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BIOLOGY 262 PRINCIPLES OF BIOLOGY: ORGANISMIC, FALL 2010 - FINAL EXAMINATION (PART 1) MULTIPLE CHOICE.For the following multiple choice questions fill in the Scan-Tron sheet with the response that best answers the question or completes the sentence. (1.5% each) 1. Which of the following IS an assumption Determine the status of the hypothesis that of scientific philosophy? plant species richness will be greater in a. Different events must be caused shade using the following data. uniquely. b. Hypotheses can be proven True. c. Sense experience represents reality with some reasonable consistency. d. The universe is chaotic (unordered). e. None of the above. (None are assumptions of scientific philosophy) The samples below measured the number of methicillin resistant Staph. aureus (MRSA) cells per μl derived from a standard broth culture. One culture was exposed to the drug Bacteri-BGon®, a second was not, and a third was exposed the cells to vancomysin a drug known to kill MRSA. The hypothesis is that exposure to Bacteri-B-Gon® (BBG) exposure will kill cells. Table. Cell density per μl of E. coli after 10 minutes exposure to Bacteri-B-Gon® and unexposed culture. Two-tailed unpaired T-test P-value comparing unexposed and Bacteri-B-Gone samples = 0.044 Not exposed 110 99 111 108 100 95 Exposed to Bacteri-B-Gon Exposed to Vancomysin 102 110 130 112 114 121 0 0 1 0 0 0 2. Why did the researchers include the culture exposed to vancomysin when they were studying a different drug? a. to be certain that MRSA is not a fungus b. to be sure their experimental procedure was working properly c. to directly test their drug of interest d. to form the basis for comparison with the treatment group e. To obtain the opinion of the public about their product 3. The hypothesis is… Table. Plant species richness per m2 randomly sampled quadrats in Denver, CO. Two-tailed unpaired T-test P-value comparing shady-area and sunny-area samples = 0.35 Shady Area 8 10 12 2 9 3 Sunny Area 5 8 3 10 2 4 4. The hypothesis is… a. rejected, data inconsistent with hypoth. and P-value shows lack of significance. b. rejected, data consistent but P-value shows lack of significance. c. rejected, data inconsistent with hypoth. and P-value further supports the inconsistency. d. supported, P-value and data consistent with hypothesis. e. unable to be addressed with these data. 5. Nitrogen atoms tend to form how many bonds? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 6. The depicted molecule is which of the following? a. cellulose b. chitin c. glucose d. glycogen e. starch 7. The depicted molecule is which of the following? a. rejected, data inconsistent with hypoth. and P-value shows lack of significance. b. rejected, data consistent but P-value shows lack of significance. c. rejected, data inconsistent with hypoth. and P-value further supports the inconsistency. d. supported, P-value and data consistent with hypothesis. e. unable to be addressed with these data. a. b. c. d. e. cellulose chitin glucose glycogen starch DO NOT WRITE ON THIS EXAM 8. Which of the following substances makes up the major part of Gram positive bacterial cell walls? a. cellulose b. chitin c. collagen d. glycogen e. peptidoglycan 9. Which of the following describes a bacterium that causes severe disease solely because of the reproduction of the bacterium? a. highly antibiotic b. highly invasive c. highly toxigenic d. highly xerophytic e. None of the above 10. Where does translation occur in a cell? a. capsule b. cell wall c. DNA d. plasma membrane e. ribosome 11. Where does transcription occur in a eukaryotic cell? a. cytosol b. Golgi apparatus c. nucleus d. plasma membrane e. ribosome 12. Where does glycolysis (only) occur in a eukaryotic cell? a. cytosol b. Golgi apparatus c. mitochondrion d. nucleus e. plasma membrane 13. What type of tissue is depicted below? a. b. c. d. e. cardiac muscle fibrous connective tissue loose connective tissue skeletal muscle smooth muscle 14. Which of the following best describes this tissue ? a. b. c. d. e. simple columnar simple cuboidal simple squamous stratified columnar stratified cuboidal 15. Which of the following best describes the shape these cells ? a. b. c. d. e. staphylobacillus staphylococcus staphylospirillum streptobacillus streptococcus 16. Which of the following most limits aquatic primary production? a. light and nutrients b. light and temperature c. light and water availability d. temperature and nutrients e. temperature and water availability 17. Which of the following best describes the community ecology relationship of a you stepping on and killing an ant without noticing? a. Interspecific amensalism b. Intraspecific amensalism c. Interspecific commensalism d. Intraspecific commensalism e. Interspecific predation DO NOT WRITE ON THIS EXAM 18. A population of 10,000 sparrows is undergoing logistic population growth with an intrinsic rate of increase of 0.20 and a carrying capacity of 100,000. What is the population size after 2 years? a. 12,082 b. 12,164 c. 13,600 d. 13,882 e. 14,400 19. For a population of 200 monkeys AT Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with 32 individuals with the AA genotype, how many individuals are Aa? a. 4 b. 6 c. 36 d. 67 e. 96 20. Given the following genotypes in a population: 200 AA, 400 Aa, 400 aa. Is this population evolving with respect to the “A” gene? a. No b. Yes c. Cannot determine with the info. given. 21. Based on your calculations and conclusions above in 20 ↑, which of the following is the best (most likely) evolutionary explanation for what you observe? a. Inbreeding is occurring. b. Outbreeding is occurring. c. Strong directional natural selection is occurring with respect to the “A” gene. d. Strong stabilizing natural selection is occurring with respect to the “A” gene. e. The organisms mate randomly and there is no natural selection with respect to the “A” gene. 22. Which of the following processes is the ultimate source of evolutionary variation (increases variation)? a. gene flow b. genetic drift c. mutation d. natural selection e. non-random mating 23. Which of the following is TRUE about pterophyte gametophytes? a. They are the dominant generation. b. They make gametes by meiosis. c. They make spores by mitosis. d. They undergo photosynthesis. e. None of the above (All are false.) 24. Which of the following is TRUE about pollen grains? a. They are plant sperm. b. They are small haploid plants. c. They are the gametophyte stage of bryophytes. d. They make gametes by meiosis. e. None of the above (All are false.) 25. Which of the following is TRUE about true moss sporophytes? a. They are the dominant generation. b. They crush the female gametophytes as they develop. c. They make gametes by meiosis. d. Their spores grow to become sporophytes. e. None of the above (All are false.) 26. The decorated organism shown below is a member of which of the following phyla? a. Anthophyta b. Bryophyta c. Chlorophyta d. Coniferophyta e. Pterophyta 27. The organism shown below is a member of which of the following phyla? a. Annelida b. Arthropoda c. Echinodermata d. Nematoda e. Platyhelminthes DO NOT WRITE ON THIS EXAM 28. The organism shown below is which model organism? a. Arabidospsis thaliana b. Caenorhabditis elegans c. Gallus gallus d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae e. Xenopus laevis 29. The organism shown below is which model organism? a. Caenorhabditis elegans b. Drosophila melanogaster c. Mus musculus d. Neurospora crassa e. Xenopus laevis 30. Which of the following is TRUE about someone with Type 2 Diabetes? a. The person cannot produce glucagon. b. The person cannot produce insulin. c. The person’s liver overreacts and stores too much sugar. d. The person’s pancreas is stuck in a positive feedback situation. e. None of the above (All are false.) 31. Which of the following is the taxonomic rank between Phylum & Order? a. b. c. d. e. Class Family Genus Phylum Species 32. Which of the following ponds should theoretically have the highest BIOMASS? a. High nutrients b. Moderate nutrients c. Low nutrients d. No nutrients at all. 33. Which of the following forests should theoretically have the highest species richness? a. Experiences fires 2 times every year that burn the entire forest. b. Experiences fires 2 times every year that burn 50% of the forest. c. Experiences fires once every 4 or 5 years that burn the entire forest. d. Experiences fires once every 4 or 5 years that burn 50% of the forest. e. Never experiences fires. 34. As described in The Evolution Explosion human fisheries (fishing) have caused individuals in many fish populations to be genetically smaller because… a. The small population sizes cause genetic drift. b. Fisheries are strong directional natural selection for size. c. Fisheries are strong disruptive natural selection for size. d. Fisheries cause inbreeding. e. Fisheries cause founder events. Atlantic cod, Gadus morhua DO NOT WRITE ON THIS EXAM BIOLOGY 262 PRINCIPLES OF BIOLOGY: ORGANISMIC, FALL 2010-FINAL EXAM (PART 2)-WRITTEN Name: Date DEFINITIONS.Define each biological/scientific word below in as concise and clear a manner as possible. (10%, 2% each) 1. Coelomate: 2. Connective tissue: 3. Ecological succession: 4. Natural selection: 5. Negative feedback (physiological) system: SHORT ANSWER.Address each question in as concise and lucid a manner as possible. Do NOT exceed the space provided. 1. Sketch the basic structure of a PLANT cell, label the major structures, and indicate which types of biological molecules form each of the structures. (10%) 2. Briefly explain how blood sugar levels are regulated in humans by the actions of the pancreas and liver. (Feel free but do not feel obliged to use a labeled diagram for your answer.) (4%) 3. (a.) Provide the chemical equation for photosynthesis. (2%) (b.) Explain why individual organisms undertake photosynthesis. (sentence or short phrase) (2%) (c.) Explain how photosynthesis fits into the global carbon cycle. (sentence or short phrase) (2%) 4. Generally outline basic animal development in a vertebrate from fertilization to the formation of the nervous system. Be certain to identify each stage and indicate what is happening at each stage. (4%) (Feel free but do not feel obliged to use labeled sketches for your answer.) 5. The Evolution Explosion describes Alexander Fleming’s discovery of the first antibiotic, penicillin. (a.) First briefly explain how this took place. How did he discover penicillin? (2%) (b.) Then briefly explain why penicillin is only rarely used anymore. (2%) (c.) Then briefly explain why scientists are strongly recommending a reduction in the amount of antibiotics used of all types. (4%) BIOLOGY 262 PRINCIPLES OF BIOLOGY: ORGANISMIC, FALL 2010-FINAL EXAM (PART 3)-LABELS Name: Date LABELING.Label below or fill in the box as indicated. (7%, 1% each) 1. On the phylogenetic tree below circle two (2) 3-5. Identify three things that are incorrect or monophyletic groups. misleading about the diagram below. 2. On the diagram of islands and a continent identify the island that should have the highest species richness by writing “HIGHEST” on it AND identify the island that should have the lowest species richness by writing “LOWEST” on it. Have a restful and enjoyable break. OCEAN CONTINENT