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Part I Board Review
Microbiology 3
1. Which agency is responsible for funding research
a. NIH
b. CDC
c. EPA
d. FDA
2. Opsonins are used in the body to
a. Stimulate aggluntination
b. Produce antitoxins
c. Stimulate phagocytosis
d. Suppress the immune system
3. Which organism is acid fast
a. Staphylococcus
b. Streptococcus
c. Mycobacterium
d. Brucella
4. Lacks a cell wall
a. Mycobacterium
b. Klebsiella
c. Streptococcus
d. Mycoplasma
5. Causes epidemic typhus
a. Rickettsia Prowazaki
b. Rickettsia Rickettsia
c. Rickettsia Mooseri
d. Rickettsia Quintana
6. Macrophages produce
a. Interleukin I
b. Interleukin II
c. Interferon
d. Immunoglobulin
Interleukin II is released by T-lymphocytes
7. Which organism enters the body by walking barefoot on fecal contaminated soil
a. Necatur americanus
b. Ascariasis lumbricoides
c. Enterobius vermicularis
d. Taenia solium
8. What is the most common muscle affected by Trichinella spiralis
a. Respiratory
b. Cardiac
c. Pharyngeal
d. Quads
9. Which can kill without prior exposure
a. Natural killer cells
b. Plasma cells
c. B-lymphocytes
d. T-lymphocytes
10. Which organism causes a grey pseudomembrane on the back of the throat and
nasopharynx area
a. Corynebacterium diphtheria
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Haemophilus influenza
11. Which is the causative organism of amoebic dysentery in humans
a. Balantidium coli
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Salmonella typhosa
12. Which is the causative organism of gas gangrene
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Clostridium perfringes
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Clostridium botulinum
13. In young children, which organism is usually implicated in otitis media
a. E. Coli
b. Neisseria Meningitides
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
14. Which parasite is found around the anus and is detected by a positive anal scotch
tape test
a. Taenia solium
b. Necatur americanus
c. Ascariasis lumricoides
d. Enterobius vermicularis
15. Which is a cause of pandemic spread
a. Antigenic shift
b. Antigenic drift
c. Multiplicity
d. Many antigenic strains
16. T helper cells activate
a. Mast cells
b. Phagocytes
c. B-lymphocytes
d. T-lymphocytes
17. Which agency tracks the morbidity and mortality of diseases
a. CDC
b. FDA
c. NIH
d. EPA
18. Which virus is not an emerging virus
a. Ebola
b. Hanta
c. HIV
d. Rabies
19. Mannitol salt agar is used to detect
a. Staphylococcus
b. Streptococcus
c. Gonococcus
d. Fungi
20. What type of virus is the AIDS virus
a. Retrovirus
b. Herpes virus
c. Enterovirus
d. Adenovirus
21. What type of virus is the poliomyelitis virus
a. Arbovirus
b. Enterovirus
c. Rotavirus
d. Adenovirus
22. Which causes OHIO valley fever and is a fungal infection that results from
contact with bird droppings
a. Histoplasmosis
b. Coccidiomycosis
c. Streptococcus
d. Clostridum
23. Coccidiodes immitis is found in which habitat
a. Desert areas
b. Swamps
c. Jungles
d. Arctic areas
24. Herpes simplex Type I where does the virus reside
a. Anterior horn cell
b. Trigeminal ganglion
c. Sacral ganglion
d. Lumbar ganglion
“Type I is above the belt”
25. Which shows up under ultraviolet light
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Klebsiella pneumoniae
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. E. coli
26. Which organism produces blue green pus
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Serratia marcescens
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
27. The monoclonal antibody found on the surface of an immature B-cell that binds to
an antigen is
a. IgE
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgM
28. What is the best way to control eastern equine encephalitis
a. Immunization
b. Control the vector
c. Water sanitation
d. Hygiene
29. Which is the etiological agent of Lymphogranuloma venereum
a. Treponema pallidum
b. Neisseria gonorrhea
c. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Borrelia recurrentis
30. Breast feeding (IgA) from a mother is what type of immunity
a. Natural passive
b. Natural active
c. Artificial active
d. Artificial passive
31. Which is an advantage of having artificial active immunity
a. Long term protection
b. Immediate antibody production
c. The presence of preformed antibodies
d. There is no memory
32. Which causes mononucleosis
a. Epstein Barr virus
b. Mumps virus
c. Herpes virus
d. Streptococcus pyogenes
33. Koplik spots are associated with
a. Measles
b. Mumps
c. Rubella
d. Polio
34. Which is encased in muscle
a. Trichinella spiralis
b. Enterobius vermicularis
c. Necatur americanus
d. Taenia solium
35. Which can you protect yourself from by wearing shoes
a. Taenia saginata
b. Paragonimus westermani
c. Ancylostoma duodenale
d. Schistosoma
Ancylostoma duodenale = Necatur americanus
Schistosoma – infested water through unbroken skin
36. Scotch tape pulls off which part of Enterobus vermicularis
a. Eggs
b. Worms
c. Cysts
d. Larvae
37. Metacercaria are immature forms of
a. Trematodes
b. Cestodes
c. Nematodes
d. Protozoans
38. Bubonic plague is caused by
a. Yersinia pestis
b. Treponema pallidum
c. Plasmodium falciparum
d. Staphylococcus aureus
39. Vaccination to which organism has dramatically reduced meningitis in kids
a. Haemophilus influenza
b. Neisseria meningitides
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
6 months to 3 years
40. Which is the cause of erysipelas
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Salmonella
d. Clostridium perfringes
41. Which forms fungus balls in the lung
a. Aspergillus
b. Histoplasmosis
c. Coccidiodomycosis
d. Legionella pneumophilia
42. A mycologist studies
a. Virus
b. Protozoa
c. Fungus
d. Bacteria
43. Thayer Martin agar is used to identify
a. Neisseria gonorrhea
b. Fungi
c. Staphylococcus
d. Streptococcus
44. What is the Kernig sign and Brudzinsky sign used for
a. Meningitis
b. Migraine
c. Pneumonia
d. Gastric ulcer
45. Which has a predilection for peripheral nerves
a. Neisseria meningitides
b. Mycobacterium leprae
c. Poliomyelitis
d. Multiple sclerosis
46. Which hangs out on mucous membranes
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgM
d. IgG
47. Which organism produces an enterotoxin that activates adenylate cyclase to cause
diarrhea
a. E. coli
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Staph aureus
48. Autoclaving your instrument (moist heat) kills microorganisms by
a. Protein denaturation
b. Destruction of DNA
c. Lipid destruction
d. Chemical denaturation
49. Mucous diarrhea is caused by
a. Giardia lamblia
b. Ascariasis lumbricoides
c. Necator americanus
d. Plasmodium vivax
50. How long does pasteurization take at 140 degrees C
a. 5 min
b. 1 min
c. 1 sec
d. 15 sec
51. Which is not a feature of wound botulism
a. Diplopia
b. Diarrhea
c. Dysphagia
d. Respiratory
52. After Staphylococcus aureus is ingested, what is responsible for the
symptomatology of food poisoning
a. Growth of Staphylococcus after ingested
b. Pre-formed enterotoxin is ingested
c. Pre-formed endotoxin is ingested
d. Invasiveness of Staphylococcus aureus
53. Woolsorter’s disease is assocated with
a. Anthrax
b. Botulism
c. Tetanus
d. Dephtheria
54. Organism commonly found behind contacts
a. E. coli
b. Candida
c. Proteus vulgaris
d. Pseudomonas
55. Which is part of the normal flora of the large intestine
a. E. coli
b. Campylobacter
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Which is not transmitted by milk
e. Clostridium
56. Which is not transmitted by milk
a. Q-fever
b. Tularemia
c. Brucella abortus
d. Salmonella
57. Which is not the secondary stage of syphilis
a. Gumma
b. Condylomata lata
c. Skin lesions
d. Mucous lesions
58. Major component of acid rain
a. Sulphur dioxide
b. CO
c. CO2
d. Chlorine
59. The complete combustion of natural gas in a house leads to
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Hydrocarbons
d. Sulphur dioxide
60. The Fc portion of IgE attaches to
a. Macrophage
b. Mast cell
c. Placental transfer
d. Complement fixation
61. Which is a coliform
a. E. coli
b. Shigella
c. Trichinosis
d. Klebsiella
62. In a malodorous, frothy, green vaginal discharge, you find
a. Trichomonas vaginalis
b. Candida albicans
c. Neisseria gonorrhea
d. Staphylococcus aureus
63. Most common worm in children is tinea
a. Pedis
b. Capitis
c. Corporus
d. Barbae
64. Which evokes a caseating granuloma
a. Mycobacterium leprae
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Bacillus anthraces
d. Literia monocytogenes
65. Which is caused by an exfoliating toxin and is characterized by a diffuse
erythematous rash and sloughing of the epidermis
a. Typhoid fever
b. Scarlet fever
c. Scalded skin syndrome
d. Toxic shock syndrome
Caused by Staph. aureus
66. Which does not induce active acquired immunity
a. Subclinical infection
b. Inoculation of killed microbes
c. Transplantation of foreign cells
d. Administration of antibodies
67. Meningococcal meningitis can be associated with
a. Waterhouse Friderichsen
b. Wernicke-Korsakoff
c. Tuberculosis
d. African sleeping sickness
68. Which is not a virus
a. Mumps
b. Tetanus
c. HTLV1
d. Rabies
69. Which disease has been completely eradicated
a. Varicella
b. Variola
c. Rubeola
d. Rubella
70. Negri bodies are common to
a. TB
b. Hepatitis B
c. Rabies
d. Parkinson’s
71. Who is credited with bacterial transformation
a. Flemming
b. Griffith
c. Ehrlich
d. Iwanowski
72. Which organism is associated with scalded skin syndrome
a. Serratia marcescens
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
73. In which would you find a spirochete
a. Reiter’s syndrome
b. Lyme disease
c. Trypanosoma gambenese
d. Trichinosis
74. In the Western Blot test, what are you testing for
a. DNA
b. RNA
c. Protein
d. Mitochondria
75. What is the leading cause of mortality in children
a. Infections
b. Congenital defects
c. Heart disease
d. Injuries
76. Which would cause birth defects in the unborn fetus
a. Toxoplasmosis
b. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Treponema pertenue
d. Variola
77. Hemagglutination and hemagglutination inhibition tests are used to detect
a. Fungi
b. Bacteria
c. Viruses
d. Protozoa
78. The transfer of sporozoites to a human by a mosquito causes
a. Malaria
b. Filariasis
c. Encephalitis
d. Typhus
79. Which causes rapid dehydration
a. Shigella
b. Cholerae
c. Staphylococcus
d. E. coli
80. Which is a characteristic of IgM
a. Presents on mucous membrane
b. Crosses the placental barrier
c. Lacks a J-chain
d. Predominance early in primary immune reaction
81. A mold is classified as a
a. Spore forming organism
b. Gram positive organism
c. Vector
d. Virus
82. Which reproduces asexually by budding
a. Mold
b. Yeast
c. Bacteria
d. Virus
83. What makes up a macrophage
a. Monocyte
b. Lymphocyte
c. Mast cell
d. Neutrophil
84. Cancer cells are typically attacked by
a. Natural killer cells
b. B-cells
c. T-helper cells
d. T-killer cells
85. The Hepatitis B agglutination test checks for
a. HbsAg
b. HbeAg
c. HbcAg
d. HCV