Download AP Fall Final Test Bank 2014 2015

AP Fall Final Test Bank
1. Which of the following approaches to psychology emphasizes observable responses
over inner experiences when accounting for behavior? (AP94)
(A) Behaviorist
(B) Cognitive
(C) Existentialist
(D) Psychodynamic
(E) Structuralist
2. The first area of psychology to be studied as a science is known as (AP99)
(A) Psychoanalysis
(B) Phrenology
(C) Classical conditioning
(D) Mesmerism
(E) Psychophysics
3. Early behaviorists believed that psychology should not focus on “the mind” because
“the mind” is (AP04)
(A) Too complex
(B) Genetically determined
(C) Largely unconscious
(D) Unobservable
(E) Environmentally determined
4. John B. Watson was a pioneer in which of the following perspectives of psychology?
(AP04)
(A) Biological
(B) Functionalism
(C) Psychoanalytic
(D) Structuralism
(E) Behaviorism
5. A researcher studies the effects of brain lesions in rats. This research study reflects
which of the following perspectives? (AP04)
(A) Cognitive
(B) Biological
(C) Behavioral
(D) Humanistic
(E) Psychoanalytic
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In an experiment designed to determine whether watching violent scenes on television
increases the frequency of aggressive behavior in children, one group of subjects saw a
nonviolent cartoon and another group saw a violent cartoon. In the play period that
followed the viewing of the cartoons, researchers observed the two groups of children
together and counted instances of aggressive behavior. (AP94)
6. The control group in the experiment is the group that (AP94)
(A) The researchers thought would be most aggressive
(B) Performed the larger number of aggressive acts
(C) Performed the smaller number of aggressive acts
(D) Watched the violent cartoon
(E) Watched the nonviolent cartoon
7. The dependent variable in the experiment is the (AP94)
(A) Amount of aggressive behavior exhibited by the children
(B) Amount of time that each child spent interacting with the other children
(C) Group in which each child was originally placed
(D) Violent cartoon
(E) Nonviolent cartoon
8. According to the ethical guidelines set by the American Psychological Association
(APA) , which of the following is true of psychological research in which animals are
used as subjects? (AP94)
(A) It must not involve the use of surgical procedures.
(B) It is no longer permitted by the APA without special authorization.
(C) It should conform to all APA ethical guidelines for animal research.
(D) It must be limited to investigations that use correlational procedures.
(E) It may not be conducted by psychologists who do not have a license.
9. In which of the following types of research are the same children tested periodically at
different points in their development? (AP94)
(A) Clinical case study
(B) Between subjects
(C) Cross-sectional
(D) Ethnographic
(E) Longitudinal
10. In an experiment, which of the following variables refers to the outcome that is
measured by the experimenter? (AP99)
(A) Independent
(B) Dependent
(C) Control
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(D) Random
(E) Stimulus
11. Drawing a random sample of people from a town for an interview study of social
attitudes ensures that (AP99)
(A) Each person in town has the same probability of being chosen for the study
(B) An equal number of males and females are selected for interviews
(C) The study includes at least some respondents from every social class in town
(D) The study will uncover widely differing social attitudes among the respondents
(E) The sample will be large enough even though some people may refuse to be
interviewed
12.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
The most distinctive characteristic of the experimental method is that it (AP99)
Studies a few people in great depth
Studies subjects in their natural environment
Is an efficient way to discover how people feel
Seeks to establish cause-effect relationships
Provides a chronological basis for reaching conclusions
13.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
. In experimental psychology, a significant difference refers to a (AP99)
Difference not likely due to chance
Difference not likely due to faulty design
Result that indicates a correlation equal to 1.0
Result that departs from previous findings
Result that proves a new theory
14.
(A)
(B)
(C)
rat
(D)
(E)
A double-blind control is essential for which of the following? (AP99)
A study comparing the IQ test scores of children from different educational systems
A study of relationships among family members
An experiment to determine the effect of a food reward on the bar-pressing rate of a
Assessment of a treatment designed to reduce schizophrenic symptoms
A survey of drug use among teenagers
15. A researcher asks elementary, junior high, senior high, and college students to define
the term “cheating”, and analyzes differences in their definitions across age groups. This
is an example of which type of study? (AP04)
(A) Longitudinal
(B) Sequential
(C) Cross-sectional
(D) Case study
(E) Observational
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16. Which of the following would be used to measure the relationship between age and
reaction time? (AP04)
(A) Correlation
(B) Central tendency
(C) A histogram
(D) Standard deviation
(E) A t test
17. Of the following research methods, which can best establish a cause and effect
relationship? (AP04)
(A) Naturalistic observation
(B) A survey
(C) A test
(D) A case study
(E) An experiment
18.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
If the variance of a set of scores is 100, the standard deviation will be (AP04)
5
10
25
50
125
19. For a language test with normally distributed scores, the mean was 70 and the
standard deviation was 10. Approximately what percentage of the test scored 60 and
above? (AP04)
(A) 16
(B) 34
(C) 68
(D) 84
(E) 95
Questions 96-98 refer to the following study.
A student hypothesizes that high school student’s consuming different flavors of a drink
before a spelling test will perform differently. A study to test the hypothesis finds that
with a bitter drink, performance is best 6 hours after drinking it, whereas with a sweet
drink, performance is better one hour after drinking it.
20. Which of the following are the independent variables? (AP04)
(A) Test scores and high school students
(B) Test scores and time of consumption
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(C) Flavor of drink and time of consumption
(D) Flavor of drink and high school students
(E) Flavor of drink and test scores
21. Which of the following is the dependent variable? (AP04)
(A) Flavor of drink
(B) Participant’s spelling scores
(C) Participant’s ages
(D) Time the drink was consumed
(E) Number of drinks consumed
22. An interaction between variables complicates the researcher’s explanation of
findings. Which of the following are most likely involved in this interaction? (AP04)
(A) Test scores and high school students
(B) Test scores and time of consumption
(C) Flavor of drink and time of consumption
(D) Flavor of drink and high school students
(E) Flavor of drink and test scores
23. Which of the following is evidence of the reliability of a new intelligence test?
(AP04)
(A) A correlation of +0.90 exists between scores on the new test and scores on the
Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children
(B) The test predicts student’s ability to succeed in college
(C) The correlation between scores for identical twins taking the test is +0.90
(D) Baseline data for test norming are obtained from a diverse sample of several thousand
participants
(E) The correlation between scores of participants who take two forms of the test is +0.90
24.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Which of the following correctly describes the firing of neurons? (AP94)
A protoplasmic transfer of ions
A finely graded response
An all-or-none response
An osmotic process
A symbiotic function
25. Activation of the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system results in
(AP94)
(A) An increase in salivation
(B) An increase in digestion
(C) An increase in respiratory rate
(D) A decrease in heart rate
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(E) A decrease in pupil dilation
26.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
The primary effect of the myelin sheath is to (AP94)
Increase the velocity of conduction of the action potential along the axon
Increase the velocity of conduction of the action potential across the synapse
Facilitate the incoming stimulus signals at sensory receptors
Reduce the amount of unused neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft
Protect the terminal buttons of the neuron from destruction by enzymes
27. Which of the following occurs when a neuron is stimulated to its threshold?
(A) The movement of sodium and potassium ions across the membrane creates an action
potential. (AP99)
(B) The neuron hyperpolarizes.
(C) Neurotransmitters are released from the dendrites.
(D) The absolute refractory period of the neuron prevents it from responding.
(E) The neuron's equilibrium potential is reached.
28. The role of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is to
(AP99)
(A) Facilitate the body's fight-or-flight response
(B) Prepare the body to cope with stress
(C) Promote rapid cognitive processing
(D) Prompt the body to use its resources in responding to environmental stimuli
(E) Establish homeostasis after a fight-or-flight response
29. Which of the following are most involved in the action potential of a neuron? (AP04)
(A) Calcium and sodium
(B) Sodium and potassium
(C) Potassium and calcium
(D) Chloride and calcium
(E) Chloride and sodium
30.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Painkilling substances produced by the brain are known as (AP94)
cortisols
Endorphins
glucocorticoids
Pheromones
Hormones
31. Dopamine, norepinephrine, and acetylcholine are all (AP94)
(A) Hormones excreted by the endocrine glands
(B) Secretions of the exocrine glands
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(C) Drugs used in the therapeutic treatment of memory disorders
(D) Enzymes involved with the degradation of interneuron signals
(E) Neurotransmitters that excite or inhibit a neural signal across a synapse
32. Which of the following is considered the fundamental building block of the nervous
system? (AP04)
(A) Nucleus
(B) Neuron
(C) Synapse
(D) Neurotransmitter
(E) Electrical impulse
33.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
The occipital lobes contain (AP94)
The primary visual cortex
The prefrontal cortex
The somatosensory cortex
The pons
Sensory and motor connections to other brain Regions
34. Which of the following allows the examination of living brain tissue visually without
performing surgery? (AP94)
(A) Computerized axial tomography
(B) Stereotaxic examination
(C) Retrograde degeneration
(D) Biofeedback
(E) Ablation
35. For most people, which of the following is an activity based in the right hemisphere
of the brain? (AP94)
(A) Muscular control of the right hand
(B) Simple spatial reasoning
(C) Arithmetic reasoning
(D) Language comprehension
(E) Speech
36.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Which of the following is true of the reticular activating system? (AP94)
It is the major system in the brain for controlling emotions.
It functions primarily in the control of motor responses.
It regulates levels of arousal.
It regulates body temperature.
It controls the uptake of pituitary hormones.
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37.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The thalamus processes information for all of the following senses EXCEPT (AP99)
Smell
Hearing
Taste
Vision
38.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Which of the following parts of the brain is most active in decision-making? (AP99)
Reticular formation
Corpus callosum
Hypothalamus
Cerebral cortex
Pituitary gland
39. Which of the following is a brain-imaging technique that produces the most detailed
picture of brain structure? (AP99)
(A) Electroencephalography (EEG)
(B) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
(C) Positron emission tomography (PET)
(D) Computerized axial tomography (CAT)
(E) Electromyography (EMG)
40. People who have experienced severe damage to the frontal lobe of the brain seldom
regain their ability to (AP99)
(A) Make and carry out plans
(B) Recognize visual patterns
(C) Process auditory information
(D) Process olfactory information
(E) Integrate their multiple personalities
41. Stimulation of portions of the left temporal lobe of the brain during surgery will
cause the patient to (AP99)
(A) See lights
(B) Lose the sense of smell
(C) Jerk the left arm
(D) Extend the tongue
(E) Hear sounds]
42. Which of the following areas of the body has the largest number of sensory neurons?
(AP99)
(A) Back
(B) Foot
(C) Ear
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(D) Lips
(E) Wrist
43. Neurosurgeons cut the corpus callosum in the brain disrupting communication
between the right and left hemispheres to(AP04)
(A) Prevent the spread of epileptic seizures
(B) Reduce anxiety attacks and phobic reactions
(C) Reduce the incidence of violent behaviors
(D) Treat schizophrenia
(E) Reduce mood swings
44. Which component of the limbic system has an essential role in the formation of new
memories? (AP04)
(A) Amygdala
(B) Hippocampus
(C) Pituitary gland
(D) Hypothalamus
(E) Thalamus
45. A person who has a brain injury is having difficulty seeing and hearing. These
symptoms indicate that damage has occurred in the (AP04)
(A) Parietal and occipital lobes
(B) Occipital and temporal lobes
(C) Frontal and temporal lobes
(D) Temporal lobe only
(E) Frontal lobe only
46. Prozac functions as an antidepressant medication because it (AP04)
(A) Enhances production of acetylcholine
(B) Blocks the reuptake of the neurotransmitter serotonin
(C) Causes select memory loss for depression producing events
(D) Produces a steady, mild state of euphoria
(E) Inhibits frontal lobe activity related to depression
47. The human brain differs from the brains of most other animals by the relative amount
of brain mass devoted to which of the following? (AP04)
(A) The occipital lobe
(B) The cerebellum
(C) The cerebral cortex
(D) The homunculus
(E) The pituitary gland
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48. Which of the following neurotransmitters is most directly associated with
Alzheimer’s disease? (AP04)
(A) Dopamine
(B) Serotonin
(C) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
(D) Acetylcholine (ACh)
(E) Glutamate
49. Which of the following structures of the brain has been linked with the regulation of
hunger and thirst? (AP04)
(A) The occipital lobe
(B) The cerebellum
(C) The cerebral cortex
(D) The hypothalamus
(E) The pituitary gland
50.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
For most people, speech functions are primarily localized in the (AP99)
Right cerebral hemisphere
Left cerebral hemisphere
Occipital lobe
Corpus callosum
Cerebellum
51.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
A genetically programmed action pattern is the ethologist's definition of (AP99)
Habit
Instinct
Adaptation
Altruism
Releasing mechanism
52. The result of the evolutionary process that preserves traits that enhance the
adaptation of an organism and suppresses traits that do not is called (AP99)
(A) Habituation
(B) Accommodation
(C) Natural selection
(D) Eugenics
(E) Species assimilation
53. Assume that R represents a dominant gene in rats for normal running and that r
represents a recessive gene in rats for an abnormal gait called waltzing. Mating a female
Rr rat with a male RR rat will produce offspring that are (AP99)
(A) 50% runners and 50% waltzers
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(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
25% runners and 75% waltzers
75% runners and 25% waltzers
100% waltzers
100% runners
54. The evolutionary perspective (sociobiology) argues that (AP04)
(A) Humans are motivated by a desire to maintain optimum hormonal levels
(B) Humans are genetically programmed to ensure that there is a new generation of the
species
(C) Humans strive to minimize inconsistent thoughts and actions
(D) There is a relationship among task difficulty, physical arousal, and task performance
(E) Conditioning explains most human behavior
55. Which of the following reflects the inborn and stable rudiments of personality, such
as excitability? (AP04)
(A) Imprinting
(B) Social referencing
(C) Individuation
(D) Temperament
(E) Accommodation
56. In a famous series of experiments conducted by Harry Harlow, infant monkeys were
separated from their mothers at birth. The infants were then given two surrogate mothers,
each of which alternately had a nursing bottle that provided food to the infants. The
experimental results showed that in frightening situations the infant monkeys(AP94)
(A) Were more likely to become aggressive toward the wire mother than toward the
terry-cloth mother
(B) Failed to seek out either of the mothers because of their lack of experience in seeking
contact comfort
(C) Preferred the wire mother, even when the terry-cloth mother had the nursing bottle
(D) Preferred the terry-cloth mother, even when the wire mother had the nursing bottle
(E) Would run and cling to whichever mother had the nursing bottle
57. Which of the following is a genetic disorder that results in a deficiency of a liver
enzyme which, if not treated soon after birth, may eventually lead to profound mental
retardation? (AP94)
(A) Down syndrome
(B) Tay-Sachs disease
(C) Fetal alcohol syndrome
(D) Toxoplasmosis
(E) Phenylketonuria (PKU)
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58. Which of the following accurately describes a major change in perspective in the
field of developmental psychology over the past twenty-five years? (AP94)
(A) A shift from an emphasis on childhood and adolescence to an interest in development
over the life span
(B) A shift from a cognitive to a psychoanalytic interpretation of developmental
phenomena
(C) A shift in research focus from cognitive to personality development
(D) A decrease in interest in the physiological factors affecting growth and development
(E) A decrease in interest in the study of the cognitive components of intellect
59. The debate over whether development occurs gradually, without discernible shifts, or
through a series of distinct stages is termed (AP94)
(A) Nature vs. nurture
(B) Developmental vs. cognitive
(C) Cross-sectional vs. longitudinal
(D) Continuity vs. discontinuity
(E) Maturation vs. learning
60. In their discussions of the process of development, the advocates of nature in the
nature-nurture controversy emphasize which of the following? (AP94)
(A) Socialization
(B) Cognition
(C) Maturation
(D) Experience
(E) Information processing
61. Which of the following theoretical frameworks would argue most strongly that a
healthy child will choose what is good for his or her growth? (AP04)
(A) Social learning theory
(B) Psychoanalytic
(C) Behavioral
(D) Humanistic
(E) Psychodynamic
62. According to Jean Piaget, what is the earliest stage at which a child is capable of
using simple logic to think about objects and events? (AP94)
(A) Sensorimotor
(B) Preoperational
(C) Symbolic
(D) Concrete operational
(E) Formal operational
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63. A baby looks under the sofa for a ball that has just rolled underneath it. According to
Jean Piaget, the baby's action shows development of (AP99)
(A) conservation of mass
(B) Reversibility
(C) Object permanence
(D) Logical thinking
(E) metacognition
64. Mary Ainsworth's Strange Situation paradigm is typically used to test young
children's (AP99)
(A) Ego strength
(B) Intelligence
(C) Reaction time
(D) Attachment
(E) Incidental learning
65. Keisha was able to roll over at two months, crawl at five months, and walk at ten
months. This sequence of development is most likely due to (AP04)
(A) Egocentrism
(B) Social context
(C) Maturation
(D) Attachment
(E) Assimilation
66. A researcher dabs color on a 16-month-old child’s face and places the child in front
of a mirror. Which of the following developmental milestones has been reached if the
child realizes that there is something wrong with its face? (AP04)
(A) Visual discrimination
(B) Recognition of a human form
(C) Recognition of self
(D) Identification of the gender of the image
(E) Perception of the image as a playmate
67. Which Piagetian stage of cognitive development is characterized by mastery of
conversation tasks? (AP04)
(A) Sensorimotor
(B) Preoperational
(C) Concrete operations
(D) Formal operations
(E) Tertiary circular reactions
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68. A 14-month-old toddler is placed in an unfamiliar situation with the child’s mother,
who then leaves the room for a time. When the mother returns, the child squirms and tries
to get away from the mother when picked up, but also seems distressed when placed back
on the floor. Mary Ainsworth would consider this evidence of which of the following?
(AP04)
(A) Hyperactivity
(B) Narcissistic personality type
(C) A resistant or ambivalent attachment style
(D) Disorganized behavior
(E) Avoidance
69. Which of the following is typically cited as a characteristic of autistic children?
(AP94)
(A) Minor developmental delays in academic achievement
(B) Above-average performance on tests of creativity
(C) Severely impaired interpersonal communication
(D) Tendency to seek younger playmates
(E) Paranoia comparable with that experienced in schizophrenia
70. A schema can be described as (AP04)
(A) An outer layer of the eye
(B) A mental construct
(C) A fissure between lobes of the brain
(D) An optical illusion
(E) A fixed response to a particular stimulus
71. The most well-adjusted and socially competent chi1dren tend to come from homes
where parents employ which of the following parental styles? (AP94)
(A) Minimal supervision
(B) Authoritarian
(C) Authoritative
(D) Indulgent
(E) Permissive
72. Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning is best described by which of the
following? (AP94)
(A) Personal conscience is innate and all human beings develop it at the same rate.
(B) By adulthood, all people judge moral issues in terms of self-chosen principles.
(C) Ethical principles are defined by ideals of reciprocity and human equality in
individualistic societies, but by ideals of law and order in collectivistic societies.
(D) Children grow up with morals similar to those of their parents.
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(E) Children progress from a morality based on punishment and reward to one defined
by convention, and ultimately to one defined by abstract ethical principles.
73. Which of the following regularities in behavior can most likely be accounted for by
the existence of a group norm? (AP99)
(A) Students tend to use less profanity with adults than they do with their peers.
(B) Most people sleep at least six hours a night.
(C) The average annual income of industrial workers in 1972 was $7,250.
(D) Male infants have a higher infant mortality rate than female infants.
(E) People perform well-learned behaviors better in the presence of others than when
alone.
74. A nine-year-old girl first learning about her capabilities on the playground and in the
classroom would be in which of Erikson's stages of development? (AP99)
(A) Industry vs. inferiority
(B) Identity vs. role confusion
(C) Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
(D) Integrity vs. despair
(E) Trust vs. mistrust
75. Carol Gilligan’s criticism of Lawrence Kohlberg’s developmental theory is based on
the argument that Kohlberg's (AP99)
(A) Work has been invalidated by changes in the structure of families in the United
States
(B) Stages are too limited in their critical-period parameters
(C) Theory underestimates the capabilities of infants and children
(D) Stages do not apply equally well to all racial and ethnic groups
(E) Theory fails to account sufficiently for differences between males and females
76. A normally functioning 65-year-old who cannot solve abstract logic puzzles as
quickly as he did when he was younger is experiencing a (AP99)
(A) Phenomenon that is uncommon for people of his age
(B) Phenomenon predicted by Erik Erikson as part of the eight stages of psycho-social
development
(C) Decrease in his crystallized intelligence
(D) Decrease in his fluid intelligence
(E) Difficulty with concrete operational thinking
77.
(A)
(B)
(C)
The most common form of color blindness is related to deficiencies in the (AP94)
blue-yellow system
red-green system
Process of visual summation
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(D) Bipolar cells
(E) Secretion of rhodopsin
78. The change in the curvature of the lens that enables the eye to focus on objects at
various distances is called (AP94)
(A) Accommodation
(B) Adaptation
(C) Conduction
(D) Convergence
(E) Consonance
79. If Carmelita stares at a red spot for one minute and then shifts her gaze to a white
piece of paper, she is likely to experience an afterimage that is (AP94)
(A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Blue
(D) Violet
(E) Black
80.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
The place in the retina where the optic nerve exits to the brain is called the (AP94)
Lens
Sclera
Fovea
Blind spot
Aqueous humor
81.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Intense artificial light is most successfully used as therapy for (AP99)
Disorganized (hebephrenic) schizophrenia
Seasonal affective disorder
Essential hypertension
Bipolar disorder
Panic disorder
82. When struck by light energy, cones and rods in the retina generate neural signals that
then activate the (AP99)
(A) Parietal lobe
(B) Ganglion cells
(C) Bipolar cells
(D) ciliary muscle
(E) Optic nerve fibers
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83. Which of the following is a possible reason why cats can see better at night that can
humans? (AP04)
(A) Cats have a higher proportion of rods to cones
(B) Cat’s pupils can contract to a smaller opening
(C) Cats have a smaller blind spot
(D) Cats have a larger optic nerve tract
(E) The visual cortex of cats is located farther forward in the cortex
84. Receptors that are especially important for helping a person maintain balance are
located in the (AP94)
(A) gyrus cinguli
(B) Inner ear
(C) Tendons
(D) ossicles
(E) Ligaments
85. A person is asked to listen to a series of tones presented in pairs, and asked to say
whether the tones in each pair are the same or different in pitch. (AP94)
86. In this situation the experimenter is most likely measuring the individual's
(A) Sound localization ability
(B) Dichotic listening ability
(C) Difference threshold
(D) Echoic memory
(E) Attention span
87. The intensity at which a sound becomes audible for a given individual is known as
the individual's (AP94)
(A) Contrast sensitivity
(B) Absolute threshold
(C) Response threshold
(D) Critical frequency
(E) Just noticeable difference
88. Gustatory receptors are sensitive to all of the following taste qualities EXCEPT
(AP99)
(A) bitter
(B) Sweet
(C) Salty
(D) Spicy
(E) Sour
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89. When participants in dichotic listening experiments are repeating aloud a message
presented in one ear, they are most likely to notice information on the unattended channel
if that channel (AP99)
(A) Switches from one language to another
(B) Switches to a nonlanguage
(C) Mentions the participant's name
(D) Presents information similar to that on the attended channel
(E) Presents information in a foreign language
90. The longer an individual is exposed to a strong odor, the less aware of the odor the
individual becomes. This phenomenon is know as sensory (AP04)
(A) Acuity
(B) Adaption
(C) Awareness
(D) Reception
(E) Overload
91. The coiled tube in the inner ear that contains the auditory receptors is called the
(AP99)
(A) Semicircular canal
(B) ossicle
(C) pinna
(D) Cochlea
(E) Oval window
92. Which of the following is the correct sequence of anatomical structures through
which an auditory stimulus passes before it is perceived as sound? (AP04)
(A) Cochlea, ossicles, eardrum, oval window, auditory canal
(B) Eardrum, cochlea, auditory canal, ossicles, oval window
(C) Oval window, auditory canal, eardrum, cochlea, ossicles
(D) Ossicles, eardrum, cochlea, auditory canal, oval window
(E) Auditory canal, eardrum, ossicles, oval window, cochlea
93.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
The general function of the bones in the middle ear is to (AP99)
Convert the incoming sound from pounds per square inch to decibels
Protect the cochlea
Regulate changes in the air pressure of the inner ear
Transfer sound information from the tympanic membrane to the oval window
Provide information to the vestibular system
94. The human vestibular sense is most closely associated with the (AP04)
(A) Skin
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(B) Semicircular canals
(C) Taste buds
(D) Olfactory bulb
(E) Rods and cones
95. Eleanor Gibson and her colleagues have used the visual cliff to measure an infant's
ability to perceive (AP94)
(A) Patterns
(B) Depth
(C) Size constancy
(D) Shape constancy
(E) Different hues
96. A person with sight in only one eye lacks which of the following visual cues for
seeing in depth? (AP94)
(A) Retinal disparity
(B) Linear perspective
(C) Motion parallax
(D) Relative size
(E) Texture gradient
97. The tendency of most people to identify a threesided figure as a triangle, even when
one of its sides is incomplete, is the result of a perceptual process known as (AP94)
(A) Closure
(B) Proximity
(C) Similarity
(D) Feature analysis
(E) Shape constancy
98. Climbing an irregular set of stairs is more difficult for an individual who wears a
patch over one eye primarily because (AP99)
(A) Some depth perception is lost
(B) Half of the visual field is missing
(C) The ability to perceive interposition is lost
(D) The patch disrupts the functioning of the vestibular system
(E) The patch alters the ability of the open eye to compensate
99.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
In psychology, Gestalt principles are used to explain (AP99)
Statistical probabilities
Somatic behavioral disorders
Perceptual organization
stimulus-detection thresholds
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(E) Altered states of consciousness
100. Which of the following is NOT a Gestalt principle of perceptual organization?
(AP04)
(A) Proximity
(B) Similarity
(C) Closure
(D) Intensity
(E) Continuity
101. The minimum intensity at which a stimulus can be detected at least 50 percent of the
time is known as the (AP04)
(A) Visual cliff
(B) Just noticeable difference
(C) Perceptual set
(D) Receptor potential
(E) Absolute threshold
102. When Jason practices the drums, he tends not to hear the phone. Today he is
expecting a call from a record producer and answers the phone each time it rings even
when he is practicing the drums. Which of the following explains why Jason hears the
phone today? (AP04)
(A) Weber’s law
(B) Accommodation
(C) Frequency theory
(D) Signal detection theory
(E) Harmonics
103. When a pair of lights flashing in quick succession seems to an observer to be one
light moving from place to place, the effect is referred to as (AP99)
(A) Stroboscopic movement
(B) The phi phenomenon
(C) autokinetic motion
(D) Binocular vision
(E) Induced displacement
104. REM sleep, generally an "active" state of sleep, is accompanied by which of the
following paradoxical characteristics? (AP99)
(A) Slowed heart rate
(B) Slowed respiration rate
(C) Lowered blood pressure
(D) Lowered muscle tone
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(E) Reduced eye movements
105. Which of the following is a circadian rhythm? (AP99)
(A) The ebb and flow of an individual's emotions during a 24-hour period
(B) Jet lag experienced after an airline flight from Los Angeles to Tokyo
(C) A cycle of biological functioning that lasts about 25 hours
(D) The series of five stages that people go through during a normal night's sleep
(E) The systematic alternation between alpha waves and delta waves during the different
sleep stages
106. A student participates in a month-long sleep study designed to examine free-running
circadian rhythms. If all time cues are removed, the student’s total sleep-wake cycle is
likely to (AP04)
(A) Average about 25 hours
(B) Average about 12 hours
(C) Average whatever it had averaged when the student began the study
(D) Become even more dependent than usual on the student’s activity level
(E) Become extremely variable
107. Which of the following is characterized by a periodic appearance of sleep spindles?
(AP04)
(A) Stage 2 sleep
(B) Stage 3 sleep
(C) Stage 4 sleep
(D) REM sleep
(E) Night terrors
108. Hypnosis has been found useful in the treatment of (AP94)
(A) Pain
(B) Autism
(C) Dementia
(D) Paranoia
(E) Schizophrenia
109. Hypnosis is best described as a state that (AP99)
(A) Gives the hypnotist complete control over the thoughts and emotions of the
hypnotized individual
(B) Induces heightened suggestibility in the hypnotized individual
(C) is similar to an obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
(D) Is similar to the condition produced by excessive alcohol consumption
(E) is similar to the REM stage of sleep
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110. The painful experience associated with termination of the use of an addictive
substance is known as (AP94)
(A) Discontinuance
(B) Tolerance
(C) Withdrawal
(D) Forced independence
(E) Transduction
111. In terms of the effect on the central nervous system, alcohol is most accurately
classified as which of the following types of drug? (AP94)
(A) Depressant
(B) Narcotic
(C) Psychoactive
(D) Stimulant
(E) Hallucinogen
112. The psychological effects of alcohol are powerfully influenced by the users (AP04)
(A) Expectations
(B) Success in developing a social network
(C) Agility
(D) Intelligence quotient (IQ)
(E) Brain dopamine level
113. An individual who sees and feels imaginary spiders crawling on his arms and legs is
experiencing (AP04)
(A) A fixation
(B) A hallucination
(C) An illusion
(D) An eidetic image
(E) A phobia
114. Which of the following will NOT increase behavioral and mental activity? (AP99)
(A) Cocaine
(B) Caffeine
(C) Benzedrine
(D) Amphetamines
(E) Barbiturates
115. A central nervous system depressant that produces a false feeling of well-being and
efficiency and results in slower reaction time to stimulation is (AP04)
(A) Cocaine
(B) Marijuana
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(C) Dopamine
(D) Alcohol
(E) Nicotine
116. Which of the following responses was most likely acquired through classical
conditioning? (AP94)
(A) The startle response of a baby the first time the baby hears thunder
(B) A child's fear of dogs after the child has been bitten by a dog
(C) The cry of pain expressed by a man whose hand has been cut on a piece of broken
glass
(D) The uncontrollable blinking of a woman who has just gotten dust in her eye
(E) The salivation of a dog that is halfway through a bowl of its favorite food
117. In Ivan Pavlov's experiments in classical conditioning, the dog's salivation was
(AP94)
(A) An unconditioned stimulus only
(B) An unconditioned response only
(C) A conditioned response only
(D) Both an unconditioned and a conditioned stimulus
(E) Both an unconditioned and a conditioned response
118. A monkey is conditioned to flinch at the sound of a bell that was previously paired
with a puff of air to the monkey’s cheek. Which of the following explanations would be
consistent with a cognitive interpretation of this conditioning? (AP04)
(A) The animal cannot control its tendency to flinch because the response of flinching is
simply a reflex to the bell
(B) The strength of the flinch response is a function of the time interval between the onset
of the bell and the air puff.
(C) The monkey interprets the bell as a signal that the air puff will follow.
(D) The bell is merely a substitute stimulus for the air puff.
(E) Monkeys are intelligent and know that they should flinch when they hear tones that
are paired with stimuli the elicit reflexes.
QUESTIONS 10-12 REFER TO THE FOLLOWING DEFINITIONS. EACH
DEFINITION CAN BE USED ONCE, MORE THAN ONCE, OR NOT AT ALL.
(A) Prototype matching to organize information into categories
(B) Maintaining information in memory through repetition
(C) Differential treatment, usually negative, based on group membership
(D) Recognizing an object as distinct from its surroundings
(E) Learning to respond differently to similar stimuli
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119. Which is a definition of discrimination that most directly applies to classical
conditioning? (AP04)
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
120. Which of the following statements is true of behaviorism? (AP94)
(A) It was formulated to account for cognitive development.
(B) It is rooted in Sigmund Freud's view of the importance of early experiences.
(C) It focuses on the development of thought processes and knowledge.
(D) It holds that development is largely a product of learning.
(E) It emphasizes the dominance of heredity over environ
121. After several trials during which a dog is given a certain kind of food at the same
time that a specific tone is sounded, there is evidence of conditioning if the dog salivates
when (AP94)
(A) The tone only is presented
(B) The food only is presented
(C) The food and tone are presented together
(D) A different tone is presented with the food
(E) A different kind of food is presented without a tone
122. If a man who is a heavy smoker is given an electric shock every time he takes a puff
on a cigarette, which of the following behavior-modification techniques is being used?
(AP94)
(A) Systematic desensitization
(B) Modeling
(C) Aversive conditioning
(D) Homogeneous reinforcement
(E) lnterlocking reinforcement
123. Because studies of learning show that events occurring close together in time are
easier to associate than those occurring at widely different times, parents should probably
avoid which of the following? (AP94)
(A) Corporal punishment
(B) Mild punishment
(C) Consistent punishment
(D) Inescapable punishment
(E) Delay of punishment
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124. The technique of strengthening behavior by reinforcing successive approximations
is called (AP94)
(A) Positive reinforcement
(B) Negative reinforcement
(C) Distributed practice
(D) Modeling
(E) Shaping
125. Responses extinguish fastest when they are learned through which type of
reinforcement schedule? (AP94)
(A) Continuous
(B) Negative
(C) Variable-interval
(D) Variable-ratio
(E) Fixed-interval
126. Punishment is most effective in eliminating undesired behavior when the (AP99)
(A) Behavior is complex
(B) Behavior was very recently acquired
(C) Punishment is delivered soon after the behavior
(D) Punishment is delivered by someone with authority
(E) Punishment is both mental and physical
127. One major objection to the early Skinnerian approach to psychology is that it
(AP99)
(A) Did not take into account internal thoughts and feelings
(B) Did not take into account overt physical behaviors
(C) Did not take into account accumulated experiences
(D) Focused primarily on childhood experiences
(E) Focused primarily on the unconscious
128. John Garcia showed that when rats ingested a novel substance before becoming
nauseated from radiation of drugs, the acquired a (AP04)
(A) Conditioned taste preference for the substance
(B) Generalized taste preference for similar substances
(C) Conditioned taste aversion for the substance
(D) Conditioned taste aversion for any novel substance
(E) Conditioned taste preference for any novel substance
129. Research indicates that many animals are more likely to associate sickness with a
taste they experienced in conjunction with the illness than with a tone or light. This
finding supports which of the following claims (AP04)
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(A) The tone or light must not have been appropriately paired with the onset of illness
(B) Illness is not necessarily punishing to subjects
(C) Animals may be biologically prepared to learn some things over other things
(D) Extrinsic reinforcers may be more effective than intrinsic reinforcers
(E) Positive reinforcers are more effective than punishers
130. Rats in an experiment learned to associate sweetened water with a drug that causes
immune suppression. Later, the sweetened water alone produced the immune
suppression. This outcome is an example of which of the following? (AP04)
(A) Learned helplessness
(B) Systematic desensitization
(C) Operant conditioning
(D) Classical conditioning
(E) Biofeedback
131. In operant conditioning, the concept of contingency is exemplified by an "if A, then
B" relationship in which A and B, respectively, represent (AP99)
(A) stimulus, response
(B) Response, reinforcement
(C) Stimulus, reinforcement
(D) Response, stimulus
(E) Stimulus, stimulus
132. Taking a painkiller to relieve a toothache is behavior learned through which of the
following processes? (AP99)
(A) Shaping
(B) Punishment
(C) Positive reinforcement
(D) Negative reinforcement
(E) Omission training
133. Studies of learning have shown that animals develop an aversion for tastes
associated with (AP99)
(A) electric shock
(B) Extinguished associations
(C) Sickness
(D) Novel stimuli
(E) Starvation
134. A two year old child is frightened by a small dog. A few weeks later the same child
sees a cat and becomes frightened. The child’s reaction is most likely an example of
which of the following? (AP04)
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(A) Stimulus discrimination
(B) Second-order conditioning
(C) Stimulus generalization
(D) Sensory preconditioning
(E) Spontaneous recovery
135. The terms "modeling" and "imitation" are most closely associated with which of the
following? (AP94)
(A) Classical conditioning
(B) Gestalt theory
(C) Hypothesis testing
(D) Operant conditioning
(E) Social learning theory
136. After seeing her parents give her brother a dollar for cleaning his room, Sarah begins
to clean her own room. According to social-learning theorists, Sarah’s behavior is an
example of which of the following? (AP04)
(A) Classical conditioning
(B) Spontaneous recovery
(C) Stimulus generalization
(D) Discrimination training
(E) Observational learning
137. When rehearsal of incoming information is prevented, which of the following will
most likely occur? (AP94)
(A) The information will remain indefinitely in short-term memory.
(B) There will be no transfer of the information to long-term memory.
(C) The sensory register will stop processing the information.
(D) Retrieval of the information from long-term memory will be easier.
(E) Information already in long-term memory will be integrated with the incoming
138. A teen-ager would most probably draw on which of the following to recall her tenth
birthday party? (AP94)
(A) Episodic memory
(B) Semantic memory
(C) Echoic memory
(D) Eidetic imagery
(F) State-dependent learning
139. According to the information-processing view of memory, the first stage in memory
processing involves (AP99)
(A) Retrieval
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(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Storage
Rehearsal
Encoding
Transfer
140. An individual's ability to remember the day he or she first swam the length of a
swimming pool is most clearly an example of which of the following kinds of memory?
(AP99)
(A) Semantic
(B) Flashbulb
(C) Procedural
(D) Priming
(E) Episodic
141. The ability to choose specific stimuli to learn about, while filtering out or ignoring
other information, is called (AP04)
(A) Selective attention
(B) Subliminal perception
(C) Time-sharing
(D) Masking
(E) Shadowing
142. Material that an individual cannot remember but is on the “tip of the tongue” is
(AP04)
(A) In episodic memory, but not in semantic memory
(B) In sensory memory, but not in iconic memory
(C) In short-term memory, but not in long-term memory
(D) Available, but not accessible
(E) Retrieved, but not encoded
143. Elena is presented with a list of 20 numbers. When asked to recall this list, she
remembers more numbers from the beginning than from the end of the list. This
phenomenon demonstrates which of the following types of effect? (AP94)
(A) Mnemonic
(B) Primacy
(C) Recency
(D) Secondary
(E) Clustering
144. John suffered a head injury in an accident five years ago. He now has clear
memories of events that occurred before the accident, but he has great difficulty
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remembering any of the experiences he has had since the accident. John's symptoms
describe (AP99)
(A) anterograde amnesia
(B) Broca's aphasia
(C) cue-dependent forgetting
(D) Selective amnesia
(E) Retroactive interference
145. When a list of words is learned in order, the words most likely to be forgotten are
those that are (AP99)
(A) At the beginning of the list
(B) At the end of the list
(C) In the middle of the list
(D) Hardest to pronounce
(E) Easiest to spell
146. When Shelly first had cable television service installed, Public broadcasting (PBS)
was on channel 9. Her cable company then switched PBS to channel 16. Shelly now has
trouble remembering that PBS is on channel 16 and not on channel 9. This memory
problem represents (AP04)
(A) Memory decay
(B) Retrograde amnesia
(C) Reconstructive errors
(D) Retroactive interference
(E) Proactive interference
147. Remembering how to roller skate involves which of the following kinds of memory?
(AP04)
(A) Semantic
(B) Episodic
(C) Priming
(D) Procedural
(E) Prospective
148. Which of the following is and example of retrograde amnesia? (AP04)
(A) Ty cannot recall the face of the thief he saw running from the scene of the crime
(B) Cassie’s vivid memory of the explosion of the space shuttle Challenger is not
corroborated by those she was with at the time
(C) Alberto is unable to remember anything since the accident that destroyed portions of
his hippocampus
(D) Katie attributes her poor performance on a standardized test to the fact that she took
the exam in a room other than the one that she learned the material.
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(E) Alyse cannot remember any details of what happened right before her car accident
149. On a fishing trip, Ed realizes that he has mistakenly packed the sewing box instead
of the tackle box. He wants to fish but returns home because he does not have any line or
hooks. Ed's failure to realize that sewing thread can be used as fishing line and that a bent
needle can be used as a hook is an example of (AP94)
(A) Poor problem representation
(B) Cognitive accommodation
(C) Backward masking
(D) Functional fixedness
(E) Proactive interference
150. A prototype is best defined as (AP94)
(A) An example of habituation
(B) An example of bottom-up processing
(C) The equivalent of feature abstraction
(D) The hypothetical "most typical" instance of a category
(E) An essential element of category membership
151. A teacher asks students to think of as many uses for a brick as possible. By listing 50
uses, most of which the class finds new and unusual, Susan is displaying (AP94)
(A) Computational learning
(B) paired-associate learning
(C) Hypothetical thinking
(D) Divergent thinking
(E) Convergent thinking
152. Processing every possible combination of the letters DBRI to arrive at the word
BIRD is an example of the use of (AP99)
(A) An algorithm
(B) An expert system
(C) An inference rule
(D) A hypothesis
(E) A heuristic
153. The practice of solving problems by using a mental shortcut is an example of
(AP04)
(A) An insightful operation
(B) A confirmation bias
(C) A hypothesis test
(D) The use of a heuristic
(E) The use of an algorithm
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154. Wolfgang Kohler considered a chimpanzee's sudden solving of a problem evidence
of (AP99)
(A) Instinct
(B) Modeling
(C) Learning set
(D) Insight
(E) Spontaneous recovery
155. A word or part of a word that is in itself meaningful, but that cannot be broken into
smaller meaningful units, is called a (AP94)
(A) Grapheme
(B) Morpheme
(C) Phoneme
(D) performative
(E) holophrase
156. According to Benjamin Whorfs linguistic relativity hypothesis, which of the
following is true? (AP94)
(A) Individuals have a natural predisposition to learn language.
(B) Individuals learn positive instances of concepts faster than they learn negative
instances.
(C) Children learn their first language from their relatives and their peer group.
(D) Different languages predispose those individuals who speak them to think about the
world in different ways.
(E) Children learn quantifying words such as "more" and "further" sooner than they do
absolutes such as "every" and "all."
157. Noam Chomsky's view of language proposes that (AP99)
(A) There is an inherent language acquisition device
(B) Thinking is merely subvocal language
(C) Different levels of language ability are hereditarily determined
(D) Language acquisition can be explained by social modeling
(E) Language is learned principally through verbal reinforcement
158. The rules of grammar are rules of (AP99)
(A) Phonemes
(B) Morphemes
(C) Syntax
(D) Semantics
(E) Pragmatics
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159. Language acquisition cannot be fully accounted for by associative learning
processes for which of the following reasons? (AP04)
(A) Language use is creative
(B) Speakers construct rules for utterances by imitating the models they hear
(C) Effective communication depends on one’s level of emotional experience
(D) Language production is reinforced by the listener
(E) Infants are too young to learn associatively
160. The intelligence quotient (IQ) has traditionally been based on the relationship
between an individual's mental age and his or her (AP94)
(A) Stage of cognitive development
(B) Level of physiological development
(C) Reading ability
(D) Chronological age
(E) Quantitative aptitude
161. The hypothesis that intelligence is in part inherited is best supported by the fact that
the IQ correlation for (AP94)
(A) Pairs of twins reared together is greater than the correlation for pairs of twins reared
apart
(B) Pairs of identical twins is greater than for pairs of fraternal twins
(C) Pairs of fraternal twins is greater than the correlation for other pairs of siblings
(D) Adopted children and their adoptive parents is greater than zero
(E) Adopted children and their adoptive parents is greater than the correlation for the
same children and their biological parents
162. Which of the following types of test is designed to measure an individual's
knowledge of a subject? (AP94)
(A) Achievement
(B) Attitude
(C) Aptitude
(D) Projective
(E) Interest inventory
163. Which of the following is the most appropriate criterion for evaluating the predictive
validity of an intelligence test? (AP99)
(A) Intelligence quotient
(B) Mental age
(C) Chronological age
(D) Scholastic aptitude
(E) School grades
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164. Which of the following methods is used in studies designed to determine the
primary components of intelligence? (AP99)
(A) Test-retest
(B) Alternate forms
(C) Random sampling
(D) Factor analysis
(E) Standardization
165. According to the Stanford-Binet formula for an intelligence quotient (IQ) , the IQ of
a ten year-old child with a mental age of eight and a half years is (AP99)
(A) 85
(B) 95
(C) 100
(D) 105
(E) 115
166. The performance of the group on which an IQ test is standardized sets the (AP99)
(A) Method of administration most suitable for the test
(B) Extent to which IQ is determined by environment
(C) Criteria for the diagnostic significance of intelligence
(D) Degree of validity of the IQ test
(E) Norms against which the performance of later test takers can be evaluated
167. A test that fails to predict what it is designed to predict lacks (AP04)
(A) Standardization
(B) Norms
(C) Fairness
(D) Validity
(E) Reliability
168. The correlations between the IQ scores of identical twins reared apart are lower than
those of identical twins reared together. This difference is best explained by which of the
following? (AP04)
(A) Heredity plays an important role in determining IQ
(B) Environment plays an important role in determining IQ
(C) Heredity plays no role in determining IQ
(D) Environment plays no role in determining IQ
(E) Heredity and environment play an equal role in determining IQ
169. Alfred Binet’s most important contribution to psychology was in the area of (AP04)
(A) Intelligence testing
(B) Visual perception
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(C) Psychopathology
(D) Comparative psychology
(E) Classical conditioning
170. A complex pattern of organized, unlearned behavior that is species-specific is called
(AP94)
(A) A drive
(B) A need
(C) A motive
(D) An emotion
(E) An instinct
171. Hunger and eating are primarily regulated by which of the following? (AP94)
(A) Androgens
(B) Estrogens
(C) The hypothalamus
(D) The kidneys
(E) The medulla oblongata
172. Theories of motivation that assert the existence of biological motives to maintain the
body in a steady state are called (AP94)
(A) Mechanistic
(B) Homeostatic
(C) reductionistic
(D) Genetic
(E) Instinctual
173. An individual experiencing a low blood-glucose level would be best advised to do
which of the following? (AP99)
(A) Take a nap
(B) Eat a snack
(C) Drink a glass of water
(D) Drink a diet soda
(E) Get some exercise
174. Drive reduction as a motivational concept is best exemplified by which of the
following? (AP99)
(A) The sweet taste of chocolate
(B) Electric stimulation to the pleasure center of the brain
(C) A monkey using its tail as a fifth limb to climb higher in a tree
(D) The injection of heroin by an addict to avoid withdrawal symptoms
(E) The enjoyment of a frightening movie
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175. Cognitive theorists emphasize the (AP99)
(A) Powerful unconscious impulses that motivate behavior
(B) Formation and modification of schemas
(C) Impact of rewards and punishments
(D) individual's desire to become self-actualized
(E) Social norms that determine expected behavior
176. Rudolph spends hours painting in his studio, even though he sells few pictures.
Which of the following explains Rudolph’s creative productivity? (AP04)
(A) Functional fixedness
(B) Inductive reasoning
(C) Intrinsic motivation
(D) Incubation
(E) Heuristics
177. Which of the following terms is used in hunger and weight control research to
denote the concept that each person has a body fat level that remains fixed and resistant
to change? (AP04)
(A) Hyperphagia
(B) Hypophagia
(C) Glucagon theory
(D) Set point
(E) Metabolic conversion
178. A brain tumor that results in obesity would most likely be located in the (AP99)
(A) Left frontal lobe
(B) Base of the brain stem
(C) Area of the hypothalamus
(D) Reticular activating system
(E) somatosensory cortex
179. Leadership, job satisfaction, and employee motivation are all studied in which of the
following psychological disciplines? (AP94)
(A) Human factors psychology
(B) Industrial-organizational psychology
(C) Community psychology
(D) Counseling psychology
(E) Experimental psychology
180. Carla tutors other students because she likes to be helpful, whereas Jane tutors
classmates strictly for pay. Their behaviors demonstrate the difference between (AP94)
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(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Primary and secondary drives
Instinctive and derived drives
Appetitive and aversive motivation
Intrinsic and extrinsic motivation
Positive and negative reinforcement
181. Which of the following is most useful in understanding an employer's interpretation
of an employee's poor performance? (AP94)
(A) Cannon's theory
(B) Reinforcement theory
(C) Attribution theory
(D) Arousal theory
(E) Cognitive dissonance
182. Montgomery prepares his resume carelessly and arrives late for his job interview.
He is rejected by the prospective employer. Montgomery concludes that "It's all a matter
of dumb luck, anyway." Montgomery's judgment of his situation most clearly reflects
(AP99)
(A) Delay of gratification
(B) The mechanism of reaction formation
(C) Unconscious inference
(D) Fixation and regression
(E) External locus of control
183. Which of the following is most likely to characterize the behavior of students who
have high achievement motivation and are intrinsically motivated to play a musical
instrument? (AP04)
(A) If promised a reward for practicing a difficult piece of music selected by the teacher,
they will practice more than if they selected the piece themselves.
(B) If permitted to choose there own pieces of music, they will select very difficult ones
that are beyond their present ability to play.
(C) If permitted to choose their own pieces of music, they will select easy pieces that they
can master in one practice session.
(D) If permitted to choose their own pieces of music, they will select moderately difficult
pieces that they can master if they practice them conscientiously.
(E) They will enjoy practicing the piano more if their parents promise them a reward for
mastering each piano piece.
184. All of the following are conditions that may lead to conflict within organizations
EXCEPT (AP04)
(A) Scarce resources
(B) Jurisdictional ambiguity
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(C) Inequities in status
(D) Insufficient communication
(E) Superordinate goals
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