = + ve, S = – ve
(3) TS = H, H = – ve, S = – ve
(4) TS = H, H = + ve, S = + ve
For which one of the following equations is H°reaction
equal to Hf° for the product ?
(1) N2(g) + O3(g)  N2O3(g)
(2) CH4(g) + 2Cl2(g)  CH2Cl2(l) + 2HCl(g)
(3) Xe(g) + 2F2(g)  XeF4(g)
(4) 2CO(g) + O2(g)  2CO2(g)
In a closed insulated container a liquid is stirred with
a paddle to increase the temperature. Which of the
following is ture ?
(1) E = W  0, q = 0
(2) E = W = 0, q  0
(3) E = 0, W = q  0
(4) W = 0, E = q  0
One mole of Methanol, when burnt in oxygen, gives
out 723 kJ mol –1 heat. If oen mole of oxygen is used,
what will be the amount of heat evolved ?
(1) 723 kJ
(2) 964 kJ
(3) 482 kJ
(4) 241 kJ
When 20 ml of a strong acid is added to 20 ml of an
alkali, the temperature rises by 5°C. If 200 ml of
each liquid are mixed, the temperature rise would be
(1) 5°C
(2) 50°C
(3) 20°C
(4) 0.5°C
Under the same conditions how many ml of 1 M
KOH and 0.5H2SO4 solutions, respectively, when
mixed to form a total volume of 100 ml. Produce the
highest rise in temperature ?
(1) 67,33
(2) 33,67
(3) 40,60
(4) 50,50
If heat of dissolution of anhydrous CuSO4 and
CuSO 4 .5H 2 O are –15.89 kcal and +2.80 kcal
respectively, then the heat of hydration of CuSO4 to
form CuSO45H2O is
(1) –13.09 kcal
(2) –18.69 kcal
(3) +13.09 kcal
(4) +18.69 kcal
Heat of combustion H for C (s), H2(g) and CH4(g)
are –94, –68 and –213 kcal/mol. Then H for C(s)
+ 2H2(g)  CH4(g) is
(1) –17 kcal
(2) –111 kcal
(3) –170 kcal
(4) –85 kcal
77. When Zn dust is added to sufficiently large volume
of aqueous solution of copper sulphate. 3.175 g of
copper metal and 20 J of heat is evolved. The H
for the reaction
Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq)  ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s) is (at wt
of Zn = 65.3, at wt of Cu = 63.5)
(1) 20 J
(2) 200 J
(3) 400 J
(4) 65.3 J
78. Heat of dissociation of benzene to elements is 5535
kJ mol–1. The bond enthalpies of C–C, C = C and
C–H are 347.3, 615.0 and 416.2 kJ respectively.
Resonance energy of nenzene is
(1) 1.51 kJ
(2) 15.1 kJ
(3) 151 kJ
(4) 1511 kJ
79. One gram sample of NH4NO3 is decomposed in a
bomb calorimeter. The temperature of the calorimeter increases by 6.12 K. The heat capacity of the
system is 1.23 kJ/g/deg. What is a the molar heat of
decomposition for NH4NO3 ?
(1) –7.53 kJ/mol
(2) –398.1 kJ/mol
(3) –16.1 kJ/mol
(4) –602 kJ/mol
80. The difference between H and E for the combustion of methane at 27°C will be (in joule/mol)
(1) 8.314 × 27 × (–3)
(2) 8.314 × 300 × (–3)
(3) 8.314 × 300 × (–2)
(4) 8.314 × 300 × (1)
81. Given the reaction at 1240 K and 1 atm. CaCO3(s)
 CaO(s) + CO2(g), H = 176 kJ/mol, the E equals
(1) 160.0 kJ
(2) 165.6 kJ
(3) 186.4 kJ
(4) 180.0 kJ
83. For the process dry ice  CO2(g)
(1) H is positive and S is negative
(2) Both H and S are negative
(3) Both H and S are positive
(4) H is negative whereas S is positive
84. Which of the following equations correctly
represents the standard heat of formation (Hf °) of
methane ?
(1) C(diamond) + 2 H2(g) = CH4(g)
(2) C(graphite) + 2H2(g) = CH4(l)
(3) C(graphite) + 2H2(g) = CH4(g)
(4) C(graphite) + 4H = CH4(g)
85. The equilibrium constant, K for the reaction
 H2(g) + I2(g) at room temperature is
2HI(g) 
2.85 and that at 698 K, it is 1.4 × 10–2. This implies
that
(1) HI is exothermic compound
(2) HI is very stable at room temperature
(3) HI is relatively less stable than H2 and I2
(4) HI is resonance stabilised

86. CH3COOH + C2H5OH 
CH3COOC2 H5 + H2 O
In the above reaction one mole each of the acetic
acid and alcohol are heated in the presence of little
conc. H2SO4. On equilibrium being attained
(1) 1 mole of ethyl acetate is formed
(2) 2 moles of ethyl acetate are formed
(3) 1/3 mole of ethyl acetate is formed
(4) Unpredictable
87. Steam reacts with iron at high temperature to give
hydrogen gas and Fe3O4(s). The correct expression
for the equilibrium constant is
PH22
( PH 2 )4
(1) P 2
(2) ( P ) 4

82. Given NH3(g) + 3Cl2(g) 
NCl3(g) + 3HCl(g); –H1
 2NH3(g); –H2
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 
H 2O
 2HCl(g) ; H3
H2(g) + Cl2(g) 
The heat of formation of NCl3(g) in the terms of
H1, H2 and H3 is
H 2 3
 H3
(1) Hf  H1 
2
2
H 2 3
 H3
(2) Hf  H1 
2
2
(3) Hf  H1 
H 2O
4
( PH 2 ) [ Fe3O4 ]
[ Fe3O4 ]
( PH 2 O ) [ Fe]
[ Fe]
88. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
 2NO (g) is 4 × 10–4 at 2000K.
N2(g) + O2(g) 
In presence of a catalyst, equilibrium is attained ten
times faster. Therefore, the equilibrium constant, in
presence of the catalyst, at 2000 K is
(1) 40 × 10–4
(2) 4 × 10–4
(3) 4 × 10–3
(4) Difficult to compute without more data
(3)
H 2 3
 H3
2
2
(4) None
Rough Work
[9]
4
(4)
89. Starting with 1 mole of N2O4, if  is the degree of
dissociation of N2O4 for the reaction
 2NO2
N2O4 
then at equilibrium the total number of moles N2O4
and NO2 present is
(1) 2
(2) 1 – 
2
(3) (1 – )
(4) 1 + 
 2Y is taking place in a 2 L
90. The reaction X 
flask. If the degree of dissociation of X is 0.4, then
the equilibrium constant will be
(1) 2
(2) 10.6
(3) 0.53
(4) 5.3
91. The equilibrium
 4PCl3 (g) is attained by
P 4 (g) + 6Cl2 (g) 
mixing equal moles of P4 and Cl2 in an evacuated
vessel. Then at equilibrium
(1) [Cl2] > [PCl3]
(2) [Cl2] > [P4]
(3) [P4] > [Cl2]
(4) [PCl3] > [P4]
92. On decomposition of NH4HS, the following equilibrium is established
 NH3(g) + H2S(g)
NH4HS(s) 
If the total pressure is P atm, then the equilibrium
constant Kp is equal to
(1) P atm
(2) P2 atm2
(3) P2/4atm2
(4) 2P atm
93. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen will be the
most stable one ?
(1) Low temperature and low pressure
(2) Low temperature and high pressure
(3) High temperature and high pressure
(4) High temperature and low pressure
96. The following reactions sare known to occur in the
body
 H+ HCO3–
CO2 + H2O  H2CO3 
If CO2 escapes from the system
(1) pH will decrease
(2) Hydrogen ion concentration will diminish
(3) H2CO3 concentration will be altered
(4) The forward reaction will be promoted
97. Ice and water are in equilibrium at 273 K. Which of
the following statements is correct ?
(1) G(ice) > G(H2O)
(2) G(ice) < G(H2O)
(3) G(ice) = G(H2O) = 0
(4) G(ice) = G(H2O)  0
98. If 0.2 mole of H2(g) & 2 mole of S(s) are mixed in a
1L vessel at 90°C, the partial pressure of H2S(g)
formed according to the reaction
 H2S (KP = 6.8 × 10–2) would be
H2(g) + S(s) 
(1) 0.19 atm
(2) 0.38 atm
(3) 0.6 atm
(4) 0.072 atm
99. The equilibrium
 SO2(g) + Cl2(g)
SO2Cl2(g) 
is attained at 25°C in a closed container and an inert
gas, helium is introduced. Which of the following
statement is correct ?
(1) More chlorine is formed
(2) Concentration of SO2 is reduced
(3) More SO2CL2 is formed
(4) Concentration of SO2Cl2, SO2 and Cl2 do not
change
100. Consider the following equilibrium in a closed
container
 2NO2(g)
N2O4 (g) 
At a fexed temperature, the volume of the reaction
container is halved. For this change, which of the
following statements holds true regar ding
the equilibrium constnat (K p ) and degree of
dissociation () ?
(1) Neither Kp nor  changes
(2) both Kp and  change
(3) Kp changes but  does not
(4) Kp does not change but  change
 N2(g) + 2O2(g),
(1) 2NO2(g) 
K = 6.7 × 1016 mol L–1
 N2(g) + O2(g),
(2) 2NO2(g) 
K = 2.2 × 1030
 2N2(g) + 5O2(g),
(3) 2N2O5(g) 
K = 1.2 × 1024 mol5 L–5
 2N2(g) + O2(g),
(4) 2N2O(g) 
K = 3.5 × 1033 mol L–1
94. Given the reaction
 Z(g) + 80 kcal
2X(g) + Y(g) 
Which combination of pressure and temperature
gives the highest yield of Z at equilibrium ?
(1) 1000 atm and 500°C
(2) 500 atm and 500°C
(3) 1000 atm and 100°C
(4) 500 atm and 100°C
95. Solubility of a substance which dissolves with
decrease in volume and absorption of heat will be
aided by
Rough Work
[10]
BOTANY & ZOOLOGY
101. In Hatch-slack pathway
(1) Chloroplasts are of same type
(2) Occur in Kranz anatomy where mesophyll have
small chloroplasts whereas bundle sheath have
agranal chloroplasts
(3) Occurs in Kranz anatomy whereas mesophyll
have small chloroplasts whereas bundle sheath
have larger chloroplasts
(4) Occurs in Kranz anatomy where mesophyll cells
are diffused
102. Which of the statement is not true for C4 pathway ?
(1) Overcomes loss due to photorespiration
(2) The CO2 acceptor is a C3 compound
(3) Inhibited by high CO2 concentration
(4) Required more energy than the C3 pathways for
production of glucose
103. Which of the following conditions are favourable for
cyclic photophosphorylation ?
(1) Anaerobic condition
(2) Aerobic and optimum light
(3) Aerobic and low light intensity
(4) Anaerobic and low light intensity
104. In photosynthesis, photolysis of water is used in
(1) Reduction of NADP
(2) Oxidation of NADP
(3) Oxidation of FAD
(4) All of the above
105. What are the true peaks of light absorption of
chlorophyll ‘a’ ?
(1) 400 and 500 nm (2) 430 and 730 nm
(3) 430 and 660 nm (4) 400 and 660 nm
106. The balance between CO2 and O2 is brought about
by
(1) Transpiration
(2) Photosynthesis
(3) C4 pathway
(4) Photorespiration
107. Light is necessary in photosynthesis for
(1) Opening of stomata
(2) Photolysis of water
(3) Reduction of CO2
(4) Evolution of H2
108. In bacterial photosynthesis, hydrogen donor is
(1) H2S
(2) NH2
(3) H2O
(4) H2SO4
109. In which of the following the rate of photosynthesis
is decreased and known as red drop ?
(1) Blue light
(2) Gereen light
(3) Red light more than 680 nm
(4) Red light less than 680 nm
110. What will be the effect on photosynthesis, if boiled
water is used in one of its experiment ?
(1) Process will be rapid
(2) Process will be slow
(3) No process will take place
(4) There will be no effect on the process
111. Which of the following is not a C4 plant
(1) Sugarcane
(2) Maize
(3) Sorghum
(4) Wheat
112. Lowest rate of respiration will be in
(1) Collenchyma
(2) Leaf
(3) Dry seeds
(4) Germinated seeds
113. If oxygen content is reduced to 1%, the rate of
respiration becomes
(1) Optimum
(2) Minimum
(3) Maximum
(4) Unaffected
114. Enzymes of glycolysis are present in
(1) Mitochondrial matrix
(2) Cristae
(3) Cytosol
(4) All of these
115. TCA cycle is
(1) Catabolic
(2) Anabolic
(3) Amphibolic
(4) None of these
116. How many oxidation steps are there in aerobic
respiration ?
(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1
117. How many molecules of CO2 are produced in one
complete cycle of aerobic respiration ?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8
118. Which is associated with the enzyme aconitase in
Krebs’ cycle ?
(1) Mn
(2) Fe
(3) Zn
(4) Cu
119. Q10 value of respiration is
(1) 1
(2) 5
(3) 2
(4) 4
Rough Work
[11]
120. Photorespiration occurs in
(1) All cells
(2) Green cells
(3) Living cells
(4) None of these
121. C–2 cycle is associated with
(1) Respiration
(2) Photorespiration
(3) Dark reaction of photosynthesis
(4) Coversion of fat into sugar
122. Which of the following is used in conversion of
pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA ?
(1) Oxidative phosphorylation
(2) Oxidative dehydrogenation
(3) Oxidative decarboxylation
(4) Oxidative dehydration
123. Formation of acetyl CoA from pyruvic acid needs
(1) A singe enzyme
(2) Two enzymes
(3) Multienzyme complex
(4) No enzyme
124. Conversion of succinate into fumarate in Krebs’ cycle
is due to
(1) Loss of electrons from it
(2) Removal of hydrogen from it
(3) Addition of O2 to it
(4) None of the above
125. Which is correct sequence in Krebs’ cycle ?
(1) Iso-citric acid  oxalosuccinic acid 
-ketoglutaric acid
(2) Oxalosuccinic acid  iso-citric acid 
-ketoglutaric acid
(3) -ketoglutaric acid  iso-citric acid 
oxalosuccinic acid
(4) Iso-citric acid  -ketoglutaric acid 
oxalosuccinic acid
126. Largest amount of phosphate bond energy is
produced in the process of respiration during
(1) Anaerobic respiration
(2) Glycolysis
(3) Krebs’ cycle
(4) None of these
127. During ATP synthesis electron pass through
(1) Cytochromes
(2) Water
(3) O2
(4) CO2
128. Respiration and photosynthesis both require
(1) Organic fuel
(2) Cytochrome
(3) Sunlight
(4) Energy from carbon bonds
129. Hexose monophosphate shunt is
(1) A set of reactions that bypasses the glycolytic
and Krebs’ cycle routes for glucose oxidation in
the cell
(2) Conversion of glucose into pyruvic acid
(3) The sum of all chemical transformations
(4) A process by which new products are
synthesized
130. In hexose monophosphate shunt, the number of CO2
molecules evolved is
(1) Same as in glycolysis
(2) Less than glycolysis
(3) More than glycolysis
(4) Much lesser than glycolysis
131. Succinyl CoA is related to
(1) Krebs’ cycle
(2) Calvin cycle
(3) Glycolate cycle (4) HMP cycle
132. A reduction of NADP to NADPH2 is associated with
(1) EMP
(2) HMP
(3) Calvin cycle
(4) Glycolysis
133. How many molecules of NADH2 are produced from
each molecule of ketoglutarate under aerobic
conditions ?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Eight
134. When 100% carbon is oxidized to CO2, the efficiency
of such a respiratin is
(1) 40%
(2) 60%
(3) 90%
(4) 100%
135. Salt respiration is also called as
(1) Anion respiration (2) Cation respiration
(3) Photorespiration (4) None of these
136. (Chl.–b 650 + Chl.–a 670 + Chl.–a 678 + Chl.–a
680–690) represent
(1) PS-I
(2) PS-II
(3) Both the systems (4) None of these
137. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation and O2 evolution
are inhibited by
(1) 2, 4-Dinitrophenol
(2) CMU
(3) DCMU
(4) Both (2) and (3)
138. Asymmetric lebelling of glucose phosphate formed
in photosynthesis is called
(1) Warburg’s effect
(2) Pasteur’s effect
(3) Gibb’s effect
(4) Dickens’ effect
Rough Work
[12]
150. CO2 is necessary for photosynthesis; the chemical
used to remove this gas most effectively from entering
a control apparatus is
(1) Calcium oxide
(2) Distilled water
(3) Sodium carbonate
(4) Potassium hydroxide solution
151.‘Protoplasm is the physical basis of life’ was stated
by
(1) Huxley
(2) Haeckel
(3) Robertson
(4) Goldacre
152.Mitosis and meiosis both take place in
(1) Small intestine (2) Liver
(3) Testes
(4) Skin
153.RER. is the centre of
(1) Excretion
(2) Protein synthesis
(3) Digestion
(4) None
154.The pairing of chromosomes of form bivalents,
synapsis, occurs during
(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) None
155.Mitotic apparatus is formed by
(1) Astral rays
(2) Centrioles
(3) Spindle fibres
(4) All of the above
156.Chiasmata formation takes place in
(1) Leptotene
(2) Diplotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diakinesis
157.Microvilli are
(1) Secondary finger like projections on the
intestinal villi
(2) Finger like pr ojections on cell surface
responsible for ulta-absorption of liquids
(3) Finger like projections of nuclear membrane
for obtaining nutrients for nucleus
(4) None of the above
158.Dyad is pair of
(1) Non sister chromatids
(2) Homologous chromosomes
(3) Sister chromatids
(4) Sex chromosomes
159.Longest phase in meiosis
(1) Prophase-I
(2) Metaphase-I
(3) Anaphase-II
(4) Telophase-II
160.Which of the following have a molecular weight
less than 1000 daltons but still considered as
macromolecule.
(1) Proteins
(2) Lipids
(3) Enzymes
(4) Polysaccharides
139. ‘Wreath anatomy’ is feature of
(1) Temperate grasses
(2) Tropical grasses
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these
140. The bundle sheath chloroplasts are
(1) Larger in size
(2) Lack grana
(3) Have starch grains
(4) All of these
141. Malic acid (4–C) is produced in which plant without
Kranz anatomy ?
(1) Bryophyllum plant
(2) Kalanchoe plant
(3) Opuntia plants
(4) All of these
142. Inhibition of photosynthesis by high O2 levels is called
(1) Gibb’s effect
(2) Warburg’s effect
(3) Pasteur’s effect (4) None of these
143. Artificial light can
(1) Destroy chlorophyll
(2) Synthesize chlorophyll
(3) Bring about photosynthesis
(4) Not bring about photosynthesis
144. The increase in photosynthesis occurs till CO2
concentration is increased upto
(1) 300 ppm
(2) 600 ppm
(3) 4000 ppm
(4) 6000 ppm
145. Which in non-sulphur photosynthetic bacteria ?
(1) Chlorobium
(2) Chromatium
(3) Rhodospirillum (4) None of these
146. Chlorobium chlorophyll absorbs which wavelength
of light ?
(1) 850–950 nm
(2) Upto 680 nm
(3) 720–750 nm
(4) None of these
147. Chemosynthesis occurs in
(1) Presence of light (2) Presence of O2
(3) Absence of O2 (4) None of these
148. The smallest known plant having the same pigments
as grasses and trees, belongs to
(1) Chlorophyceae (2) Schizomycetes
(3) Bryphyta
(4) Angiosperms
149. Chlorophyll–b is present in
(1) Eukaryotes
(2) Prokaryotes
(3) Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(4) Bacteria
Rough Work
[13]
171. Enzymes are absent in
(1) Algae
(2) Fungi
(3) Bacteria
(4) Virus
172.Main difference between animal cell and plant cell
lies in
(1) Nutrition
(2) Growth
(3) Movement
(4) Respiration
173.Chromosomes appear as long thin threads during
(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene
174.Cellular organelles containing hydrolytic enzymes
ar e
(1) Lysosomes
(2) Microsomes
(3) Peroxisome
(4) Transosomes
175.The chief significance of mitosis is that it
(1) Insures genetic homogeneity of the cells
(2) Reduces the chromosome number of half
(3) Causes transformation of DNA to RNA
(4) Increases the water content of the cell
176. Repulsion of homologous chromosomes begins during
(1) Diakinesis
(2) Diplotene
(3) Zygotene
(4) Leptotene.
177. Which one of the following is not a fibrillar protein
(1) Elastin
(2) Collagen
(3) Myosin
(4) Albumin
178. Bouquet stage occurs during
(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene.
179. Carbonic anhydrase enhances the rate of reaction
by how many times ?
(1) 10 lakh
(2) 10 thousand
(3) 10 million
(4) 10
180. Cyanide kills an animal by inhibiting the enzyme
cytochrome oxidase. This is an example of
(1) Competitive inhibition
(2) Non-competitive inhibition
(3) Allosteric modulation
(4) Feedback inhibition
181. In addition to essential amino acids, children require
two more amino acids (in their diet) namely
(1) Arginine and leucine
(2) Histidine and valine
(3) Arginine and phenylalanine
(4) Arginine and histidine.
182. A complex formed by deoxyribose sugar, phosphate
and nitrogenous base is
(1) Amino acid
(2) Polypeptide
(3) Nucleoside
(4) Nucleotide
161.Which of the following represents the third class
of enzymatic classification ?
(1) Hydrolases
(2) Oxidoreductases
(3) Demolases
(4) Ligases
162.In mitochondria the term Cristae is used for
(1) Par ticles pr esent on the s ur face of
mitochondria
(2) Par ticles pr esent on the folds of inner
membrane of mitochondria
(3) Folds of the inner membrane of mitochondria
(4) Fluid present in the lumen of mitochondria
163.Which of the following is described as “Energy
currency of the cell” ?
(1) DNA
(2) RNA
(3) ATP
(4) Vitamins
164.Meiosis involves
(1) Two nuclear division
(2) One nuclear and one cytoplasm division
(3) Division of cytoplasm only
(4) None of the above
165. Cyclin is associated with which one of the following
(1) Glycolysis
(2) Cyclosis
(3) Haemolysis
(4) Mitosis
166.During cell division nuclear membrane reappears
in
(1) Interphase
(2) S-phase
(3) Metaphse
(4) Telophase
167.Which of the following cells, a r e without
endoplasmic reticulum ?
(1) Amphibian monocytes
(2) Matured erythrocytes of mammals
(3) Matured leucocytes of mammals
(4) Mammalian monocytes
168.The main difference between prokaryotic and
eukaryotic cells is that in the prokaryotic cell, there
is no
(1) Ribosomes
(2) Cell wall
(3) Genetic system
(4) Nucleus with a nuclear membrane
169.RNA controls the synthesis of
(1) Amino acid
(2) Enzyme
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Nucleotide
170.Chromosome number is reduced to half during
(1) Metaphase - I (2) Anaphase - I
(3) Prophase - II
(4) Telophase - II
Rough Work
[14]
183. Which of the following is not made up of
monosaccharide units?
(1) Cellulose
(2) Haemoglobin
(3) Starch
(4) Glycogen
184. Membrane bound Krebs cycle enzyme is
(1) Fumarase
(2) Cis-aconitase
(3) Succinic dehydrogenase
(4) Malate dehydrogenase
185. Which of the following organelle/s is/are
polymorphic?
(1) Lysosomes
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Plastids
(4) All of the above
186. Select the correct statement
I. rRNA of large subunit are 23S and 5S in 70S
ribosomes
II. One of the rRNA of larger subunit is 28S in
80S ribosomes
III. Leucocyte granules are derived from lysosomes
IV. Storage diseases like hepatitis, polynephritis, lung
fibrosis are concerned with lysosomal activity
(1) I and IV correct
(2) II and III correct
(3) I, II and III correct
(4) All are correct
187. Select the character which satisfies similarity
between chloroplast and mitochondria.
(1) Both have 55-70S ribosomes, take part in energy
transduction and the membranes are selectively
permeable
(2) Both have only 55S ribosomes, involved in
glycosylotion and only outer membrane is
selectively permeable
(3) Both have only 70S ribosomes, involved in storage
and supply of energy and only inner membrane
is selectively permeable
(4) Both have 55S, 70S and 80S ribosomes, take
part in the synthesis of fatty acids and amino
acids and their both membranes are impermeable
to ions and minerals
188. What is the term used for chromosome having
centromere in the centre ?
(1) Submetacentric chromosome
(2) Metacentric chromosome
(3) Acrocentric chromosome
(4) Telocentric chromosome
189. What sort of change will occur when erythrocytes
are placed in 0.89% NaCl solution?
(1) Crenation
(2) Brusting
(3) Slight swelling
(4) No change
190. Nucleolus consists of
(1) DNA and RNA
(2) DNA, RNA and proteins
(3) RNA and proteins
(4) None of the above
191. Which of the following has four double bonds?
(1) Linoleic acid
(2) Linolenic acid
(3) Arachidonic acid (4) All of the above
192. Which of the following sets of fatty acids are solid at
room temperature?
(1) Stearic acid and linoleic acid
(2) Stearic acid and palmitic acid
(3) Palmitic acid and linolenic acid
(4) Palmitic acid and arachidonic acid
193. Glucoronic acid and acetyl glucosamine condense to
form
(1) Heparin
(2) Hyaluronic acid
(3) Keratin sulphate (4) Chondroitin sulphate
194. In which of the following types of inhibition, Km
remains unchanged but Vmax is decreased ?
(1) Competitive inhibition
(2) Non-competitive inhibition
(3) Feed back inhibition
(4) Allosteric inhibition
195. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(1) Meiosis–I occurs in secondary spermatocyte
(2) Meiosis–I occurs in primary spermatocyte
(3) Meiosis–II occurs in spermatids
(4) Meiosis–I occurs in spermatids
196. Human insulin consists of
(1) Two chains with 22 and 31 amino acids
(2) Two chains with 21 and 30 amino acids
(3) Single chain with 29 amino acids
(4) Single chain with 30 amino acids
197. Q10 of enzymes is the temperature at which
(1) Rate of reaction increases 2–3 times for every
10ºC increment
(2) Rate of reaction decreases 10 times for every
3ºC increment
(3) Rate of reaction decreases 2–3 times for every
10ºC increment
(4) Rate of reaction increases 10 times for every
3ºC increment
Rough Work
[15]
198. Select the correct statement/s
A. Many vitamins act as the coenzymes of oxidative
enzymes
B. Km is the measurement of affinity of the enzyme
for its substrate
C. Some antibodies acting as enzymes are called
as abzyme
(1) All are correct
(2) (B) and (C) correct
(3) (A) and (C) correct (4) (A) and (B) correct
199. Select the correct statements
(1) In amylopectin two molecules of glucose are
jointed by -1,6-glycosidic bond at branching
point
(2) Starch gives purple colour with iodine while
amylose gives blue colour with iodine due to
amylase
(3) Tryptophan is a semi-essential amino acid for
human
(4) Phospholipid of bio-membrane have a
hydrophobic polar group and hydrophilic nonpolar group
200. The number of chromatids in a chromosome at
metaphse is
(1) 2 each in mitosis and meiosis
(2) 2 in mitosis and 1 in meiosis
(3) 2 in mitosis and 4 in meiosis
(4) 1 in mitosis and 2 in meiosis
*****
Rough Work
[16]
ANSWERS FOR CLASS XI - MODULE TEST (MEDICAL 2011)
(04/12/2011)
S
-1
TESTET
CODE - 1
Physics
1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
(2)
(1)
(1)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(2)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
(3)
(4)
(4)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(2)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
(4)
(4)
(4)
(3)
(1)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(2)
(3)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
(4)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(2)
(2)
(2)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
(1)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(1)
(3)
(4)
(4)
(1)
(2)
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
94.
99.
(4)
(2)
(2)
(1)
(4)
(4)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(4)
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
95.
100.
(3)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(4)
104.
109.
114.
119.
124.
129.
134.
139.
144.
149.
(1)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(4)
(1)
105.
110.
115.
120.
125.
130.
135.
140.
145.
150.
(3)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(1)
(4)
(3)
(4)
154
159
164
169
174
179
184
189
194
199
(2)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(1)
155
160
165
170
175
180
185
190
195
200
(4)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(1)
Chemistry
51.
56.
61.
66.
71.
76.
81.
86.
91.
96.
(3)
(2)
(3)
(1)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(4)
(3)
(2)
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
92.
97.
(3)
(4)
(4)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
93.
98.
(4)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(1)
(2)
Botany
101.
106.
111.
116.
121.
126.
131.
136.
141.
146.
(2)
(2)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(3)
102.
107.
112.
117.
122.
127.
132.
137.
142.
147.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(2)
103.
108.
113.
118.
123.
128.
133.
138.
143.
148.
(2)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(1)
Zoology
151
156
161
166
171
176
181
186
191
196
(1)
(3)
(1)
(4)
(4)
(2)
(4)
(4)
(3)
(2)
152
157
162
167
172
177
182
187
192
197
(3)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(1)
(4)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(1)
153
158
163
168
173
178
183
188
193
198
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(2)
(1)
SOLUTIONS FOR CLASS XI - MODULE TEST (MEDICAL 2011)
(03/12/2011)
S
-1
TESTET
CODE - 1
1.
2.
(2)
(3)
Centre of mass of semicercular ring is
ycm
m y  m2 y2
 1 1

m1  m2
M.
2H  M  
H
    . H  
4  8 
4  11

H
M
28
M
8
 2a  a  a  2a  a 
3.
(4)
xcm 
3a a  3a

4
4
5 a
(4)
acm 
10  5
2
5.
(1)
Qcm 
Fnet
42  42 4 2


m1  m2
5  10
15
6.
(1)
Ucm will remain unchanged.
4.
U cm 
7.
2  3  4 1 1
 m/s.
24
3
U cm 
(4)
m  2u  2mu
0
m  2m
Scm  U cm 
=
1 2
gt
2
1
0  10  22
2
20 m
=
=
8.
(4)

By C.O.M. 2  12iˆ  2  3 ˆj  3V 3
9.
(3)
 Fdt  mv  mu
10. (1)
2R


1
 2  10  2V  0
3
l1 
m2
l2
m1  m2
11. (1)
60
 24
60  120
When their speeds are equal by C.O.M. mV0 = (m + 2m)V
12. (4)
acm 
13. (4)
Com. mu = 2mV  V = u/2
14. (3)
u/2 1

u
2
Torque of F around the point of contact is clockwise
=
m1 g  m2 g
m1  m2
 e
15. (2)
20 – T2 = 2a
T1 – 10 = 1 × a
(T2 – T1) 0.2 =
16. (3)
1  0.2 2 a
2 0.2
2
I  mR 2
5
=
2 4
   R5
5 3
17. (3)
 I  R5
Moment of inertia of thin spherical shell is more than of a sphare
18. (3)
Friction = 0 if h 
19. (3)
I cm
mR
Moment of interia of hollow cylinder of some mass and radius is more than opf solid cylinder.
20. (3)
Moment of intertia of square plate about one of its diagonals is
21. (2)
1 ml 2 2
l
w  mg 1  cos 60 
2 3
2
22. (4)
I
23. (1)
l
ml 2
mg sin 30 

2
3
24. (3)
w
25. (1)
h
a
Condition for toppling clockwise torque > anticlockwise torque mg sin  .  mg cos 
2
2
26. (3)
Mass is 4 times while side is twice I 
27. (2)
28. (3)
29. (2)
30. (3)
mR 2  m / 4  R / 2 

4
4
V0  0
2R
ma 2
3
Acceleration is same as that of a block which is sliding down a = gsin – gcos
Work done by static friction is zero. It increase RKE but decreases TKE
Velocity of seperation = velocity of approach  velociyt of mid-point of rod = V0 after collision.
5 
Ixx´ Icm  m  R 
8 
2
2
2
 3R 
5 
2
= mR  m 
  m R 
5
 8 
8 
31. (3)
32. (3)
33. (4)
34. (2)
35. (4)
36. (2)
MQ 2
12
2
Icm mR 2 R


mR 2mR 2
P1 = P2
 m2u – 2mu = P2
h
mg
l
4l
N
2
5
h
a
 mg is condition for just toppling
2
2
It will stop if mV0R = Icm w0
m1g = 2m2u × m
mg
37. (2)
In smooth inclined plane, only TKE is converted to mgh while in rough TKE + RKE is converted to mgh
39. (2)
40. (4)
l 2ml 2

w
2
12
Centre of mass of the composite body should be above the flat surface of the hemisphere to be unstable.
If e = 1, it will rebound
if e < 1, it may continue
in the same direction or it may come to rest
41. (2)
l
l
m0  m  m
2
2
xcm 
2m
42. (3)
w2  w02  2( )
38. (3)
43. (2)
mu
 0  w02  2  2n
u1 = 10 m/s
com, 10 + 0 = V1 + 2V2
Vel, approach 10 = V2 – V1
 V2 
44. (2)
45. (1)
46. (2)
47. (2)
48. (3)
49. (2)
10
m/ s
3
1
1
1
100  (0.22  0.12 )   1 V12   1  V22 and V1 = V2
2
2
2
Com 2 × 4 = (2 +3)V
w will nto change as well as linear velocity v will hot change and V = Rw, will still hold good.
They should be in geometric series for maximum energy transfer.
3
V 
mgh  mR 2  
2
R



V BG  V BC  V CG
2
 Rw ( ˆj )  Viˆ
  Vjˆ  Viˆ
50. (2)
Normal force on block A from the ground is impulsive in nature. Therefore friction froce is impulsive and
the speed will immediately decrease.
51. (3)
d
52. (3)
r.m.s. =
53. (4)
PV
PV
1 1
 2 2 (P1 = 1atm, V1 = 376.3 cc, T1 = 273 K, P2 = ?, V2 = 428 cc, T2 = 298 K)
T1
T2
1
V .D.
3RT
M
54. (4)
P2 = 730 mm
Pressure of water vapour = 754 – 730 = 24 mm
Apply PV = nRT
55. (3)
n1  
56. (2)
w/ 4
 1.1
w / 4  w / 40
V  n (T & P are constant)
57. (4)
d
w
w
, n2  
4
40
p1 
1
V .D
58. (4)
59. (2)
No. of collisions of one moleucle/unit time = X
No. of collisions of one moleucle/unit time = NX
Collision frequency = NX/2
Because in one collision, two molecules are involved.
CO2 present = .02 × 22.4
60. (1)
r.m.s. =
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
(3)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(1)
67. (3)
68. (2)
69. (1)
70. (3)
71. (1)
72. (3)
73. (1)
74. (4)
75. (2)
V12  V22  V32  V42
4
Mol. wt = VD × 2
System in closed, No. of moles will remain same.
Partial pressure of O2 = .21 × 750
K.E. =
3
nRT
2
1
H   x  (  y )
2
G = H – TS (for spontaneous G = –ve)
Hf is enthalpy of formation (when one mole of the compound is formed from its element present at the
standard states, the heat change is Hf)
E = q + w
q = 0 (Insulated system)
So E = w
Apply stoichiometry
Heat evolved in Ist case = 40 × 5 = 200 cal
Heat evolved in IInd case = 10 times i.e. 2000 cal
Finally 2000 = 400 × t
50 ml of 1 M KOH + 50 ml of .5M H2SO4 (Complete neutralisation)
CuSO4(an hyd.) + aq  CuSO4(aq) H = –15.89 kcal
CuSO4.5H2O(s) + aq  CuSO4(aq) H = 2.80 kcal
CuSO4(s) + 5H2O (l)  CuSO4.5H2O(s) H = ?
76. (1)
77. (3)
78. (3)
79. (4)
80.
81.
82.
83.
(3)
(2)
(1)
(3)
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
(3)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(2)
(4)
90. (3)
91. (3)
20
 63.5
.175
Resonace energy = Experimental value – Calculated value
= 5535 – 5384.1
Heat evolved from 1g of NH4NO3 = 1.23 × 6.23 KJ
Heat evolved from 1 mole = 602 KJ
H = E + ngRT
For 1 mole of Cu, heat evolued =
Solid  gas
H = +ve & S = +ve
Forward reaction is exothermic. Product will be more stable as compare to reactant.
Kc is not given. At equilibrium the amount of reactants & products can not be calculated.
Kc depends upon only temperature
M2O4  2NO2
t=0
1
0
t=t
2
1 
Total = 1 –  + 2
Let we take 1 mole each of P4 and Cl2 initially
P4(g) + 6Cl2(g)  4PCl3(g)
t=0
1
1
0
t= t
1– x
1–6x 4x
So P4 > Cl2 at equilibrium
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
(3)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(4)
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
(2)
(4)
(4)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(1)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(4)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(3)
Lower Kc, more stable the reactant.
Le-Chatlier Principle
At equilibrium G = 0 (G1 = G2)
but actual value of G in case of ice & water is not zero
Valume is constant. There will be no disturbance in equilibrium on addition of He.
In bundle sheath the chloroplasts are without grana.
Photorespiration takes place in C3 plants.
Oxygen is evolved in light reaction.
Water breaks to produce hydrogen ions.
Information based
In this process carbondioxide is a raw material.
Water is broken in presence of light.
Oxygen is not evolved in bacterial photosynthesis.
Information based
Carbondioxide is not present.
C4 plants are tropical plants.
Due to dehydrated condition.
Anaerobic respiration starts.
Glycolysis takes place in cytosol.
Information based
Information based
Information based
Information based
Q10 is two for a chemical reaction.
Takes place in C3 plants.
Information based
Carbondioxide is evolved and oxidation takes place.
Information based
It is dehydrogenation reaction.
Information based
Information based
Cytochromes function as electron carriers.
Cytochromes are the electron cariers
Hexose monophosphate shunt is the alternative pathway for glucose breakdown
Information based
Information based
NADP is hydrogen acceptro is HMP in place of NAD
Infomation based
Information based
Information based
Reaction centre of PSII is P680
CMU and DCMU inhibit electron transport
Information based
It is a feature of C4j plants
Dimorphic chloroplasts are found in C4 plants
Information based
At hight level of O2 Rubisco functions as oxygenase
Information based
144. (4)
145. (3)
146. (3)
147. (2)
148. (1)
149. (1)
150. (4)
151.(1)
152.(3)
153.(2)
154.(2)
155.(4)
156.(3)
157.(2)
158.(3)
159.(1)
160.(2)
161.(1)
162.(3)
163.(3)
164.(1)
165.(4)
166.(4)
167.(2)
168.(4)
169.(2)
170.(2)
171.(4)
172.(1)
173.(1)
174.(1)
175.(1)
176.(2)
177.(4)
178.(1)
179.(3)
180.(2)
181.(4)
182.(4)
183.(2)
184.(3)
185.(1)
186.(4)
187.(1)
188.(2)
189.(3)
190.(2)
191.(3)
CO2 concentration in atmosphere is mostly a limiting factor
Chlorobium and Chromatium are photosynthetic sulphur bacteria
Chlorobium chlorophyll absorbs higher wave lengths of light than chlorophyll
In chemosynthesis the energy is obtaned by oxidation of substances
Chlorophyll-b is present in the members of chlorophyceae
Information based
Potassium hydroxide solution absorbs CO2
Factual
In gonads during gametogenesis both mitosis and meiosis takes place whereas in somatic cells only
mitosis occurs.
Factual
Factual
It is formed during cell division which include centriole, astral rays and spindle fibres.
Chiasmata are the knot like structures formed during pachytene.
Microvilli present over cell surface forms brush bordered surface which increases surface area for
absorption.
Two chromatids over a chromosome is a condition called dyad.
Diplotene of prophase-I may last for years.
Lipids have a molecular weight of 800 daltons but is formed of many monomers hence is a
macromolecule.
Factual
Factual
Factual
Meiosis involves two nuclear division for the conversion of tetrad to monad.
Cyclius are the proteins which regulates cell cycle
During cell division nuclear membrane reappears in telophase from endoplasmic reticulum.
Factual
Prokaryotic cells have nucleoid/Geniphore but no definite nucleus.
RNA controls the synthesis of proteins and enzymes are proteins.
Chromosome number is reduced to half during anaphase-I of meiosis-I.
Factual
Plant cells are autotrophic whereas animal cells are heterotrophic.
Leptotene is the first stage of the prophase-I of meiosis-I hence much of the changes in chromatin
had not occurred.
Factual
Mitotic divisions are homotypic divisions resulting in the formation of similar type of cells.
Repulsion is due to the dissolution of synaptonemal complex.
Factual
Factual
Carbonic anhydrase have a turnover number of 36 × 106 per second and enhances rate of reaction by 10
million times
Advance knowledge – Factual
Advance knowledge – Factual
Nucleoside is formed of nitrogenous base and deoxyribo sugar. When phosphate attaches to nucleoside
the structure formed is nucleotide.
Haemoglobin is a protein.
Succinic dehydrogenase is present in inner mitochondrial membrane.
Factual
Factual
Factual
Factual
0.89% NaCl solution is slightly hypotonic to the blood hence when RBC will be placed they will show slight
swelling.
Factual
Linoleic acid have two double bonds, linolenic acid has three double bonds and arachidonic acid has four
double bonds.
192.(2)
193.(2)
194.(2)
195.(2)
196.(2)
197.(1)
198.(1)
199.(1)
200.(1)
Unsaturated fatty acids are solid at room temperature.
Factual
In comptative inhibition Vmax remains same whereas Km increases.
Meiosis–I occurs in primary spermatocyte whereas meiosis–II occurs in secondary spermatocyte.
Factual
Q10 refers to temperature coefficient and states that rate of reaction doubles with increase in temperature
by 10°C
Factual
Factual
A single chromosome will have two chromatids after s-phase, during G2 phase, prophase and metaphase of
mitosis and during meiosis-I, Prophase-II and metaphase-II