Download Q1 1,7,8,9,10 questions - GEO

Physical Geography Quiz 1 - Chapters 1,7,8,9,10
-Be sure to do your own work
-Turn in on due date before class starts
1. The Earth's axis is always tilted at an angle of _________ degrees to the perpendicular.
A) 15
B) 23.5
C) 33.3
D) 66.5
E) 90
2. The Meridian at 0 degrees is:
A) the Prime Meridian
B) the Equator
C) the Arctic Circle
D) the Antarctic Circle
E) the International Date Line
3. The point on the Earth's surface where the Sun is directly overhead is:
A) subsolar point
B) circle of illumination
C) great circle
D) small circle
E) arctic circle
4. What forces cause the Earth to assume the shape of an oblate ellipsoid?
A) Gravity B) Earth's rotation on its axis
C) Earth's revolution around the Sun
D) Tectonic forces
E) Gravitational influence of the Moon
5. The boundary between the half of the Earth in sunlight and the half of the Earth in darkness is the
__________.
A) solar zenith
B) international dateline
C) arctic circle
D) plane of the ecliptic
E) circle of illumination
6. At the moment of the perihelion, the earth's position is _____________________.
A) directly between the plane of the ecliptic and the Tropic of Capricorn
B) farthest from the Sun
C) closest to the Sun
D) farthest from the Moon
E) closest to the Moon
7. When a plane passing through the center of the Earth intersects the Earth's surface, the result is a
A) line of longitude
B) line of latitude
C) great circle
D) small circle
E) meridian
8. How many degrees separate each time zone?
A) 1 degree B) 2 degrees
C) 5 degrees
9. What is the declination of the Sun at the equinoxes?
A) 90 degrees
B) 66.5 degrees
C) 45 degrees
D) 10 degrees
E) 15 degrees
D) 23.5 degrees
E) 0 degrees
10. Which of the following pairs of factors are most influential in the annual cycle of air temperatures
experienced at a weather station
A) surface type and elevation
B) surface type and coastal-continental location
C) coastal-continental location and elevation
D) latitude and coastal-continental location
E) latitude and surface type
11. Wet climates associated with equatorial regions are the result of:
A) high temperatures
B) large areas of oceans
C) high wind speeds
D) high atmospheric pressures
E) low atmospheric pressures
12. The subhumid regions located equator-ward of the poles on an idealized supercontinent represent the
location of which feature?
A) The Intertropical Convergence Zone
B) The Subtropical High
C) The Doldrums
D) The Trade Winds
E) The Mid-latitude westerlies
13. Which of the following air masses is associated with tropical deserts?
A) mT
B) mE
C) mP
D) cE
E) cT
14. A cool desert climate would be best described by which of the following Koppen classifications?
A) Dfc
B) Dwd
C) BWk
D) Cfb
E) Cfw
15. What factor differentiates the two climate classifications of BWh and BSh?
A) wind patterns
B) atmospheric pressure
C) temperature
D) precipitation
E) altitude
16. The trade-wind coastal climate type and the monsoon climate type are differentiated by which of the
following features?
A) Monsoon climates are seasonal whereas trade-wind climates are not
B) Trade-wind climates are seasonal where monsoon climates are not
C) Monsoon climates exhibit high levels of rainfall whereas trade-wind climates are generally dry
D) Monsoon climates are especially well developed on west coasts, whereas trade-wind climates are well
developed on east coasts
E) Monsoon climates are situated at lower latitudes than trade-wind climates
17. Which of the following characteristics is an important adaptation in the plants of the savanna?
A) They are resistant to very high temperature
B) They can survive extended periods of drought
C) They can quickly utilize plant nutrients that are released by the decay of fallen leaves and branches
D) They are adapted to consistently high water levels
E) They are resistant to consistently high wind speeds
18. Which of the following climate types experiences wet winters and dry summers?
A) dry subtropical
B) moist subtropical
C) mediterranean
D) marine west-coast
E) dry mid-latitude
19. Moist continental climates are identified by which of the following characteristics?
A) low precipitation with a winter maximum
B) abundant precipitation with a summer maximum
C) cool summers and warm winters
D) cyclonic precipitation in the summer
E) convectional precipitation in the winter
20. Vegetation cover over a large area
A) is an indication of the climate of the area.
C) indicates the levels of solar insolation.
E) is predominantly man made.
B) requires good soils.
D) indicates the amount of precipitation.
21. The tropical deserts are caused by
A) a lack of seasonal moisture.
B) their placement in relationship to the Prime Meridian.
C) their distance from the equator and the Arctic circle.
D) stationary subtropical cells of high pressure.
E) prevailing westerly wind patterns.
22. At each level in a food chain or food web, energy is lost through:
A) decay
B) respiration
C) metabolism
D) net photosynthesis
E) gross photosynthesis
23. Algae floating at the surface of a freshwater pond would be said to occupy which level in a food chain?
A) Producers
B) First order consumers
C) Second order consumers
D) Third order consumers
E) Decomposers
24. Generally, how much energy stored in organic matter at one level can be passed up the chain to the next
level?
A) 1 – 5%
B) 5 – 10%
C) 10 – 50%
D) 70 – 90%
E) 90 – 100%
25. Which of the following environments would have the highest net primary production on average?
A) agricultural land
B) tropical rainforest
C) midlatitude grasslands
D) open ocean
E) lakes and streams
26. The dry weight of living organic matter in an ecosystem within a designated surface area is the:
A) primary production
B) net primary production
C) biomass
D) gross photosynthesis
E) net photosynthesis
27. Which of the following factors is responsible for higher productivities in marine coastal areas?
A) rate of decomposition
B) day length
C) upwelling
D) light intensity
E) temperature
28. Which of the following processes is used to produce biogas as an energy source?
A) burning of fossil fuels
B) burning of wood and crop residues
C) accumulation of gases from the production of charcoal D) digestion of wastes by bacteria
E) conversion of agricultural wastes to alcohol
29. Which of the following forms of carbon dominates it storage in organic matter?
A) carbon dioxide
B) carbon monoxide
C) hydrocarbons
D) calcium carbonates
E) carbohydrates
30. The process whereby nitrogen is removed from the atmosphere and incorporated into soils is referred to as:
A) denitrification
B) nitrogen fixation C) denudation
D) outgassing
E) combustion
31. Which of the following forms of interaction between species is responsible for the important role of
legumes in the recycling of nitrogen in the soil?
A) succession
B) predation
C) herbivory
D) parasitism
E) symbiosis
32. At each level in a food chain or food web, energy is lost through:
A) decay
B) respiration
C) metabolism
D) net photosynthesis
E) gross photosynthesis
33. Which of the following is a consequence of the loss of energy as passes up the levels in a food chain?
A) increasing gross photosynthesis
B) decreasing gross photosynthesis
C) decreasing net photosynthesis
D) decreasing biomass
E) increasing respiration
34. The fundamental role played by an organism as well as the space it inhabits is referred to as a/an:
A) sere
B) bioclimatic frontier
C) habitat
D) niche
E) disjunction
35. The specific term used to describe plants adapted to alternating wet and dry seasons are referred to as:
A) schlerophylls
B) xerophytes
C) succulents
D) phreatophytes
E) tropophytes
36. The limitation of the spread of a species by regional climatic variations is referred to as a/an:
A) sere
B) bioclimatic frontier
C) habitat
D) niche
E) disjunction
37. The positive interaction between individuals of different species whereby one species is benefited and the
other is unaffected is known as:
A) commensalism
B) symbiosis
C) mutualism
D) protocooperation
E) herbivory
38. Succession that develops on disused agricultural land or old-field succession may also be classified as:
A) equilibrium succession
B) .pioneer succession
C) secondary succession
D) primary succession
E) autogenic succession
39. The chance mutations in a population without any particular beneficial effect change the genetic
composition of a breeding population until it diverges from other populations is referred to as:
A) gene flow
B) genetic drift
C) allopatric speciation
D) geographic isolation
E) disjunction
40. Which of the following characterizes mid-latitude coastal forest?
A) thick, woody lianas
B) seasonal shedding of leaves
C) needle-shaped leaves
D) trees spaced far apart
E) sparse clumps of plants
41. In a transect from the Equator to the Tropic of Cancer, which of the following would be the correct order of
vegetation types?
A) Tropical desert, subtropical steppe, sclerophyll forest, midlatitude deciduous forest
B) Tropical desert, sclerophyll forest, subtropical steppe, midlatitude deciduous forest
C) Equatorial rainforest, savanna woodland, savanna grassland, tropical scrub, tropical desert
D) Equatorial rainforest, savanna grassland, savanna woodland, tropical scrub, tropical desert
E) Equatorial rainforest, savanna woodland, subtropical steppe, sclerophyll forest, tropical desert
42. Biomes may be broken down into smaller vegetation units referred to as:
A) species
B) life forms
C) formation classes
D) habitats E) climax communities
43. Lower Sonoran, Upper Sonoran, and Arctic Alpine Zones are all examples of?
A) Life Zones
B) Transition Zones
C) Climates Zones
D) Biome Zones
E) Soil Zones
44. The proportion of sand, silt and clay in a soil is referred to as the:
A) soil profile
B) soil configuration
C) soil enrichment
D) soil structure
E) soil texture
45. A soil may be said to be saturated under which of the following conditions?
A) potential evapotranspiration exceeds soil water recharge
B) potential evapotranspiration exceeds actual evapotranspiration
C) actual evapotranspiration exceeds potential evapotranspiration
D) actual evapotranspiration equals potential evapotranspiration
E) actual evapotranspiration is less than potential evapotranspiration
46. The development of a light-colored, mineral rich A horizon is the direct result of which of the following
processes?
A) illuviation
B) eluviation
C) salinization
D) humification
E) transformation
47. A soil that has equal parts of sand and silt with a smaller proportion of clay is referred to as a:
A) sandy loam
B) clay loam
C) loam
D) silty clay
E) silt loam
48. In which type of soil would you find laterite?
A) ultisol
B) oxisol
C) aridisol
D) andisol
E) histosol
49. Red soils generally are created by the presence of _________.
A) silica
B) alumina C) magnesium
D) iron oxide
E) peat
50. Colloids are important to soil formation because ____________________.
A) they allow for easy transportation of water
B) they allow for breaks in the soil so that water and gases can travel through it
C) they attract base ions which act as nutrients for plants
D) of their positive charge which allows them to attract acidic compounds
E) they are a key source of moisture
ESSAYS ON NEXT PAGE
-Write your answer on the back of the scan-tron or a separate piece of paper.
-You must answer two (2) of the following questions. Each needs to be answered using
3-5 complete sentences. A hand-drawn sketch may also be used to help with the
explanation if it is used as part of the answer.
-If you do not answer the essays, points will be taken off the multiple choice total.
____________________________________________________________________________________
-Describe and explain the length of daylight at your current location at the solstices and the equinoxes.
-Describe the major factors in soil and soil development, and explain their differing role in a selection of soil
orders.
-Describe the spatial and temporal factors involved in the annual climate of your region.
-Draw and explain your best estimate of the climograph for your region. Pay close attention to seasonal
variations and the range of temperatures and precipitation amounts.
-Choose your dream vacation destination. Describe the ways in which you would use the principles of climate
classification to begin to describe that location's climate
-Describe and explain the seasonal changes associated with a monsoon climate
-Compare and contrast the nature of arid and semi-arid climates. Explain the factors responsible for these
differences.
-Compare and contrast the impact of burning fossil fuels and burning biomass on the cycles of the biosphere.
-Describe and explain the water needs of vegetation local to your region. How do humans attempt to alter the
local water supply in order to support agriculture and other forms of human-induced vegetation?
-Describe the successional changes that you might observe in an abandoned agricultural field.
-Describe the stages that you envisage would follow an extensive forest fire.
-Describe the factors that promote and limit the dispersal of species.
-Describe the nature of soil texture and explain its role in a soil water budget.