Download Biology Level 3 QUIZ: Evolution (Chapter 15 and 16) Multiple

Biology Level 3 QUIZ: Evolution (Chapter 15 and 16)
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. Which of the following are examples of fossils?
a. shells or old bones
b. any traces of dead organisms
c. footprints of human ancestors, insects trapped in tree sap, and animals buried in tar
d. All of the above
____
2. Animal fossils may form when
a. an animal is buried by sediment.
b. burial takes place on the ocean floor, in swamps, in mud, or in tar pits.
c. the tissue is replaced by harder minerals.
d. All of the above
____
3. Darwin conducted much of his research on
a. the Samoan Islands.
b. Manhattan Island.
c. the Hawaiian Islands.
d. the Galapagos Islands.
____
4. The finches that Darwin studied differed in the shape of their beaks. According to Darwin, the finches
probably
a. all had a common ancestor.
b. had been created by design that way.
c. were descended from similar birds in Africa.
d. ate the same diet.
____
5. Darwin thought that the plants and animals of the Galapagos Islands were similar to those of the nearby coast
of South America because
a. their ancestors had migrated from South America to the Galapagos Islands.
b. they had all been created by God to match their habitat.
c. the island organisms had the same nucleotide sequences in their DNA as the mainland
organisms.
d. he found fossils proving that the animals and plants had common ancestors.
____
6. The process by which a population becomes better suited to its environment is known as
a. accommodation.
c. adaptation.
b. variation.
d. selection.
____
7. Organisms well suited to their environment
a. reproduce more successfully than those less suited to the same environment.
b. are always larger than organisms less suited to that environment.
c. always live longer than organisms less suited to that environment.
d. need less food than organisms less suited to that environment.
____
8. Natural selection is the process by which
a. the age of selected fossils is calculated.
b. organisms with traits well suited to their environment survive and reproduce more
successfully than less well-adapted organisms in the same environment.
c. acquired traits are passed on from one generation to the next.
d. All of the above
____
9. Populations of the same species living in different places
a. do not vary.
b. always show balancing selection.
c. have a half-life in relation to the size of the population.
d. become increasingly different as each becomes adapted to its own environment.
____ 10. Since natural resources are limited, all organisms
a. must migrate to new habitats.
c. display vestigial structures.
b. must compete for resources.
d. have a species half-life.
____ 11. Refer to the illustration above. An analysis of DNA from these organisms would indicate that
a. they have identical DNA.
b. they all have gill pouches.
c. their nucleotide sequences show many similarities.
d. they all have the same number of chromosomes.
____ 12. Refer to the illustration above. The bones labeled “A” are known as
a. vestigial structures.
c. homologous structures.
b. sequential structures.
d. fossil structures.
____ 13. Which of the following is a vestigial structure?
a. the human tailbone
c. flower color
b. the bill of a finch
d. fossil cast
____ 14. Homologous structures in organisms suggest that the organisms
a. share a common ancestor.
c. have a skeletal structure.
b. must have lived at different times.
d. are now extinct.
____ 15. Structures that no longer serve an important function are called
a. inorganic.
c. fossilized.
b. mutated.
d. vestigial.
____ 16. The occurrence of the same blood protein in a group of species provides evidence that these species
a. evolved in the same habitat.
b. evolved in different habitats.
c. descended from a common ancestor.
d. descended from different ancestors.
____ 17. Evidence for evolution includes all of the following except
a.
b.
c.
d.
acquired characteristics.
similarities and differences in proteins and DNA sequences between organisms.
the fossil record.
homologous structures.
____ 18. The theory of evolution predicts that
a. closely related species will show similarities in nucleotide sequences.
b. if species have changed over time, their genes should have changed.
c. closely related species will show similarities in amino acid sequences.
d. All of the above
____ 19. Cytochrome c is a protein that is involved in cellular respiration in all eukaryotic organisms. Human
cytochrome c contains 104 amino acids. The following table compares cytochrome c from a number of other
organisms with human cytochrome c.
Organism
Chimpanzees
Chickens
Dogs
Rattlesnakes
Rhesus monkeys
Yeasts
Number of cytochrome c amino acids
different from humans
0
18
13
20
1
56
Which of the following is not a valid conclusion that can be drawn from these data?
a. Chimpanzees are more closely related to humans than rhesus monkeys are.
b. The cytochrome c of chimpanzees differs from that of rhesus monkeys by only one amino
acid.
c. Dogs are more closely related to humans than chickens are.
d. The proteins produced by chimpanzees and humans are identical to each other. Therefore
these organisms differ in characteristics that aren’t determined by proteins.
____ 20. The accumulation of differences between species or populations is called
a. gradualism.
c. divergent evolution.
b. adaptation.
d. cumulative differentiation.
____ 21. The process by which two or more species change in response to each other is called
a. compromise.
c. coevolution.
b. parasitism.
d. ecology.
A Comparison of Dolphins and Sharks
____ 22. Refer to the illustration above. While the shark and dolphin are similar in appearance, they evolved
independently. This is an example of
a. cladistics.
c. convergent evolution.
b. phenetics.
d. divergent evolution.
____ 23. Which of the following describes a population?
a. dogs and cats living in Austin, Texas
b. four species of fish living in a pond
c. dogwood trees in Middletown, Connecticut
d. roses and tulips in a garden
____ 24. Variation in genotype is caused by
a. mutations only.
b. recombination of genes as a result of sexual reproduction.
c. phenotypes changing more quickly than genotypes.
d. None of the above
____ 25. The number of individuals with a particular phenotype divided by the total number of individuals in the
population is the
a. genotype frequency.
c. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
b. phenotype frequency.
d. allele frequency.
____ 26. Which of the following conditions is required for Hardy-Weinberg genetic equilibrium?
a. No mutations occur.
b. The population is infinitely large.
c. Individuals neither leave nor enter the population.
d. All of the above are required.
____ 27. Natural selection acts
a. on heterozygous genotypes.
b. only on recessive alleles.
c. on phenotypes that are expressed.
d. on all mutations.
____ 28. The movement of alleles into or out of a population due to migration is called
a. mutation.
c. nonrandom mating.
b. gene flow.
d. natural selection.
____ 29. Which of the following conditions can cause evolution to take place?
a. genetic drift
c. nonrandom mating
b. migration
d. All of the above
____ 30. What type of population is most susceptible to loss of genetic variability as a result of genetic drift?
a. large populations
c. small populations
b. medium-sized populations
d. populations that fluctuate in size
____ 31. A change in the frequency of a particular gene in one direction in a population is called
a. directional selection.
c. chromosome drift.
b. acquired variation.
d. stabilizing selection.
____ 32. The type of selection that may eliminate intermediate phenotypes is
a. direction selection.
c. polygenic selection.
b. disruptive selection.
d. stabilizing selection.
____ 33. Directional selection tends to eliminate
a.
b.
c.
d.
both extremes in a range of phenotypes.
one extreme in a range of phenotypes.
intermediate phenotypes.
None of the above; it causes new phenotypes to form.
____ 34. The large, brightly colored tail feathers of the male peacock are valuable to him because
a. they warn off potential predators.
b. they warn off potential competitors for mates.
c. they attract potential mates.
d. they attract people who provide them with food.
____ 35. Speciation can occur as a result of geographic isolation because
a. members of a species can no longer find mates.
b. populations that live in different environments may be exposed to different selection
pressures.
c. the biological concept of species defines noninterbreeding individuals as members of
different species.
d. All of the above
____ 36. The hypothesis that evolution occurs at a slow, constant rate is known as
a. gradualism.
c. natural selection.
b. slow motion.
d. adaptation.
____ 37. The hypothesis that evolution occurs at an irregular rate through geologic time is known as
a. directional evolution.
c. punctuated equilibrium.
b. directional equilibrium.
d. punctuated evolution.
____ 38. Which of the following is a true difference between photosynthetic organisms and chemosynthetic organisms?
a. They differ in the source of energy they use to produce organic molecules.
b. They differ in the source of carbon they use to produce organic molecules.
c. Photosynthetic organisms are found on Earth today, while chemosynthetic organisms are
no longer found on Earth.
d. Photosynthetic organisms are eukaryotic, while chemosynthetic organisms are
prokaryotic.
____ 39. People of Charles Darwin’s time understood that fossils were
a. preserved remains of ancient organisms.
b. available for every organism that ever lived.
c. unrelated to living species.
d. evidence for the evolution of life on Earth.
____ 40. James Hutton’s and Charles Lyell’s work suggests that
a. Earth is several million years old.
b. Earth is several thousand years old.
c. all fossils were formed in the last 1000 years.
d. all rocks on Earth contain fossils.
____ 41. In the 1800s, Charles Lyell emphasized that
a. the human population will outgrow the available food supply.
b. all populations evolve through natural selection.
c. Earth is a few thousand years old.
d. past geological events must be explained in terms of processes observable today.
____ 42. The economist Thomas Malthus suggested that
a. in the human population, people die faster than babies are born.
b. without certain checks on population size, there would soon be insufficient food for the
growing human population.
c. in the 1700s, England needed more housing.
d. the majority of a species’ offspring die.
____ 43. Darwin realized that the economist Malthus’s theory of population control
a. applied only to humans.
b. could be generalized to any population of organisms.
c. could be generalized only when populations lived in crowded conditions.
d. explained why the number of deaths exceeded that of births.
____ 44. Charles Darwin called the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment
a. diversity.
b. fitness.
c. adaptation.
d. evolution.
____ 45. Which of the following phrases best describes the results of natural selection?
a. the natural variation found in all populations
b. unrelated species living in different locations
c. changes in the inherited characteristics of a population over time
d. the struggle for existence undergone by all living things
____ 46. The principle of common descent helps explain why
a. well-adapted species have many offspring.
b. conditions in an organism’s environment ensures the organism’s survival.
c. birds and reptiles share a number of inherited characteristics.
d. tigers are so different from cheetahs.
____ 47. Biogeography is the study of
a. where species and their ancestors live.
b. how extinct species can be related to living species.
c. how different species can interbreed.
d. how animals that live in the same area are closely related.
Figure 16–1
____ 48. In humans, the pelvis and femur, or thigh bone, are involved in walking. In whales, the pelvis and femur
shown in Figure 16–1 are
a. examples of fossils.
b. vestigial structures.
c. acquired traits.
d. examples of natural variation.
____ 49. Molecular evidence in support of natural selection includes
a. the nearly universal genetic code.
b. the presence of vestigial structures.
c. a tendency toward perfect, unchanging DNA in various species.
d. the transmission of acquired characteristics by DNA.
____ 50. Similar patterns of embryological development in different but related organisms are responsible for the
formation of
a. homologous structures.
b. analogous structures.
c. Hox genes.
d. intermediate fossil forms.