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Organismal Biology 1030 A & B Section Four Exam Spring 2010
1. Groups of cells that interact and provide a specific function are:
A. Tumors
B. Tissues
C. Organs
D. Organ systems
E. Organisms
2. The four basic tissue types in animals are:
A. Squamous, cuboidal, columnar, and stratified
B. Loose, dense, adipose, and bone
C. Skeletal, cardiac, smooth, and involutary
D. Epithelial, connective, nervous, and muscle
E. Digestive, circulatory, respiratory, and excretory
3. Tissue that serves as an internal or external surface lining, for protection, absorption, gas diffusion, or secretion is:
A. Epithelial
B. Connective
C. Nervous
D. Muscle
E. Skeletal
4. Tissue that functions in receiving, processing and transmitting information by providing a communication network is:
A. Epithelial
B. Connective
C. Nervous
D. Muscle
E. Skeletal
5. The tissue type that functions in providing contractions that power movement is:
A. Epithelial
B. Connective
C. Nervous
D. Muscle
E. Skeletal
6. The organ systems that work together to acquire energy in and for the body and distribute about the body are:
A. Nervous and endocrine
B. Skeletal and muscular
C. Digestive, respiratory, and circulatory
D. Reproductive
E. Integumentary, immune, and urinary
7. The organ systems that work together to protect the body from internal and external harmful factors are:
A. Nervous and endocrine
B. Skeletal and muscular
C. Digestive, respiratory, and circulatory
D. Reproductive
E. Integumentary, immune, and urinary
8. The part of a neuron that is usually a single long extension that conducts an impulse to a muscle (or another neuron or
a gland) is:
A. The axon
B. The synapse
C. The cell body
D. The dendrite
E. The node of Ranvier
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9. The junctions between one neuron and another neuron (or muscle fiber or gland) are called:
A. Axons
B. Synapses
C. Cell Bodies
D. Dendrites
E. Nodes of Ranvier
10. The type of neuron that conducts its message from the central nervous system toward an effector (e.g. a muscle) is a:
A. Synaptic neuron
B. Interneuron
C. Sensory neuron
D. Motor neuron
E. Schwann cell
11. A chemical that travels over the junction from a sending neuron to a receiving neuron (or muscle or gland) to elicit a
specific response is called a(n):
A. Neurotransmitter
B. Synaptic cleft
C. Action potential
D. Hormone
E. Neurotoxin
12. The part of the central nervous system that conducts information to and from the brain is the:
A. Motor neuron
B. Sensory neuron
C. Spinal cord
D. Brainstem
E. Medulla oblongata
13. The part of the brain that is responsible for homeostatic control of most organ systems is the:
A. Cerebellum
B. Hypothalamus
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Cerebrum
E. Pons
14. The part of the brain that controls the qualities of what we consider intelligence, learning, and the “mind” is the:
A. Cerebellum
B. Hypothalamus
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Cerebrum
E. Pons
15. What are the three major roles of the nervous system?
A. Sensory input, sensory integration, and motor response
B. Sight, hearing, and taste
C. Touch, temperature, and pain
D. Innate, cellular, and humoral
E. Autonomic, sympathetic, parasympathetic
16. Which statement is not true concerning myelin?:
A. Schwann cells form myelin sheaths
B. Myelin prevents ion flow across the membrane
C. The neural impulse ‘jumps’ beween nodes of Ranvier
D. Myelinated axons conduct impulses much slower than unmyelinated axons
E. Myelin serves as an ‘insulator’ on axons
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17. Which statement is not true concerning feedback loops in organisms?
A. Negative feedback loops control most of an organism’s homeostasis
B. Positive feedback loops control most of an organism’s homeostasis
C. Positive feedback loops reinforce themselves, i.e. some change causes more of that change
D. Negative feedback loops counteract themselves, i.e. some change causes less of that change
E. Feedback loops are monitored by sensors in an organism
18. Which of the following type of receptor is used to primarily detect light?
A. Photoreceptor
B. Proprioreceptor
C. Electroreceptor
D. Thermoreceptor
E. Chemoreceptor
19. Which of the following is used to primarily detect airborne or dissolved molecules?
A. Photoreceptor
B. Thermoreceptor
C. Proprioreceptor
D. Mechanoreceptor
E. Chemoreceptor
20. Olfaction is another name for the:
A. Sense of body position
B. Sense of smell
C. Sense of hearing
D. Sense of pain
E. Sense of equilibrium
21. A common, light-sensitive, pigmented protein molecule that absorbs light and changes shape, thereby altering the
charge across the membrane of the receptor cell in which it is found is:
A. Rhodopsin
B. Chlorophyll
C. Carotene
D. Glutamate
E. Tyrosine
22. The part of the eye that regulates the size of the opening for light coming into the eye is the:
A. Cornea
B. Pupil
C. Iris
D. Cone
E. Lens
23. The part of the eye that serves as the opening for light to enter into the eye is the:
A. Cornea
B. Pupil
C. Retina
D. Iris
E. Lens
24. The part of the eye that is a sheet of photoreceptors at the back of the eye is the:
A. Cornea
B. Pupil
C. Retina
D. Iris
E. Lens
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25. The rods and cones are:
A. Found in the lens of the eye
B. Are oriented ‘forward,’ such that light strikes them directly
C. Are photoreceptor cells of the eye
D. Are types of bacteria found in the human gut
E. Responsible for ‘flipping’ the image we see right side up
26. At the snail-shaped _______________, sound is transduced into nerve impulses.
A. Vestibule
B. Cochlea
C. Malleus
D. Utricle
E. Incus
27. Hormonal functions do not include:
A. Regulating growth and development
B. Influencing appetite
C. Regulating the amount of glucose in the blood
D. Regulating the composition of body fluids
E. Enzymatic digestion of food
28. The mixed endocrine gland that primarily produces testosterone is the:
A. Pancreas
B. Parathyroid gland
C. Adrenal gland
D. Pineal gland
E. Testes
29. The mixed endocrine gland that produces hormones that regulate blood glucose levels is the:
A. Pancreas
B. Parathyroid gland
C. Adrenal gland
D. Pineal gland
E. Testes
30. An endocrine gland releases its product directly:
A. Into the circulatory system
B. Into the digestive system
C. Onto an outer epithelial surface
D. Into a body cavity
E. Into synapses of the nervous system
31. Which of the following is a primary endocrine product of the ovaries?
A. Estrogen
B. Egg cells
C. Insulin
D. Urine
E. Thyroxin
32. A deficiency of iodine in the diet can cause the medical condition known as:
A. Hepatitis
B. Acromegaly
C. Diabetes
D. Goiter
E. Osteoporosis
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33. The adrenal glands are located “on top” of:
A. The ovaries
B. The pancreas
C. The kidneys
D. The thyroid gland
E. The liver
34. Insulin is not:
A. Used to treat Type II diabetes mellitus
B. Produced by the pancreas
C. Produced in the Islets of Langerhans
D. Involved in control of blood sugar levels
E. A hormone
35. The type of skeleton that is an internal support structure made of calcium plates or spines or cartilage or bone is a(n):
A. Endoskeleton
B. Hydrostatic skeleton
C. Gastrovascular cavity
D. Exoskeleton
E. Vascular canal
36. The type of skeleton that is usually composed of either a calcium containing shell or a chitin ‘armored suit’ is a(n):
A. Endoskeleton
B. Hydrostatic skeleton
C. Gastrovascular cavity
D. Exoskeleton
E. Vascular canal
37. Red marrow:
A. Is primarily found in the liver
B. Is primarily found in the brain
C. Is found in compact bone
D. Is where nerve cells are produced
E. Is where blood cells are produced
38. A condition in which bones become less dense and brittle is:
A. Osteoporosis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Goiter
D. Dwarfism
E. Gigantism
39. An area where two bones meet is called a:
A. Synapse
B. Synaptic cleft
C. Joint
D. Vascular cavity
E. Olfactory bulb
40. Ligaments are connective tissues that connect _______________ to _________________.
A. Muscle, bone
B. Tendons, bone
C. Muscle, muscle
D. Bone, bone
E. Cartilage, bone
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41. Tendons are connective tissues that connect _______________ to ________________.
A. Muscle, bone
B. Ligaments, bone
C. Muscle, muscle
D. Bone, bone
E. Cartilage, bone
42. An autoimmune disorder in which there is chronic inflammation of the synovial membrane of a joint is:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Osteoporosis
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Dwarfism
E. Goiter
43. A thick filament (versus the thin filament) of muscle is composed primarily of the protein:
A. Myosin
B. Myoglobin
C. Hemoglobin
D. Actin
E. Collagen
44. Blood:
A. Is a liquid epithelial tissue
B. Removes nutrients from the cells of the body
C. Delivers carbon dioxide to the cells of the body
D. Has only one cell type within it
E. Delivers oxygen to the cells of the body
45. The large vessels of the circulatory system that carry blood away from the heart are:
A. Arteries
B. Veins
C. Capillaries
D. Lymph vessels
E. Sieve tubes
46. The large vessels that carry blood to the heart are:
A. Arteries
B. Veins
C. Capillaries
D. Lymph vessels
E. Sieve tubes
47. The small vessels from which water and dissolved substances diffuse between the blood and interstitial fluid are:
A. Arteries
B. Veins
C. Capillaries
D. Lymph vessels
E. Sieve tubes
48. Vertebrates with a two-chambered heart include:
A. Fish
B. Amphibians
C. Reptiles
D. Birds
E. Mammals
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49. The upper chambers of the mammalian heart are the:
A. Ventricles
B. Arteries
C. Atria
D. Vascular cavities
E. Sinuses
50. The pair of major blood vessels that deliver deoxygenated blood from the body (except the lungs) to the right atrium
are the:
A. Pulmonary vein and inferior vena cava
B. Inferior vena cava and superior vena cava
C. Superior vena cava and pulmonary vein
D. Aorta and inferior vena cava
E. Aorta and superior vena cava
51. The chamber of the heart that is the most powerful is the:
A. Left atrium
B. Right atrium
C. Right ventricle
D. Left ventricle
E. All chambers of the heart have equal forces of contraction
52. The blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the heart muscle is the:
A. Coronary artery
B. Aorta
C. Pulmonary artery
D. Superior vena cava
E. Inferior vena cava
53. The major blood vessel that delivers oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart is the:
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Pulmonary vein
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Superior vena cava
E. Aorta
54. The huge blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body (except the lungs) is the:
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Pulmonary vein
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Superior vena cava
E. Aorta
55. At the capillaries, ___________ leaves red blood cells and _____________ enters the circulation.
A. Oxygen, carbon dioxide
B. Nitrogen, oxygen
C. Carbon dioxide, oxygen
D. Carbon dioxide, nitrogen
E. Sodium, oxygen
56. The force that blood exerts on artery walls is termed:
A. Peer pressure
B. Gravitational pressure
C. Osmotic pressure
D. Pulmonary pressure
E. Blood pressure
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57. The liquid matrix of blood is named:
A. Interstitial fluid
B. Water
C. Cytosol
D. Plasma
E. Lymph
58. The cellular components of blood that transport oxygen are:
A. Leukocytes
B. Erythrocytes
C. Thrombocytes
D. Chondrocytes
E. Osteocytes
59. The protein found in red blood cells that transports oxygen using iron atoms is:
A. Myoglobin
B. Actin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Myosin
E. Hemoglobin
60. In many aquatic organisms, highly folded structures that exchange gases directly with water are:
A. Spicules
B. Alveoli
C. Tracheae
D. Spiracles
E. Gills
61. In mammals, a muscular _______________ expands the chest downward, pulling air into the lungs.
A. Chest cavity
B. Rib cage
C. Trachea
D. Sternum
E. Diaphragm
62. Bacteria and other debris trapped in mucus in the lower respiratory tract are literally swept up and out of the lower
respiratory tract by waving _____________.
A. Flagella
B. Cilia
C. Pili
D. Fimbria
E. Lamella
63. The scientific name of the cartilage reinforced tube knows as the “windpipe” is the:
A. Larynx
B. Pharynx
C. Trachea
D. Vocal cords
E. Esophagus
64. The small air sacs of the lungs where gas diffusion occurs between air and capillaries are the:
A. Bronchioles
B. Arterioles
C. Spiracles
D. Alveoli
E. Uvula
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65. In the pulmonary circulation, __________________ is expelled from the blood and _________________ is picked up.
A. Oxygen, carbon dioxide
B. Oxygen, nitrogen
C. Carbon dioxide, nitrogen
D. Carbon dioxide, oxygen
E. Nitrogen, oxygen
66. In sequence of their occurrence, the four major steps that vertebrate organisms use to obtain and use food are:
A. Ingestion, digestion, absorption, and elimination
B. Ingestion, absorption, digestion, and elimination
C. Absorption, ingestion, digestion, and elimination
D. Absorption, digestion, ingestion, and elimination
E. Digestion, absorption, ingestion, and elimination
67. Animals that only eat plants are:
A. Omnivores
B. Carnivores
C. Herbivores
D. Detritivores
E. Insectivores
68. Animals that hunt and eat essentially only other animals are:
A. Omnivores
B. Carnivores
C. Herbivores
D. Detritivores
E. Folivores
69. In herbivores, cellulose is primarily broken down:
A. By powerful digestive enzymes produced by the herbivores’ stomach and intestinal glands
B. By powerful digestive enzymes produced by the herbivores’ salivary glands
C. By protists, Fungi, Bacteria, and Archaea living within the herbivores’ gut
D. By parasitic worms living within the herbivore
E. By nothing — it passes through undigested
70. The primary function of the chemical “bile” produced in the liver and stored in the gall bladder is to:
A. Create gallstones
B. Emulsify and breakdown carbohydrates
C. Emulsify and breakdown nucleotides
D. Emulsify and breakdown proteins
E. Emulsify and breakdown fats
71. The main site of nutrient absorption in the human digestive system is the:
A. Stomach
B. Esophagus
C. Small intestine
D. Large intestine
E. Liver
72. Rhythmic smooth muscle contractions in the digestive system that propel food along the system are named:
A. Countercurrent exchange
B. Phagocytosis
C. Rumination
D. Defecation
E. Peristalsis
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73. The muscular tube leading from the pharynx to the stomach is the:
A. Larynx
B. Trachea
C. Esophagus
D. Glottis
E. Bronchus
74. Tiny finger-like projections in the small intestine that greatly increase surface area for nutrient absorption are:
A. Cilia
B. Villi
C. Flagella
D. Glomeruli
E. Tentacles
75. The normal Bacterial and Archaeal residents of our intestines:
A. Make us sick
B. Are only of a very limited number of species
C. Provide no benefits to us
D. Use up essential nutrients and vitamins
E. Help prevent pathogens from infecting the intestine
76. An organism that manages its temperature by its own metabolism is termed a(n):
A. Homotherm
B. Ectotherm
C. Endotherm
D. Positherm
E. Thermophile
77. Which metabolic nitrogenous waste is highly toxic and, therefore, is converted to less toxic forms by animals?
A. Urea
B. Feces
C. Uric acid
D. Ammonia
E. Nitrates
78. The major excretory organ of the human urinary system is the:
A. Gall bladder
B. Pancreas
C. Kidney
D. Liver
E. Adrenal gland
79. The functional unit of a kidney is a:
A. Neuron
B. Glomerulus
C. Collecting duct
D. Nephron
E. Nexus
80. A bulb-like capillary bed within the kidney that is used to collect blood that needs to be filtered is the:
A. Collecting duct
B. Renal medulla
C. Renal cortex
D. Glomerulus
E. Renal pelvis
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81. A preparation that “teaches” the immune system to recognize a disease causing agent without actually causing
disease is termed a(n):
A. Antibiotic
B. Sulfa drug
C. Vaccination
D. Analgesic
E. Injection
82. A molecule that stimulates an immune system reaction by B cells and T cells is termed a(n):
A. Antibody
B. Substrate
C. Phagocyte
D. Complement protein
E. Antigen
83. A phagocyte is a:
A. Cell that primarily is used to produce antibodies
B. Cell that produces white blood cells
C. Cell that produces platelets
D. Cell that engulfs bacteria and other debris
E. Cell that transports oxygen to tissues
84. The type of white blood cell that develops into B cells or T cells is the:
A. Lymphocyte
B. Basophil
C. Monocyte
D. Eosinophil
E. Neutrophil
85. Physical and chemical barriers that form the first line of innate defense do not include:
A. The acidity of the stomach
B. Tear fluid from the eye
C. An unpunctured skin
D. Mucus and cilia of the respiratory tract
E. Antibody production
86. A Y-shaped protein that is produced in response to a specific antigen and recognizes that specific antigen is:
A. Interferon
B. Complement
C. An antibody
D. A phagocyte
E. A B cell
87. Lymphocytes can produce millions of different types of antibodies because of a process termed:
A. Meiotic variation
B. Gene shuffling or recombination
C. Crossing over
D. Clonal deletion
E. Conjugation
88. The primary “antigen presenting cell” that engulfs and dismantles invaders to present an antigen on its surface is a:
A. Macrophage
B. B cell
C. T cell
D. Platelet
E. Erythrocyte
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89. In the humoral response of vertebrate immunity:
A. Defensive cells attack and kill invading agents by direct cell to cell contact
B. Cytotoxic T cells destroy virus-infected cells
C. Antigens initiate the production of antibodies and the particular antigen is ‘memorized’
D. Nonspecific, rapid, broad-spectrum defenses are launched
E. The primary response is much faster and stronger than the secondary response
90. The process that unites the male gametes with the female gametes in organisms that reproduce sexually is termed:
A. Fertilization
B. Conjugation
C. Crossing over
D. Gastrulation
E. Recombination
91. The diploid first cell of a new organism is a:
A. Gamete
B. Morula
C. Zygote
D. Polar body
E. Oogonium
92. In males, the sac-like structure that contains the testes allowing them to remain cooler than the rest of the body is the:
A. Epididymis
B. Vas deferens
C. Sustenacular cells
D. Seminal vesicle
E. Scrotum
93. The cells in the ovary that give rise to the mature egg cells are the:
A. Oocytes
B. Follicle cells
C. Osteocytes
D. Endometrial cells
E. Polar bodies
94. The muscular sac-like organ of the mammalian female in which the fetus develops is the:
A. Uterine tube
B. Uterus
C. Clitoris
D. Vagina
E. Vulva
95. The nerve rich structure in the mammalian female that helps stimulate the human female to experience orgasm is the:
A. Uterine tube
B. Uterus
C. Clitoris
D. Vagina
E. Vulva
96. The tube-like structure that serves as the birth canal and copulatory organ in the mammalian female is the:
A. Uterine tube
B. Uterus
C. Clitoris
D. Vagina
E. Vulva
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97. The stage of animal development in which the three primary germ layers — endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm —
form is called the:
A. Zygote
B. Morula
C. Gastrula
D. Fetal Stage
E. Embryonic stage
98. The structure that connects the embryo to the placenta is the:
A. Amnion
B. Umbilical cord
C. Uterine tube
D. Chorionic villus
E. Embryonic disc
99. What did you fill in on the side of the computerized answer sheet?
A. Nothing!
B. Only my name!
C. Something illegible!
D. None of your business!
E. My name (last name first), the course and section number, and the date
100. What did you fill in on the very end of the computerized answer sheet:
A. Nothing!
B. Something illegible!
C. The wrong VSU student ID!
D. Only the printed number, no bubbles!
E. My VSU student ID, printed and bubbled in
Extra Credit — you’ve been asking for this all semester long! This is the only absolutely fair way that I could think of
to do this, since most everybody is here taking this test, and you only have so much time, the same as everybody else, to
do it. This can count as much as any one sectional exam, that is up to 10% of the entire class grade, enough to
easily move you from one grade bracket up to the next, if you do well enough:
On the supplied separate sheet of yellow paper, write a complete paragraph or more about the following point:
The human female is unique among all other animals in the large intensity and long duration of her orgasm. Give me your
thoughts on why you think this may be so. And I don’t just want “because it feels good.” I want you to use sound
evolutionary reasoning, and try to think of any evolutionary advantages of this for the human species (and therefore, it’s
genes) that this may offer. You need to use complete sentences, and make sense. I will give partial credit, from 0 to 10,
depending on content, and how well you explain yourself. Proper English writing form matters!
Be sure to plainly identify yourself on this separate page with your name, student ID, the date, and the section number
you are enrolled in — otherwise, you will not get any credit for the extra credit work — and place it in its separate pile
when you turn in your test!
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