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MICROBIOLOGY EXAM III CODE 4 SIMPLE COMPLETIONS: Each of the questions or incomplete statements in this group is followed by four or five suggested answers or completions. Select the one which is best in each case and mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet. 1. Exanthem subitum (roseola) is caused by: A. human herpes virus 6 B. human herpes virus 7 C. measles virus D. varicella zoster virus 2. The virus associated with Burkitt's lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma is: A. Epstein-Barr virus B. human papillomavirus C. cytomegalovirus D. human herpes virus 8 3. The nucleocapsid refers to: A. the complete viral particle B. the viral genetic material C. the viral proteins only D. the viral genetic material and associated lipids E. the viral genetic material and associated proteins 4. Polvmerases are encoded on the genomes of A. all viruses B. all DNA viruses C. all RNA viruses D. only the largest viruses (ex. Herpesviruses, Paramyxoviruses, Rhabdoviruses, and Poxviruses) E. no viruses, because viruses do not encode. polymerases 5. Which viruses replicate in-the nucleus? A. Poxviruses B. Paramyxoviruses C. Picornaviruses D. Parvoviridae E. Orthomyxoviruses . -1- 6. Which protein is predominantly responsible for attachment of the influenza virus to susceptible epithelial cells located in the upper respiratory tract? A. Neuraminidase B. Hemagglutinin C. Matrix protein D. Nucleoprotein E. Fusion protein 7. Which proteins of influenza viruses are included in vaccine preparations? A. Neuraminidase B. Neuraminidase and fusion proteins C. Hemagglutinin D. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase E. Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase and fusion proteins 8. If an influenza infection has been diagnosed within a family, which antiviral drug could be administered to other family members as a prophylactic measure? A. Acvclovir B. Ganciclovir C. Amantadine D. Cyclosporin A E. Foscarnet 9. Select the predominant route of transmission for Hepatitis B, C, and D viruses. A. airborne B. parenteral C. fecal-oral D. contaminated food E. fomites 10. Identify the clinical status of a patient who has the following hepatitis B virus (HBV) serology findings: anti-HBc positive, anti-HBs positive, HBsAg negative. A. Current acute infection with HBV B. No past exposure to HBV C. Recent past infection with HBV D. Chronic infection with HBV E. Concurrent chronic infection with HBV and hepatitis D virus 11. Identify the true statement cited below concerning the Sabin (live) polio vaccine. A. Infectious progeny virus cannot be disseminated from the vaccinated individual. B. The vaccine confers humoral and intestinal immunity C. Induction of lifelong immunity is not possible. D. It can be given to immunodeficient individuals without reservation. E. It is administered parenterally. -2- 12. A first year medical student returns from a spring break spent in southern California. One week later he experiences fever, chills and respiratory discomfort. A sputum culture reveals a fluffy white, cottony colony after 10 days incubation at 25°C. A Gomori-methenamine silver stain of the sputum sample was examined for the presence of. A. chlamydoconidia B. encapsulated yeasts C. arthroconidia D. spherules E. sporangia 13. Canclicla albicans displays the following microscopic morphological features: A. blastoconidia B. chlamydoconidia E C. germ tubes D. pseudohyphae E. all of the above 14. Histological features of pulmonary histoplasmosis typically show: A. septate hyphae in lung tissue B. granuloma formation with small intracellular yeasts C. sulfur granule deposition within sinus tracts D. necrosis along vascular pathways E. sclerotic forms within alveolar macrophages 15. Optimal therapy for chronic dermatophytic infection of the nails is: A. ketoconazole B. 5-fluorocytosine C. combination of amphotericin-B plus 5-fluorocytosine D. griseofulvin E. hydroxystilbamidine 16. Predisposing host factors contributing to C. albicans disease include: A. antibiotic therapy B. neutropenia C. steroid therapy D. presence of an intravenous catheter E. all of the above 17. Fungal dimorphism is: A. an essential biological process for fungal reproduction B. a non-essential biological process in teleomorphic growth C. a characteristic feature of dematiaceous molds D. a virulence factor of Aspergillus fumigatus E. an adaptive response to an altered environment -3- 18. The specimen from which herpes simplex virus is most likely to be cultured is: A. saliva B. spinal fluid C. vesicle fluid D. swab from ulcer bed 19. The primary means of spread of varicella zoster virus is: A. direct contact with lesions B. respiratory droplets C. saliva D. fecal-oral route 20. Which of the following viruses causes heterophile antibody-negative mononucleosis? A cytomegalovirus B. Epstein-Barr virus C. hepatitis B virus D. rotavirus 21. The most common viral cause of congenital defects is: A. cytomegalovirus B. rubella virus C. measles virus D. herpes simplex virus MATCHING: QUESTIONS 22-26: Match the numbered word, phrase, or statement with the lettered microorganism. Lettered answers can be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. Candida albicans B. Cryptococcus neoformans C. Aspergillus fumigalus D. Malassezia furfur E. Trichophyton rubrum 22. _____ superficial mycosis 23. _____ endogenous fungus 24. _____ good serological diagnostic method available 25. _____ opportunistic mold 26. _____ produces keratinolytic enzymes -4- QUESTIONS 27-28: Match the numbered statement with the lettered virus. Lettered answers can be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. Norwalk virus B. Measles virus C. Rotavirus 27. _____ New phenotypes of this virus appear by genetic reassortment. 28. _____ This virus cannot be cultivated in animals or cell cultures. QUESTIONS 29-32: Match the parasite with the narrative. Lettered narratives can be selected once, more than once, or not at all. A. deposits infective eggs nocturnally that are immediately infective B. infective stage is filariform larva C. larva causes severe inflammation in colon D. adults migrate through lungs E. largest intestinal nematode that infects humans 29. _____Ascaris 30. _____pinworm 31. _____hookworm 32. _____strongyloides QUESTIONS 33-37: Match the parasite infection with the drug of choice. Lettered answers can be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. mebendazole B. primaquine C. flagyl D. niclosamide E. diiodohydroxyquinoline 33. _____relapse malaria 34. _____ trichomoniasis 35. _____pinworm infection 36. _____taeniasis -5- QUESTIONS 37-40: Select the procedure that is effective in making each diagnosis. Lettered answers can be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. blood smear B. stool exam C. serological test D. rectal biopsy E. none of the above 37. _____ trichuriasis 38. _____ diphyllobothriasis 39. _____ ascariasis 40. _____ cryptosporidiosis -6- ANSWERS: 1. A 2. A 3. E 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. C 11. B 12. D 13. E 14. B 15. D 16. E 17. E 18. C 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. D 23. A 24. B 25. C 26. E 27. C 28. A 29. E 30. A 31. B 32. B 33. B 34. C 35. A 36. D 37. B 38. B 39. B 40. B -7-