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Endocrinology 11.2.07 1. What is correct statement regarding the parathyroid hormone (PTH)? a. The hormone acts through an endonuclear receptor b. Encourages the synthesis of dihydroxyvitamin D 25, 24 and thus increases the calcium absorption in the intestine. c. Encourages the reabsorption of calcium from the glomerulus filter in the kidney. d. Encourages the absorption of the phosphate from the glomerulus filter in the kidney. e. Decreases the secretion of calcitonin. 2. What is correct regarding the bone turnover? a. Replacement of the cortical bone to a lamellar bone higher than the replacement of the spongy bone. b. Osteoprotegerin increases the bone replacement by binding to the RANK-L c. PTHrP increases bone replacement through a membranal receptor found on the osteoclasts. d. None of the above 3. In a patient that doesn't consume dietary calcium, we would find the following: a. Increase in the level of calcium in the urine. b. Increase in the level of calcitonin in the blood c. Decrease in the level of calcium in the blood to a level beneath the low limit of the Norma. d. Increase in the PTH from the parathyroid gland e. Decrease in the level of vitamin D 4. What is correct regarding the FAMILIAL HYPOCALCIURIC HYPERCALCEMIA? a. The disease is caused as a result of a mutation in the PTH receptor b. The disease is caused as a result of an inactive mutation in the gene for the CALCIUM SENSING RECEPTOR. c. The disease is caused as a result of an activating mutation in the gene for the CALCIUM SENSING RECEPTOR. d. This is a life threatening disease in heterozygote women e. Children suffering from this disease are borne with distortions in the skeleton, that won't allow life. 5. A hormone is: a. A fatty material that is being secreted from an endocrine gland b. A hormone acts to silence genes c. An enzyme that is activated in the cell as a response to another hormone d. A chemical material that is secreted from an endocrine cell and acts through a receptor e. A peptide that is being secreted from the brain that activates endocrine glands 6. Insensitivity for a certain hormone expressed in one of the followings: a. high level of the hormone b. Low level of the hormone c. High level of the hormone activity d. Increased activity of the secondary messenger e. Increased activity of the hormone receptor 7. All the answers are correct regarding the Hypophysis stalk except: a. It contains the neurons of the cells that produce vasopressin b. It contains neurons of cells that produce TRH and CRH c. It is surrounded portal veins that transport the hypothalamus hormones to the frontal Hypophysis. d. It connects the pineal gland to the Hypophysis e. During the embryonic development it comes from the brain to the sella turcica 8. The hypothalamus is the main area for the following activity except: a. b. c. d. e. Thirst Vasopressin revision by osmolality Hunger Smell Biological rhythms 9. 7 year old child comes to the ER dehydrated and puts out a lot of urine. His mother suffers from the same problems. In an osmolality check, the one of the blood shows 310 mosm/kg, and the one of the urine shows 80 molsm/kg. After a vasopressin dosage, the urine osmolality is 83 mols/kg. The logical diagnosis is: a. Vasopressin deficiency b. Redundant activity of aquaporin 2 c. An interference in a receptor to vasopressin d. A rapture in the stalk of the Hypophysis e. Redundant secretion of vasopressin 10. Mark the correct statement regarding the hypothalamus and the Hypophysis a. b. c. d. e. 11. All a. b. c. d. e. Somatostatin increases the secretion of the growth factor ACTH increases the secretion of CRH The hypothalamus hormones cause secretion of the glycoprotein prolactin GNRH and TRH binds the nuclear receptors in the Hypophysis Cortisol depresses the secretion of ACTH of the following can cause a disturbance in children growth except: Redundant insulin Deficiency in the thyroid hormones Chronic heart disease Interference in the intestine absorption Malnutrition 12. Growth hormone causes: a. Decrease in the sugar levels b. Lipids synthesis c. Protein synthesis d. Water secretion in the kidneys e. Proliferation recess in the growth plate 13. A child with a growth retardation has a high level of growth hormone, IGF1 level is low, and in a response to a growth hormone was an increase in the IGF1. What can explain this combination. a. Deficiency in growth hormone b. Deficiency in IGF1 c. A defect in a receptor of the growth hormone d. A defect in STAT5 e. The growth hormone is immunologically active but cannot bind to the receptor 14. All the following sentences about natriuretic peptide (brain) B-type (BNP) are correct except: a. BNP is secreted mostly from the brain b. The BNP level is high at patients with heart failure as a result of an ischemic heart disease. c. The BNP level is high at patients with heart failure as a result of a hypertrophic cardiomyopathy d. The BNP level is high at patients with a right heart failure without a left heart failure e. BNP is useful as a treatment for patients with a heart failure because it is a vasodilator 15. Endothelin-1 contributes to a development of a heart failure in all the mechanisms except in: a. Aggravation of pulmonary hypertension b. Systemic vasoconstriction c. Contribution to the development of the left ventricle hypertrophy d. Aggravation of the mitral valve failure e. Sodium accumulation 16. All of the following statements are correct regarding Endothelin A receptor, except: a. ETA is found on the surface of a smooth muscle cells in the blood vessels wall b. The vasoconstriction that is caused by endothelin-1 is mediated by ETA c. Activation of the ETA causes an increase of the intracellular calcium d. ETA increases the release of nitric oxide e. ETA is found on the surface of the cardiac myocytes 17. Impartation of BNP to a patient with a heart failure would cause all the following except: a. Decrease in the diastole pressures b. Decrease in the systemic blood pressure c. Aggravation of an arrhythmia d. Increase in the heart production e. Improvement in dyspnea 18. The following sentences regarding the GH receptors, the GHR, are correct except: a. The GHR are part of the cytokines receptors superfamily b. The GHR like the rest of the cytokines receptors, cross the cell membrane only once c. The binding of the GH to the GHR causes dimerization of the GHR and/or conformation change in the existing dimer d. The cytoplasmic part of the GHR chain intrinsic activity of tyrosine kinase e. Phosphorilated tyrosins on the cytoplasmic side of the GHR constitute an encore to the recruitment and activation of transcription factors like STAT5 (signal transducer and activator of transcription 5) 19. In a competitive immunoassay reaction: a. b. c. d. e. The antibodies are found in excess The antibodies and the marked antigen are found in limited quantities The marked antigen is found in excess The marked antigen doesn’t have to be found We add an unmarked antigen in a large quantity 20. Why we can’t measure the hormones T3 and T4 in a non competitive immunoassay reaction (sandwich reaction)? a. Because we can’t mark the hormone b. Because the binding proteins, TBG and albumin, are disturbing c. Because it is a small molecule with one antigenic apitop d. Because the specificity of the sandwich reaction is low e. All of the above 21. All of the following are correct except: a. Damage to the parietal cells by an immune attack would cause a decrease in the stomach ability to produce acid b. Secretin is secreted as response to fat and to an increase acidity of the intestine c. Binding of the VIP hormone to its receptor causes an increase in cAMP d. The activity of Secretin is similar to that of Cholecystokinin (CCK), because it has similar carbonic suffix e. Antihistamine medicines would cause a decrease in the acid secretion from the stomach 22. A person has to go through an excision of the duodenum. What are the anticipated implications as a result of a loss of this part of the intestine? All the following are correct except: a. Disturbance in gallbladder draining b. Partial decrease in the secretion of secretin c. Disturbance in the absorption of proteins and lipids d. During meals, an increase in the migrating motor complex e. Increase in the draining of the stomach after meals 23. All of the following are correct except: a. CCK1 receptor has a 3 folds higher affinity for CCK then for gastrin b. The main stimulation for CCK secretion is food that contains protein and carbohydrates c. The main stimulation for gastrin secretion is food that contains protein, peptides and amino acids d. A treatment with antiacid (alkaliser) causes an increase in gastrin secretion e. The CCK is a part of the brain-intestine peptides family. It’s combine effect causes satiation 24. Anemia causes a decrease in the ability to carry oxygen to the tissues. As a result the following processes occur, except: a. Decrease in the dismantling of the HIF-1α by proteosomes (enzymes that dismantle protein) b. Increase in the transcription and translation of the erythropoietin gene c. Decrease in the transcription and translation of the hepcidin gene d. In a heavy smoker, we would expect a moderate hormonal reaction in compared to a non smoker e. Decrease in apoptosis and an increase differentiation of red stem cells as well as an increase in the ferroportin level 25. Which treatment suits all types of the Cushing's syndrome? a. RU-486 b. Cyproheptadine c. Radioactive screening in the Pituitary Gland d. Hypophysial amputation e. ACTH delay 26. All of the following features always exist in the congenital adrenal hyperplasia as a result of a defect in 21-hydroxylase, except: a. Low cortisol levels b. Salt loss c. High levels of ACTH d. Male characters in elder females 27. All of the following findings cause increased pigmentation except : a. High levels of ACTH b. High levels of MSH c. Primary adrenocortical insufficiency d. Increased dismantling of proopiomelanocortin (POMC) e. Secondary adrenocortical insufficiency 28. Which finding isn’t common to the primary and secondary activity of the adrenal gland? a. b. c. d. e. Adrenal gland atrophy Decrease in glucose synthesis in the liver Low levels of Na and high levels of K in the plasma Decrease in the resistance to stress Low levels of glucocorticoids 29. High levels of ACTH, bilateral adrenal hyperplasia and high levels of cortisol in the evening, which won’t descend after a high dosage of dexamethasone point on: a. Cushing's syndrome as a result of adenoma in the pituitary gland b. Cushing's syndrome as a result of adenoma in the adrenal gland c. Corticotrophin releasing hormone (CRH) secreting Hypophesial adenoma d. Cushing's syndrome as a result of adrenal gland carcinoma e. Cushing's syndrome as a result of actopic ACTH 30. We shouldn’t expect high levels of cortisol: a. After giving ACTH b. In hypoglycemia c. In stress d. When we wake up e. In Edison diseased 31. Cortisol doesn’t have mineralocorticoid activity because it: a. Becomes Cortison in the target cells for mineralocorticoids. b. Becomes Cortison in the adrenal gland c. Binds to mineralocorticoid receptor but can’t activate the genes that respond to mineralocorticoids. d. Doesn’t bind to mineralocorticoids receptor with high affinity e. Doesn’t become Aldosteron in the target cells for mineralocorticoids. 32. All of the following sentences regarding mineralocrticoiods are correct, except: a. Delay proteins disassembly in the muscle b. Delay glucose absorption in the muscle c. Increase the glucose synthesis in the liver d. Increase glucose levels in the blood e. Anti inflammatory as a result of a delay in prostaglandins synthesis 33. In the biosynthesis of the thyroid hormones: a. The following processes occur in the following order: Iodine absorption, Iodine oxidation, Iodine organification, DIT coupling to MIT (or to DIT) b. The following processes occur in the following order: Iodine absorption, Iodine organification (Iodination), DIT coupling to MIT (or to DIT) c. Thyroid peroxidase increases oxidation and organification of Iodine and T 4 conversion into T3. d. The highest hormone quantities secreted are of T3 e. Iodine absorbed in the thyroid and goes through organification in the basal membrane. 34. In all of the following cases we can expect goiter, except: a. Grave’s disease b. Hashimoto disease c. A defect in the thyroid peroxidase enzyme d. Patients with secondary hypothyroidism (a defect in the Hypophysis) e. A defect in Iodination of tyrosine and tyroglobolin 35. High levels of the thyroid hormones, high level of TSH, goiter, weariness and weight gain can attest to: a. Iodine deficiency b. Primary hypothyroidism c. Thyroid hormone resistance d. An increase in the catecholamine receptors number e. Increased conversion of T4 into T3 in the target cells for the thyroid hormones 36. All of the following sentences regarding the thyroid hormones are correct, except: a. Increase the number of the catecholamine receptors b. Increase the activity and quantity of the Na-K-ATPase c. Are necessary for the development of the brain d. Decrease the creation of …. e. Depress the secretion of the growth hormone 37. Which of the following findings is common to the Hashimoto disease and the secondary subactivity of the thyroid gland? a. Mutation in the receptor for TSH b. Increased secretion of TSH c. Secretion of the antibody for the receptor for TSH d. Sub-activity of the receptors for catecholamine e. Exposure to Iodine excess 38. The most common reason for toxic thyroid adenoma (hot nodule) with increased secretion of the thyroid hormones is: a. A mutation in the TSH receptor b. Increased secretion of TSH c. Secretion of an antibody against the TSH receptor d. Sub activity of the receptors of catecholamins e. Exposure to redundant iodine 39. In the Graves’ disease, we can treat with all of the following treatments, except: a. Radioactive Iodine b. Thyroidectomy c. Methimazole d. Thyroid stimulating immunoglobulines (TSI) suspension e. Propanolol (catecholamine blocker) 40. The Sodium Iodine Symporter (NIS): a. Dismisses iodine from MIT and DIT b. Causes iodine oxidation c. Is found on the basal membrane, and transfers iodine from the blood into the thyroid gland cells d. Is found on the apical membrane and transfers iodine from the cytoplasm of the thyroid gland cells inside the colloid e. Causes incorporation of iodine into tyrosines of thyiroglobolins 41. Mark the incorrect statement regarding FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) a. FSH binds to its receptors on the sertoly cells to catalyze the production of androgen binding protein (ABP) b. FSH binds to its receptors on the Lydig cells to catalyze steroidogenesis c. Maturation of the spermatozoa depends on the FSH and high levels of testosterone d. FSH catalyzes the creation of the aromatoase enzyme for producing estrogen in the Sertoly cells e. FSH catalyzes the creation of Inhibin in the Sertoly cells, which acts paracrine to catalyze steroidogenesis in the Ledig cells 42. Mark the correct statement regarding the effect of the luteinizing hormone (LH) in the Ledig cells: a. LH increase the testosterone production by inhibition of the splitting enzyme P-450scc, that causes the cholesterol dismantling in the SER b. Estradiol from the Sertoly cells increases the reaction to LH, as a result of the binding to the estrogen receptors in the Lydig cells c. a long dispensation of high dosage of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) causes a decrease in the number of the LH receptors (down regulation) but wont effect the reaction to LH d. the binding of at least 50% of the LH to its membrane receptors is needed in order to get a significant response of the LH on the testosterone synthesis e. testosterone works autocrine in order to inhibit the LH response on the lyedi cells 43. all of the following sentences regarding the testosterone influence on growth are correct, except: a. testosterone stimulates an increase in growth at the age of sexual maturation b. testosterone stops the linear growth by closing the epiphysis c. d. testosterone increases the bone mass and causes men to be more resistant then women to osteoporosis antagonist to the androgen receptors would prevent all testosterone effects on growth e. antagonist to the estrogen receptor would prevent some of the testosterone effects on growth 44. Testosterone inhibits the formation and secretion of LH but not the FSH a. testosterone decreases the frequency and the amplitude of the secreted gonadotropines, only after the aromatization into estradiol in the Hypophysis b. testosterone decreases the pulse frequency of the gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH), mostly after the aromatization into estradiol in the Hypophysis c. the negative feedback of the testosterone on the FSH originates from the increase in the inhibin secretion in the Hypophysis d. endorphins inhibit the negative feedback of the steroids on the LH and FSH secretion 45. mark the correct statement regarding the testosterone effects: a. before the sexual maturation of boys, most of the testosterone effects result from its formation to estradiol b. after the sexual maturation of boys, all of the testosterone effects result from its formation to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) c. testosterone and estradiol both are involved in the protection of men from osteoporosis in comparison to women d. testosterone increase the the cholesterol LDL and VLDL levels and decrease the HDL levels only after the aromatization to estradiol e. Testosterone, and not DHT, is responsible for the differentiation of the external reproductive organs in the embryo. 46. What is the correct statement? a. in the woman's ovary, the oocytes are created from diploidic cells in the embryonic period, and also from puberty until menopause b. when a primordial follicle begins to develop and becomes primary follicle, a motion in the meiosis also begins c. in the mature follicle, that is exposed to the LH surge, the meiosis is also renewed d. in the female reproduction system, the life span of the oocyte that is freed from the follicle is longer then the life span of the spermatozoon that arrived to the system e. in the meiosis, in male and female, from every diploidic cells (spermatogonium and oogonium) 4 active gametes are being created 47. What is the correct statement? a. in the granulose layer in the developing follicle there are no blood vessels, and this lack contributes to the restriction of the maturating follicles in every ovulation period b. the dispensation of LH to women in the fertility age would cause the increase in the number of the follicles participating in the same ovulation period c. in the complete absence of both of the gonadotropines, primordial follicles don’t begin develop at all d. a very severe diet could interrupt ovulation because of the defective response of the ovary to gonadotrophins, while the secretion of the ghonadotrophins id normal e. in women that ovulate rarely as a result of intense physical effort you can cause regular ovulation by giving synthetic estrogen as medicine 48. What is the correct statement? a. the development of the graafian follicle (ovarian follicle with an antrum) there is significance to one hormone that activates hetromeric G protein, and at least one regulator with a tyrosin kinase receptor b. in the corpus luteum there are receptors only for regulators that activates adenylate cyclase c. ghonadotrophins have no influence on the inhibin synthesis in the follicle d. some of the ovarian cells are affected by cAMP, but this influence doesn’t include the influence on transcription e. in the mature graafian follicle there are LH receptors in the theca cells, in the granulose cells and in the oocyts 49. all of the following sentences are correct except: a. a woman who doesn’t have her own follicles, and who is supposed to receive an egg donation from another woman in IVF (in vitro fertilization), external estrogen dispensation is vital for preparing the womb for implantation b. a woman who doesn’t have her own follicles, and who is supposed to receive an egg donation from another woman in IVF (in vitro fertilization), external progesterone is vital for preparing the womb for implantation c. estrogen influence on the cervix mucus is opposite to that of estradiol d. androgens are produced in the ovary, but in women they have no role e. the target cells of estradiol in the womb are also target cells of progesterone 50. all of the following sentences are correct except: a. inhibin has receptors in the hypothalamus, but not in the gonadotrophs in the front Hypophysis b. has receptors in the gonadotrophs, and they are important to the FSH synthesis c. GnRH has receptors in the gonadotrophs, and they are important to the LH synthesis d. estradiol has receptors in the hypothalamus, and its existence has an influence on the LH levels in women's blood e. estradiol has receptors in the Hypophysis, and its existence has an influence on the LH levels in women's blood 51. all of the following sentences are correct except: a. in the nuclear receptors of the steroidal hormones there are regions that enables direct and specific binding to certain DNA sequences b. all the nuclear receptors has areas that enables specific binding to at least 2 proteins, and this is necessary for their function c. all the nuclear receptors that are learned in this course has an area that can specifically bind small hydrophobic molecule d. some of the nuclear receptors that their direct binding to the DNA is necessary only for some of the receptors activities e. each of the nuclear receptors that has been mentioned in the course can be activated only by a single molecule, and every change in its structure prevents entirely its ability to bind to its receptor and activate it 52. all of the following sentences are correct except: a. according to the definition, transcription factors increase the transcription rate of genes b. each gene expression affected from many transcription factors, and not only from one c. all the transcription factors work as homodomeres d. the biologic activity of some transcription factors changes when they undergo phospharilation e. The influence on the quantity of the protein in the cell could be caused not only as a result from a change in the encoding gene, but also by a change in the half life time of the protein or its mRNA 53. all of the following sentences are correct except: a. progesterone stops proliferation of the apithelial layer in the endomatrium b. progesterone has receptors in the stroma cells of the endomatrium c. progesterone decreases the oxyticin receptors expression in the myomatrium d. progesterone has receptors in the myomatrium e. A decrease in the progesterone level in the blood at the end of the pregnancy enables the development of the labor pains. 54. When a primordial follicle begins developing, how long does it take until there is a mature follicle, ready for ovulation? a. Two weeks b. Three month c. A year d. Two to five years e. Even a decade, but during the fertility period 55. All of the following sentences are correct, except: a. In a woman’s ovary, that began taking birth control pills on the first day of her menstruation and continued taking the pills during the following two month, it is unlikely to find a normal and functional corpus luteum b. In a two month pregnant woman ovary, it is unlikely to find a normal and functional corpus luteum c. In a woman during the fertile period, prolonged mental stress could cause a lower than usual average level of blood estradiol (from a measurement taken every two days during a month) d. In a woman during the fertile period, hard physical effort could cause a lower than usual average level of blood progesterone (from a measurement taken every two days during a month) e. When a follicle begins developing in a woman during the fertile period, the chance it would undergo normal ovulation is less then 0.5% 56. All of the following sentences are correct except: a. If you give LH through IV during an hour to a woman in the luteal phase, the progesterone concentration in the blood would rise b. If you give LH trough IV during an hour to a woman in the luteal phase, the androgens concentration in the blood would rise c. If you give a woman a daily injection with hCG, starting from the leuteal phase, the blood progesterone concentration would rise d. If a baby girl is born with a mutation in the estrogen receptor, we would see defects already in the first few days after birth e. If a baby girl is born with a mutation in the StAR protein, her health defected already in the first few days after birth 57. What is the correct statement? a. Activation of PI-PLC would cause an increase in the calcium concentration in the cytosol, when the sole origin for this ions is the calcium repository in the ER b. An increase in the calcium concentration in the cytosol increases the secretion in certain exocrine cells, but never in the endocrine cells c. An increase in the calcium concentration in the cytosol could cause phosphorilation, and as a result activation, of some proteins d. In all cells, calcium ions and cAMP act in reverse directions e. An entrance of a calcium ion from the outside the cell into the inside always requires energy, directly or indirectly 58. All of the following sentences are correct except: a. Oxitocin function as a medicine that is given to women to accelerate birth b. In a natural birth the oxitocin is only one of the regulators that increase labor pains c. It is reasonable to use medicines that increase the concentration of cAMP in the myomatrium to stop early labor pains d. Oxitocin is the only hormone which secretion increases during breast-feeding e. In the mammary gland the oxitocin works to increase the discharge of the milk, but not to increasing the milk synthesis 59. What is the correct statement? a. The speed limiting phase in the activation of the heteromere G protein is the bonding of the GTP after the GDP dissociates from the protein b. Like Adenylate cyclase, the soluble Guanylate cyclase activates by a direct touch with the heteromere G protein c. When the heteromre G protein activates, the effecting complex is always GαGTP, and the GβGϒ complex isn’t active d. cAMP and cGMP can effect inversely on smooth muscles e. cAMP cant go inside and outside the cells with simple diffusion, but it can go through one cell to the other through gap junctions 60. All of the following sentences are correct except: a. A mutation in 17α-hydroxylase would harm the testosterone and estradiol synthesis, but not progesterone synthesis b. A mutation in cytochrome P450scc would harm the progesterone and testosterone synthesis, but not estradiol synthesis c. A mutation in aromatase would harm the estradiol and estrone synthesis d. A mutation in StAR would harm the synthesis of the three androgens: testosterone, androstenedione, DHEA (dehydroepiandrosterone) e. A mutation in 3β-HSD wouldn’t harm DHEA synthesis 61. From the point of view of the steroidogenic enzymes, to which of the ovarian cell types the placenta is the most similar? a. Granulose cells b. Theca cells c. Granulose-lutein cells d. Theca-luten cells e. None of the above 62. A 45 years old came to the clinic due to obesity (BMI-35) and high sugar values, everything is correct regarding his condition, except: a. The obesity contributed to the high sugar values by increasing the insulin resistance b. One of the mechanisms responsible for increasing the blood sugar levels in fest is increased synthesis of sugar in the liver c. Weight loss and exercise could return the sugar level to the norm d. In most of the cases low insulin levels in the blood were found e. You can combine a treatment that inhibits the sugar absorption in the intestine and increases the tissue sensibility to insulin 63. A 45 years old came to the clinic due to obesity (BMI-35) and high sugar values, what’s incorrect? a. The obesity contributed to the high sugar values by increasing the insulin resistance b. One of the mechanisms responsible for increasing the blood sugar levels in fest is increased synthesis of sugar in the liver c. Weight loss and exercise could return the sugar level to the norm d. In the subcutaneous fat the macrophages concentration is very high in comparison to the abdominal fat and that is why female fattening (in the thighs) causes more complications then an abdominal fattening (male). e. The leptin levels would be high 64. The following situations related to obesity, except: a. Leptin hormone deficiency b. A defect in the MC4R receptor c. An increase in the adipunctin levels d. An increase in the hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase 11 activity e. Deficiency in the thyroid hormones 65. Which of the following molecules would you recommend to act on, in order to improve the insulin resistance in a patient? a. Increase the expression of TNF b. Decrease the expression of edipunctin c. Block the receptor activity to MC4 d. Decrease the ghrelin levels e. Increase the cortisol levels 66. The intestine-brain bond has many roles in hunger and eating regulation and the energetic equilibrium. What is incorrect in the following sentences? a. Eating is process that requires energy b. The PYY levels would decrease after eating c. The ghrelin is being secreted mostly from the stomach during hunger d. Leptin resistance is an obesity characteristic e. When the cortisol is high the stomach acidity raises 67. All of the following sentences are correct, except: a. Blocking of the insulin receptor activity in the brain would affect the sugar economy in the body b. The food products would affect the sugar synthesis in the liver directly and indirectly through the hypothalamus c. Leptin works on two kineds of receptors and activates the STAT/JAK root d. The MCR4 receptor mediates the ghrelin activity and the increase in leptin levels e. Leptin and ghrelin receptors are found in the hypothalamus but also in other organs 68. Type I diabetes, what’s correct? a. Is an inherited disease that is transferred in an autosomal recessive manner b. HLA-DR2 is often appears in higher frequency in these patients c. The disease in more common in girls than in boys, like most of the autoimmune diseases d. When one of the monozygotic twins develops the disease, the chance that the other one would be ill too is 40%, what can indicate on the importance of the environmental element e. Consumption of cow milk protects against the development of the disease 69. All of the following can be the trigger for developing type I diabetes, except: a. Coxsackievirus b. Early exposure to external proteins c. Increased consumption of carbohydrates and a decrease in exorcize d. Chemical toxins e. Good hygiene conditions 70. Regarding the langerhans islands, all is correct, except: a. They constitute about 2% of the pancreas mass b. Most of the α cells that are responsible for glucagons secretion are found in the periphery of the island c. Mutations in the gene responsible for the synthesis of IPF1 (insulin promoting factor 1), cause deficiency in the pancreas development and congenital diabetes d. Somatostatin is secreted from the PP cells that are found also in the exocrine part of the pancreas e. We can distinguish between the different cell types by the size and the concentration of the intracellular granules 71. regarding insulin, all is correct except: a. secreted in to phases after the proper stimulation b. with every insulin molecule two C-peptide (a molecule that belongs to the α chain and the other to the β chain) molecules are secreted c. amino acids in the blood also cause insulin secretion d. in different pathological situations there is increased proinsulin secretion 72. a week old baby was diagnosed with congenital diabetes, this disease: a. autoimmune destruction of β cells in the pancreas – genesis of pancreas b. mutation in the potassium channels c. no activity in the glucokinase enzyme d. congenital diabetes vanishes from an unknown reason