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Physical Geology Practice Final Exam – Spring 2011 Part A. The Practice Midterm Exam on the Learning Web. Part B. The following questions. Multiple Choice. 1. The study of the layers in sedimentary rock is known as _________. A) stratigraphy B) paleontology C) sedimentation D) geochronology 2. Which of the following is the best statement of the principle of original horizontality? A) Igneous intrusions form horizontal layers. B) Metamorphic isograds are horizontal before deformation. C) Sediments are deposited as horizontal layers. D) Most igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary rocks in the Earth's crust form horizontal layers. 3. An undeformed sedimentary layer is ______ than the layer above and ______ than the layer below. A) younger, younger B) older, younger C) younger, older D) older, older 4. A stratigraphic succession is a vertical set of strata ___________. A) bounded above and below by igneous and/or metamorphic rocks B) that is unique to a specific area C) that represents a repeating set of events, such as recurring floods and debris flows D) used as a chronological record of the geologic history of a region Page 1 5. The principle of superposition states that __________. A) a fault is younger than the rocks it cuts B) sediments are deposited as essentially horizontal layers C) the present is the key to the past D) undisturbed sedimentary layers get progressively younger from bottom to top 6. The study of ancient life forms preserved in the rock record is referred to as _________. A) stratigraphy B) paleontology C) geochronology D) zoology 7. Who proposed the theory of evolution? A) Leonardo da Vinci B) William Smith C) Charles Darwin D) Alfred Wegener 8. Fossils are most common in which rock types? A) igneous B) metamorphic C) sedimentary D) Fossils are equally common in sedimentary, igneous, and metamorphic rocks. 9. What is an unconformity? A) a gap in the geologic record B) a period of deposition C) a sedimentary layer of variable thickness D) a sequence of deformed rocks 10. A disconformity is ___________. A) an erosional surface between horizontal layers of sedimentary rocks B) an erosional surface between igneous and sedimentary rocks C) a rock unit that does not contain fossils D) a rock unit that is different from the units above or below it Page 2 11. Which of the following is an erosion surface that separates two sets of sedimentary layers with non-parallel bedding planes? A) angular unconformity B) cross-bed C) disconformity D) nonconformity Use the following to answer questions 12-16: Use the following to answer the question(s) below: Units A, B, C, D, E, and F are sedimentary rocks. Unit G is granite. 12. The horizontal line labeled X-X' is a(n) ______. A) angular unconformity B) contour C) cross-bed D) fault 13. Which of the following units is the youngest? A) unit A B) unit B C) unit C D) unit F Page 3 14. Which of the following units is the oldest? A) unit A B) unit B C) unit C D) unit F 15. Which of the following events happened most recently? A) deposition of unit C B) deposition of unit F C) deposition of unit D D) tilting of units C, D, E, and F 16. Which of the following statements is true? A) Deposition of unit A occurred before deposition of unit B. B) Erosion took place prior to deposition of unit B. C) Unit C is younger than unit A. D) The granite is older than unit F. Use the following to answer questions 17-19: Use the following to answer the question(s) below: Units A, B, C, D, and E are sedimentary rocks. The thick dark line is a fault. Page 4 17. When did faulting occur? A) between the deposition of A and B B) between the deposition of C and D C) between the deposition of B and C D) between the deposition of D and E 18. What is the relative timing between faulting and intrusion of the granite? A) Faulting occurred after the intrusion of the granite. B) Faulting occurred before the intrusion of the granite. C) Faulting and intrusion of the granite occurred at the same time. D) The relative timing between faulting and intrusion of the granite cannot be determined from the information provided. 19. Which of the following units is the oldest? A) unit A B) unit C C) unit E D) the granite 20. Which of the following is the smallest division of geologic time? A) eons B) epochs C) eras D) periods Page 5 Use the following to answer questions 21-23: Use the following to answer the question(s) below: 21. What is the best estimate for the age of point D? A) 65 million years B) 250 million years C) 145 million years D) 542 million years 22. When did fossils of complex organisms (such as shells) first become abundant in the geologic record? A) at point B B) at point C C) at point D D) at point E 23. When did dinosaurs rule the Earth? A) between A and B B) between C and D C) between B and C D) between D and E Page 6 24. Which of the following can change the rate of radioactive decay? A) changes in temperature B) chemical reactions C) changes in pressure D) none of the above 25. A rock formed with 1000 atoms of a radioactive parent element, but contains only 250 radioactive parent atoms today. If the half-life for the radioactive element is one million years, how old is the rock? A) 250,000 years old B) 750,000 years old C) 2 million years old D) 4 million years old 26. Which of the following radioactive isotopes has the shortest half-life? A) carbon-14 B) potassium-40 C) rubidium-87 D) uranium-238 27. Approximately how fast do plates spread apart? A) 1 to 10 millimeters per year B) 2 to 20 centimeters per year C) 5 to 25 meters per year D) 3 to 10 kilometers per year 28. The founder of the principle of the faunal succession is ____________. A) Sir James Hutton B) Alfred Wegener C) William Smith D) Nicolaus Steno 29. The largest mass extinction event in Earth history took place at the end of __________. A) the Cretaceous B) the Permian C) the Precambrian D) the Archean Page 7 30. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is ______________. A) half the time it takes all the radioactive atoms to decay B) the time it takes for half of the radioactive atoms to decay C) half of the radioactive atom's "full-life" D) the average life-span of a stable atom 31. Which scientist first suggested the concept of isotopic dating? A) Ernest Rutherford B) Henri Becquerel C) Marie Curie D) Clare Patterson 32. What volcano represents a major hazard to the cities of Seattle and Tacoma in Washington state? A) Mt. Ranier B) Mt. St. Helens C) Mt. Shasta D) Yellowstone 33. What is molten rock beneath the Earth's surface called? A) granite B) lava C) lithosphere D) magma 34. Which of the following statements about lava is true? A) The viscosity of a lava increases as the silica content decreases. B) High temperature lavas are less viscous than low-temperature lavas. C) The more gas a lava contains, the less violent the eruption. D) All of the statements above are true. 35. What is the name for a basaltic lava flow that has a ropy, folded surface? A) aa B) breccia C) pahoehoe D) tuff Page 8 36. What is the eruption temperature of basaltic lava? A) 400–600°C B) 600–800°C C) 800–1000°C D) 1000–1200°C 37. Which of the following volcanic flows moves the most rapidly? A) basaltic lava flows B) lahars C) pyroclastic flows D) rhyolitic lava flows 38. What type of volcanic flows likely formed the volcano depicted in the cross section below? A) B) C) D) andesite flows basalt flows rhyolite flows volcanic mudflows 39. What type of volcano consists of both lava flows and pyroclastic deposits? A) a cinder cone B) a shield volcano C) a stratovolcano D) a volcanic dome 40. Huge mudflows made up of wet volcanic debris are called ______. A) calderas B) diatremes C) lahars D) tuffs 41. Which of the following gases is the main constituent of volcanic gas? A) carbon dioxide B) nitrogen C) sulfur dioxide D) water vapor Page 9 42. Most of the world's active volcanoes are located around the edge of which ocean? A) the Arctic Ocean B) the Atlantic Ocean C) the Indian Ocean D) the Pacific Ocean 43. What types of lavas are erupted at mid-ocean ridges? A) andesites B) basalts C) rhyolites D) all of the above Use the following to answer questions 44-46: Use the following to answer the question(s) below: 44. What type of lava is most likely to erupt at tectonic setting B? A) andesite B) basalt C) rhyolite D) All of the above are equally likely. 45. Which of the following volcanic chains formed at a tectonic setting similar to C? A) the Aleutian Islands B) the Hawaiian Islands C) the Andes Mountains D) the Mariana Arc Page 10 46. Which of the following volcanic chains formed at a tectonic setting similar to A? A) the Aleutian Islands B) the Cascade Range C) the Andes Mountains D) the Hawaiian Islands 47. The Cascade volcanoes are associated with a __________. A) convergent plate margin B) transform plate margin C) divergent plate margin D) hot spot 48. Which of the following states has the most active volcanoes? A) Alaska B) Florida C) New York D) Texas 49. Magma generated in the Earth's interior rises because it is ______ than the surrounding rocks. A) denser B) lower in viscosity C) less dense D) more volatile 50. An extremely vesicular volcanic rock of rhyolite composition is called ________. A) obsidian B) pumice C) tuff D) phreatic 51. Basaltic lava that cools under water forms distinct _________ features. A) pillow lava B) pahoehoe C) vesicular D) aa Page 11 52. Find the correct match between magma type and volcano type A) felsic/dome B) mafic/dome C) intermediate/shield volcano D) felsic/cinder cone Use the following to answer questions 53-54: Use the following to answer the question(s) below: 53. Point A, where slip initiated during the earthquake, is called the __________. A) dip B) epicenter C) focus D) strike 54. Point B is called the earthquake __________. A) dip B) epicenter C) focus D) strike 55. Energy waves that are released during an earthquake are called __________. A) shock waves B) elastic waves C) stress waves D) seismic waves Page 12 Use the following to answer questions 56-58: Use the following to answer the question(s) below: 56. What causes the up-and-down wiggles on the seismogram? A) electromagnetic pulses B) tsunami waves C) ground vibrations D) variations in air pressure 57. Which set(s) of waves travels through the Earth's interior? A) set A B) set B C) sets A and B D) sets A, B, and C 58. Which set(s) of waves is/are most likely surface waves? A) set A B) set B C) set C D) Sets A, B, and C are all surface waves. 59. Which of the following types of seismic waves arrive at a seismograph first? A) P waves B) S waves C) surface waves D) All of these waves arrive at the same time. Page 13 60. Which of the following correctly lists the order in which seismic waves arrive at a seismograph station? A) P waves surface waves S waves B) P waves S waves surface waves C) S waves P waves surface waves D) surface waves P waves S waves 61. What type of seismic waves are S waves? A) compressional waves B) shear waves C) surface waves D) tsunamis 62. Who developed the procedure used to measure the size of an earthquake? A) Henri Darcy B) Charles Darwin C) James Hutton D) Charles Richter 63. How many seismograph stations are needed to locate the epicenter of an earthquake? A) one B) two C) three D) four Use the following to answer questions 64-65: Use the following to answer the question(s) below: Page 14 64. What type of earthquakes would most likely occur at point A? A) shallow-focus earthquakes caused by normal faulting B) shallow-focus earthquakes caused by strike-slip faulting C) shallow-focus earthquakes caused by thrust faulting D) deep-focus earthquakes caused by thrust faulting 65. What type of earthquakes would most likely occur at point B? A) shallow-focus earthquakes caused by normal faulting B) shallow-focus earthquakes caused by strike-slip faulting C) shallow-focus earthquakes caused by thrust faulting D) deep-focus earthquakes caused by thrust faulting 66. What type of fault is the San Andreas fault in California? A) a normal fault B) a left-lateral strike-slip fault C) a reverse fault D) a right-lateral strike-slip fault 67. Which of the following regions has the greatest seismic hazard? A) central United States B) northeastern United States C) southeastern United States D) western United States 68. Tsunamis can be generated by ______. A) undersea earthquakes B) the eruption of an oceanic volcano C) undersea landslides D) all of the above 69. What type of seismic wave causes the most building damage? A) P waves B) surface waves C) S waves D) They all cause building damage. Page 15 70. The modified Mercalli intensity scale measures ____________. A) the amount of destruction caused by an earthquake B) the amount of slip on a fault plane caused by an earthquake C) the amplitude of the surface waves D) all of the above 71. Shallow, intermediate, and deep focus earthquakes occur at ___________. A) divergent plate boundaries B) transform plate boundaries C) hot spots D) convergent plate boundaries 72. Whether a building will withstand ground shaking during an earthquake depends on ________. A) the engineering of the building B) the intensity of the groundshaking C) the material on which the building was built D) all of the above 73. A seismic observatory typically has instruments that measure ______ motion(s). A) up-down B) horizontal north-south C) horizontal east-west D) all of the above 74. Organic matter in the Earth's topsoil is called ___________. A) humus B) leaf litter C) pedalfer D) regolith 75. Which soil horizon consists primarily of slightly altered, weathered bedrock? A) the A-horizon B) the B-horizon C) the C-horizon D) none of the above Page 16 76. In a soil profile, organic matter is found __________. A) primarily in the A-horizon B) primarily in the B-horizon C) primarily in the C-horizon D) in the A-, B-, and C-horizons in approximately equal amounts 77. Which of the following statements is true? A) Fine sand forms steeper slopes than coarse sand. B) Angular pebbles form steeper slopes than coarse sand. C) Water-saturated sand forms steeper slopes than dry sand. D) Dry debris forms steeper slopes than damp debris. 78. The angle of repose does not depend on which of the following? A) particle composition B) particle shape C) particle size D) water content 79. The illustration below depicts a cross section through a pile of quartz sand. The angle depicted in the diagram is called the __________. ? A) B) C) D) angle of repose bedding angle cleavage angle dip 80. What is the angle of repose of dry, coarse sand? A) about 20° B) about 40° C) about 60° D) about 80° Page 17 81. The accumulation of rocks at the base of a cliff is called ______. A) a dune B) an alluvial fan C) soil creep D) talus 82. Which of the following rocks would be most affected by chemical weathering? A) granite B) shale C) basalt D) marble 83. One of the most effective mechanisms for physical weathering is __________. A) hydrolysis B) hydration C) frost wedging D) oxidation 84. After oceans, which of the following reservoirs contains the most water? A) the atmosphere B) the lakes and rivers C) the glaciers and polar ice caps D) the underground waters 85. Which of the following reservoirs contains the least water? A) the atmosphere B) the biosphere C) groundwater D) lakes and rivers 86. The process by which surface water becomes groundwater is called __________. A) discharge B) evaporation C) infiltration D) transpiration Page 18 87. What powers the hydrologic cycle? A) magnetism B) mantle convection C) radioactive decay D) solar energy 88. The release of water vapor from plants is called ______. A) evaporation B) infiltration C) precipitation D) transpiration 89. Which of the following terms is a measure of the amount of water vapor in the air as a proportion of the maximum amount the air could hold at the same temperature? A) dew point B) evaporation rate C) relative humidity D) sublimation point 90. The diagram below represents a cross section through a coastal mountain range. Which of the following statements is correct? A) B) C) D) Region A would receive the most precipitation. Region B would receive the most precipitation. Region C would receive the most precipitation. Regions A, B, and C would receive about the same amount of precipitation. 91. Which of the following rivers carries the most water? A) the Amazon River in South America B) the Congo River in Africa C) the Ganges River in Asia D) the Mississippi River in North America Page 19 92. Layers that transmit groundwater are called ______. A) aquicludes B) aquifers C) influent streams D) unsaturated zones 93. Which of the following unfractured rocks has the highest porosity? A) granite B) sandstone C) schist D) shale 94. Which of the following statements regarding porosity and permeability is true? A) High porosity rocks generally have high permeability. B) High porosity rocks generally have low permeability. C) Low porosity rocks generally have high permeability. D) Porosity and permeability have identical meanings. 95. Which of the following sandstones will have the highest porosity? A) a poorly sorted, cemented sandstone B) a poorly sorted, uncemented sandstone C) a well-sorted, cemented sandstone D) a well-sorted, uncemented sandstone 96. Permeability is the __________. A) ability of a solid to allow fluids to pass through B) amount of water vapor in the air relative to the maximum amount of water vapor the air can hold C) percentage of pore space in a rock D) process by which plants release water vapor to the atmosphere 97. In the unsaturated zone, pore spaces in the soil and rock contain ______. A) air B) water C) air and water D) neither air nor water Page 20 98. What is the difference between the saturated and unsaturated zones of groundwater? A) The saturated zone has a higher porosity than the unsaturated zone. B) The saturated zone has a lower porosity than the unsaturated zone. C) The pore spaces in the saturated zone are full of water; the pore spaces in the unsaturated zone are not full of water. D) The pore spaces in the saturated zone are not full of water; the pore spaces in the unsaturated zone are full of water. 99. Which of the following represents the boundary between the saturated zone and the unsaturated zone? A) aquifer B) aquiclude C) groundwater table D) porosity Use the following to answer questions 114-116: Use the following to answer the question(s) below: 100. Region A is the __________. A) discharge zone B) recharge zone C) saturated zone D) unsaturated zone Page 21 101. Region B is the __________. A) discharge zone B) recharge zone C) saturated zone D) unsaturated zone 102. The lowering of the water table near the well is called a(n) __________. A) aquiclude B) cone of depression C) influent zone D) sinkhole 103. What type of aquifer is bounded above and below by relatively impermeable beds? A) aquiclude B) confined C) saturated D) unconfined 104. Darcy's law states that the volume of water flowing through a cross-sectional area per time is equal to __________. A) porosity hydraulic conductivity B) porosity water table slope C) hydraulic conductivity water table slope D) porosity hydraulic conductivity water table slope 105. According to Darcy's law, which of the following aquifers will have the greatest rate of groundwater flow? A) an aquifer with high hydraulic conductivity and a high hydraulic gradient B) an aquifer with high hydraulic conductivity and a low hydraulic gradient C) an aquifer with low hydraulic conductivity and a high hydraulic gradient D) an aquifer with low hydraulic conductivity and a low hydraulic gradient 106. In what type of rock do most caves form? A) granite B) limestone C) sandstone D) shale Page 22 107. Karst topography forms in regions underlain by __________. A) basalt B) limestone C) sandstone D) shale 108. Stalagmites __________. A) form in sandstone fractures B) form in the pore spaces of a limestone C) grow up from the floor of a cave D) hang down from the ceiling of a cave 109. Sinkholes are a possible danger in regions underlain by what type of bedrock? A) granite B) limestone C) sandstone D) shale 110. Water that is suitable for drinking is also called ________ water. A) sanitary B) fresh C) potable D) meteoric 111. Crusts of calcium carbonate produced at hot springs are referred to as __________. A) travertine B) hydrothermal deposits C) karst D) all of the above 112. The recycling of water on Earth is known as the ________ cycle. A) water B) wet C) hydrous D) hydrologic Page 23 113. The transformation of solid ice directly into water vapor is called ____________. A) evaporation B) melting C) sublimation D) transpiration 114. The mathematical equation that describes the flow of water underground is known as _______ Law. A) Murhpy's B) Darcy's C) Henry's D) Newton's 115. Which of the following is a measure of a fluid's resistance to flow? A) capacity B) competence C) permeability D) viscosity 116. As the velocity of a stream current increases, __________________. A) more of the bed material is in motion B) progressively finer particles are suspended C) the suspended load decreases D) total capacity decreases 117. Which of the following particles is the most easily eroded from the bed of a stream? A) boulders B) cohesive clay C) pebbles D) sand 118. Which of the following materials is most likely to be transported as suspended load? A) boulders B) clay C) gravel D) sand Page 24 119. In a sand dune in a river, _________ occurs on the upstream side of the dune and ___________ occurs on the downstream side of the dune. A) deposition, deposition B) erosion, deposition C) deposition, erosion D) erosion, erosion 120. Which of the following terms describes a curved, coarse-grained deposit that forms on the inside curve of a stream? A) dune B) meander C) oxbow D) point bar 121. Curves and bends in a stream channel are called ______. A) alluvial fans B) braids C) deltas D) meanders 122. At a bend in a river, ______ occurs on the outside of the bend and ______ occurs on the inside of the bend. A) deposition, deposition B) erosion, deposition C) deposition, erosion D) erosion, erosion 123. In the map of a stream below, the arrow is pointing to a(n) ____________. A) B) C) D) natural levee oxbow lake point bar sand dune Page 25 124. Which of the following would be the most fertile area for crops? A) a stream channel B) a floodplain C) a natural levee D) an uplands area away from the stream 125. Which of the following depositional settings consists primarily of fine-grained silt and mud? A) stream channels B) floodplains C) natural levees D) point bars 126. Which of the following describes the shape of the longitudinal profile of a stream? A) a concave downward curve B) a horizontal line C) a concave upward curve D) a straight line sloping downstream 127. If a dam is built, sediment will __________ on the upstream side of the dam and sediment will ___________ on the downstream side of the dam. A) accumulate, accumulate B) erode, accumulate C) accumulate, erode D) erode, erode 128. Large, cone-shaped deposits of sediment at a mountain front are called ______. A) alluvial fans B) deltas C) natural levees D) terraces 129. In an alluvial fan, the coarsest material would be deposited __________. A) on the steep, upper slopes of the fan B) on the gentle, lower slopes of the fan C) approximately halfway between the steep slopes of the mountains and the gentle slopes of the plains D) where two fans interfere or overlap one another Page 26 130. What type of drainage pattern is depicted in the map below? A) B) C) D) dendritic radial rectangular trellis 131. What type of drainage network would you expect to find on a volcano? A) dendritic drainage B) rectangular drainage C) radial drainage D) trellis drainage 132. Where do deltas form? A) at drainage divides B) at mountain fronts C) at meander loops D) at river mouths 133. Why is the Mississippi delta so large? A) because the Mississippi River transports a huge amount of sediment B) because tides in the Gulf of Mexico are not very strong C) because waves in the Gulf of Mexico are not very strong D) all of the above Page 27 134. ________ is the process whereby sand grains jump along the streambed during transport. A) Superposition B) Hydrolosis C) Saltation D) Meandering 135. The topographic rise between two streams is called a _________. A) divide B) point bar C) trellis D) valley 136. What sort of sedimentary structure forms where rivers run into bodies of standing water? A) alluvial fan B) delta C) terrace D) floodplain 137. An imaginary line below which a stream cannot erode is called _________. A) ground level B) sea level C) lake level D) base level 138. Which of the following particles would have the lowest settling velocity? A) sand B) clay C) gravel D) cobbles 139. What is the discharge of a stream that is one meter deep, two meters wide, and has a water flow of 5 meters per second? A) 1 m/sec B) 5 m/sec C) 5 m3/sec D) 10 m3/sec Page 28