Download Physical Geology Practice Final Exam – Spring 2011 Part A. The

Physical Geology
Practice Final Exam – Spring 2011
Part A. The Practice Midterm Exam on the Learning Web.
Part B. The following questions.
Multiple Choice.
1. The study of the layers in sedimentary rock is known as _________.
A) stratigraphy
B) paleontology
C) sedimentation
D) geochronology
2. Which of the following is the best statement of the principle of original horizontality?
A) Igneous intrusions form horizontal layers.
B) Metamorphic isograds are horizontal before deformation.
C) Sediments are deposited as horizontal layers.
D) Most igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary rocks in the Earth's crust form
horizontal layers.
3. An undeformed sedimentary layer is ______ than the layer above and ______ than the
layer below.
A) younger, younger
B) older, younger
C) younger, older
D) older, older
4. A stratigraphic succession is a vertical set of strata ___________.
A) bounded above and below by igneous and/or metamorphic rocks
B) that is unique to a specific area
C) that represents a repeating set of events, such as recurring floods and debris flows
D) used as a chronological record of the geologic history of a region
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5. The principle of superposition states that __________.
A) a fault is younger than the rocks it cuts
B) sediments are deposited as essentially horizontal layers
C) the present is the key to the past
D) undisturbed sedimentary layers get progressively younger from bottom to top
6. The study of ancient life forms preserved in the rock record is referred to as _________.
A) stratigraphy
B) paleontology
C) geochronology
D) zoology
7. Who proposed the theory of evolution?
A) Leonardo da Vinci
B) William Smith
C) Charles Darwin
D) Alfred Wegener
8. Fossils are most common in which rock types?
A) igneous
B) metamorphic
C) sedimentary
D) Fossils are equally common in sedimentary, igneous, and metamorphic rocks.
9. What is an unconformity?
A) a gap in the geologic record
B) a period of deposition
C) a sedimentary layer of variable thickness
D) a sequence of deformed rocks
10. A disconformity is ___________.
A) an erosional surface between horizontal layers of sedimentary rocks
B) an erosional surface between igneous and sedimentary rocks
C) a rock unit that does not contain fossils
D) a rock unit that is different from the units above or below it
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11. Which of the following is an erosion surface that separates two sets of sedimentary
layers with non-parallel bedding planes?
A) angular unconformity
B) cross-bed
C) disconformity
D) nonconformity
Use the following to answer questions 12-16:
Use the following to answer the question(s) below:
Units A, B, C, D, E, and F are sedimentary rocks. Unit G is granite.
12. The horizontal line labeled X-X' is a(n) ______.
A) angular unconformity
B) contour
C) cross-bed
D) fault
13. Which of the following units is the youngest?
A) unit A
B) unit B
C) unit C
D) unit F
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14. Which of the following units is the oldest?
A) unit A
B) unit B
C) unit C
D) unit F
15. Which of the following events happened most recently?
A) deposition of unit C
B) deposition of unit F
C) deposition of unit D
D) tilting of units C, D, E, and F
16. Which of the following statements is true?
A) Deposition of unit A occurred before deposition of unit B.
B) Erosion took place prior to deposition of unit B.
C) Unit C is younger than unit A.
D) The granite is older than unit F.
Use the following to answer questions 17-19:
Use the following to answer the question(s) below:
Units A, B, C, D, and E are sedimentary rocks. The thick dark line is a fault.
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17. When did faulting occur?
A) between the deposition of A and B
B) between the deposition of C and D
C) between the deposition of B and C
D) between the deposition of D and E
18. What is the relative timing between faulting and intrusion of the granite?
A) Faulting occurred after the intrusion of the granite.
B) Faulting occurred before the intrusion of the granite.
C) Faulting and intrusion of the granite occurred at the same time.
D) The relative timing between faulting and intrusion of the granite cannot be
determined from the information provided.
19. Which of the following units is the oldest?
A) unit A
B) unit C
C) unit E
D) the granite
20. Which of the following is the smallest division of geologic time?
A) eons
B) epochs
C) eras
D) periods
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Use the following to answer questions 21-23:
Use the following to answer the question(s) below:
21. What is the best estimate for the age of point D?
A) 65 million years
B) 250 million years
C) 145 million years
D) 542 million years
22. When did fossils of complex organisms (such as shells) first become abundant in the
geologic record?
A) at point B
B) at point C
C) at point D
D) at point E
23. When did dinosaurs rule the Earth?
A) between A and B
B) between C and D
C) between B and C
D) between D and E
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24. Which of the following can change the rate of radioactive decay?
A) changes in temperature
B) chemical reactions
C) changes in pressure
D) none of the above
25. A rock formed with 1000 atoms of a radioactive parent element, but contains only 250
radioactive parent atoms today. If the half-life for the radioactive element is one million
years, how old is the rock?
A) 250,000 years old
B) 750,000 years old
C) 2 million years old
D) 4 million years old
26. Which of the following radioactive isotopes has the shortest half-life?
A) carbon-14
B) potassium-40
C) rubidium-87
D) uranium-238
27. Approximately how fast do plates spread apart?
A) 1 to 10 millimeters per year
B) 2 to 20 centimeters per year
C) 5 to 25 meters per year
D) 3 to 10 kilometers per year
28. The founder of the principle of the faunal succession is ____________.
A) Sir James Hutton
B) Alfred Wegener
C) William Smith
D) Nicolaus Steno
29. The largest mass extinction event in Earth history took place at the end of __________.
A) the Cretaceous
B) the Permian
C) the Precambrian
D) the Archean
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30. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is ______________.
A) half the time it takes all the radioactive atoms to decay
B) the time it takes for half of the radioactive atoms to decay
C) half of the radioactive atom's "full-life"
D) the average life-span of a stable atom
31. Which scientist first suggested the concept of isotopic dating?
A) Ernest Rutherford
B) Henri Becquerel
C) Marie Curie
D) Clare Patterson
32. What volcano represents a major hazard to the cities of Seattle and Tacoma in
Washington state?
A) Mt. Ranier
B) Mt. St. Helens
C) Mt. Shasta
D) Yellowstone
33. What is molten rock beneath the Earth's surface called?
A) granite
B) lava
C) lithosphere
D) magma
34. Which of the following statements about lava is true?
A) The viscosity of a lava increases as the silica content decreases.
B) High temperature lavas are less viscous than low-temperature lavas.
C) The more gas a lava contains, the less violent the eruption.
D) All of the statements above are true.
35. What is the name for a basaltic lava flow that has a ropy, folded surface?
A) aa
B) breccia
C) pahoehoe
D) tuff
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36. What is the eruption temperature of basaltic lava?
A) 400–600°C
B) 600–800°C
C) 800–1000°C
D) 1000–1200°C
37. Which of the following volcanic flows moves the most rapidly?
A) basaltic lava flows
B) lahars
C) pyroclastic flows
D) rhyolitic lava flows
38. What type of volcanic flows likely formed the volcano depicted in the cross section
below?
A)
B)
C)
D)
andesite flows
basalt flows
rhyolite flows
volcanic mudflows
39. What type of volcano consists of both lava flows and pyroclastic deposits?
A) a cinder cone
B) a shield volcano
C) a stratovolcano
D) a volcanic dome
40. Huge mudflows made up of wet volcanic debris are called ______.
A) calderas
B) diatremes
C) lahars
D) tuffs
41. Which of the following gases is the main constituent of volcanic gas?
A) carbon dioxide
B) nitrogen
C) sulfur dioxide
D) water vapor
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42. Most of the world's active volcanoes are located around the edge of which ocean?
A) the Arctic Ocean
B) the Atlantic Ocean
C) the Indian Ocean
D) the Pacific Ocean
43. What types of lavas are erupted at mid-ocean ridges?
A) andesites
B) basalts
C) rhyolites
D) all of the above
Use the following to answer questions 44-46:
Use the following to answer the question(s) below:
44. What type of lava is most likely to erupt at tectonic setting B?
A) andesite
B) basalt
C) rhyolite
D) All of the above are equally likely.
45. Which of the following volcanic chains formed at a tectonic setting similar to C?
A) the Aleutian Islands
B) the Hawaiian Islands
C) the Andes Mountains
D) the Mariana Arc
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46. Which of the following volcanic chains formed at a tectonic setting similar to A?
A) the Aleutian Islands
B) the Cascade Range
C) the Andes Mountains
D) the Hawaiian Islands
47. The Cascade volcanoes are associated with a __________.
A) convergent plate margin
B) transform plate margin
C) divergent plate margin
D) hot spot
48. Which of the following states has the most active volcanoes?
A) Alaska
B) Florida
C) New York
D) Texas
49. Magma generated in the Earth's interior rises because it is ______ than the surrounding
rocks.
A) denser
B) lower in viscosity
C) less dense
D) more volatile
50. An extremely vesicular volcanic rock of rhyolite composition is called ________.
A) obsidian
B) pumice
C) tuff
D) phreatic
51. Basaltic lava that cools under water forms distinct _________ features.
A) pillow lava
B) pahoehoe
C) vesicular
D) aa
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52. Find the correct match between magma type and volcano type
A) felsic/dome
B) mafic/dome
C) intermediate/shield volcano
D) felsic/cinder cone
Use the following to answer questions 53-54:
Use the following to answer the question(s) below:
53. Point A, where slip initiated during the earthquake, is called the __________.
A) dip
B) epicenter
C) focus
D) strike
54. Point B is called the earthquake __________.
A) dip
B) epicenter
C) focus
D) strike
55. Energy waves that are released during an earthquake are called __________.
A) shock waves
B) elastic waves
C) stress waves
D) seismic waves
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Use the following to answer questions 56-58:
Use the following to answer the question(s) below:
56. What causes the up-and-down wiggles on the seismogram?
A) electromagnetic pulses
B) tsunami waves
C) ground vibrations
D) variations in air pressure
57. Which set(s) of waves travels through the Earth's interior?
A) set A
B) set B
C) sets A and B
D) sets A, B, and C
58. Which set(s) of waves is/are most likely surface waves?
A) set A
B) set B
C) set C
D) Sets A, B, and C are all surface waves.
59. Which of the following types of seismic waves arrive at a seismograph first?
A) P waves
B) S waves
C) surface waves
D) All of these waves arrive at the same time.
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60. Which of the following correctly lists the order in which seismic waves arrive at a
seismograph station?
A) P waves  surface waves  S waves
B) P waves  S waves  surface waves
C) S waves  P waves  surface waves
D) surface waves  P waves  S waves
61. What type of seismic waves are S waves?
A) compressional waves
B) shear waves
C) surface waves
D) tsunamis
62. Who developed the procedure used to measure the size of an earthquake?
A) Henri Darcy
B) Charles Darwin
C) James Hutton
D) Charles Richter
63. How many seismograph stations are needed to locate the epicenter of an earthquake?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Use the following to answer questions 64-65:
Use the following to answer the question(s) below:
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64. What type of earthquakes would most likely occur at point A?
A) shallow-focus earthquakes caused by normal faulting
B) shallow-focus earthquakes caused by strike-slip faulting
C) shallow-focus earthquakes caused by thrust faulting
D) deep-focus earthquakes caused by thrust faulting
65. What type of earthquakes would most likely occur at point B?
A) shallow-focus earthquakes caused by normal faulting
B) shallow-focus earthquakes caused by strike-slip faulting
C) shallow-focus earthquakes caused by thrust faulting
D) deep-focus earthquakes caused by thrust faulting
66. What type of fault is the San Andreas fault in California?
A) a normal fault
B) a left-lateral strike-slip fault
C) a reverse fault
D) a right-lateral strike-slip fault
67. Which of the following regions has the greatest seismic hazard?
A) central United States
B) northeastern United States
C) southeastern United States
D) western United States
68. Tsunamis can be generated by ______.
A) undersea earthquakes
B) the eruption of an oceanic volcano
C) undersea landslides
D) all of the above
69. What type of seismic wave causes the most building damage?
A) P waves
B) surface waves
C) S waves
D) They all cause building damage.
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70. The modified Mercalli intensity scale measures ____________.
A) the amount of destruction caused by an earthquake
B) the amount of slip on a fault plane caused by an earthquake
C) the amplitude of the surface waves
D) all of the above
71. Shallow, intermediate, and deep focus earthquakes occur at ___________.
A) divergent plate boundaries
B) transform plate boundaries
C) hot spots
D) convergent plate boundaries
72. Whether a building will withstand ground shaking during an earthquake depends on
________.
A) the engineering of the building
B) the intensity of the groundshaking
C) the material on which the building was built
D) all of the above
73. A seismic observatory typically has instruments that measure ______ motion(s).
A) up-down
B) horizontal north-south
C) horizontal east-west
D) all of the above
74. Organic matter in the Earth's topsoil is called ___________.
A) humus
B) leaf litter
C) pedalfer
D) regolith
75. Which soil horizon consists primarily of slightly altered, weathered bedrock?
A) the A-horizon
B) the B-horizon
C) the C-horizon
D) none of the above
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76. In a soil profile, organic matter is found __________.
A) primarily in the A-horizon
B) primarily in the B-horizon
C) primarily in the C-horizon
D) in the A-, B-, and C-horizons in approximately equal amounts
77. Which of the following statements is true?
A) Fine sand forms steeper slopes than coarse sand.
B) Angular pebbles form steeper slopes than coarse sand.
C) Water-saturated sand forms steeper slopes than dry sand.
D) Dry debris forms steeper slopes than damp debris.
78. The angle of repose does not depend on which of the following?
A) particle composition
B) particle shape
C) particle size
D) water content
79. The illustration below depicts a cross section through a pile of quartz sand. The angle
depicted in the diagram is called the __________.
?
A)
B)
C)
D)
angle of repose
bedding angle
cleavage angle
dip
80. What is the angle of repose of dry, coarse sand?
A) about 20°
B) about 40°
C) about 60°
D) about 80°
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81. The accumulation of rocks at the base of a cliff is called ______.
A) a dune
B) an alluvial fan
C) soil creep
D) talus
82. Which of the following rocks would be most affected by chemical weathering?
A) granite
B) shale
C) basalt
D) marble
83. One of the most effective mechanisms for physical weathering is __________.
A) hydrolysis
B) hydration
C) frost wedging
D) oxidation
84. After oceans, which of the following reservoirs contains the most water?
A) the atmosphere
B) the lakes and rivers
C) the glaciers and polar ice caps
D) the underground waters
85. Which of the following reservoirs contains the least water?
A) the atmosphere
B) the biosphere
C) groundwater
D) lakes and rivers
86. The process by which surface water becomes groundwater is called __________.
A) discharge
B) evaporation
C) infiltration
D) transpiration
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87. What powers the hydrologic cycle?
A) magnetism
B) mantle convection
C) radioactive decay
D) solar energy
88. The release of water vapor from plants is called ______.
A) evaporation
B) infiltration
C) precipitation
D) transpiration
89. Which of the following terms is a measure of the amount of water vapor in the air as a
proportion of the maximum amount the air could hold at the same temperature?
A) dew point
B) evaporation rate
C) relative humidity
D) sublimation point
90. The diagram below represents a cross section through a coastal mountain range. Which
of the following statements is correct?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Region A would receive the most precipitation.
Region B would receive the most precipitation.
Region C would receive the most precipitation.
Regions A, B, and C would receive about the same amount of precipitation.
91. Which of the following rivers carries the most water?
A) the Amazon River in South America
B) the Congo River in Africa
C) the Ganges River in Asia
D) the Mississippi River in North America
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92. Layers that transmit groundwater are called ______.
A) aquicludes
B) aquifers
C) influent streams
D) unsaturated zones
93. Which of the following unfractured rocks has the highest porosity?
A) granite
B) sandstone
C) schist
D) shale
94. Which of the following statements regarding porosity and permeability is true?
A) High porosity rocks generally have high permeability.
B) High porosity rocks generally have low permeability.
C) Low porosity rocks generally have high permeability.
D) Porosity and permeability have identical meanings.
95. Which of the following sandstones will have the highest porosity?
A) a poorly sorted, cemented sandstone
B) a poorly sorted, uncemented sandstone
C) a well-sorted, cemented sandstone
D) a well-sorted, uncemented sandstone
96. Permeability is the __________.
A) ability of a solid to allow fluids to pass through
B) amount of water vapor in the air relative to the maximum amount of water vapor
the air can hold
C) percentage of pore space in a rock
D) process by which plants release water vapor to the atmosphere
97. In the unsaturated zone, pore spaces in the soil and rock contain ______.
A) air
B) water
C) air and water
D) neither air nor water
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98. What is the difference between the saturated and unsaturated zones of groundwater?
A) The saturated zone has a higher porosity than the unsaturated zone.
B) The saturated zone has a lower porosity than the unsaturated zone.
C) The pore spaces in the saturated zone are full of water; the pore spaces in the
unsaturated zone are not full of water.
D) The pore spaces in the saturated zone are not full of water; the pore spaces in the
unsaturated zone are full of water.
99. Which of the following represents the boundary between the saturated zone and the
unsaturated zone?
A) aquifer
B) aquiclude
C) groundwater table
D) porosity
Use the following to answer questions 114-116:
Use the following to answer the question(s) below:
100. Region A is the __________.
A) discharge zone
B) recharge zone
C) saturated zone
D) unsaturated zone
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101. Region B is the __________.
A) discharge zone
B) recharge zone
C) saturated zone
D) unsaturated zone
102. The lowering of the water table near the well is called a(n) __________.
A) aquiclude
B) cone of depression
C) influent zone
D) sinkhole
103. What type of aquifer is bounded above and below by relatively impermeable beds?
A) aquiclude
B) confined
C) saturated
D) unconfined
104. Darcy's law states that the volume of water flowing through a cross-sectional area per
time is equal to __________.
A) porosity  hydraulic conductivity
B) porosity  water table slope
C) hydraulic conductivity  water table slope
D) porosity  hydraulic conductivity  water table slope
105. According to Darcy's law, which of the following aquifers will have the greatest rate of
groundwater flow?
A) an aquifer with high hydraulic conductivity and a high hydraulic gradient
B) an aquifer with high hydraulic conductivity and a low hydraulic gradient
C) an aquifer with low hydraulic conductivity and a high hydraulic gradient
D) an aquifer with low hydraulic conductivity and a low hydraulic gradient
106. In what type of rock do most caves form?
A) granite
B) limestone
C) sandstone
D) shale
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107. Karst topography forms in regions underlain by __________.
A) basalt
B) limestone
C) sandstone
D) shale
108. Stalagmites __________.
A) form in sandstone fractures
B) form in the pore spaces of a limestone
C) grow up from the floor of a cave
D) hang down from the ceiling of a cave
109. Sinkholes are a possible danger in regions underlain by what type of bedrock?
A) granite
B) limestone
C) sandstone
D) shale
110. Water that is suitable for drinking is also called ________ water.
A) sanitary
B) fresh
C) potable
D) meteoric
111. Crusts of calcium carbonate produced at hot springs are referred to as __________.
A) travertine
B) hydrothermal deposits
C) karst
D) all of the above
112. The recycling of water on Earth is known as the ________ cycle.
A) water
B) wet
C) hydrous
D) hydrologic
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113. The transformation of solid ice directly into water vapor is called ____________.
A) evaporation
B) melting
C) sublimation
D) transpiration
114. The mathematical equation that describes the flow of water underground is known as
_______ Law.
A) Murhpy's
B) Darcy's
C) Henry's
D) Newton's
115. Which of the following is a measure of a fluid's resistance to flow?
A) capacity
B) competence
C) permeability
D) viscosity
116. As the velocity of a stream current increases, __________________.
A) more of the bed material is in motion
B) progressively finer particles are suspended
C) the suspended load decreases
D) total capacity decreases
117. Which of the following particles is the most easily eroded from the bed of a stream?
A) boulders
B) cohesive clay
C) pebbles
D) sand
118. Which of the following materials is most likely to be transported as suspended load?
A) boulders
B) clay
C) gravel
D) sand
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119. In a sand dune in a river, _________ occurs on the upstream side of the dune and
___________ occurs on the downstream side of the dune.
A) deposition, deposition
B) erosion, deposition
C) deposition, erosion
D) erosion, erosion
120. Which of the following terms describes a curved, coarse-grained deposit that forms on
the inside curve of a stream?
A) dune
B) meander
C) oxbow
D) point bar
121. Curves and bends in a stream channel are called ______.
A) alluvial fans
B) braids
C) deltas
D) meanders
122. At a bend in a river, ______ occurs on the outside of the bend and ______ occurs on the
inside of the bend.
A) deposition, deposition
B) erosion, deposition
C) deposition, erosion
D) erosion, erosion
123. In the map of a stream below, the arrow is pointing to a(n) ____________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
natural levee
oxbow lake
point bar
sand dune
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124. Which of the following would be the most fertile area for crops?
A) a stream channel
B) a floodplain
C) a natural levee
D) an uplands area away from the stream
125. Which of the following depositional settings consists primarily of fine-grained silt and
mud?
A) stream channels
B) floodplains
C) natural levees
D) point bars
126. Which of the following describes the shape of the longitudinal profile of a stream?
A) a concave downward curve
B) a horizontal line
C) a concave upward curve
D) a straight line sloping downstream
127. If a dam is built, sediment will __________ on the upstream side of the dam and
sediment will ___________ on the downstream side of the dam.
A) accumulate, accumulate
B) erode, accumulate
C) accumulate, erode
D) erode, erode
128. Large, cone-shaped deposits of sediment at a mountain front are called ______.
A) alluvial fans
B) deltas
C) natural levees
D) terraces
129. In an alluvial fan, the coarsest material would be deposited __________.
A) on the steep, upper slopes of the fan
B) on the gentle, lower slopes of the fan
C) approximately halfway between the steep slopes of the mountains and the gentle
slopes of the plains
D) where two fans interfere or overlap one another
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130. What type of drainage pattern is depicted in the map below?
A)
B)
C)
D)
dendritic
radial
rectangular
trellis
131. What type of drainage network would you expect to find on a volcano?
A) dendritic drainage
B) rectangular drainage
C) radial drainage
D) trellis drainage
132. Where do deltas form?
A) at drainage divides
B) at mountain fronts
C) at meander loops
D) at river mouths
133. Why is the Mississippi delta so large?
A) because the Mississippi River transports a huge amount of sediment
B) because tides in the Gulf of Mexico are not very strong
C) because waves in the Gulf of Mexico are not very strong
D) all of the above
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134. ________ is the process whereby sand grains jump along the streambed during
transport.
A) Superposition
B) Hydrolosis
C) Saltation
D) Meandering
135. The topographic rise between two streams is called a _________.
A) divide
B) point bar
C) trellis
D) valley
136. What sort of sedimentary structure forms where rivers run into bodies of standing
water?
A) alluvial fan
B) delta
C) terrace
D) floodplain
137. An imaginary line below which a stream cannot erode is called _________.
A) ground level
B) sea level
C) lake level
D) base level
138. Which of the following particles would have the lowest settling velocity?
A) sand
B) clay
C) gravel
D) cobbles
139. What is the discharge of a stream that is one meter deep, two meters wide, and has a
water flow of 5 meters per second?
A) 1 m/sec
B) 5 m/sec
C) 5 m3/sec
D) 10 m3/sec
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