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AP Psychology
States of Consciousness, Learning, and Memory
Make-up version
1. The process of getting information into memory is called
a. priming
b. chunking
c. encoding
d. registering
2. After looking up his friend’s phone number, Fred could remember it only long enough to dial it. In this case,
the number was clearly stored in Fred’s ______ memory.
a. short-term
b. flashbulb
c. long-term
d. implicit
3.Automatic processing involves
a. unconsciously deleting information from the memory system
b. a tendency to recall only emotionally significant events
c. the effortless encoding of certain types of information
d. all of the above.
4. Effortful processing can only occur with
a. implicit memory
b. conscious attention
c. visual imagery
d. chunking
5. When first introduced to her new students, Mrs. Johnson repeats the name several times to herself. She is
making use of an encoding strategy called
a. chunking
b. automatic processing
c. next-in-line effect
d. rehearsal
6. Which pioneering researcher made extensive use of nonsense syllables in the study of human memory?
a. Pavlov
b. Sperling
c. Watson
d. Ebbinghaus
7. Taped information played during sleep is registered by the ears but is not remembered. This illustrates that
the retention of information often requires
a. proactive interference
b. chunking
c. effortful processing
d. priming
8. Students often remember more information from a course that spans an entire year rather than from a
course that is completed in an intensive learning period (kinda makes you wonder about block scheduling).
This best illustrates the importance of
a. spacing effect
b. chunking
c. the serial position effect
d. implicit memory
9. On the telephone, Dee rattles off 10 items that Leigh needs to bring home. Leigh immediately tries to write
them all down, but she is most likely to forget the items
a. at the beginning of the list
b. at the end of the list
c. in the middle of the list
d. at the beginning and at the end
10. The process by which information is encoded by its meaning is called
a. long-term potentiation
b. priming
c. mnemonic encoding
d. semantic encoding
11. Your ability to immediately recognize the voice over the phone as your mother’s illustrates the value of
a. flashbulb memory
b. next-in-line effect
c. acoustic encoding
d. chunking
12. Rephrasing text material in your own words is an effective way to facilitate
a. semantic encoding b. mood-congruent memory
c. proactive interference
d. implicit memory
13. We remember words that lend themselves to mental images better than we remember abstract lowimagery words. This best illustrates the value of
a. iconic memory
b. visual encoding
c. flashbulb memory d. long-term potentiation
14. By presenting research participants with three rows of three letters each for only a fraction of a second,
Sperling demonstrated that people have ___ memory.
a. echoic
b. flashbulb
c. iconic
d. implicit
15. Research on sea snails suggest that memory formation is facilitated by
a. serotonin
b. alcohol
c. chunking
d. priming
16. Long-term potentiation refers to
a. the impact of overlearning on retention
b. the automatic tendency to recall emotionally significant events
c. the increased neural readiness for impulse transmission
d. the process of learning something without having any conscious memory of having learned it
17. Implicit memory is to explicit memory as ____ is to ____.
a. hippocampus; brainstem
b. short-term memory; long-term memory
c. effortful processing; automatic processing
d. skill memory; fact memory
18. Although Mr. Smith recently learned to play poker quite well, he can’t consciously remember ever having
played poker. It is likely Mr. Smith has suffered damage to his
a. brainstem
b. cerebellum
c. hypothalamus
d. hippocampus
19. The cerebellum seems to play a significant role in _____ memory.
a. echoic
b. implicit
c. iconic
d. explicit
20. The discover that words heard underwater are later recalled better underwater than on land best
illustrates the value of
a. state-dependent memory
b. the spacing effect
c. context retrieval cues
d. implicit memory
21. Larry was feeling depressed when he read his psychology textbook. Because of mood-congruence, Larry
will remember the contents of the book when he is
a. depressed
b. happy
c. relaxed
d. unemotional
22. After studying biology all afternoon, Al is having difficulty remembering the organic chemistry that he
memorized that morning. This best illustrates
a. the self-reference effect
b. proactive interference
c. retroactive interference
d. the spacing effect
23. Proactive interference refers to
a. the decay of memory synapses
c. new learning interfering with old learning
b. previous learning interfering with new learning
d. repression of painful memories
24. Which of the following would explain why Ebbinghaus found that the task of learning new lists of nonsense
syllables was increasingly difficult as his research career progressed?
a. spacing effect
b. proactive interference
c. retroactive interference
d. extrinsic motivation
25. When Hal told his roommate about his chemistry exam, he exaggerated its difficulty. After that, he
remembered the exam to be as difficult as he had said. This best illustrates
a. flashbulb memory b. misinformation effect
c. self-reference effect
d. proactive interference
26. According to most experts, memories of stressful, emotionally charged events are NOT likely to be
a. encoded
b. repressed
c. stored
d. retrieved.
27. Who emphasized that we repress painful memories in order to minimize our own anxiety?
a. Ebbinghaus
b. Loftus
c. Peterson
d. Sperling
e. Freud
28. Research on sleep and dreams indicates that
a. occasional use of sleeping pills effectively reduces insomnia.
b. circadian rhythms have no influence on our patterns of sleep.
c. sleepwalking involves acting out scenes that occur during REM sleep.
d. none of these are true.
29. Cindi prefers to take exams in the late afternoon rather than during the morning because her energy level
and ability to concentrate are better at that time. This reflects the influence of
a. REM rebound
b. Stage 1 sleep deprivation
c. circadian rhythms
d. hypnogogic sensations.
30. Alpha waves are associated with
a. REM sleep
b. Stage 1 sleep
c. Stage 2 sleep
d. relaxed wakefulness
31. Hypnogogic sensations occur during ___ sleep.
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4
32. Sleep spindles typically occur during _____ sleep
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4
33. The large, slow brain waves associated with deep sleep are called
a. alpha waves
b. beta waves
c. sleep spindles
d. delta waves
34. Which of the following typically occur during REM sleep?
a. night terrors
b. bedwetting
c. excessive movement
d. none of these
35. Paradoxical sleep is to slow-wave sleep as ____ sleep is to _____ sleep.
a. REM; Stage 2
b. Stage 2; REM
c. REM; Stage 4
d. Stage 4; REM
36. When people are experiencing vivid dreams
a. their bodies often move in accordance with what they dream
b. their eyes are likely to move under their closed eyelids.
c. they are more likely to sleepwalk than during any other stage of sleep.
d. all of the above are true.
37. Caffeine boosts alertness by inhibiting the activity of
a. hallucinogens
b. serotonin
c. adenosine
38. Deep sleep appears to play an important role in
a. posthypnotic amnesia
b. sleep apnea
d. epinephrine
c. paradoxical sleep
e. all of these
d. physical growth
39. Which of the following sleep disorders would be the most incapacitating for a commercial airline pilot?
a. night terrors
b. insomnia
c. sleep apnea
d. narcolepsy
40. It has been found that night terrors
a. are usually recalled vividly for days following their occurrence
b. are typically accompanied by a state of temporary muscular paralysis
c. jolt the sleeper to a sudden state of full waking alertness.
d. typically occur during Stage 4 sleep.
41. Shane, a straight-A student, remembers dreaming that he failed an important chemistry test. According to
Freud, Shane’s account represents the ____ content of his dream, but Freud would have wanted to uncover the
_____ content in psychoanalysis.
a. manifest; latent
b. paradoxical; latent
c. dissociated; manifest
d. delusional; paradoxical
42. Almost all hypnosis reearchers agree that hypnosis is a state of
a. amnesia
b. REM sleep
c. heightened suggestibility
d. dissociation
43. Research indicates that memories retrieved during hypnosis are
a. forgotten again as soon as the person awakens from the hypnotic state
b. accurate recollections of information previously learned.
c. experienced as being inaccurate even when they are true.
d. often a combination of fact and fiction.
44. Advocates of the social influence theory of hypnosis are likely to argue that
a. hypnosis is a unique state of consciousness
b. hypnotized people are acting the role of good hypnotic subjects.
c. dissociation best explains hypnotic phenomena
d. most hypnotized people are faking their hypnotic state.
45. The divided-consciousness theory of hypnosis states that hypnosis involves
a. paradoxical sleep
b. role playing
c. dissociation
d. extrinsic vs. intrinsic motivation
46. Which of the following provides the clearest indication of a drug addiction?
a. physical dependence
b. hallucinations
c. daydreaming
d. REM rebound
47. When moderately intoxicated by alcohol,
a. an angry person tends to be more aggressive than usual.
b. a kind person tends to be more generous than usual.
c. a sexually aroused person tends to be more sexually active than usual.
d. all of the above people tend to behave as stated.
48. After drinking three cocktails, John feels less guilty about the way that he mistreats his wife and children.
This reduced guilt is most likely a result of alcohol’s ability to
a. reduce sexual desire
b. destroy brain cells
c. reduce John’s self-awareness
d. increase sympathetic nervous system arousal levels
49. Which of the following drugs is classified as a stimulant?
a. nicotine
b. marijuana
c. morphine
d. alcohol
e. LSD
50. A brief 15-20 minute rush of euphoria followed by a crash of agitated depression is most closely associated
with the use of
a. marijuana
b. cocaine
c. LSD
d. barbiturates
51. The best predictor of an adolescent’s pattern of drug usage is whether the adolescent
a. has close friends who use drugs
b. grows up in a traditional two-parent family
c. has religious beliefs
d. has free access to a car
52. The altered state of consciousness that is most similar to a drug-induced hallucination is
a. REM sleep
b. a near-death experience
c. hypnosis
d. narcolepsy
53. By directly experiencing a thunderstorm, we learn that a flash of lightning signals a crash of thunder (and
we believe, because of this sequence, that lightening flashes cause thunder). This best illustrates
a. operant conditioning
b. spontaneous recovery
c. observational learning
d. classical conditioning
54. The researcher most closely associated with the study of classical conditioning is
a. Thorndike
b. Skinner
c. Bandura
d. Pavlov
55. If a ringing bell causes a dog to salivate because the bell has been regularly associated with food in the
mouth, the UCR is the
a. ringing bell
b. salivation to the ringing bell
c. food in the mouth
d. salivation to the food in the mouth
56. Which of the following is an unconditioned response?
a. salivating at the sight of a lemon
b. raising your hand to ask a question
c. jerking your hand off a very hot stove
d. walking into a restaurant to eat
57. If the taste of food triggers salivation in a dog, the food in the dog’s mouth is the
a. UCS
b. UCR
c. CS
d. CR
58. Jack finally takes out the garbage in order to get his father to stop pestering him. Jack’s behavior is being
influenced by
a. positive reinforcement
b. negative reinforcement
c. punishment
d. shaping
59. If the sound of an electric can opener causes a cat to salivate because the can opener has been associated
with the presentation of food, the cat’s salivation to the sound of the can opener is the
a. UCS
b. UCR
c. CS
d. CR
60. You always rattle the box of dog biscuits before you give Fido a treat. As you do so, your dog comes
running. Rattling the box is a(n) _____ and your dog’s running is a(n) _____.
a. UCS; CR
b. UCS; UCR c. CS; UCR
d. CS; CR
61. The initial stage of classical conditioning during which a response to a neutral stimulus is established and
gradually strengthened is called
a. dissociation
b. acquisition
c. observational learning
d. shaping
62. If an experimenter wants to condition a dog to salivate to a light by pairing the light with food, the dog will
learn most quickly when the experimenter presents the light
a. 5-10 seconds before the food
b. ½ second before the food
c. at exactly the same time as the food
d. ½ second after the food
63. After a dog was conditioned to salivate to a tone, the experimenter repeatedly sounded the tone without
giving the dog food. As a result, ________ occurred.
a. generalization
b. negative reinforcement
c. latent learning
d. extinction
64. Long after being by a stray dog, Jake found that his fear of dogs seemed to disappear. However, when he
recently was confronted by a stray dog in an alley, he experienced deep fear. This sudden anxiety best
illustrates
a. delayed reinforcement
b. latent learning
c. spontaneous recovery
d. shaping
65. Two year old Philip was clawed by the neighbor’s cat. His new fear of all small animals illustrates
a. generalization
b. extinction
c. spontaneous recovery
d. shaping
66. Some dogs can be trained to salivate to the sound of one tone but not another. This illustrates
a. shaping
b. latent learning
c. discrimination
d. extinction e. spontaneous recovery
67. Classical conditioning occurs most rapidly when the learner perceives the ___ to cause the ____.
a. UCS; UCR
b. CS; CR
c. UCR; CR
d. CS; UCS
68. A patient who had long feared going into elevators was told by his therapist to force himself to go into 20
elevators a day. His therapist wanted to encourage the ________ of the patient’s fear.
a. generalization
b. shaping
c. negative reinforcement
d. extinction
69. Ever since little Kathy got gold stars for keeping her bed dry all night, she stopped her embarrassing habit
of bedwetting. Her change in behavior best illustrates the value of
a. classical conditioning
b. spontaneous recovery
c. operant conditioning
d. all of these
70. Because Sally was spanked for her bad habit of chewing on electrical cords, she no longer chews on them.
Her behavior best illustrates the value of
a. negative reinforcement
b. classical conditioning
c. operant conditioning
d. observational learning
71. The psychologist most closely associated with the study of operant conditioning was
a. Skinner
b. Pavlov
c. Watson
d. Bandura
72. __________ law of effect refers to the tendency to ____.
a. Nelsen’s; lose intrinsic interest in over-stickered activities
b. Pavlov’s; learn in the absence of reinforcement
c. Thorndike’s; repeat behaviors that are rewarded
d. Skinner’s; learn associations between consecutive stimuli
73. In order to teach an animal to perform a sequence of complex behaviors, animal trainers are likely to use a
procedure known as
a. classical conditioning
b. latent learning
c. generalization
d. shaping
74. Because Jill would always pick up her newborn immediately after the baby began to cry, the baby is now a
huge crybaby. In this case, picking up the baby served as a ____ to the baby and a _____ to Jill.
a. negative reinforcer; positive reinforcer
b. CS; UCS
c. positive reinforcer; negative reinforcer
d. UCS; CS
75. Negative reinforcement ____ the behavior that is reinforced.
a. strengthens
b. eliminates
c. suppresses
d. has an unpredictable effect on
76.Which of the following is the best example of a primary reinforcer?
a. applause for an excellent solo
b. a grade of A on a difficult essay
c. $500 scholarship notice
d. ice cold Coke for mowing the lawn
77. A girl is trying to teach her dog to sit. If she wants the dog to learn quickly, she should use ____
reinforcement until the response is mastered and then follow with a period of ____ reinforcement.
a. positive; negative
b. negative; positive
c. continuous; partial d. partial; continuous
78. Which of the following behaviors is typically reinforced on a variable ratio schedule?
a. studying for unexpected quizzes
b. inserting coins into a slot machine
c. paying a cashier for a candy bar
d. checking the mailbox to see if the mail has come
79. One difference between classical conditioning and operant conditioning is that
a. in classical conditioning the response operates on the environment to provide rewards and/or punishment.
b. in classical conditioning the response is automatically elicited by a stimulus
c. .in operant conditioning the response is triggered by the preceding stimulus.
d. in operant conditioning, the response is based on a reflex.
80. If you are paid $1 for each pocket you sew, you are reinforced on a ___ schedule.
a. fixed-ratio
b. fixed-interval
c. variable-ratio
d. variable-interval
81. The type of reinforcement that is most resistant to extinction is the ____ schedule.
a. fixed-ratio
b. fixed-interval
c. variable-ratio
d. variable-interval
82.Which of the following serves to decrease the recurrence of the behavior it follows?
a. positive reinforcer b. punishment
c. negative reinforcer
d. both b. and c.
83. The best evidence that animals develop cognitive maps comes from studies of
a. shaping
b. generalization
c. latent learning
d. spontaneous recovery
84. Which of the following would be the best example of the overjustification effect?
a. Mom rewards her daughter’s enjoyment of karate by paying her $1 for each hour that she practices.
b. Each day that her son doesn’t clean his room, mom adds additional chores.
c. The manager of a shoe store decides to give a bonus to the employee who sells the most shoes each week.
d. A father rewards himself with $20 a day for each day that he goes without smoking.
85. Bandura’s Bobo doll study best illustrates the importance of ____ in the process of learning.
a. shaping
b. generalization
c. modeling
d. operant conditioning
Essay question: 20 points
Many people are concerned about the effects of the use of physical punishment to modify the undesirable
behavior of children.
Basing your answer on psychological knowledge, apply each of the following in an argument against the use
of physical punishment. Be sure to give an example of each.
1. Modeling (3 points)
2. Classical conditioning of fear (3 points)
3. Operant conditioning in general (3 points)
B. How might psychologists suggest using the following processes to modify children’s undesirable
behavior? Be sure to give an example of each.
1. Positive reinforcement (2 points)
2. Extinction (3 points)
3. Negative reinforcement (3 points)
4. Punishment (3 points)