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MULTIPLE CHOICE TEST STATEGIES – AND REVIEW OF ECOLOGY AND EVOLUTION The multiple choice format is commonly used in testing because the exams are relatively easy to grade and the questions effectively evaluate students' knowledge of facts and understanding of concepts. This is an objective form of testing since, if the questions are well written, there is only one correct answer to each question, leaving little room for interpretation. 1) Work Quickly By working quickly through multiple choice tests, one insures that the test is completed in time and that questions are not over-interpreted, with hidden meanings read into them. Read each question only once, underlining key words as one reads. Break complicated questions into smaller segments, so that the answer choices may be checked against each part. Cross out unimportant or irrelevant parts of the question. If you are unable to answer the question after your first reading, mark it for later consideration as time allows. 2) Guess Before Choosing Decide what the answer to each question should be before looking at the answer choices. Then examine the choices and pick the answer that most closely matches your answer. If none of the choices is similar to your guess, carefully study the answers looking for key words and other clues. Choose simple answers even if they seem obvious. And remember, never pick an answer without first reading all of the choices, no matter how sure you are of the answer. 3) Eliminate Unlikely Answers (Process of Elimination) Cross off answers that are only partly correct or only partially answer the question. Eliminate answers that are correct but do not answer the question. If you know for sure that one response is not true, eliminate "all of the above" as a possible answer. 4) Look for Clue Words and Numbers The following clues apply to many multiple choice questions. If two answers are opposites, one of may be correct. Look for grammatical clues between the question and the choices. For example, the question and correct answer often have verbs of the same tense and have nouns and verbs that agree. Underline familiar words or phrases from the lecture, textbook, or your memory. Be aware of degrees of correctness. With numbers and dates, one choice is usually too small or too early, and one too large or too late; these choices may be eliminated. If two choices are very similar, differing only in degree, the one expressed in more general terms is probably correct. Use the content of other questions as additional clues. 5) Be Wary of Multiple Answers Carefully evaluate "all of the above" and "none of the above" choices before selecting them. For the former, all of the responses should be correct. But if you are absolutely sure that at least two of the choices are correct, then you are probably safe in choosing "all of the above." Select the latter if you are sure at least two of the choices are incorrect. 6) When in Doubt, Guess Since you are not penalized for wrong answers on the Keystone, guessing is a good strategy to use, if needed. If you are randomly guessing, you should get about 25% of the questions correct. With educated guessing, the percentage may rise to 75%. Educated guessing involves eliminating all implausible answers first and looking for clues in the question and answers. When randomly guessing, sometimes the answer that is longest in length is the correct answer. 7) Do Change Answers Only consider changing answers after completing the entire test. And reread the directions before checking and changing answers. First check the questions that were flagged the first time through the test. Then check the other questions if time permits. Erase all changes carefully and completely, especially since the test will be graded by machine. Make sure all answers are legible and in the right place (circled, on blanks, on an answer sheet, etc.). 8) Don't Give Up Resist the temptation to become frustrated, bored, or anxious. Move quickly through the test. Look for material that you do know. Apply that information to questions you don't know. Use the entire class period to complete the test and check answers. 9) What To Do If More Than One Answer Seems Correct If you're utterly stumped by a question, here are some strategies to help you narrow the field and select the correct answer: Ask yourself whether the answer you're considering completely addresses the question. If the test answer is only partly true or is true only under certain narrow conditions, then it's probably not the right answer. If you have to make a significant assumption in order for the answer to be true, ask yourself whether this assumption is obvious enough that the instructor would expect everyone to make it. If not, dump the answer overboard. If you think an item is a trick question, think again. Very few instructors would ever write a question intended to be deceptive. If you suspect that a question is a trick item, make sure you're not reading too much into the question, and try to avoid imagining detailed scenarios in which the answer could be true. In most cases, "trick questions" are only tricky because they're not taken at face value. 10. Charts, Graphs and Diagrams First look at the title, axis and keys to help determine what the graphic is telling you. Then try and determine what is changing and why. Make sure you look at all parts of the graph. Go back to the question and see exactly what information is needed from the graphic provided. Not all information presented will be helpful. In the pages that follow, there are practice multiple choice questions where we would like you to try these techniques. Use strategy 1, 6 and 7 during the entire test. Then, for some questions, specific techniques are suggested. Refer back to them while you work. Use the circle graphs to answer the question. 1. The graphs illustrate change in lizard population over time. Which process most likely led to the change in the lizard population over time? A. natural selection acting on a harmful trait B. natural selection acting on a beneficial trait C. natural selection acting on a dominate trait D. natural selection acting on a recessive trait **Try strategies 3 and 9** 2. In North America, the eastern spotted skunk mates in late winter, and the western spotted skunk mates in late summer. Even though their geographic ranges overlap, the species do not mate with each other. What most likely prevents these two species from interbreeding? A. habitat isolation B. gametic isolation C. geographic isolation D. reproductive isolation **Try strategy 3** 3. A mutation occurs in the genes that code for coat color in deer. Which change will most likely result from this mutation? A. a change in the selection pressures acting on coat color B. a change in the coat-color genes of deer predator species C. an increase in coat-color diversity in the population D. an increase in the number of genes for coat color in the population **Try strategy 9 and pay attention to what the question is asking** 4. Use the picture on the right to help answer the question. The skeletons of mammalian forelimbs represent variations of a structure that was present in their common ancestor. What has most likely caused the variation in forelimbs? A. changes in muscle structure B. changes in the genetic codes C. trait formation due to behaviors D. development of vestigial structures **Try strategy 3 – process of elimination** Use the table below to answer the question. Sequence Differences between COII Genes in Some Animals Number of Base Animal Differences from a Rat mouse 101 cow 136 5. The gene COII is in the genome of many organisms. A comparison of the number of base differences between the COII gene in a rat and that of two other animals is shown. What is best conclusion you can draw from this data? A. Rats and Mice are very similar B. Mice and Cows are very similar C. Mice are more similar to Rats than Cows D. Cows are more similar to Rats than Mice **Try strategy 10** 6. Use the table below to answer the question. Student's Observations of a Pond Ecosystem Quantitative Qualitative Leaves lie on the bottom of the pond. 37 fish and 3 frogs 2 types of aquatic grass 12 small rocks and 1 medium rock sand Water insects move along the water's surface All 3 frogs are sitting on a pond bank. . A group of students measured a ten-square-meter section of a pond ecosystem and recorded observations. Which statement is a testable hypothesis? A. The frogs living in the pond represent a population. B. Water is an abiotic component in the pond ecosystem. C. If the fish are given more food, then they will be happier. D. If the frogs are startled, then they will jump into the water. **Try strategy 9** 7. Use the list below to answer the question. Observations • two grey wolves • five moose • several species of conifer trees • large granite rock • shallow pond A student wrote several observations in a field notebook. Which term best classifies all of the student’s observations? A. population B. food chain C. ecosystem D. community **Try strategy 2** 8. A researcher observing an ecosystem describes the amount of sunlight, precipitation, and type of soil present. Which factors is the researcher most likely describing? A. biotic factors in a forest B. biotic factors in a tundra C. abiotic factors in a prairie D. abiotic factors in an ocean **Try strategies 3 and 4** 9. Use the diagram to the to answer the question. Which sequence correctly describes the flow of energy between organisms in the marine food web? A. from seals to penguins to krill B. from whales to krill to small fish C. from sea birds to seals to penguins D. from small fish to penguins to seals **Try strategy 10** 10. A species of snapping turtles has a tongue that resembles a worm. The tongue is used to attract small fish. Which best describes the interaction between the fish and the snapping turtle? A. predation B. symbiosis C. parasitism D. competition **Try strategy 2** 11. Which statement correctly describes how nitrogen in the soil returns to the atmosphere? A. Soil bacteria convert nitrates into nitrogen gas. B. Decomposers directly convert ammonium into nitrogen gas. C. Plants assimilate nitrites and convert them into nitrogen gas. D. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria in plant roots convert nitrates into nitrogen gas. **Try strategy 3** 12. Agricultural runoff can carry fertilizers into lakes and streams. This runoff can cause algae populations to greatly increase. Which effect does this change in the algae population sizes most likely have on affected lakes and streams? A. an increase in water level B. an increase in water clarity C. a reduction in dissolved oxygen needed by fish and shellfish D. a reduction in temperature variations near the water’s surface **Try strategy 9, first bullet** 13. A farmer observed that an increase in a field’s soil nitrogen content was followed by an increase in producer productivity. What does this observation most likely indicate about the relationship between nitrogen and the producers in the field? A. Nitrogen was a biotic factor. B. Nitrogen was a limiting factor. C. Nitrogen became a surplus resource. D. Nitrogen became a selection pressure. **Try strategy 9, 2nd bullet** **Try strategy 10 for the last 3 and be sure to read this graph carefully** Use the graph above to answer the following questions: 14. Which of the following is the most likely reason the moose population declined between 1975 and 1980 A. B. C. D. The moose ran out of its common food type There was an abundance of wolves to prey on them The moose ran out of space in the meadow they live in The moose did not decline between 1975 and 1980, they rose 15. What year did the predator population peak? A. 1972 B. 1987 C. 1982 D. Cannot be determined 16. Predict what will happen to the population of the moose after 1994. A. It will begin to decline because the wolf population will increase B. It will continue to grow for the next ten years C. It will level off at 18,000 and stay the same for a while D. There is no way to tell what the population will do Answer Key: 1. b 2. d 3. c 4. b 5. c 6. d 7. c 8. c 9. d 10. a 11. a 12. c 13. b 14. b 15. c 16. a