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MICROBIOLOGY and PUBLIC HEALTH 1. The “BUBO” is found in A. B. C. D. E. botulism salpingitis plague anthrax stye 2. An important spirochete responsible for relapsing fever is A. B. C. D. E. spirocheatae bucolis treponema pertenue Vincent’s spirillum Treponema pallidum Borellia recurrentis 7. The organism usually associated with gas gangrene may be classified as a/an A. B. C. D. E. thermophil saprophyte psychrophil aerobe obligate parasite 8. The largest virus causes A. B. C. D. E. yellow fever psittacosis variola influenza polio 9. The Wasserman test is a diagnostic aid for 3. Rice water stool is the classical symptom of A. B. C. D. E. infant diarrhea salmonellosis botulism cholera dysentery A. B. C. D. E. whooping cough typhus syphoid syphilis tuberculosis 10. In the lag phase of bacterial growth 4. The etiological agent for histoplasmosis is A. B. C. D. E. a bacterium a virus a mold a yeast-like fungus an actinomycete A. B. C. D. E. toxic products are formed population is temporarily constant nutrients are gone cells divide steadily each organism divides 11. Detoxified, but still antigen toxin is a 5. The first infectious disease for which a practical method of prevention was developed was caused by A. B. C. D. E. viruses rickettsias protozoa molds bacteria 6. Hemophilus ducreyi A. B. C. D. E. is easily cultivated is a gram-positive organism caused venereal disease is not a pathogen causes an upper respiratory infection A. B. C. D. E. toxin-antitoxin toxon toxin toxoid none of the above 12. When most protozoans are subjected to unfavorable conditions, they A. B. C. D. E. completely disintergrate divide by binary fission develop into resistant-walled cysts develop cilia develop a flagellum 13. Chocolate agar A. contains bile which makes it look like chocolate B. is useful for cultivation treponema pallidum C. is really a heated blood agar D. is mostly chocolate with a small amount of dextrose E. is a mixture of chocolate and agar 14. Asexual reproduction by budding is common in A. B. C. D. E. algae yeasts rickettsia virus bacteria 15. Animals are not susceptible to the organisms causing the common cold in man. This kind of immunity A. B. C. D. E. selective natural artificial passive active 16. Nervous tissue that contains negri bodies is indicative of A. B. C. D. E. rabies yellow fever dengue fever typhus fever poliomyelitis 17. Which of the following is not associated with malaria A. B. C. D. E. plasmodium falciparum culex mosquito parasite is a protozoa anopheles mosquito none of these 18. The ascoli test is associated with A. B. C. D. E. staph infections leprosy TB anthrax clostridium 19. The bactrium associated with the rod of a luminous plant A. B. C. D. E. pseudomonas rhizobium arebactor thiobacillus barillus 20. Thyphoid fever is transmitted through milk was found by A. B. C. D. E. Kitasato Smith Taylor Koch Pasteur 21. Fever of 104 degrees in a average teenage patient will A. B. C. D. E. eliminate mental tension eliminate cardiac output destroy pathogenic bacteria cause convulsions cause death 22. A lack of the following vitamin when clinically deficient can cause symptoms of xerophthalmia, impaired dark adaptation and other disorders of vision A. B. C. D. E. Vitamin B2 Beta carotene Ascorbic acid Tocopherol Vitamin B6 23. The bureau that “carries on a program of research activities primarily in the field of infectious diseases, research into the cause, diagnosis, prevention and treatment of the diseases of man” is the A. B. C. D. E. National Institute of Health Children’s Bureau Industrial Hygiene Division Office of the Surgeon General Division of the International Health 24. Public health may be regarded as that body of knowledge and those practices that contribute ot health in the aggregate through measures that are A. B. C. D. E. both preventive and curative via government agencies preventive curative none of the above 25. All collected data referred to as vital statistics eventually reach the National Office of Vital Statistics. This office is located in which of the following Federal Agencies A. B. C. D. E. Department of Commerce United States Public Health Service Bureau of Public Assistance World Health Organization Department of Labor 26. In most states, the state health officer is appointed by A. President of the United States B. the governor C. United States Public Health Services D. state legislature E. World Health Organization 27. When the health officer receives a report of a communicable disease in his/her community, all of the following steps are recommended except A. take steps to insure bedside disinfection by responsible individual of household B. have necessary laboratory specimens collected C. investigate the circumstances to verify the diagnosis D. report to the State Department of Health and await instructions E. ascertain the source of infection and try to discover contacts and unreported cases 28. The U.S. census is taken every A. B. C. D. E. 20 years 10 years 5 years 2 years 25 years 29. Chlorination of water A. B. C. D. E. disinfects the water sterilizes the water aerates the water contaminates the water none of the above 30. The main purpose of water aeration is to A. B. C. D. E. reduce turbidity of bacteria remove odors and tastes make iron and manganese soluble act as a natural bactericide alter the form of hardness of water 31. The indicator of water pollution is A. B. C. D. E. mycobacterium staphylococcus escherichia klebsiella proteus 32. The disease most responsible for bringing about legislation requiring cooking of garbage fed to hogs is A. B. C. D. E. anthrax vescicular exanthema trichinosis dysentery typhoid fever 33. The chemical most commonly used to treat waste in a chemical toliet is A. B. C. D. E. calcium choride sodium hydroxide alum potassium carbonate tri-iodomethane 34. The Imhoff tank is associated with A. B. C. D. E. pasteurization of milk water purification regulation of illumination air pollution control sewage disposal 35. A measure of the putrescrible load upon sewage treatment works and upon bodies of water into which sewers or swage treatment plants empty is A. BOD test [biochemical oxygen demand B. odor of effluent C. color of effluent D. complete digestion of solid waste E. number of organisms in effluent 36. A suspension of killed or attenuated organisms is a A. B. C. D. E. toxin plasma vaccine precipitate none of the above 37. A person known to have been in association with an infected person and to have had the opportunity of acquiring the infection is known as a/an A. B. C. D. E. probable incumbent carrier contact prospect 38. A microorganism classified as an “opportunist” mainly uses pathologic phenomena in humans when A. milk is removed from the diet B. host temperature remains 37 degrees Celsius C. anaerobic conditions prevail D. host resistance is lowered E. room temperature exceeds 73 degrees Fahrenheit 39. The elapse of time from initial infection through evaluation of pathogenesis to first appearance of symptoms and signs of disease is called A. B. C. D. E. clinical course infectivity tropism incubation period infection 40. Mycobacterium is the etiological genus for A. B. C. D. E. influenza bronchitis mononucleosis diarrhea tuberculosis 41. Which of the following diseases is not caused by a virus A. B. C. D. E. measles whooping cough infectious hepatitis mumps all are caused by a virus 42. One of the main differences between botulism and common types of food poisoning is A. botulism is carried in the blood and food poisoning is not B. botulism has a two week incubation period as opposed to a two day period of incubation in food poisoning C. botulism must always come from canned fish, while other food toxins come from all foods D. botulism causes ulcers and food poisoning does not E. in botulism there are usually no indications of acute gastrointestinal irritation 43. Which of the following has the highest case fatality rate A. B. C. D. E. plague smallpox rabies cholera tetanus 44. Which of the following bovine diseases does not contaminate the milk of an infected cow A. B. C. D. E. brucellosis actinomycosis milk sickness or trembles Q fever bovine tuberculosis 45. A principal factor controlling the prevalence of pneumonia under ordinary conditions is A. the host and his/her resistance B. mucosal variation C. the opportunity for acquiring the infection D. the nature of the infective organism E. none of the above 46. Federal law prohibits the sale of shaving brushes not properly sterilized as a measure to prevent A. B. C. D. E. foot and mouth disease rabies glanders tetanus anthrax 47. Easter equine encephalomyelitis is transmitted from host to host by A. B. C. D. E. lice mites mosquitoes rat fleas ticks 48. An important factor in control of hookworm disease is A. mass vaccination B. avoidance of eating white sugar C. education of inhabitants of endemic areas in personal hygiene and sanitation D. stringent meat inspection E. improvement in nutrition, especially protein 49. Gambusia affinis [minnows] has been effective in A. B. C. D. E. tick control mite control domestic fly contol rodent control mosquito control 50. Public health procedure best suited in prevention and control of the disease, Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, is A. B. C. D. E. immunization of dogs thorough cooking of pork control of mites control of ticks disinfection of water 51. Hookworm disease is a parasitic infection characterized principally by A. B. C. D. E. secondary anemia diarrhea acidosis glucosuria constipation 52. Pathological changes in trichinosis are most common in A. B. C. D. E. skeletal muscle spleen liver brain heart 53. Which of the following conditions is diagnosed by means of an anal scotch tape swab A. B. C. D. E. echinococcosis ancylostomiasis enterobiasis trichinosis ascariasis 54. All state laws require the use of prophylactic medication at the time of birth to prevent blindess from A. B. C. D. E. myopia retrolental fibroplasia glaucoma cataracts ophthalmia neonatorum 55. Which of the following does not apply to the condition of trichinosis A. the mode of transmission is the consumption of viable trichinae in animal flesh B. one method of control is the adequate cooking of fresh pork products by the consumer; this will destroy the trichinae C. a useful laboratory diagnostic procedure is the finding of a lymphocytosis D. a characteristic early symptom is edema of the upper eyelids E. the cycle may be perpetuated in swine by the ingestion of trichinae infected rats 56. A tonometer is commonly used in the diagnosis of 59. Mutation refers precisely to a A. temporary change in shape of parent organism B. temporary change in the temperature requirement of the parent cell C. permanent change in the nucleic acids of the parent cell D. change in the species of the mutated parent cell E. change in the appearance 60. Hemophilus pertussis belongs to the class A. B. C. D. E. eubacteriales sporozoa infusoria mastigophora sarcodina 61. In most species of heterotrophic bacteria A. B. C. D. E. otitis media ulcer of the mouth glaucoma perforated ear drums eye infections 57. Laboratory work with bacteria A. depends only on biochemical differences B. does not require isolation C. should be performed with pure cultures D. uses filtration as the best method for sterilization E. does not necessitate sterilization of equipment 58. All of the following are part of a protoplast except A. B. C. D. E. cell wall vacuoles nuclear material cytoplasmic membrane cytoplasm A. carbohydrates do not serve as a source of carbon B. carbohydrates have only one function C. carbohydrates serve as the chief source of energy D. fats serves the chief source of energy E. protein serves as the chief source of energy 62. Microscopic indentification of fungi is based on A. their solubility in ten percent potassium B. their staining reaction C. reaction to eosin-glycerin D. their ability to absorb lactophenolcotton blue E. the type of spore produced and their arrangement on the hyphae 63. The energy releasing process of living things which proceeds in the absence of molecular oxygen with the production of acids and alcohols A. B. C. D. E. photosynthesis secretion excretion respiration fermentation 64. After phagocytosis, which of the following cell structures is thought to be directly involved in the destruction of the foreign material A. B. C. D. E. ribose lysozymes endoplasmic reticulum mitochondria golgi apparatus 65. A serious illness, the causative agent of which may be transmitted from patient to patient in the course of certain surgical procedures and which is of viral origin A. B. C. D. E. pseudomembranous enterocolitis allergic encephalomyelitis allergic stomatitis serum hepatitis rheumatic fever 66. The Echo viruses chiefly infest the A. central nervous system B. intestinal tract C. skin and reproduction D. blood and lymph systems E. none of these 67. The most common viral infection of the skin A. B. C. D. E. herpes zoster herpes simplex psoriasis impetigo lichen planus 68. The Kolmer test requires the presence of A. B. C. D. E. oxidase properdin opsonins complement lysozyme 69. Maduromycosis affects primarily the A. mucous membranes of the nose and nasopharynx B. perineum C. exposed parts of the body D. mucous membrane of the mouth E. lungs 70. Which disease is not caused by bacteria A. B. C. D. E. cholera amebic dysentery bacillary dysentery syphilis typhoid 71. The most important aspect of the germ theory of a disease, as it was developed by Pasteur and his associates, was that A. any infectious disease may be caused by a variety of different organisms B. all diseases are infectious C. each infectious disease is caused by a particular organism D. all bacteria are harmful E. all diseases are caused by bacteria 72. The urogential tract of a normal individual is A. B. C. D. E. gram-positive game-negative completely lacking in bacteria full of pathogenic bacteria remarkable free of pathogenic bacteria 73. Of the following, which is not a natural method of water purification A. B. C. D. E. disinfection soil filtration storage in lakes and ponds stream self-purification evaporation and condensation 74. Rapid sand filtration is used in A. B. C. D. E. pasteurization of milk water purification sewage disposal air pollution control none of these 75. The TPI test is used to determine A. B. C. D. E. malaria hepatitis syphilis rheumatic fever diabetes 76. The most effective measure for mosquito control is dependent upon the A. reduction of aquatic vegetation B. use of new types of repellents C. use of new types of insecticides for destroying adult insects D. elimination of breeding places E. trapping of adult mosquitoes 77. Governmental controls of shellfish breeding areas are important to A. regulate the size of shellfish B. control individual species C. regulate polluted areas that may infect the shellfish D. prevent costly transplanting E. insure better tasting shellfish 78. When a disease temporarily and greatly increases in a human population over a limited area, it is said to be A. B. C. D. E. enzootic epidemic pandemic epizootic epidemiologic 79. About one-half of all home accidents are caused by A. B. C. D. E. firearms poison gas fires poisoning falls 80. What condition of water indicate the need for its filtration before use A. B. C. D. E. salty taste turbidity high bacterial concentration unpleasant odor none of these 81. Anaerobic bacteria are predominant in which phase of sewage treatment A. B. C. D. E. preliminary treatments sedimentation tanks sludge digesters sludge drying beds filtration beds 82. The most important sequelae of accidents in the aged is A. B. C. D. E. mental deterioration malnutrition syndromes secondary wounding pneumonia crippling 83. Of all the causes of fatal accidents one far exceeds all others. The most common cause A. B. C. D. E. falls burns drowning motor vehicles airplanes 84. Of the following pasteurization methods, which is the best from hygienic standpoint A. B. C. D. E. flash method holding method continuous flow method vat method final container method 85. A well would preferably be located A. B. C. D. E. close to a supply of surface water downgrade from the septic tank upgrade from the cesspool deep in the earth north of all sources of contamination 86. Aeration of water does not A. B. C. D. E. remove volatile tastes and odors inhibit filtration processes assist escape of dissolved gases reduce corrosive tendency mix oxygen with water 87. The leading cause of death in the U.S. in the 1 to 35 age group is A. B. C. D. E. tuberculosis accidents respiratory difficulty cancer heart disease 88. Of the following clinical problems due to atmospheric pollution, which has not been clinically substantiated A. B. C. D. E. respiratory illness damage to plant and cattle beryllium granulomatosis lung cancer irritant to eyes 89. The outdoor privy should be ____ feet from the ground water source A. B. C. D. E. 500 200 150 100 50 90. Which of the following would be a likely childhood immunization A. B. C. D. E. smallpox immunization tetanus immunization pertussis immunization diptheria immunization all of the above 91. The most effective bactericidal action is exhibited [in water purification] by A. B. C. D. E. inorganically combined chlorine organically combined chlorine residual chlorine all the above are equally effective effectiveness is due to another faction 92. The most common driving violation in fatal accidents is 93. What would be your first step in preventing the spread of typhoid fever from one of your patients A. adjust all individuals exposed to the disease B. refer the patient to another doctor C. report cases to the Public Health Department D. quarantine patient and members of the family E. none of the above steps would be taken 94. The occupational disease of hazard which contributes most to the mortality rate is A. B. C. D. E. carcinoma systemic poisoning dermatitis asphyxiation pneumoconiosis 95. The time elapsing between exposure to smallpox and the eruption is usually A. B. C. D. E. 28 days 21 days 14 days 8 days 5 days 96. The transmission of leprosy is by A. B. C. D. E. infection spread by fecal discharges arthropid-borne infection contact infection air-born infection droplet infection 97. Brucellosis infection in man may result from A. going through red lights B. excessive speed C. failure to signal a change of direction D. failure to observe safety signs E. none of the above A. working with the causative organism in the laboratory B. accidental innoculation C. contact with infected animals D. consumption of infected meat E. all of the above 98. Of the following diseases, which is not carried by and insect A. B. C. D. E. filariasis yellow fever rocky mountain spotted fever malaria tetanus 104. Ascarisis refers to infestation by A. B. C. D. E. threadworms pinworms tapeworms hookworms roundworms 105. Iodine is most apt to be found in 99. Which of the following is a milk borne disease A. B. C. D. E. smallpox gonorrhea chickenpox ascariasis anthrax 100. Dysentery may be caused by the following protozoan A. B. C. D. E. E. Coli Leptospira pomona Entamoeba histolytica Giardia lamblia Trypansoma cruzi A. B. C. D. E. adrenal thyroid parathyroid liver muscle 106. Enzymes are concerned with the synthesis of proteins associated with the cell’s A. B. C. D. E. ribosomes mesosomes chloroplasts caryosomes autosomes 107. Certain diseases were proven byeond doubt to be caused by microscopic organisms by 101. Insect vector involved in anthrax A. B. C. D. E. flea louse mite tick no insect vector involved 102. How long would you stay in a shelter following a radioactive explosion A. B. C. D. E. one month one week 72 hours 48 hours 24 hours 103. A calorie is a unit of A. B. C. D. E. protein content body energy heat vitamin food stuff A. B. C. D. E. Lister Jenner Pasteur Sloan Tissot 108. Increasing the concentration of fluoride in the water above the optimum level would result A. B. C. D. E. bone deformities liver degeneration mottled teeth decrease in dental caries epilepsy 109. A type of disease not seen in cattle, but only in man A. B. C. D. E. dengue Q fever Tuberculosis Brucella Anthrax 110. Noxious fumes can cause vertebral subluxations by A. B. C. D. E. excessive cold renal failure drowsiness vascular phenomena muscle contraction 111. A scientist associated with early studies in T. B. A. B. C. D. E. Koch Widal Jenner Smith Leuwenhoek 112. Which is the most effective control of milk borne disease A. B. C. D. E. vaccination of dairy cattle evaporation and canning pasteurization condensation and sweetening boiling 113. By pathogenesis one is referring to A. the progressive reaction of the host tissue to a disease B. recognizing symptoms of the disease C. reaction of the infective agent to drugs D. a serologic typing of the causative agent E. the ability of an organism to prevent disease 114. In agriculture, the principle cause of accidents is A. B. C. D. E. animals falling objects fires machinery falls 115. Identify the disease for which a toxoid is recommended for active immunity A. B. C. D. E. tuberculosis mumps diptheria measles infectious monocucleosis 116. What does a “hanging drop” procedure identify A. B. C. D. E. a motile organism a gram-positive organism a gram-negative organism an encapsulated microbe an acid fast cell 117. For the individual sugar broth fermentation test what apparatus is used A. B. C. D. E. pour plate slant tube gelatin Durham tube Wilhelm tube 118. Physiologically, viruses are most closely related by A. B. C. D. E. bacteria rickettsia fungi mold yeast 119. The expression “R-S” is used in bacteriology to describe A. B. C. D. E. staining reaction monomorphism colony variation sporulation polymorphism 120. Anaerobic methods such as Novy jars would be used in culturing A. B. C. D. E. strep staph salmonella clostridium bacillus subtilis 121. The most common food poisoning in the United States is A. B. C. D. E. staphylococcal botulis streptococcal salmonella chemical 122. Bacteriophage is defined as A. B. C. D. E. a kind of virus a fungus protozoan that destroys bacteria a pathogen for rabies bacteria that destroy phagocytes 123. The genus Neisseria has all of the following characteristics except A. it tends to be highly resistive to drying B. all members have a positive oxidase test C. some species are members of normal flora D. one species causes gonorrhea E. one species caused endemic meningitis 124. Isolation is segregation or limitation of the activity of A. B. C. D. all contacts infected persons the household members all household members and all intimate contacts E. all family members 125. What is the principle host fro Leishmania donovanni A. B. C. D. E. wood tick rat flea sand fly anopheles mosquito tsetse fly 126. A male college student has pyrexia, sore throat, lymphadenopathy [dominant in the cervical region] and general malaise. He complains of lower back pain over the last 24 hours. His history shows a doctor has been treating him for a “strep throat” with penicillin over the past week. The pain only exacerbates. Another physical causes the doctor to give a tentative diagnosis of Guillian-Barre syndrome secondary to mononucleosis. Why shouldn’t the penicillin work A. the type of penicillin used was not potent enough B. the dose of penicillin was nonlethal allowing the organism to make penicillinase C. the organism involved does not synthesized cell walls D. only gram positive bacteria were involved E. penicillin makes protoplasts [L forms] and spheroplasts 127. All are characteristic of spirochetes except A. B. C. D. E. rigid flexible parasitic helocoidal non-flagellated 128. Which of the following is not associated with a virus A. B. C. D. E. malaria influenza polio rabies smallpox 129. Treponema pallidum is the etiological agent for A. B. C. D. E. typhoid syphilis dysentery diphtheria salmonella 130. Reproduction of bacteria of the bacillicae is by A. B. C. D. E. budding spore formation cytogenous longitudinal fission binary fission 131. For differentiation of the streptococcal organism, which of the following would be used A. B. C. D. blood agar citrate agar glucose agar none of the above 132. The most frequent and most important route of infection with the tubercle bacilli in man is the A. B. C. D. E. skin respiratory tract alimentary tract genitourinary tract conjunctiva 133. Identify the form of diphtheria in which the toxin may not be absorbed even though it is a virulent form A. B. C. D. E. Vincent’s angina Faucial diphtheria laryngeal diphtheria skin diphtheria nasal diphtheria 134. An acute infection of the bowel associated with gram negative enteric bacteria, categorized by frequent passage of stools containing pus, blood, mucous, accompanied by abdominal cramps, tenesmus, malaise and fever is A. B. C. D. E. Q fever typhus typhoid fever bacillary dysentery tularemia 135. An acute specific infection involving primarily the ileum, and manifest by profuse diarrhea, vomiting, muscular cramps, dehydration, oliguria and collapse, associated with vibrio which produces toxins is A. B. C. D. E. shigellosis brucellosis plague cholera bacillary dysentery 136. The pleomorphic club shaped bacterium containing Babst-Ernst bodies is A. B. C. D. E. Borrelia vincentii Brucella abortus Corynbacterium diphtheria Streptococcus pyogenes Staphylococcus aureus 137. Which one of these bacteria is associated with blue pus A. B. C. D. E. E. Coli Proteus vulgaris B. subtilis Serratia marcecens Pseudomonas aeroginosa 138. The virus etiology of yellow fever was revealed by A. B. C. D. E. d’Herelle Reed Jenner Iwanowski Loeffler 139. Poliomyelitis is caused by a virus that is considered to be A. B. C. D. E. viscerotropic pneumotropic neurotropic dermotropic none of the above 140. Which of the following decreased dental caries in a water supply A. B. C. D. E. preventing bacterial count lowering bacterial count introduction of sodium fluoride neutralizing bacterial toxins inhibiting growth of pathogenic bacteria 141. In differentiating Clostridia, how would you differentiate between C. botulinum and C. tetani A. B. C. D. E. gram stain characteristics motility characteristics acid fast characteristics method of reproduction spore [endospore] position on the cell lining 142. What are T cells A. lymphocytes primarily noted for their role in antibody production B. lymphocytes primarily involved in phagocytosis C. lymphocytes associated with cellmediated immunity D. lymphocytes which are not involved in immunity E. lymphocytes that produce humoral antibodies 143. Smith and Brown’s classification of Streptococci is base on A. B. C. D. saprophytic reaction hemolytic reaction fermentation inocculation test 144. Which of the following organisms gives a colony of metallic sheen on eosin methylene blue agar A. B. C. D. E. E. coli Proteus vulagaris Salmonell typhi Clostridium tetani Klebsiella pneumoniae 145. Plague has its reservoir in rats and is transmitted by A. B. C. D. E. ticks mosquitoes spiders fleas rats 146. The primary agent factors in chronic respiratory disease are A. B. C. D. dust particles molds dust and chemicals silicon particles 147. The Ducrey’s bacillus is a causative organism of A. B. C. D. E. gangrene yaws syphilis pertussis soft chancre 148. What is the cause of argyria A. B. C. D. E. lead preparations sulfur derivatives silver preparations overexposure to radiation toxic antibody reaction 149. Anaerobic methods such as gas pack are used to culture A. B. C. D. E. Streptococcus Staphyloccus salmonella clostridium Bacillus 150. Identify a type of immunity induced by the administration of antibodies which have been formed in another host rather than by the individual A. B. C. D. E. response immunity passive immunity active immunity individual immunity conferred immunity 151. The coagulase test may be used to determine what type of pathogenic organism A. B. C. D. E. Aerobactor Staphylococci Neisseria Shigella Escherichia 152. The Mantoux test is associated with what organism A. B. C. D. E. Streptococcus Staphylococcus Corynebacterium diphtheria Mycobacterium tuberculosis Diplococcus pneumonia 153. Why is tetracycline considered a broad range antibiotic A. it kills bacteria for a long time B. it acts over a wide temperature range C. it acts over a wide pH range D. it kills molds, protozoa and bacteria E. it kills both gram negative and gram positive bacteria 157. Bacteriostasis is often accomplished by A. immobilization of water B. changing the permeability of the cell membrane C. inactivating enzymes D. dissolving lipids E. oxidation of vital proteins 158. The phenol coefficient is derived by a comparison reaction of which of the following A. B. C. D. E. 5% phenol 10% ethanol 20% phenol chloride water 7% sodium hydroxide 159. Identify a germicidal agent or process which gradually kills bacteria A. B. C. D. E. heat oven sterilization asepsis disinfectant autoclave 160. The ASO titer is a serum lab test for 154. How does streptomycin kill bacteria A. competing with the substrate in a synthetic pathway B. inhibiting protein synthesis C. inhibiting cell wall synthesis D. acting on the cell membrane 155. Which of the following is the most effective sterilization method for fluids A. B. C. D. E. pasteurization dry heat live steam steam under pressure tyndalization A. B. C. D. E. Salmonella antibodies Staphylococcal antibodies Shigella antibodies Streptococcal antibodies Mycobacterium antibodies 161. Of those bacteria which fix free N2, only ________ is a legume symbiant A. B. C. D. E. Nitrosomonas Axobacter Rhizobium Clostridium pasteuranum Nitrobacter 162. _________ is an example of zoonosis 156. The strongest drawback to the use of halogens [CI2, I2] as disinfectants is because they A. B. C. D. are inactivated by organic matter aren’t long lasting are very toxic are only bacteriostatic A. B. C. D. E. gas gangrene anthrax pneumococcal pneumonia tetanus Hansen’s disease 163. Gram negative intracellular diplococci are suggestive of an infection involving A. B. C. D. E. Neisseria gonorrhoeae Diplococcus pneumoniae Kleps-Loeffler bacillus Neisseria catarrhalis Mycobacterium tuberculosis 164. Which of the following sequences of diseases is arranged in order of increasing potency of the toxins associated with them A. B. C. D. E. tetanus, botulism, diphtheria botulism, tetanus, , diphtheria diphtheria, tetanus, botulism diphtheria, botulism, tetanus botulism, diphtheria, tetanus 165. Bacteria multiply mainly by A. B. C. D. E. nuclear division multiple fission binary fission spermatogenesis sexually 166. Shigella dysenteriae is common to what organism A. passes one stage of its life cycle in certain flies B. primarily attacks mammals other than humans C. attacks hums and other mammals with equal frequency D. attacks humans, other mammals and lower vertebrates E. attacks only humans 167. Spirochetes are motile organisms. They do not possess A. B. C. D. E. ribosomes flagella a plasma membrane axial fibers two of the above 168. When should serum therapy for botulism be prescribed A. it is usually started as soon as possible after the diagnosis is made B. it is combined with antibiotic therapy when clostridum is present C. it is usually delayed until the type is established D. is generally is prescribed to reverse the effects of toxin 169. What does typing of Clostridium botulinum on the basis of antigenic types of botulinum toxin produced demonstrate A. some types cause disease in both man and animals B. one antitoxin will neutralize all types C. all types are equally dangerous for man D. only types A and B are found in soil 170. What do human cases of anthrax in the United States generally result from A. consuming milk from animals with anthrax B. contact with asymptomatic cases or carriers C. local infection of breaks in the skin D. inhalation of anthrax spores E. accidental ingestion of spores from imported wool 171. The spirochete that causes Weils disease is A. B. C. D. E. Clostridium botulinum Leptospira icterohemorrhagiae Trypanosoma gambiense Leishmani donovani Mycobacterium 172. The disease often identified as a nonsupporative acute inflammatory complication of certain streptococci, characterized by arthritis or carditis, with residual heart disease as a possible sequel of carditis A. B. C. D. E. typhus brucellosis plague rheumatic fever Rocky Mountain spotted fever 173. Psittacosis is a viral condition of birds that may cause what type of condition in adults A. B. C. D. E. brucellosis rash over the trunk rash over the extremities dysentery a type of pneumonia 174. All of these are RNA viruses that cause disease in humans except A. B. C. D. herpes measles influenza polio 175. Identify the bacteria which are capable of living on inorganic matter A. B. C. D. E. parasites heterotrophs facultative anaerobes symbionts autotrophs 176. Which of the following culture media techniques would be applicable for the cultivation of viruses A. B. C. D. E. tissue cultures slant agar cultures nutrient broth cultures overlay plates fermentation cultures 177. The primary stain used in Gram’s method is A. B. C. D. E. carbol-fuchsin crystal violet safranin methylene blue methyl violet 178. Diplopia is associated with food poisoning cause by which of the following organisms A. B. C. D. E. Salmonella staphylococcus Clostridium Shigella Bordetella 179. Specific inclusion bodies are characteristic of infections associated with A. B. C. D. E. animal parasites diplococci bacilli viruses spirilla 180. Which one of the following diseases is caused by hemolytic streptococci A. B. C. D. E. tuberculosis scarlet fever diphtheria pertussis pneumonia 181. The poliomyelitis virus most frequently invades which cells of the CNS A. motor and premotor cells in the cerebral cortex B. neurons in the anterior horn C. motor cells of the reticular formation D. cells of the diencephalons E. neurons in the posterior horn 182. Hyperplasia and necrosis of Peyer’s patches during a disease process are caused by the organism known as Salmonella __________ A. B. C. D. E. typhi choleraesius enteritidis foetida hirschfeldii 183. An animate transmittor of infection is known as A. B. C. D. fomite vector host carrier