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AP® Biology Practice Exam: Big Idea 1-Evolution
6) All of the following statements are inferences of natural selection except
A) often only a fraction of offspring survive because there is a struggle for limited
resources.
B) subsequent generations of a population should have greater proportions of
individuals that possess favorable traits.
C) an individual organism undergoes evolution over the course of its lifetime.
D) unequal reproductive success among its members leads a population to adapt
over time.
E) individuals whose inherited characteristics best fit them to the environment
should leave more offspring.
7) It should be impossible to observe natural selection occurring in a(n)
A) individual organism.
B) clone of (genetically identical) organisms.
C) species.
D) population.
E) Both A and B are correct answers.
8) Over evolutionary time, many cave-dwelling organisms have lost their eyes.
Tapeworms have lost their digestive systems. Whales have lost their hind limbs.
How can natural selection account for these losses?
A) by the principle of use and disuse
B) These organisms had the misfortune to experience harmful mutations, which
caused the loss of these structures.
C) Natural selection cannot account for losses, only for innovations.
D) Under particular circumstances that persisted for long periods, each of these
structures presented greater costs than benefits.
E) Both B and D are correct.
9) Which of the following pieces of evidence most strongly supports the common
origin of all life on Earth? All organisms
A) reproduce.
B) show heritable variation.
C) use essentially the same genetic code.
D) require energy.
E) have undergone evolution.
10) What would be the best technique for determining the evolutionary relationships
among several closely related species, each of which still contains living members?
A) comparative anatomy
B) examining the fossil record
C) DNA or RNA analysis
D) comparison of homologous structures
E) comparative embryology
11) Which of the following is the unit of evolution? In other words, which of the
following can evolve in the Darwinian sense?
A) chromosome
B) individual
C) gene
D) population
E) species
Use the following information to answer the questions below. A large population of laboratory animals has
been allowed to breed randomly for a number of generations. After several generations, 49 percent of the
animals display a recessive trait (aa), the same percentage as at the beginning of the breeding program. The
rest of the animals show the dominant phenotype, with heterozygotes indistinguishable from the
homozygous dominants.
12) What is the estimated frequency of allele a in the gene pool?
A) 0.30
B) 0.70
C) 0.51
D) 0.49
E) 0.07
13) What proportion of the population is probably heterozygous (Aa) for this trait?
A) 0.07
B) 0.42
C) 0.21
D) 0.09
E) 0.51
14) All of the following are criteria for maintaining a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
involving two alleles except
A) gene flow from other populations must be zero.
B) matings must be random.
C) populations must be large.
D) there should be no natural selection.
E) the frequency of all genotypes must be equal.
15) In a population with two alleles, A and a, the frequency of a is 0.6. What would be
the frequency of heterozygotes if the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A) 0.40
B) 0.64
C) 0.36
D) 0.16
E) 0.48
16) Most copies of harmful recessive alleles in a population are carried by individuals
that are
A) heterozygous for the allele.
B) afflicted with the disorder caused by the allele.
C) haploid.
D) polymorphic.
E) homozygous for the allele.
17) You sample a population of butterflies and find that 42% are heterozygous for a
particular gene. What would be the frequency of the recessive allele in this
population?
A) 0.30
B) 0.09
C) 0.70
D) 0.49
E) Allele frequency cannot be estimated from this information.
18) In peas, a gene controls flower color such that R = red and r = white. In an isolated
pea patch, there were 36 red flowers and 64 white flowers. Assuming HardyWeinberg equilibrium, what is the value of q for this population?
A) 0.60
B) 0.64
C) 0.80
D) 0.75
E) 0.36
19) Natural selection is most closely related to
A) diploidy.
B) assortative mating.
C) genetic drift.
D) gene flow.
E) differential reproductive success.
20) Gene flow is a concept best used to describe an exchange between
A) males and females.
B) chromosomes.
C) individuals.
D) populations.
E) species.
21) The decrease in the size of plants on the slopes of mountains as altitudes increase is
an example of
A) a cline.
B) relative fitness.
C) speciation.
D) a bottleneck.
E) genetic drift.
22) The Darwinian fitness of an individual is measured by
A) its physical strength.
B) the number of its offspring that survive to reproduce.
C) how long it lives.
D) the number of supergenes in the genotype.
E) the number of mates it attracts.
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers
the question.
Choose among the following options to answer the following questions. Each option may be used once, more
than once, or not at all.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
random selection
directional selection
stabilizing selection
diversifying selection
sexual selection
23) An African butterfly species exists in two strikingly different color patterns.
24) Brightly colored peacocks mate more frequently than do drab peacocks.
25) Most Swiss starlings produce 4 to 5 eggs in each clutch.
26) Fossil evidence indicates that horses have gradually increased in size over geological
time.
27) The average birth weight for human babies is about 7 pounds.
28) A certain species of land snail exists as either a cream color or a solid brown color.
Intermediate individuals are relatively rare.
29) Pathogenic bacteria found in many hospitals are antibiotic resistant.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers
the question.
30) Cattle breeders have improved the quality of meat over the years by which process?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
directional selection
artificial selection
stabilizing selection
Only A and B are correct.
Only A and C are correct.
In a very large population, a quantitative trait has the following distribution pattern:
Figure 23.1
31) What is true of the trait whose frequency distribution in a large population appears
above? It is undergoing
A) stabilizing selection.
B) diversifying selection.
C) directional selection.
D) sexual selection.
E) It is not possible to say, solely from the information above.
32) Some species of Anopheles mosquito live in brackish water, some in running fresh
water, and others in stagnant water. What type of reproductive barrier is most
obviously separating these different species?
A) temporal isolation
B) gametic isolation
C) habitat isolation
D) postzygotic isolation
E) behavioral isolation
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers
the question.
Use the following options to answer the following questions. For each description of reproductive isolation,
select the option that best describes it. Options may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
gametic
temporal
behavioral
habitat
mechanical
33) two species of orchids with different floral anatomy
34) two species of trout that breed in different seasons
35) two species of meadowlarks with different mating songs
36) Two species of garter snakes live in the same region, but one lives in water and the
other lives on land.
37) Two species of pine shed their pollen at different times.
38) Mating fruit flies recognize the appearance, odor, tapping motions, and sounds of
members of their own species, but not of other species.
39) The scarlet oak is adapted to moist bottomland, whereas the black oak is adapted to
dry upland soils.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers
the question.
40) The reproductive barrier that maintains the species boundary between horses and
donkeys is
A) mechanical isolation.
B) hybrid breakdown.
C) hybrid inviability.
D) hybrid sterility.
E) gametic isolation.
41) A defining characteristic of allopatric speciation is
A) asexually reproducing populations.
B) geographic isolation.
C) artificial selection.
D) the appearance of new species in the midst of old ones.
E) large populations.
43) Autopolyploidy is a speciation process that begins with an event during
A) meiosis.
B) hybridization.
C) copulation.
D) habitat selection.
E) embryonic development.
44) If humans and pandas belong to the same class, then they must also belong to the
same
A) phylum.
B) family.
C) order.
D) species.
E) genus.
45) A major evolutionary episode that corresponded in time most closely with the
formation of Pangaea was the
A) Pleistocene ice ages.
B) Cambrian explosion.
C) Cretaceous extinctions.
D) origin of humans.
E) Permian extinctions.
Use Figure 25.1 to answer the following questions.
Figure 25.1
46) A common ancestor for species C and E could be at position number
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 4.
E) 5.
47) Which species is extinct?
A) B
B) D
E) C
C) E
D) A
48) The ostrich and the emu look very similar and live in similar habitats, although they
are not very closely related. This is an example of
A) divergent evolution.
B) convergent evolution.
C) adaptive radiation.
D) sympatric speciation.
E) exaptation.
The following questions refer to the information below.
A researcher compared the nucleotide sequences of a homologous gene from five different species of
mammals. The sequence homology between each species' version of the gene and the human gene are
presented as a percentage of similarity.
49) What probably explains the inclusion of rabbits in this research?
A) They are the closest known relatives of rhesus monkeys.
B) They are the most recent common ancestor of the Primates.
C) They possess all of the shared derived characters as do the other species listed.
D) They are being used as the outgroup.
E) Their short generation time provides a ready source of DNA.
50) What conclusion can be validly drawn from these data?
A) All organisms have similar DNA.
B) Humans and other primates evolved from rabbits.
C) Among the organisms listed, humans shared a common ancestor most recently
with chimpanzees.
D) Humans evolved from chimpanzees.
E) Both A and D are correct.
51) Which of the following is likely to have been produced by sexual selection?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
bright colors of female flowers
camouflage coloration in animals
different sizes of male and female pine cones
the ability of desert animals to concentrate their urine
a male lion's mane
53) Given a population that contains genetic variation, what is the correct sequence of
the following events, under the influence of natural selection?
1.
Well-adapted individuals leave more offspring than do poorly adapted
individuals.
2.
A change occurs in the environment.
3.
Genetic frequencies within the population change.
4.
Poorly adapted individuals have decreased survivorship.
A) 4 → 2 → 3 → 1
B) 2 → 4 → 1 → 3
C) 2 → 4 → 3 → 1
D) 4 → 2 → 1 → 3
E) 4 → 1 → 2 → 3
54) Which of the following pieces of evidence most strongly supports the common
origin of all life on Earth?
A) All organisms use essentially the same genetic code.
B) All organisms show heritable variation.
C) All organisms require energy.
D) All organisms have undergone evolution.
E) All organisms reproduce.
Use the following information to answer the questions below.
HIV's genome of RNA includes code for reverse transcriptase (RT), an enzyme that acts early in
infection to synthesize a DNA genome off of an RNA template. The HIV genome also codes for
protease (PR), an enzyme that acts later in infection by cutting long viral polyproteins into
smaller, functional proteins. Both RT and PR represent potential targets for antiretroviral drugs.
Drugs called nucleoside analogs (NA) act against RT, whereas drugs called protease inhibitors
(PI) act against PR.
55) Which of these represents the treatment option that is most likely to avoid the
production of drug-resistant HIV (assuming no drug interactions or side effects)?
A) using a series of NAs, one at a time, and changed about once a week
B) using moderate doses of NA and of two different PI's at the same time for
several months
C) using a single PI, but slowly increasing the dosage over the course of a week
D) using high doses of NA and a PI at the same time for a period not to exceed 1
day
56) Within the body of an HIV-infected individual who is being treated with a single
NA, and whose HIV particles are currently vulnerable to this NA, which of these
situations can increase the virus' relative fitness?
1. mutations resulting in RTs with decreased rates of nucleotide mismatch
2. mutations resulting in RTs with increased rates of nucleotide mismatch
3. mutations resulting in RTs that have proofreading capability
A) 2 and 3
B) 1 only
C) 2 only
D) 3 only
E) 1 and 3