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MICROBIOLOGY EXAM III
CODE 4
SIMPLE COMPLETIONS:
Each of the questions or incomplete statements in this group is followed by four or five
suggested answers or completions. Select the one which is best in each case and mark the
corresponding letter on the answer sheet.
1. Exanthem subitum (roseola) is caused by:
A. human herpes virus 6
B. human herpes virus 7
C. measles virus
D. varicella zoster virus
2. The virus associated with Burkitt's lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma is:
A. Epstein-Barr virus
B. human papillomavirus
C. cytomegalovirus
D. human herpes virus 8
3. The nucleocapsid refers to:
A. the complete viral particle
B. the viral genetic material
C. the viral proteins only
D. the viral genetic material and associated lipids
E. the viral genetic material and associated proteins
4. Polvmerases are encoded on the genomes of
A. all viruses
B. all DNA viruses
C. all RNA viruses
D. only the largest viruses (ex. Herpesviruses, Paramyxoviruses, Rhabdoviruses, and
Poxviruses)
E. no viruses, because viruses do not encode. polymerases
5. Which viruses replicate in-the nucleus?
A. Poxviruses
B. Paramyxoviruses
C. Picornaviruses
D. Parvoviridae
E. Orthomyxoviruses .
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6. Which protein is predominantly responsible for attachment of the influenza virus to
susceptible epithelial cells located in the upper respiratory tract?
A. Neuraminidase
B. Hemagglutinin
C. Matrix protein
D. Nucleoprotein
E. Fusion protein
7. Which proteins of influenza viruses are included in vaccine preparations?
A. Neuraminidase
B. Neuraminidase and fusion proteins
C. Hemagglutinin
D. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
E. Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase and fusion proteins
8. If an influenza infection has been diagnosed within a family, which antiviral drug could
be administered to other family members as a prophylactic measure?
A. Acvclovir
B. Ganciclovir
C. Amantadine
D. Cyclosporin A
E. Foscarnet
9. Select the predominant route of transmission for Hepatitis B, C, and D viruses.
A. airborne
B. parenteral
C. fecal-oral
D. contaminated food
E. fomites
10. Identify the clinical status of a patient who has the following hepatitis B virus (HBV)
serology findings: anti-HBc positive, anti-HBs positive, HBsAg negative.
A. Current acute infection with HBV
B. No past exposure to HBV
C. Recent past infection with HBV
D. Chronic infection with HBV
E. Concurrent chronic infection with HBV and hepatitis D virus
11. Identify the true statement cited below concerning the Sabin (live) polio vaccine.
A. Infectious progeny virus cannot be disseminated from the vaccinated individual.
B. The vaccine confers humoral and intestinal immunity
C. Induction of lifelong immunity is not possible.
D. It can be given to immunodeficient individuals without reservation.
E. It is administered parenterally.
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12. A first year medical student returns from a spring break spent in southern California. One
week later he experiences fever, chills and respiratory discomfort. A sputum culture reveals a
fluffy white, cottony colony after 10 days incubation at 25°C. A Gomori-methenamine silver
stain of the sputum sample was examined for the presence of.
A. chlamydoconidia
B. encapsulated yeasts
C. arthroconidia
D. spherules
E. sporangia
13. Canclicla albicans displays the following microscopic morphological features:
A. blastoconidia
B. chlamydoconidia
E C. germ tubes
D. pseudohyphae
E. all of the above
14. Histological features of pulmonary histoplasmosis typically show:
A. septate hyphae in lung tissue
B. granuloma formation with small intracellular yeasts
C. sulfur granule deposition within sinus tracts
D. necrosis along vascular pathways
E. sclerotic forms within alveolar macrophages
15. Optimal therapy for chronic dermatophytic infection of the nails is:
A. ketoconazole
B. 5-fluorocytosine
C. combination of amphotericin-B plus 5-fluorocytosine
D. griseofulvin
E. hydroxystilbamidine
16. Predisposing host factors contributing to C. albicans disease include:
A. antibiotic therapy
B. neutropenia
C. steroid therapy
D. presence of an intravenous catheter
E. all of the above
17. Fungal dimorphism is:
A. an essential biological process for fungal reproduction
B. a non-essential biological process in teleomorphic growth
C. a characteristic feature of dematiaceous molds
D. a virulence factor of Aspergillus fumigatus
E. an adaptive response to an altered environment
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18. The specimen from which herpes simplex virus is most likely to be cultured is:
A. saliva
B. spinal fluid
C. vesicle fluid
D. swab from ulcer bed
19. The primary means of spread of varicella zoster virus is:
A. direct contact with lesions
B. respiratory droplets
C. saliva
D. fecal-oral route
20. Which of the following viruses causes heterophile antibody-negative mononucleosis?
A cytomegalovirus
B. Epstein-Barr virus
C. hepatitis B virus
D. rotavirus
21. The most common viral cause of congenital defects is:
A. cytomegalovirus
B. rubella virus
C. measles virus
D. herpes simplex virus
MATCHING:
QUESTIONS 22-26: Match the numbered word, phrase, or statement with the lettered
microorganism. Lettered answers can be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Candida albicans
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Aspergillus fumigalus
D. Malassezia furfur
E. Trichophyton rubrum
22. _____ superficial mycosis
23. _____ endogenous fungus
24. _____ good serological diagnostic method available
25. _____ opportunistic mold
26. _____ produces keratinolytic enzymes
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QUESTIONS 27-28: Match the numbered statement with the lettered virus. Lettered answers
can be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Norwalk virus
B. Measles virus
C. Rotavirus
27. _____ New phenotypes of this virus appear by genetic reassortment.
28. _____ This virus cannot be cultivated in animals or cell cultures.
QUESTIONS 29-32: Match the parasite with the narrative. Lettered narratives can be selected
once, more than once, or not at all.
A. deposits infective eggs nocturnally that are immediately infective
B. infective stage is filariform larva
C. larva causes severe inflammation in colon
D. adults migrate through lungs
E. largest intestinal nematode that infects humans
29. _____Ascaris
30. _____pinworm
31. _____hookworm
32. _____strongyloides
QUESTIONS 33-37: Match the parasite infection with the drug of choice. Lettered answers can
be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. mebendazole
B. primaquine
C. flagyl
D. niclosamide
E. diiodohydroxyquinoline
33. _____relapse malaria
34. _____ trichomoniasis
35. _____pinworm infection
36. _____taeniasis
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QUESTIONS 37-40: Select the procedure that is effective in making each diagnosis. Lettered
answers can be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. blood smear
B. stool exam
C. serological test
D. rectal biopsy
E. none of the above
37. _____ trichuriasis
38. _____ diphyllobothriasis
39. _____ ascariasis
40. _____ cryptosporidiosis
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ANSWERS:
1. A
2. A
3. E
4. C
5. D
6. B
7. D
8. C
9. B
10. C
11. B
12. D
13. E
14. B
15. D
16. E
17. E
18. C
19. B
20. A
21. A
22. D
23. A
24. B
25. C
26. E
27. C
28. A
29. E
30. A
31. B
32. B
33. B
34. C
35. A
36. D
37. B
38. B
39. B
40. B
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