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Infection disease
1. Etiology agent of botulism is:
A. Ch. trachomatis
B. * Cl. botulinum
C. Cl. perfrigens
D. Rotavirus
2. What special treatment is used in beginning of the botulism?
A. * Antibotulinum serum
B. Disintoxication therapy
C. Hormonal therapy
D. Sulfonamides therapy
3. Which groups of symptoms are occurs in the clinic of botulism?
A. Vomiting, higher temperature
B. * Dysphagia, dysphonia, diplopia,
C. Sickness, general weakness
D. Higher temperature, diarrhea, speech dysfunction
4. Which groups of symptoms are occurs in the clinic of botulism?
A. Vomiting, higher temperature
B. * Dysfunction of speech and eyesight, breath, sickness, dysphagia
C. Higher temperature, diarrhea, speech dysfunction
D. Diarrhea, vomiting dysfunction of eyesight
5. Woman L, 65 y.o., became ill sharply, in 12 hours after the use in the meal of canned mushrooms of the
domestic making and fried eggs fried on fat. A sharp weakness, nausea, double vomits, appeared „clouds”
before eyes, disorders of swallowing. At a review: Т-36,2 C., ptosis, midriasis,anizocoria, inspiratory
dyspnea. What disease is present in women?
A. * Botulism
B. Salmonelosis
C. Poisoning by mushrooms
D. Toxic food-borne infection
6. Patient I., 34 years old, entered to the infectious department. She is sick during 4 days. She complained on
binocular diplopia, “net” in front of eyes, xerostomya, dysphagia, myastenia. What is previous diagnosis?
A. Diphtherial polyneuritis
B. * Botulism
C. Rotaviral infection
D. Poliomyelitis
7. Patient M, 32 y.o., entered clinic on 3rd day of disease with complaints of nausea, feeling of weight in
abdomen, vomits, liquid stool. Then appeared clouds before eyes, doubling of objects, voice hoarse,
violation of swallowing. A day before he used the dried fish. During review: state is moderate., violation of
active motions like paralyses. There is also midriasis, vertical nystagmus, blepharoptosis, absent reaction of
pupils on light. Tongue is dry. Flatulence of 2 stage. What methods of laboratory diagnostics are used to
confirm the diagnosis?
A. Reaction indirect hemaglutination
B. Immunofluorescent
C. Reaction of coaglutination
D. * Reaction of neutralization (biological test)
8. Patient M., 35 years old, who is sick during 2 days, complains on xerostomia, dysphagia. What symptom is
necessary to check?
A. The Padalra‘s symptom
B. The Stefansky‘s symptoms
C. The corneal symptoms
D. * The eyes symptoms.
9. Patient, 40 y.o. in 5 hours after the use in the meal of canned mushrooms of the domestic making a sharp
general weakness, nausea, vomits, dryness of mucus membranes of oral cavity, doublings of objects,
disorders of act of swallowing. Diagnosis?
A. Poisoning by Belladonna
B. Diphtherial polyneuritis
C. * Botulism
D. Rotaviral infection
10. The patient, 45 y.o., entered clinic on the 2nd day of illness with complaints of a weakness, diplopia,
dryness in mouth, constipations. 3 days ago ate the smoked pork of the domestic making. At a review: skin
pale, consciousness is clear. Temperature 37,2 C, pulse 68 in 1 min, AP 120/80, pupils are widening,
reaction on light slow, ptosis, horizontal nystagmus. Paresis of soft palate. A sensitiveness is normal.
Meningeal signs are not present. The most effective treatment will be:
A. Sulfanilamides
B. Salts solutions
C. Antiviral preparations
D. * Antibolutilic antitoxic serum
11. A persons 28 y.o., became ill sharply, when a chill, feeling of heat, increase body temperature to 38,5
°C, spastic pain in a left hypogastria area, frequent liquid stool. The excrements have the appearance of
bloody-mucous mass (lumps of mucus with the blood). At palpation: abdomen is painful in its left half,
a spastic sigmoid colon. What is the previous diagnosis?
A. Escherichiosis
B. * Shigellosis
C. Balanthidiasis
D. Acute intestinal infection
12. Mother with a child hospitalized with the diagnosis of shigellosis, typical form, moderate severity.
Other family members are healthy. What measures are conducted to contact persons?
A. Supervision 7 days. General blood analyses
B. * Supervision 7 days. Non-permanent bacteriological investigation of feces on a dysenteric group
C. Supervision 2 weeks. Non-permanent bacteriological inspection of feces on a dysenteric group
D. Supervision during 24 hours from the moment of detection of patient
13. The inhabitant of a village, admitted with complaints about severe pain in a stomach, and diarrhea. The
stool is liquid with mixtures of blood. About what disease it is possible to think?
A. Amebiasis
B. Rotavirus gastroenteritis
C. Giardiasis
D. * Shigellosis
14.
What mechanism of shigella transmission?
A. Transmissive
B. Air-droplet
C. Contact
D. * Fecal-oral
15.
Which of antibiotics are used as etiological treatment of shigellosis:
A. Penicillin, bicillin
B. * Furasolidon, nifuroxasid
C. Aminoglycosides (kanamicin)
D. Cephalosporins (cefazolin)
16. A patient was hospitalised after 4 hours of consumption of raw eggs, complaining frequent vomiting,
abdominal pain, mostly in the right iliac area and umbilical area. Objectively pale skin, dry tongue with
grey coating, hypotension, tachycardia. What tests should be carried out to confirm the diagnosis.
A. Parasitological examinations
B. Microscopic examination of stool
C. Biological test
D. * Coproculture
17. Emergency ambulance deliveredin infectious hospital girl N., 17 years old, complaining of headaches,
expressed general weakness, pain in epigastrium, repeated vomiting, diarrhea to 8 times a day greenish
color. She was used 2 raw chicken eggs. Body temperature 39 °C, the tongue covered with white coat,
moderately cramps, pain in abdomen and sigmoid area. The most likely diagnosis.
A. Acute appendicitis
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Shigellosis
D. * Salmonellosis
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
18. 3 patients were delivered with symptoms of fever, diarrhea and vomiting. Excrements are dark-green,
without any pathological changes. All patients together took part in the preparation of food and have
used eggs, meat, salad. The most likely diagnosis.
Cholera
Botulism
* Salmonellosis
Shigellosis
19. Salmonella is classified by:
a. * O-antigen and H-antigen
b. H-antigen and Vi-antigen
c. O-antigen, H-antigen and Vi-antigen
d. O-antigen, H-antigen, Vi-antigen and HBsAg
20. The kind of immunity after salmonellosis.
Passive
Not formed
Short term
* Type specific
21. The source of the causative agent of salmonellosis is:
Sick person
* Farm animals
Environment
Stool of patients
22. What group of infectious diseases salmonellosis belong to?
* Zoonosis
Antroponosis
Zooantroponosis
The group is not defined
23. Which season is prevalence for salmonellosis.
Only spring months
Autumn
Winter
* Summer-autumn
24. Two girls came to a hospital, because they had 38 0С fever, a headache, weakness, dizziness, and a pain
in epigastry and round a navel, a nausea, vomiting 3 times, excrements 4 times per a night, watery
diarrhea, foamy, fetid, with mucus impurity. It is known from the history that the day before the girls ate
pastries with cream which were not stored in a refrigerator. Objectively: a tongue is dry, furred by white
touch, the stomach is bloated moderately, rumbles in palpation, painful in epigastry, pulse is 80 bpm,
and the blood pressure is 110/70 mm mercury column. To define the diagnosis.
Shigellosis
* Salmonellosis
Food poisoning
Typhoid fever
25. Patient D., 13 y.o., hospitalized with complaints of nausea, abdominal pain, liquid emptying without
pathological admixtures with an unpleasant smell, 6 times per day. The day before he had a supper with
meat salad. What is a first aid?
* To wash a stomach and intestine by solution of hydrocarbonate of sodium
Antibacterial preparations of wide spectrum of action
Renewal of normal microflora of intestine
To wash a stomach and intestine by solution of permanganate of potassium
26. Patient H., 37 y.o., appealed to the doctor on the second day of disease with complaints of the promoted
fatigueability, weakness in muscles („cotton feet”), violation of sight, dryness of mouth. Works in a
tourist agency, often is in the oversea business trip. Three days ago was with friends on a picnic in a
forest, where ate the varied meal of the domestic making. At a review: Т-36,8 °C. Blepharoptosis.
Midriasis. The reaction on light is lost. A soft palate is not changed. Defecation is absent for 2 days.
What is the source of infection in this disease?
The sick man
B. Man-bacteria carrier
C. * Domestic animals
D. Canned foods
27. Patient I., 34 years old, entered to the infectional department. She is sick during 4 days. She complained
on binocular diplopia, “rate” in front of eyes, erostomya, dysphagia, myastenia. What is previous
diagnosis?
A. Stool
B. Wine
C. * Blood
D. Vomiting mass
28. A Pakistani, 30 years old, is severely ill: with the complains of frequent diarrhea like rice water.
Objectively: body temperature 35,4°C, skin of peripheral parts of the body cold to the touch,
acrocyanosis, xerostomia, sharply decreased skin elasticity and turgor. What should be done to assess
the degree of dehydration.
A. Measurement of central venous pressure
B. Determination of urea and creatinine in blood
C. Plain X-ray film of abdomen
D. * Determination of specific gravity of blood plasma
29. Disease started acutely with the complains of heavy watery diarrhea, vomiting, cramps in the lower
extremities. Objectively: slow voice, shunken eyes, quick pulse, low blood pressure, decrease of
urination, weak cardiac sounds. In liver and spleen no changes. Put the correct diagnosis.
A. Salmonellosis
B. Dysentery
C. * Cholera
D. Typhoid fever
30. What solutions must be applied for compensatory rehydration in cholera?
A. Hypertensive epitonic polyionic crystalloid
B. * Isotonic polyionic crystalloid
C. Reosorbilakt
D. Isotonic solution of glucose
31. For the rehydration at dehydration shock it is necessary to conduct the permanent careful account of all
losses of liquid every:
A. 4 hrs
B. 30 min
C. 3 hrs
D. * 2 hrs
32. The essential therapy for cholera is:
A. Antibacterial drugs
B. Correction of dysbacteriosis
C. Desintoxication
D. * Primary rehydration
33. What from the given measures is made during the secondary rehydration?
A. Amount of lost liquid, which was preceded at the time of hospitalization
B. Application of isotonic crystalloid solutions
C. Simultaneous introduction of liquid in a few vessels
D. * Amount of liquid loss
34. What from the below is a complication of cholera?
A. Infectious-toxic shock
B. Acute renal insufficiency
C. * Dehydration shock
D. Status typhosus
35. What from the below mentioned drugs can be used for the treatment of primary rehydration?
A. Disalt
B. Acesalt
C. * Trisalt
D. Chlosalt
36. What from the below mentioned preparations cannot be used for the treatment of primary rehydration?
A. Lactosalt
B. * Disalt
C. Acesalt
D. Trisalt
E. Chlosalt
37. What from the below mentioned preparations, can be used for the treatment of primary rehydration?
A. * Quartasalt
B. Chlosalt
C. Disalt
D. Lactosalt
38. What from the below mentioned preparations, cannot be used for the treatment of primary rehydration?
A. Acesalt
B. Trisalt
C. * Cryoplasma
D. Chlosalt
39. What solutions must be applied for compensatory rehydration in cholera?
A. Colloid
B. Hypertensive epitonic polyionic crystalloid
C. * Isotonic crystalloid
D. Reosorbilact
40. A Sick 18 years, hospitalized in an infectious department with diagnosis of cholera, very severe state,
dehydration of IV degree. What measures are possible primarily?
A. Oral rehydration by glucose solutions
B. * Intravenous stream introduction of salt solutions
C. Proceeding the normal microflora of intestine
D. Intravenous stream introduction of sodium chloride solution
41. At I degree of dehydration the loss of liquid is:
A. 6-9 % of body weight
B. 3-6 % of body weight
C. 5-8 % of body weight
D. * 1-3 % of body weight
42. At what percent of fluid loss will be II degree of dehydration?
A. * 3-6 % of body weight
B. 6-9 % of body weight
C. 1-3 % of body weight
D. 2-7 % of body weight
43. At what percent of fluid loss will be III degree of dehydration?
A. 3-6 % of body weight
B. Over 10 % of body weight
C. * 6-9 % of body weight
D. 4-8 % of body weight
44. In 1 liter of Trisalt solution, the concentration of potassium chloride is:
A. 3 g/l
B. 1.5 g/l
C. * 1.0 g/l
D. 2 g/l
45. The hypovolemic shock is:
A. І degree of dehydration
B. ІІ degree of dehydration
C. ІІІ degree of dehydration
D. * ІV degree of dehydration
46. Patient, 32 y.o., complains of progressing muscular weakness, worsening of sight, doubling of objects,
“net”, before eyes, violation of swallowing (can not swallow a hard meal), thirst. In the first day of illness
single liquid stool was present without pathological admixtures, nausea. 2 days prior to beginning of disease
A.
B.
C.
D.
was in guests, used an alcohol, canned mushrooms. Presence of ptosis, midriasis, anizocoria. Tones of heart
are muffled. Which antibotulinic serum is it expedient to enter?
Mixture of serums of types A, B and E for 10 thousands of IU
Mixture of serums of types A, B and E for 5 thousands of IU
* Mixture of serums of types A and E for 10 thousands IU and type B 5 thousands of IU
Mixture of serums of types A and B for 10 thousands IU and type E 5 of thousand of IU
47. The subcompensated dehydrationous shock develops at:
A.
B.
C.
D.
A systolic blood pressure boost
A diastolic blood pressure boost
A diastolic blood pressure decrease
* A decrease of the systolic blood pressure
48. About what does the diagnostic titre of reaction of Vі-haemaglutination testify?
A. * About typhoid bacterial-carrier
B. About the period of height of the epidemic typhus
C. About meningococcaemia
D. About a malaria
49. At the typical form of typhoid fever temperature of body rises to 37-37,5 °C. How is such temperature
curve named?
A. The temperature curve as Vunderlihs
B. * The subfebrile temperature curve
C. Temperature curve as Kildushevsky
D. Temperature curve as Ellers
50. Convalescent of typhoid fever may be discharged from clinic after:
A. * 21-th day of normal temperature of body and 3-multiple negative bacteriologic examination of excrements
and urine
B. Normalization of rectoscopic picture and decreasing of titre of antibodies in RNGA
C. 3-th day of normal temperature of body and 2-multiple negative bacteriologic examination of excrements
and urine
D. 14-th day of normal temperature of body and 2-multiple negative bacteriologic examination of excrements
and urine
51. Duration of incubation period at typhoid fever?
A. 30-45 days
B. 3-7 days
C. From a few hours to 2-3 days
D. * 9-21 day
52. Entrance of causative agent at typhoid fever?
A. Mucous membrane of amygdales
B. Mucous membrane of nasopharynx
C. Epithelial cells of skin
D. * Mucous membrane of digestive tract
53. Enumerate the basic factors of pathogen activity of typhoid bacteria?
A. Exotoxin
B. * Vi-antigen and endotoxin
C. Enzymes of pathogenicity
D. Endotoxin
54. Site of causative agent entrance at typhoid fever?
A. * Mucous membrane of small intestine
B. Mucous membrane of nasopharynx
C. Mucous membrane of genital organs
D. Mucous membrane of esophagus
55. The part of reproduction of typhoid bacterium in the organism of human is:
A. Stomach
B. * Lymphatic formations of colon
C. Blood
D. Mucous membrane of colon
56. What changes in general blood analysis are characteristic for typhoid fever?
A. * Leucopenia, aneosinophilia, lympho-, monocytosis, increasing ESR
B. Leucocytosis, hypoeosinophilia, thrombocytosis, decreasing ESR
C. Hyperchromic anaemia, leucocytosis, appearance of young forms, increasing ESR
D. Leucopenia, lymphopenia, thrombocytosis, increasing ESR
57. What does the diagnostic titre of reaction of Vі-haemaglutination testify to?
A. * About typhoid bacterial-carrier
B. About the period of height of the epidemic typhus
C. About meningococcaemia
D. About a malaria
58. What from the adopted ways of transmission is characteristic for typhoid?
A. * Alimentary
B. Contact
C. Air-drop
D. Vertical
59. When is it possible to abolish etiotropic drugs in a patient with typhoid fever?
A. After normalization of sizes of liver and spleen
B. After disappearance of roseollas
C. In 10 days after disappearance of roseollas
D. * After the 10th day of normal body temperature
60. When there can be such specific complication of typhoid fever, like to intestinal bleeding?
A. On the 4th week of illness
B. * On the 3d week of illness
C. After stopping the antibiotic therapy
D. On the any week of illness
61. A woman who came back from a tour trip, the next day called emergency help. It is known from the
anamnesis, that within a week the temperature of body was moderately high. Complains of bad sleep and
bad appetite, pain in the stomach. During the assessment of the sick it is found out roseolas on the pale skin
of breasts and abdomen. Pulse is normal, temperature of body 38,2 °C, hepatospleenomegaly. What is your
previous diagnosis?
A. * Typhoid fever
B. Epidemic typhus
C. Enteroviral infection
D. Leptospirosis
62. A child, 8 years old, has been ill for 9 days. Complaints of weakness, headache, insomnia. A
temperature to – 38,5-39,5°C. The skin is pale. There are 3 roseolas on the skin of abdomen. A tongue is
assessed. A liver and spleen is enlarged. What disease is the most probable?
A. Yersiniosis
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. * Typhoid fever
D. Leptospirosis
63. A patient V., 23 years old, was hospitalized on the 6th day of the disease with complaints for a high
temperature, chill, dry cough. The disease began suddenly from getting up of temperature to 39,7 °C,
chill, then a dry cough. Treated oneself as ARI, took an analgesic, antihistaminic. Objectively: state of
moderate severity, on an abdomen are single roseollas, hepatosplenomegaly, diarrhea up to 4 times
without admixtures. What is the previous diagnosis?
A. * Typhoid fever
B. Brill‘s disease
C. Meningococcemia
D. Epidemic typhus
64. A patient, 24 y/o, was hospitalized in infectious department on the 10th day of illness with complaints
about a weakness, headache, absence of appetite, cough. Objectively: temperature of body 39,5 °C,
pallor of skin. On the skin of stomach and chest some roseolas were found. There is hard breathing over
the lungs with no rales. RR 20 / min. Pulse 80 /1 min. The liver edge is palpable 1 cm. below than costal
arc. The spleen is enlarged a little. What is the diagnosis?
A. * Typhoid fever
B. Spotted fever
C. Brucellosis
D. Pneumonia
65. A woman D., 41 years, complains on diarrhea, headache, severe weakness, insomnia, dull pain in a
right iliac area. It is a 8th day of illness. At a review: Т-39,8 °C, Рs – 86/min., AP – 90/60 mm Hg. It is
dictoric pulse. Skin is pale. Single roseollas are on the abdomen. Tongue is dry, assessed by the
coverings, with the imprints of teeth on a lateral surface. Soft, dulling of percutory sound is determined
in a illeocaecal area of abdomen. Hepatosplenomegaly, positive Blumberg’s symptom, neutrophilic
leukocytosis. What diagnosis is most reliable?
A. * Typhoid fever
B. Sepsis
C. Megakaryoblastoma
D. Tuberculosis
66. At a patient G., 41 years old, was a high temperature during 8 days, severe headache, constipation.
Objectively: temperature of body 39,5 °C, pale, languid. Pulse 82 per a min, a tongue is dry, assessed
by the brown coat. An abdomen is moderato exaggerated, painful in a right ileac area. A liver + 2 cm.
What is the most credible diagnosis?
A. * Typhoid fever
B. Epidemic typhus
C. Appendicitis
D. Yersiniosis
67. At sick P., 40 years old, the high temperature of body is marked during 8 days, great headache.
Objectively: temperature – 39,5 °C, a patient is pale, languid, adynamic. Pulse 82 per a min. A tongue
is dry, assessed a brown raid, on the skin of abdomen singles roseolas. A liver + 2 cm. What is the most
credible diagnosis?
A. * Typhoid fever
B. Sepsis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Brucellosis
68. At sick, 32 years, on the 9th day of illness which began gradually, from slow growth of fever and
intoxication, appeared 3 roseols on the skin of abdomen. Objectively: pale of skin, temperature – 40,4
°C, pulse 80 per a min, BP 100/65 mm Hg. A tongue is assessed, an abdomen is swollen, and the spleen
and liver are palpated. Inspection what disease is it needed to conduct on above all things?
A. * Typhoid fever
B. Measles
C. Scarlet fever
D. Sepsis
69. A sick entered permanent establishment with complaints about general weakness, increase of
temperature, pain in throat. Objectively: the mucus cell of retropharynx is bright red, on oral cavity are
raids of gum-blush, taken off easily, discovered enlargement of all groups of lymphnode, 2-3cm in a
diameter, dense, elastic little painful, not soldered between itself. Liver is enlarged on 3cm, spleen – on
2cm. In blood present leucocytosis and lymphomonocytosis. What is probable diagnosis?
A. * Infectious mononucleosis
B. Diphtheria
C. Acute leukosis
D. Adenovirus infection
70. What additional inspections must be conducted on patient with infectious mononucleosis?
A. IFA on HIV and test on rabbit-fever
B. Bacterioscopy on diphtheria and typhoid
C. Reaction of Paulya-Bunnelya and puncture of lymphatic node
D. * Ig M and IgG to infectious mononucleosis
71. What additional inspections must be conducted on patient with infectious mononucleosis?
A. IFA on HIV and test on rabbit-fever
B. Bacterioscopy on diphtheria and typhoid
C. * IFA on HCV
D. Reaction of Byurne and puncture of lymphatic node
72. What additional inspections must be conducted on patient with infectious mononucleosis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
IFA on HIV and test on rabbit-fever.
Bacterioscopy on diphtheria and typhoid.
* IFA on HIV and bacterioscopy on diphtheria.
Reaction of Paulya-Bunnelya and puncture of lymphatic node.
73. A patient 18 years old, with complaints about headache, pharyngalgia, weakness, high temperature.
Objectively: all groups of lymphonodes, 1-3 cm in a diameter, dense, elastic, enlarged,
hepatospleenomegaly. Blood analysis: leukocytosis, mononuclear – 15 %. What is possible diagnosis?
A. * Infectious mononucleosis
B. Angina
C. Diphtheria
D. Acute lympoleycosis
74. What is the entrance gate at infectious mononucleosis?
A. Mucus of digestive highway
B. Epithelial mews of skin
C. Peyer‘s plate and follicles
D. * Mucus of nazo-pharig
75. At a patient, 17 years: angina. Temperature 38,2 °C, generilised lymphadenopathy (the first multiplied
neck lymphatic knots which are located along m. sternocleidomastoideus), small icterus,
hepatospleenomegaly. Previous diagnosis?
A. Bacterial quinsy
B. Diphtheria
C. * Infectious mononucleosis
D. Megacaryoblastoma
76. For what disease characterize changes in a blood (presence of lymphomonocytes and a typical
mononuclears)?
A. * Infectious mononucleosis
B. Measels
C. AIDS
D. Diphtheria
77. What the most possible complication occurs during infectious mononucleosis?
A. Meningitis
B. encephalitis
C. * Splenic rupture
D. Obstruction of respiratory tract
78. A patient 17 years old, became suddenly ill: temperature rose to 40,3 °C. Severe headache, motive
excitation, frequent vomiting, tremor of fingers of extremities. Hemorrhagic spots of round form and
different sizes, more frequently as stars, mainly on buttocks and trunk. Meningeal signs are positive.
What is the most possible diagnosis?
A. Flu with a hemorrhagic syndrome
B. * Meningococcal infection
C. Measles
D. Leptospirosis
79. A patient K., 23 years old, with 3 days of moderate illness, with high temperature of body to 40.0 °C,
headache and petechial rash on skin, is hospitalized. After introduction of penicillin at 2 o’clock, the BP fell
down to 40/10 mm of hg. Peripheral pulse and мeningeal signs does not concerne. What is the diagnosis of
the patient?
A. * Меningococcemia, infectious-toxic shock
B. Measles, severe course
C. Epidemic typhus, severe course
D. Scarlet fever, severe course
80. A patient P., 14 years old, is hospitalized in the infectious dept. in grave condition. Complaints on
headache, mainly in frontal and temporal regions, superciliary arcs, vomiting on severe pain, pain on
movement of eyeballs, in muscles, joints. Objectively – a patient is excited, temperature of the body 39 °C.
BP 100/60 mmHg. Bradycardia was replaced by tachycardia. Tonic cramps appeared. Doubtful meningial
signs. From anamnesis it is found that at home his brother has flu. What preparations must be injected?
A. * Mannitol, paracetamol, prednisolone, euphyllin
B. Analgin, dimedrol, aspirin, ampicillin
C. Mannitol, aspirin
D. Lasix, analgin, ampicillin
81. A sick 19 years old, fell ill rapidly, when a temperature rose to 39,2 °C, coughing appeared, closed nose.
Pains in muscles and joints. On the 3rd day of disease, shallow spots on the trunk appeared, extremities with
hyperemia and edematous feet. Generalized lymphadenopathy, hyperemia of cheeks, enlargement of the
liver were found out. What is previous diagnosis?
A. * Pseudotuberculosis
B. Flu
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Herpetic infection
82. The patient P., 14 years old, is suffering from flu. He is hospitalized in infectious dept. due to worsening of
his condition. He is conscious. A patient is suffocated. Pallor of skin covers with cyanosis, breathing rate 50
times/minute. BP-80/55 mmHg, pulse 110 times /minute. Body temperature-39,5 °C. Excretion of rose
foamy sputum. On percussion of lungs there is tympanic sound with dullness in lower part of lung .On
auscultation there is moist rales in lower posterior part of lungs. What complication of flu appeared in
patient?
A. Edema of brain
B. * Pneumonia
C. Edema of lungs
D. infectious-toxic shock
83. A boy 6 years was in the close touch with a patient with diphtheria. What treatment-prophylactic measures
need to be conducted, if vaccine anamnesis is unknown?
A. Antibacterial therapy
B. Introduction of ADT-м to the toxoid
C. * Antibacterial therapy and double introduction of ADT toxoid
D. Antibacterial therapy and introduction of immunoprotein
84. A child 2 years carries a diphtherial croup. There was the stop of breathing on 2nd days of whey therapy.
What was the reason of asphyxia?
A. * Mechanical obturation by tapes
B. Stenosis of larynx
C. Anaphylaxis shock
D. Paresis of respiratory musculature
85. A diagnosis is “diphtheria of otopharynx” put to the 3-years-old child (not instiled through the refusal of
parents). Family lives in a 3-room apartment, a mother does not work, a father is the director of factory.
Specify the method of isolation of child.
A. * Obligatory hospitalization
B. Hospitalization after clinical testimonies
C. Hospitalization after epidemiologys testimonies
D. Isolation in home terms
86. At a child 4 years on the third day of disease the widespread form of diphtheria of nasopharynx is
diagnosed. Preparation of specific therapy:
A. Penicillin i/m
B. Cortycosteroid
C. * Antidiphterial serum i/v
D. Antitoxic therapy
87. At a girl, 22 years old, severy form of diphtheria of otopharynx have happened. Specific treatment
begun only on a 5th day from the beginning of disease. What complication of diphtheria is potentially
dangerous?
A. Pneumotorax
B. Meningoencephalitis
C. Septicopyemia
D. * Infectious-toxic shock
88. At a patient the dense darkly-grey raid covers tonsills is considerably megascopic and spreads for their
scopes. Mucus shell bloodshot accented cyanochroic, was considerably swollen. Immediate medical
measure:
A.
B.
C.
D.
* Antidiphterial whey
Punction of peritonsillar space
Microscopic research of stroke from under tape
Bacteriologic examination of stroke from under pallatum
89. At a patient the dense darkly-grey raid covers tonsils is considerably megascopic and spreads for their
scopes. Mucus shell bloodshot accented cyanochroic, was considerably swollen. Immediate medical
measure:
A. Ultraviolet irradiation of throat
B. Punction of peritonsillar space
C. Section of peritonsillar space
D. * Introduction of antidiphterial serum
90. At a patient which carried diphtheria with an incessant pharyngalgia, disartria, weakness and loss of
motions; hyperreflexia, decline of sensitiveness on a polyneuritis type developed. Put a diagnose.
A. Hemorrhage in a brain
B. Viral encephalitis
C. * Diphtheria polyneuropathy
D. Psevdobulbar syndrome
91. Corynebacterium diphtheria:
A. Contain endotoxin only
B. * Exotoxin products
C. An enterotoxin products
D. Myelotoxin products
92. In preschool is case of disease on diphtheria. What prophylactic measures must be conducted above all
things?
A. Urgent hospitalization
B. * Quarantines measures
C. Urgent by chemical prophylactic antibiotics
D. Introduction of antidiphterial whey
93. Patient, 24 years old, with diagnosis dyphtheria was admitted to the infectious disease department. What
remedy is most effective for treatment and should be used immediately?
A. Antibiotics
B. * Antitoxic antidyphtherial serum
C. Antipyretic drugs
D. Sulfanilamides
94. Patient, 35 years was hospitalized with diagnosis localized diphtheria of pharynx. What is the first dose
of antitoxic antidyphtherial serum?
A. * 30 000 AU
B. 80 000 AU
C. 120 000 AU
D. 150 000 AU
95. What characteristic signs of raid at diphtheria?
A. * grey-white, dense with clear edges and brilliant surface
B. Yellow-white, fragile, perilacunar is located
C. One-sided, yellow-white, in lacunas
D. White, fragile, is easily taken off by a spatula
96. What complication has developed in patient with diphtheria of mouth pellicle severe form was
diagnosed. On the 6th day of disease when pain in the heart region, palpitation were appeared. Pulse –
120 per 1 min, systolic noise on apex of heart. On ECG is incomplete blockade of left leg of Giss bunch?
A. * Early infectious-toxic myocarditis
B. Myocardial dystrophy
C. Heart attack of myocardium
D. Acute cardio-vessel insufficiency
97. What is the exciter of diphtheria:
A. * Leffler Bacillus
B. Corynebacteria ulcerans
C. Fusiform stick
D. Corynebacteria xerosis
98. A 24 y/o man .was seen by a doctor on the 2d day of illness with complaints about a fever up-to 38,1 °C,
painful swallowing, malaise. On the skin of trunk and extremities, especially in natural folds, point rash
on hyperemic background was found. The nasolabial triangle was white with no rash. Enantema on a soft
palate, and purulent exudates on tonsils were observed. A few enlarged and painful submandibular
lymph nodes were palpated. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Scarlet fever
B. Rubella
C. Measles
D. Enteroviral infection
99. A patient is sick with meningococcal meningitis. He take a massive dose of penicillin. 4 days temperature
of body 36,6-36,8 °C. Meningeal signs are negative. When is it possible to stop the antibiotic therapy.
A. * At a cytosis in a CSF 100 and less, lymphocytes prevail
B. After 10 days from the beginning antibiotic therapy
C. After 7 days from the beginning antibiotic therapy
D. At a cytosis 100 and less, neutrophil prevail
100. Among the students of school 2 cases of generalized form of meningococcal infection are registered.
What preparation does it follow to enter to the contact persons with the purpose of urgent prophylaxis?
A. Leukocytic interferon
B. * Meningococcal vaccine
C. Meningococcal anatoxin
D. Bacteriophage
101. In patients with intensive head acke, nausea, pain in a neck and lumbar area, expressed meningeal
symptoms; light, tactile, pain hyperesthesia what method of inspection is most informing?
A. * Lumbar puncture
B. Electroencephalography
C. Transcranial dopplerography
D. Echoencephalography
102. Sick C., 8 years, appealed to the infectious hospital on the second day of disease with complaints about
a pharyngalgia at swallowing, increase of temperature. Objectively: temperature 38,6 °C, sharp hyperemia
of soft palate, tonsills, filling out, loose, on both there are festering stratifications which are taken off by a
spatula. Megascopic sickly submandibular lymphonoduses are palpated. Pulse – 114 per a min. Present
roseol-papular pouring out on all body. Pastia‘s symptom is positive. It is known from epidemogical
anamnesis, that its comrade had alike symptoms. It is not found out the change from the side of other
organs. What previous diagnosis can be suspected?
A. Lacunar quinsy
B. Diphtheria of pharynx
C. * Scarlet fever
D. Infectious mononucleosis
103. A 23 years old person, became ill sharply: fever 38.2 °C, moderate diffuse pharyngalgia at swallowing,
pain and itching in the right eye. Objectively: tonsillitis, pharyngitis, conjunctivitis. What is previous
diagnosis?
A. * Adenoviral infection
B. Enteroviral infection
C. Parainfluenza
D. Acute respiratory infection
104. A 25 years old patient, fell ill rapidly, with chills and temperature rose to 39,9 оC, headache appeared in
frontotemporal regions, pain in eyeballs, dull pain in all trunk, closed nose. Dry cough after 2 days of
illness, there was nose bleeding. Objectively: hyperemia with sputum, isolated petechial rash and shallow
grittiness of soft palate. Difficult breathing in lungs. What is the most possible diagnosis?
A. Adenoviral infection
B. Typhoid fever
C. * Flu
D. Epidemic typhus
105. A 4 years old child complains about: cough, temperature of body 38.1 °C. Conjunctiva is hyperemic. On
mucous of cheeks there are points of hyperemia gum blushs. Weaken breathing in the lungs. What is the
most possible diagnosis?
A. Scarlet fever
B. Rubella
C. * Measles
D. Flu
106. A child 3 years old is found in the grave condition – naughty, forced breathing, dry «barking» coughing,
voice is hoarse, perioral cyanosis. The third day, temperature of body is subfebrile, mild common cold. In
lungs single dry wheezes can be heard. Moderate tachycardia. For which disease these symptoms are
characteristic?
A. Localized diphtheria of oropharynx
B. * Parainfluenza, false croup
C. Bronchopneumonia
D. Adenoviral infection
107. A patient 14 years old, hospitalized in the infectious department in severe condition with considerable
headache mainly in frontal and temporal area, pain in eyeballs, in muscles and joints. Objectively: patient is
excited, temperature of the body is 39 оC. Bradycardia changed by tachycardia. Muscles tonic and clonic
cramps. Positive meningeal signs. It is found in epidemic anamnesis, his brother is also sick. What is your
diagnosis?
A. * Flu with pneumonia and edema of brain
B. Parainfluenza, false croupe
C. Respiratory-sencytial infection
D. Adenoviral infection, pneumonia
108. A patient 17 years, 11th class student, were a lot of cases of ARI (acute respiratory infection) have
happened, appealed to a doctor in clinic at 3rd day of disease with complaints of chills, general weakness, a
moderate sore throat, running nose, swelling of face, watering from eyes Objective examination: minor
palatal hyperemia brackets and tonsillitis, on a background of moderate edema of tissues. Conjunctivitis.
During palpation not painful enlarged inframaxillary lymph nodes, and enlarged neck lymph nodes were
found. Crepitation can’t be find. Liver and spleen moderately increased. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Diphtheria
B. * Adenoviral infection
C. Meningococcal nasopharyngitis
D. Infectious mononucleosis
109. A patient 20 years old fell ill rapidly with increasing of temperature to 39.9 °C. complains about
headache in frontotemporal region, pain in eyeballs, dull ache in whole trunk, closed nose, scrapes in the
throat, dry cough. There was nose-bleeding. What diagnosis is most possible?
A. * Influenza
B. Adenoviral infection
C. Parainfluenza
D. RS-infection
110. A patient 26 years old, became sick rapidly: temperature 39.5 оC, severe headache, mainly in frontal
and temporal areas, pain in muscles and joints. Examined on the 2nd day of illness: state of middle weight,
skin is clean. Moderate hyperemia with cyanosis, pulse 120 per min, rhythmic. Heart activity is rhythmic,
tones are muffled, in lungs there is vesicular breathing. What is the treatment of this patient?
A. * Remantadin
B. Ampicillin
C. Ascorbic acid
D. Ribonuclease
111. A patient 27 years old, entered clinic on the 4th day of illness with a diagnosis ARVI, allergodermia.
Fell ill with the rise of temperature to 38,0 °C, headache, hyperemia of the throat, then barking cough
appeared. On the 3rd day rash appeared on the skin and neck. Was treated by aspirin. Objectively:
temperature 38.8 °C. Face is puffy, conjunctivitis. On the skin of neck and upper part of chest is abundant
red-papular rashes as rings which does not itch. Mucosa of epiglottis is brightly hyperemic. Submandibular
and neck lymphadenitis. Liver and spleen were not enlarged. What is your diagnosis?
A. * Measles
B. Allergic dermatitis
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Scarlet fever
112. A patient A., 30 years old, on the 4th day of illness a district doctor marked such subjective and
objective data: insignificant indisposition, mild headache, hoarseness of voice, itching in throat, breakingdry
cough, temperature of the body 37,4 °C. Pulse 86/min., difficult nasal breathing, insignificant serous
excretions from nose. Which acute respiratory infection does the patient carry?
A. Influenza
B. * РC-viral infection
C. Parainfluenza
D. Adenoviral infection
113. A patient becomes sick very fast: chills, increasing of temperature to 40,1 оC, headache in frontal and
temporal regions, pain in eyeballs, close nose, dry cough and pain in the chest. The nose bleeding, nausea,
double vomits. Objectively: conjunctivitis, hyperemia, edema, hemorrhages in mucous of otopharhynx,
tachycardia. Blood pressure is low. Difficult breathing . What is the most possible diagnosis?
A. Meningococcemia
B. Epidemic typhus
C. Leptospirosis
D. * Flu
114. A patient C., 25 years old, fell suddenly ill. Every morning severe headache, frequent vomiting,
temperature of the body is 39.9 °C. Adopted fatigue, then state got much worse. In the evening lost of
consciousness. Expressed muscles pains of back and head. Positive Кеrning’s symptom. Leukocytes –
18,0?109. What is the most reliable diagnosis?
A. Epidemic typhus, typhus state
B. Viral menigoencephalitis
C. Sepsis, infectious-toxic shock
D. * Bacterial menigoencephalitis
115. A patient C., was hospitalized on the 2nd day of illness with complaints about hoarseness of voice,
rough barking cough, labored breathing. Objectively: the state is severe, uneasy, pallor, temperature 37.1
°C, BR 30/min., breathing is noisy, can hear from the distance, with participation of auxiliary musculature.
Which viruses could cause development of similar state?
A. Rhino virus
B. Influenza virus
C. Adenovirus
D. * Parainfluenza virus
116. A patient with temperature of body 40.0 °C, nonproductive cough, photophobia, puffiness of face, dots
on gums, blushes on the mucus of cheeks your diagnosis?
A. Меningococcemia
B. * Measles
C. Enteroviral infection
D. Staphylococcal sepsis
117. A sick 15 years old, 3rd day of illness. On the background the catarrhal pneumonia, weakness in hands
appeared, double vision, cross-eye. Voice is weak. Palatoplegia and extended extremities. Pulse 90/min. AP
130/90 mm Hg .What is your previous diagnosis?
A. Diphtheria
B. * Poliomyelitis
C. Epidemic encephalitis
D. Enteroviral infection
118. A sick explorer of train, 39 years old is hospitalized on the 4th day of illness with complaints about
headache, weakness, dizziness, chills, insomnia, fever. The person is hyperemic, conjunctivitis. On the
transitional fold of conjunctiva there is a single rash. On the skin of trunk, thorax, stomach, extremities
there are abundant red coloured rashes. Tachycardia. AP 100/60 mm of Hg. Tremor of tongue. Liver and
spleen were enlarged. Stool fistula is detained. What is the most reliable diagnosis?
A. * Epidemic typhus
B. Typhoid
C. Flu
D. Меnigococcemia
119. A sick person, 45 years old, was hospitalized after 2 days of disease. On Sunday he came back from
India (sailor). Complains about increasing of temperature to 41 оC, severe headache, shortness of breath,
cough, with sputum. Objectively: pallor, cyanosis of mucous, tachycardia. Breathing is weaken, crackles in
the lower-back parts of the lungs, crepitation. What is the possible diagnosis?
A. * Flu complicated by pneumonia
B. Miliary tuberculosis
C. Plague, pulmonary form
D. Leptospirosis
120. At patient with pediculosis rapidly rise temperature of body up to 41.2 °C, headache, euphoria appeared
in 4 days from the beginning of illness. Red colour rash on the lateral thorax and back. Titer of Rickettsia
antibodies 1:640, Ig M – 89 %. What is diagnosis?
A. Flu
B. Enteroviral infection
C. Brill-Zinsser disease
D. * Epidemic typhus
121. At patient with pediculosis rapidly rise temperature of body up to 41.2 °C, headache, euphoria appeared
in 4 days from the beginning of illness. Red colour rash on the lateral thorax and back. Titer of Rickettsia
antibodies 1:640, Ig M – 89 %. What is diagnosis?
A. Flu
B. Enteroviral infection
C. Brill-Zinsser disease
D. * Epidemic typhus
122. In a child with the clinical display of acute respiratory viral infection observed generalized
lymphadenopathy, one-sided conjunctivitis, increase of liver and spleen. What will be the most credible
diagnosis?
A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. Leptospirosis
C. * Adenoviral infection
D. Meningococcal infection
123. In girl V., 1 year old, appeared the thump of nose, dry cough, body temperature rose till 37,5 ?C. Next
day cough become attack like with the excretion of small amount of viscid sputum. Noisy breathing.
Sharply expressed expiratory dyspnea, breating rate 40 times/minute. During examination: acrocyanosis and
emphysematous thorax, at lungs dissipated dry and single moist rales. Tear of frenulum of tongue. What
will be the preliminary diagnosis?
A. * Parainfluenza
B. Pneumonia
C. Influenza
D. Respiratory-syncytial infection
124. Patient 22 years old, has increase temperature of body till 37,8 °C. Treated under the supervision of
district doctor with a diagnosis of influenza. On the 5th day of illness temperature remained the same; it
began difficultly in opening eyes. On examination – edema on face, expressed conjunctivitis with film
stratifications. Mucous pharynx is heperemia, on the back wall of gullet considerable graininess. Lymph
nodes are enlarged in neck. The general state of patient is satisfactory. This disease is related to cold. What
disease you suspect?
A. Leptospirosis
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. * Adenoviral infection
D. Meningococcal infection
125. Patient A., 28 years old, hospitalized with a previous diagnosis of flu. On the 5th day of illness, rash
appeared on the trunk and internal surfaces of extremities. Temperature 41.5 °C, hyperemia of sclera,
tremor of tongue, tachycardia, spleenomegaly, excitation. What is the most possible diagnosis?
A. Measles
B. Meningococcal infection
C. Leptospirosis
D. * Epidemic typhus
126. Patient P., 14 years old, is hospitalized in the infectious department in the severe condition. Complains
on expressed headache, mainly in frontal and temporal regions, supercilliary arcs, origin of vomiting appear
in condition of severe pain, pains by moving the eyeballs, in muscles and joints. Objectively: patient is
excited, body temperature-39 ?C. BP-100/60 mmHg. Bradycardia was replaced by tachycardia. Appeared
tonic cramps. Doubtful meningeal signs. From anamnesis it is clear that his brother has flu at home. What
will be your diagnosis?
A. Influenza, typical flow
B. * Influenza with the phenomena of edema of brain
C. Respiratory-syncytial infection
D. Parainfluenza
127. Patient R., 26 years old, became ill sharply: temperature 39,5 °C, severe headache, mainly in frontal and
temporal an area, pains in muscles and joints. Examined on the 2th days of illness: state of middle weight,
skin clean, dry. Moderate hyperemia with cyanosis, pulse 120/min., rhythmic. Cardiac activity rhythmic,
tones are muffled, in lights of the vesicular breathing. Stomach is without peristalsis. What is the
preparation of choice for treatment of this patient?
A. * Remalol
B. Ampicillin||
C. Ascorbic acid
D. Ribonuclease
128. To the district doctor a patient, complaints on abundant excretions from a nose, moderate headache,
hearing loss, perversion of taste. On examination – dry of skin, nose excoriation, in a pharynx – mild
hyperemia. Temperature of body is subfebrile. Pathological changes of internal organs are absent. Which
acute respiratory viral infection carries the patient?
A. Parainfluenza
B. * Rhinoviral infection
C. РC-infection
D. Influenza
129. A new born child on 10th day of life became worse: Temperature 39.2 °C, no frequent vomiting,
generalized cramps, violations of consciousness, spastic paresis of left extremities. Month prior to his birth
herpes virus was present in the mother, which she did not treat. What disease is most possible?
A. * Herpetic encephalitis
B. Subarechnoid hemorrhage
C. Cerebral abscess
D. Violation of blood cerebral circulation
130. A patient came with complaints of sickly erosions on his penis. From anamnesis frequent appearance of
similar rashes is found out during a year. Objectively: on a balanus are the grouped blisters and erosions,
soft on palpation. What is your diagnose?
A. * Recurrent herpes of ІІ type
B. Vulvar pemphigus
C. Primary syphyllis
D. Shankoform pyoderma
131. A patient has herpetic meningitis. What preparation of specific therapy for viral neuro infection should
be given?
A. * Acyclovir
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Gentamycin
D. Furazolidon
132. A sick 3 years old child came to the doctor with symptoms of the fever, languor, waiver of meal. A boy
is capricious, temperature of body 37.9 °C. On the mucus shell of soft palate, cheeks are single vesicle
hypersalivation. What is the diagnosis?
A. * Herpetic stomatitis
B. Candidosis of oral cavity
C. Leucoplacia
D. Follicular tonsillitis
133. A 24.y/o man was seen by a doctor on the 2d day of illness with complaints about subfebrile
temperature, and insignificant catarrhal phenomena. On the skin of trunk and extremities spotted-papular
elements of rash without a tendency to congregate was observed. The mucous membrane of oro-pharinx
was not changed. A few enlarged and painful cervical lymph nodes were found. What is the diagnosis?
A. Scarlet fever
B. * Rubella
C. Measles
D. Enteroviral infection
134. A 24.y/o patient was seen by a doctor on the 2d day of illness with complaints about a fever up-to 38 °C,
headache, and malaise. On the skin of hairy part of head, runk and extremities vesicular rash with red
hallow was found. Also some vesicular elements were found on the mucous membrane of pharynx. Lymph
nodes were not palpable. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Scarlet fever
B. Rubella
C. Measles
D. * Chicken-pox
135. A child 10 years old presents with temperature 38 °C, renitis, conjunctivitis, moist cough. On the
mucous membrane of cheeks, lips, gums there are greyish-white points, reminding a farina. What is the
diagnosis?
A. * Measles
B. Adenoviral infection
C. URTI
D. Enteroviral infection
136. Measures of urgent prophylaxis for unvaccinated children who have never been ill with measles in case
of exposure to an ill with measles
A. Separation from the source
B. * Vaccination
C. Administration of antibiotics
D. Disinfection
137. Patient A 24y/o. Appealed on the 5th day of illness with complaints about cough, malaise, fever up-to
38,1 °C. On face and behind the ears maculo-papular rash, appeared a day ago, and other areas of skin are
without rash. Conjunctiva is hyperemic. Enantema on a soft palate, on the mucous membrane of cheeks are
whitish points with the halo of hyperemia. There is the hard breathing in the lungs. Most credible diagnosis
is
A. Scarlet fever
B. * Measles
C. Enteroviral infection
D. Flu
138.
What is incubation period for hepatitis A:
A. * 45 days
B. 180 days
C. 360 days
D. 90 days
139.
What is incubation period for hepatitis B:
A. 45 days
B. * 180 days
C. 360 days
D. 90 days
140.
What is transmissive factor for hepatitis A:
A. Blood
B. Semen
C. * Water
D. Air
141.
What laboratory and instrumental examinations are needed for confirming the diagnosis of viral
hepatitis.
A. Complete analysis of blood
B. Ultrasound of abdominal region
C. Determination of activity of aminotransferase
D. * Determination of antigen of viruses
142.
When is interferon therapy effective in the the patient.
A. Normalization of activity of ALaT upon completion of course of therapy
B. Disappearance of icterus
C. Normalization of the size of liver
D. * The markers of viral replication, are determined upon completion of course of therapy
143.
Combinations of loss of body mass, sweating, recurrent аpthus stomatitis and girdle herpes and
lymphadenopathy, allowed a physician to assume HIV-infection. It can be discovered at an additional
inspection:
A. * Diminished correlation of CD4/CD8 lymphocyte
B. Change of neutrophil formula to the left
C. Increased correlation of T8/T4 lymphocyte
D. Diminished correlation of T8/T4 of lymphocyte
144.
For today the effective methods of protection from HIV are:
A. Vaccination and immunoprotein
B. Chemoprophylactic
C. Isolation of patients
D. * Safe sex and prevention of drug addiction
145.
Name the most dangerous parenteral way of infection of HIV/AIDS?
A. * Infusion of donor blood and its preparations
B. Transplantation of organs
C. Diagnostic manipulations
D. Intravenous introduction of drugs
146.
Name the source of HIV infection/AIDS?
A. * Human
B. Warm-blooded animal
C. Poultries
D. Amphibious
147.
On a background of prolonged treatment for HIV patient, appeared ulcer on the mucous cell of
mouth. At an objective examination doctor have found out erosions on the mucous, hyperemic and
filling out mucus cell of oral cavity, tongue without raid, with a smooth surface. About what
complication is possible to think?
A. Acute herpes
B. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
C. * Candidos stomatitis
D. Layel syndrome
148.
The sick grumbles about the prolonged cough, more than half-year, rising temperature of body to
38 °C, enlargement of peripheral lymphnode, frequent herpetic wide-spread pouring out with
considerable lowering of body mass. In іmmunogram correlation of T-helper to T-suppression is 0,3. It
takes place because infestant:
A. Infects cells with the receptors of CD22
B. Induces proliferation of Т-helpers
C. Infects cells from receptor CD8
D. * Infects cells from receptor CD4
149.
To what cells of blood the human immunodeficiency virus has most affected:
A. Thrombocytes
B. T-suppressor-cell
C. Т-killer
D. * T-helper
150.
What disease is occupied by the second place after frequency of the first defects at AIDS?
A. * Sarcoma Kaposhi's
B. Meningitis
C. Encephalitis
D. Lymphadenomas of cerebrum
151.
What group of infectious diseases hepatitis A belong to:
A. External covers
B. * Intestinal
C. Blood
D. Transmissive
152.
What group of infectious diseases hepatitis B belong to:
A. * External covers
B. Intestinal
C. Blood
D. Wound
153.
What group of infectious diseases hepatitis C belong to:
A. * External covers
B. Intestinal
C. Blood
D. Transmissive
154.
What group of infectious diseases hepatitis D belong to:
A. * External covers
B. Intestinal
C. Blood
D. Transmissive
155.
What group of infectious diseases hepatitis E belong to:
A. External covers
B. * Intestinal
C. Blood
D. Transmissive
156.
What clinical features of Kaposhi sarcoma in patients with AIDS?
A. * Will strike the persons of young and middle age
B. Primary elements appear on a head and trunk
C. Pouring out with necrosis and ulceration
D. A sarcoma metastasis | in internal and marked high lethality
157.
The basic way of transmission of exciter HIV infections/AIDS are such:
A. Aerogene
B. Alimentary
C. * Parententeral
D. Bite of mosquito
158.
Immediately after a contact with blood and other biological liquids it is necessary to wash the
muddy areas of skin with water and soap and to begin a postcontact prophylaxis, antiretroviral
preparations not later than
A. * 24-36 hrs
B. 48-60 hrs
C. 60-72 hrs
D. 72-86 hrs
159.
Name the most dangerous parenteral way of infection of HIV/AIDS?
A. * Infusion of donor blood and its preparations
B. Injections of medications
C. Diagnostic manipulations
D. Intravenous introduction of drugs
160. Patien O., 29 years old, farmer appeared to a doctor with the signs of balantidiasis and was hospitalized.
The best etiotropic drug is:
A. Gentamycin
B. Levomycitin
C. * Monomycin
D. Timogen
161. A child is diagnosed with giardiasis. What preparation is it more expedient to apply for treatment?
A. Ursohol
B. Delagil
C. * Ornidazol
D. Tetracyclin
162. A patient complaints of severe abdominal pain, smelly watery diarrhea with secretion of blood. What
kind of disease might be considered previously.
A. Amoebiasis
B. Rotaviral gastroenteritis
C. Giardiasis
D. * Balantidiasis
163. During acute intestinal amoebiosis in feces will be:
A. Small vegetative form, pre-cystic
B. Small vegetative and cystic shape
C. Tissue and pre cystic forms
D. * Large vegetative form
164. Drug of choice for sanation of the holders of amoeba cysts can be.
A. Monomitsin
B. Tetracycline
C. * Furamid
D. Ursosan
165. For verification of diagnosis of balantidiasis more frequently used test is:
A. Virological researches
B. Bacteriological examinations
C. Roentgenologic researches
D. * Research on protozoa
166. How long does last health system control of convalescence after balantidiasis?
A. 6 months
B. 3 months
C. * 1 year
D. 2 years
167. How long is continuing clinical convalescence after acute amoebiasis.
A. 3-6 months
B. 1-3 months
C. * 6-12 months
D. 12-18 months
168. How to increase frequency of findings of lamblia cyst in fresh feces and vegetative forms in duodenal
content?
A. Cultivation in thermostat
B. By the method of floatation in bilious clear soup
C. Cultivation in anaerobic chamber
D. * By the applications of phase-contrast and lumencense microscopy with the help of methylen-orange
169. On еndoscopical inspection of a patient are found cysts of аmoeba. These changes are specific for what
disease:
A. * Chronic intestinal аmoebiosis
B. Acute intestinal аmoebiosis
C. Amoeba liver abscess
D. Heterospecific ulcerous colitis
170. What are the stages of life-cycle of balantidium.
A. Cyst
B. * Vegetative and cyst
C. Spore
D. Vegetative
171. What clinical forms of balantidiasis are the most often.
A. * Mild
B. Acute
C. Subclinical
D. Chronic
172. What group of infectious diseases balantidiasis belongs to.
A. * Intestinal
B. Blood infection
C. Sapronosis
D. Respiratory
173. What group of pathogens balantidiasis belong to.
A. Fungi
B. Viral
C. * Simplest
D. Parasites
174. What is a source of the causal agent of amoebiasis?
A. * People
B. Cows
C. Sheep
D. Camel
175. What is an incubation period for intestinal amoebiasis:
A. * From 1 week to several months
B. 3-5 days
C. 4-6 days
D. From 3 months to 1 year
176. What is the incubation period for balantidiasis.
A. 7-14 days
B. 5-10 days
C. * 1-3 weeks
D. 3-6 weeks
177. What is the main method of taking of material for parasitological examination in case of intestinal
amoebiasis.
A. * Immediately after the defecation
B. After processing of disinfectants
C. 1-2 hours after processing with Lugol solution
D. 2-3 hours after processing with iron hematoxylin
178. What is the pathological changes in intestine at balantidiasis.
A. Ulcer
B. * Hyperemia, edema
C. Edema
D. Hyperemia without edema
179. What kind of ulcers are present at аmebiasis?
A. * Fillings out sharp edges, surrounded by the area of hyperemia, are placed on the unchanged mucus
membrane
B. Smooth sharp edges, placed on a hyperemic mucus membrane
C. Fillings out sharp edges, placed on the unchanged mucus membrane
D. Fillings out sharp edges, surrounded by the area of hyperemia, are placed on the changed mucus membrane
180. What part of lower GI tract is affected with amoebiasis most often?
A. * The descending and ascending colon
B. Sigmoid and rectum
C. Duodenum and jejunum
D. Transversal colon
181. Which ulcers are specific for amoebiasis:
A. * Purulent ulcers with undermining, surrounded by hyperemic zone located on the intact mucosa
B. Smooth ulcers with undermining, located on the hyperemic mucosa
C. Necrotic ulcers, located on the hyperemic mucosa
D. Edematose ulcers with undermining located on the intact mucosa
182. Who is the reservoir of the causative agent at balantidiasis.
A. * Pig
B. Cow
C. Sheep
D. Goat
183. Alveococcosis belongs to:
A. Nematodosis
B. Trematodosis
C. * Cestodosis
D. Ricketsiosis
184. Ascaridiosis belongs to:
A. * Nematodosis
B. Trematodosis
C. Cestodosis
D. Ricketsiosis
185. Cryptosporidiosis is:
A. blood borne infection
B. respiratory infection
C. * intestinal infection
D. infection of external covers
186. Diphyllobothriosis belongs to:
A. Nematodosis
B. Trematodosis
C. * Cestodosis
D. Ricketsiosis
187. Drug of choice for the treatment of the lymphatic filariasis is:
A. steroids
B. * diethylcarbamazine
C. metronidazole
D. chloramphenicol
188. Echinococcosis belongs to:
A. Nematodosis
B. Trematodosis
C. * Cestodosis
D. Ricketsiosis
189. Enterobiosis belongs to:
A. * Nematodosis
B. Trematodosis
C. Cestodosis
D. Ricketsiosis
190. Teniosis belongs to:
A. Nematodosis
B. Trematodosis
C. * Cestodosis
D. Ricketsiosis
191. Opisthorchosis belongs to:
A. Nematodosis
B. * Trematodosis
C. Cestodosis
D. Ricketsiosis
192. Patien O., 29 years old, farmer appeared to a doctor with the signs of balantidiasis and was hospitalized.
The best etiotropic drug is:
A. Benzylpenicillin
B. Gentamycin
C. Levomycitin
D. * Monomycin
193. Preparation of choice for the treatment of carrier of cyst of amoebae is:
A. Monomycinum
B. Delagilum
C. Tetracyclin
D. * Yatrenum
194. Schistosomosis belongs to:
A. Nematodosis
B. * Trematodosis
C. Cestodosis
D. Ricketsiosis
195. Trichinellosis develops after:
A. bite of a tick
B. drinking of contaminated water
C. * ingestion of the infected meat
D. drinking of contaminated milk
196. Trichinosis belongs to:
A. * Nematodosis
B. Trematodosis
C. Cestodosis
D. Ricketsiosis
197. For verification of diagnosis of balantidiasis more frequently used test is:
A. Virological researches
B. Bacteriological examinations
C. Roentgenologic researches
D. * Research on protozoa
198. How often treatment of amoebae cyst carrier should be done?
A. * Twice a year
B. Three times a year
C. One time a year
D. Quarterly
199. How to increase frequency of findings of lamblias cyst in fresh feces and vegetative forms in duodenal
content?
A. Cultivation in thermostat
B. By the method of floatation in bilious clear soup
C. Cultivation in anaerobic chamber
D. * By the applications of phase-contrast and luminescent microscopy with the help of methylen-orange
200. Onchoceriasis is also known as:
A. tropical pulmonary eosinophillia
B. * river blindness
C. African eye worm disease
D. ricketsiosis