Survey
* Your assessment is very important for improving the workof artificial intelligence, which forms the content of this project
* Your assessment is very important for improving the workof artificial intelligence, which forms the content of this project
DNA barcoding wikipedia , lookup
Artificial gene synthesis wikipedia , lookup
Koinophilia wikipedia , lookup
Designer baby wikipedia , lookup
Hybrid (biology) wikipedia , lookup
Genetic engineering wikipedia , lookup
Point mutation wikipedia , lookup
Helitron (biology) wikipedia , lookup
Life history theory wikipedia , lookup
EXAMINATION NUMBER: DO NOT OPEN THE EXAMINATION PAPER UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD BY THE SUPERVISOR TO BEGIN DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION PUBLIC EXAMINATIONS BIOLOGY 3201 SAMPLE EXAM Value: 100 marks Time: 3 hours GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 1. This is a two-part test. Part I consists of 75 multiple-choice items. Part II consists of five written response items. Part I has a total value of 75 marks. Part II has a total value of 25 marks. 2. Part I is to be answered using the computer scorable answer sheet supplied. Instructions for completing this answer sheet are given on the sheet itself. Please complete it according to those instructions and any others given by the supervisor. 3. Part II is to be answered in the spaces provided in this test booklet. Please pass in the entire test booklet to the supervisor when you have finished the examination. 4. Please enter your Public Examination Number on this page, on the computer scorable answer sheet, and on the first page of Part II as indicated. 5. Rough work may be done in any blank spaces in Part I and on the blank pages throughout Part II. REGULATIONS FOR CANDIDATES Candidates are expected to be thoroughly familiar with all regulations pertaining to their conduct during the examinations. These were explained by the chief supervisor prior to the first session, and have been posted for further reference near the entrance to the examination room. Candidates should ensure that they understand and comply with all requirements governing the following matters: ) ) ) ) ) Materials required Punctuality Leaving the room Use of answer booklets Use of handheld calculator ) ) ) ) ) Use of pen or pencil Use of unauthorized means, and penalties Completion of required information Materials not permitted Communication and movement during the examination PART I SECTION A Total Value: 75% Shade in the letter of the correct answer on the computer scorable answer sheet. 1. What biome is important in agriculture? (A) (B) (C) (D) 2. In which biome do plants produce seeds that are adapted to drought? (A) (B) (C) (D) 3. frog mushroom rabbit wolf A tapeworm living in the intestine of a human is an example of which relationship? (A) (B) (C) (D) 6. abyssal zone desert grassland tundra What is an example of a decomposer? (A) (B) (C) (D) 5. desert grassland tropical rainforest tundra In which of the following does photosynthesis NOT occur? (A) (B) (C) (D) 4. desert grassland marine tropical rainforest host parasite producer saprophyte Which sequence represents the successional changes from bare rock to climax vegetation? (A) (B) (C) (D) lichens - mosses - grasses - shrubs & saplings - forest lichens - mosses - shrubs & saplings - grasses - forest mosses - lichens - shrubs & saplings - grasses - forest shrubs & saplings - lichens - grasses - mosses - forest 7. Which of the following would be considered part of the abiotic environment? 8. (A) dissolved oxygen (B) fish population (C) microscopic animal life (D) microscopic plant life Which are producers? 1 (A) (B) (C) (D) 9. Which is MOST important in determining the distribution of organisms in an aquatic biome? (A) (B) (C) (D) 10. (D) commensalism intraspecific competition interspecific competition predation Which generally occurs during ecological succession? (A) (B) (C) (D) 15. extinction of the esosystem overpopulation of predators starvation of carnivores undernourishment of producers What is illustrated when: Blowfly larvae are given a restricted amount of food, fewer adults survive and the population size is reduced. (A) (B) (C) (D) 14. grassland taiga temperate deciduous forest tropical rain forest What results from the elimination of a herbivore from an ecosystem? (A) (B) (C) (D) 13. Photosynthesis occurs in the abyssal aphotic zone. Photosynthesis organisms generally live in the top 200 m. Light intensity is an important abiotic factor in limiting the distribution of photosynthetic organisms. The ocean biome is the most stable biome on earth. Which biome supports the MOST abundant amount of growth? (A) (B) (C) (D) 12. light pressure salinity temperature Which of the following is INCORRECT statements about in an aquatic environment? (A) (B) (C) 11. autotrophs heterotrophs parasites saprophytes Climax plants are replaced by intermediate forms. Energy is recycled. Existing organisms make the ecosystem more suitable to new organisms. Materials can not be recycled. When moving along altitudinal and latitudinal gradients, you generally find the same 2 sequence of biomes. For which factor are there NO equivalent changes along the gradient? (A) (B) (C) (D) 16. Which BEST describes the effect of climate on biome distribution? (A) (B) (C) (D) 17. grasshopper and protozoans green algae and fungi monerans and blue-green algae protozoans and bacteria Which sequence indicates the least specific to most specific sequence? (A) (B) (C) (D) 21. an increase in the length of a year. an increase in the length of night. the elimination of seasonal variation. the elimination of tides. Which are in the same kingdom? (A) (B) (C) (D) 20. Fire is unnatural in ecosystems and should be prevented. Many kinds of plants and plant communities have adapted to frequent fires. The chance of fire in a given ecosystem is highly predictable. The prevention of forest fires has allowed more productive and stable plant communities to develop. Imagine an astroid jolts the Earth so that its axis is always perpendicular to the line between the Earth and the Sun. What is the most obvious effect of this change? (A) (B) (C) (D) 19. Biome distribution is determined only by climate Changes in environmental variables is not important if areas have the same annual temperature and precipitation means. Temperate forests, coniferous forests, and grasslands all have the same mean annual temperatures and precipitation. The distribution of biomes depends, in part, on the mean annual temperature and precipitation of an area. Which statement BEST describes the interaction between fire and ecosystems? (A) (B) (C) (D) 18. humidity oxygen concentration temperature vegetation family - genus - species kingdom - family - order order - class - kingdom phylum - family - class Which developmental sequences are correct? (A) (B) (C) (D) cleavage, blastula, gastrula, and zygote gastrula, zygote, blastula, and cleavage zygote, cleavage, blastula, and gastrula zygote, cleavage, gastrula, and blastula 3 22. How do spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 23. What is the function of the structure labelled W? (A) (B) (C) (D) 24. bilateral symmetry radial symmetry spherical symmetry sides symmetry asymmetrical While working in your garden, you uncover an animal with many legs, mostly as two pairs per segment. What type of animal is it? (A) (B) (C) (D) 28. ectoderm and mesoglea free-swimming and sessile hydra and sponge polyp and medusa Which statement BEST describes the symmetry displayed by the common starfish? (A) (B) (C) (D) 27. Contractions of uterine muscles would begin. Hormones would be secreted from the placenta. Menstruation would begin. Ovulation would occur. What are the two body forms of the coelenterates (cnidarians)? (A) (B) (C) (D) 26. exchange nutrients and wastes form blood cells produce amniotic fluid produce food for the fetus What would happen if a woman in the later stages of pregnancy were given a combination of estrogen and oxytocin? (A) (B) (C) (D) 25. Oogenesis begins at the onset of sexual maturity. Oogenesis produces four haploid cells, whereas spermatogenesis produces only one functional spermatozoa. Oogenesis produces one functional gamete, whereas spermatogenesis produces four functional spermatogenesis. Spermatogenesis begins before birth. centipede crustacean insect millipede Which organism has both internal fertilization and internal development? (A) (B) (C) (D) crayfish bird frog human 4 29. A student came upon two organisms. Organism A had a cephalothorox, abdomen and jointed legs. Organism B had a head, thorax, abdomen, and jointed legs. To what groups would these organisms belong? (A) (B) (C) (D) 30. Which represents the vascular plants? (A) (B) (C) (D) 31. conifers ferns flowering plants mosses Which of the following has NOT contributed to the growth of the human population? (A) (B) (C) (D) 35. angiosperm bryophte conifer gymnosperm A botanist discovers a new species of plant in a tropical rainforest. After observing its anatomy and life cycle, the following characteristics are noted: xylem and phloem, separate gametophyte and sporophyte generations, and no seeds. To what classification is this plant most closely related? (A) (B) (C) (D) 34. attracting insects to the pollen inside facilitating dispersal of seeds by wind and animals nourishing the plants that make them producing sperm and eggs inside a protective coat Which category would the bean plant fall? (A) (B) (C) (D) 33. bryophytes club mosses fungi tracheophytes In what way have fruits contributed to the success of angiosperms? (A) (B) (C) (D) 32. A - arahnid; crustacean A - crustacean; B - arachnid A - crustacean; B - insesct A - insect; B - arachnid environmental degradation improved nutrition improved sanitation vaccines Which of the following has NOT contributed to the rapid growth of human population? (A) (B) (C) (D) average age to first give birth carrying capacity of the environment high percentage of young people modern medical techniques 5 36. Which of the following would be MOST helpful in solving the world’s environmental problems? (A) (B) (C) (D) 37. decreased human birth rates increased agricultural productivity increased life expectancy more food from the oceans A pregnant female rabbit moves into a new area uninhabited by other rabbits. Which graph would BEST represent the growth in population during the first three years? (A) (B) (C) (D) 38. Which of the following is a density-independent factor limiting human population growth? (A) (B) (C) (D) 39. disease earthquakes famines plagues What does point A represent in the following graph? 6 (A) (B) (C) (D) 40. Which statement about the logistic model of population growth is INCORRECT? (A) (B) (C) (D) 41. frameshift mutation nondisjunction point mutation translocation In genetics, what is the physical appearance of an organism described as? (A) (B) (C) (D) 45. anaphase I metaphase I prophase I telophase I Which type of mutation would produce the greatest change in a polypeptide sequence? (A) (B) (C) (D) 44. anaphase interphase metaphase prophase During which phase of meiosis does synopsis occur? (A) (B) (C) (D) 43. It exactly predicts the population growth of most populations. It fits an S-shaped curve. It incorporates the concept of carrying capacity. It predicts an eventual state in which birth rate equals death rate. In what phase of the cell cycle does cell growth occur? (A) (B) (C) (D) 42. The extinction point for that species. The introduction of new species into an area. The point at which a predator has been introduced in an area. The time when birth rate and death rate is equal. genotype pedigree phenotype recessiveness How do replication of DNA involve the original molecule? 7 (A) (B) (C) (D) 46. Which factor causes the genetic defect known as Down’s Syndrome? (A) (B) (C) (D) 47. a missing chromosome an extra chromosome linkage and crossing over multiple alleles Which is true only if the genes for two traits are located on separates pairs of chromosomes? (A) (B) (C) (D) 48. disintegrating and forming a different DNA molecule reorganizing to form four new DNA molecules unzipping to eventually become two different DNA molecules unzipping to eventually become two identical DNA molecules Mendel’s concept of unit characters Mendel’s law of independent assortment Mendel’s law of dominance Mendel’s law of segregation What characteristics of the organism results if the paired genes for a trait are identical? (A) (B) (C) (D) dominant heterozygous homozygous hybrid Which of Mendel’s laws is illustrated by: If a garden pea has a gene for round seeds and a gene for wrinkled seeds, the seeds will be round? 49. (A) (B) (C) (D) 50. 51. 52. dominance incomplete dominance independent assortment segregation In Begonias, purple is dominant over pink. If a heterozygous purple plant is crossed with a pink, what traits would the expected offspring have? (A) (B) all purple purple, pink (C) purple, pink (D) pink, purple In house cats, pointed ears (E) is dominant to folded ears (e). A folded-eared female mates with a male of unknown phenotype. All 10 of their offspring have pointed ears. What is the most probable genotype of the parents? (A) ee x EE. (B) Ee x Ee. (C) ee x Ee. (D) ee x ee. Which of the following BEST describes Meiosis in humans? 8 No.of cells Produced 53. Where it occurs (A) 2 23 testes (B) 4 46 ovaries (C) 4 23 testes (D) 2 23 muscle cells Two cells unite in the process of fertilization. Why does the number of chromosomes in the zygote equal the number of chromosomes in the typical parent body cell? (A) (B) (C) (D) 54. No. of chromosomes in each cell Cleavage occurs following the fertilization of an egg by a sperm. Eggs contain fewer chromosomes than sperm. Meiosis occurs prior to fertilization. Sperm contains fewer chromosomes than eggs. A central portion of structural gene has the sequence: GTT CGC TAT GAC Using the table provided, what would be the sequence of amino acids coded by this gene? (A) (B) (C) (D) argenine - glutamic acid - alanine - proline glutamine - alanine - isoleucine - leucine lysine - asparagine - phenylalanine - threonine serine - glycine - valine - cysteine 9 55. If the DNA reads ATACG, what will the RNA produced read? (A) (B) (C) (D) 56. Suppose two biochemists investigated the DNA molecule. How would the amount of adenine compare to the amount of thymine? (A) (B) (C) (D) 57. 58. ATACG AUACG TATGC UAUGC always greater than the amount of thymine. inversely proportional to the amount of thymine. the same as the amount of thymine unrelated to the amount of thymine Using the statements below, which represents the correct sequence for protein synthesis? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. mRNA moves from the nucleus to the cytoplasm tRNA carries amino aids to the ribosome peptide bonds form between the amino acids DNA is transcribed to mRNA the ribosome attaches to the mRNA (A) (B) (C) (D) 2,3,1,5,4 4,1,3,2,5 4,1,5,2,3 5,1,2,3,4 There was a mix-up in a hospital nursey. The doctor wanted to determine which one of the babies could not belongto Mr. & Mrs. Lindsey. The chart below gives the blood types of the Lindsey’s and the babies. Mrs. Lindsey - Type AB Mr. Lindsey - Type B Baby Brad - Type B Baby Jane - Type A Baby Jill - Type O Baby Joyce - Type AB Which child CANNOT be the Lindsey’s? (A) (B) (C) (D) 59. Baby Brad Baby Jane Baby Jill Baby Joyce Two black furred guinea pigs were crossed. Over the years, they produced 22 offspring, 5 of which were white. What are the most likely genotypes for the two parents? (A) (B) (C) (D) BB x BB Bb x BB bb x bb Bb x Bb 10 60. Which statement BEST describes the pedigree below? (A) (B) (C) (D) 61. Where would fossils of birds most probably be found in layers of sedimentary rock? (A) (B) (C) (D) 62. (D) comparative anatomy comparative biochemistry comparative embryology genetics Which is NOT an example of homology? (A) (B) (C) (D) 65. Man caused the evolution of all other species. The species on earth today are the same as those present when life originated. The species present on earth today have evolved from species that lived in former periods. There is no evidence supporting evolution of species. What is the study of the development of organisms called? (A) (B) (C) (D) 64. above layers of most mammals below layers of most fish below layers of most insects below layers of most worms Which statement related to species evolution is true? (A) (B) (C) 63. Autosomal dominant Autosomal recessive Sex-linked dominant Sex-linked recessive The front legs of a horse – the arms of man The wings of a butterfly – the wings of a bird The brain of a cat – the brain of a fish The skeleton of a snake – the skeleton of a man Who first suggested that human populations (he was referring to humans) tend to over populate their environment and that death by war, starvation and disease keeps the population in check? (A) (B) (C) (D) Darwin Lamarck Malthus Miller 11 66. Which process is illustrated by: A woodpecker’s beak can drill a hole? (A) (B) (C) (D) 67. What substances might have been originally present in the ancient atmosphere before life evolved? (A) (B) (C) (D) 68. chlorophyll-like molecules that underwent photosynthesis enzymes that could synthesize proteins from inorganic molecules organic compounds that resulted from atomospheric radiation organic molecules that entered our atmosphere from space Five male and five female deer were placed on an island wildlife preserve. There was adequate food and water for the deer on the preserve. Also, there were no predators that might kill the deer for food. What will happen to the deer population on the island? (A) (B) (C) (D) 70. amino acids CH4, NH3, and H2O nucleic acids O2, CO2, H2 According to the heterotroph hypothesis of the origin of life, what were the first life forms created from? (A) (B) (C) (D) 69. adaptation development growth homeostasis Artificial selection will occur in the population. Natural selection will ensure that the offspring best suited to the environment will survive. The adult deer will pass on acquired characteristic to their offspring. The deer population will remain constant. The allele for dark fur colour is dominant to the allele for light fur colour. If there are only 4% of the members of a population that have the light fur colour, what percentage of the population should be homozygous dominant for dark fur colour? (A) (B) (C) (D) 16% 32% 64% 96% 12 PART I SECTION B Fishery Total Value: 5% Do EITHER Section B or Section C 71. What is a whale’s baleen used for? (A) (B) (C) (D) 72. A female cod may produce many millions of eggs in a lifetime and potentially then many offspring. What is this ability of a cod fish called? (A) (B) (C) (D) 73. It eats cod. It is a decomposer It is a food source for cod. It is a primary producer. Which process is illustrated by: Although seal’s gestate for 8 months, they breed in March and bear young one year later? (A) (B) (C) (D) 75. fecundity overproduction parthenogenisis sexual maturity Which statement describes the niche of capelin? (A) (B) (C) (D) 74. assisting movement filtering food protecting the eyes sending and receiving sound delayed birth delayed fertilization delayed gestation delayed implantation Which of the following is considered the littoral zone? (A) (B) (C) (D) the aphotic regions of the open shelf the area of the ocean closest to the shore the low wetland areas around streams the shallow waters of the continental zone 13 PART I SECTION C Forestry Total Value: 5% 76. Which of the following may prevent secondary succession from reaching a normal forest climax? (A) (B) (C) (D) 77. The vascular cambium of a woody stem produces both the xylem and the phloem. Which best describes this production? (A) (B) (C) (D) 78. heartwood sapwood spring wood summer wood Which tissue is part of the xylem? (A) (B) (C) (D) 80. As the vascular cambium divides, differentiation of cambium cells toward the exterior of the cambium layer gives rise to the phloem. As the vascular cambium divides, differentiation of cambium cells toward the exterior of the cambium layer gives rise to the xylem. As the vascular cambium divides, differentiation of cambium cells toward the interior of the cambium layer gives rise to the phloem. Phloem is produced at the center of the stem and the xylem is pushed outward from the vascular cambium. Which term refers to the older part of the woody stem that is composed of xylem but has lost its function for water transport? (A) (B) (C) (D) 79. black spruce kalmia moss white birch companion cells fibers sieve cells tracheids Full tree logging (whole tree harvesting) involves removing the whole tree from the forest and delimbing it at another site. Why is this NOT a preferred method of tree harvesting? (A) (B) (C) (D) decreases nutrient supply at original site increases soil acidity at original site is less cost effective produces large clear cut areas 14 PART II Total Value: 25% Do ALL questions in this part. Value 2 81a. (i) Give two examples to illustrate the effects of the environment on gene expression. Value (ii) 1 Give two reasons why the Drosophila (fruit fly) is an ideal insect for the study of genetics. Value 2 81b. In guinea pigs, black hair (B) is dominant over brown hair (b), and long hair (L) is dominant (l) over short hair. What would be the expected genotypic and phenotypic ratios of a cross between a black, homozygous long haired male and a female heterozygous for both traits. Show all work. 15 The genotypic ratio is: The phenotypic ratio is: Value 2 81c. Blond hair and blue eyes are recessive traits. Why are they the predominant phenotype in Sweden? 82. Give a brief description of the Taiga biome under the following headings: (i) climate (temperature & precipitation) Value 3 (ii) typical plants & animals (two of each) 16 (c) two key characteristics Value 1 83(a) Describe the “Gaia” hypothesis proposed by James Lovelock. Value 1 (b) Explain why isolation is considered one of the conditions required to enable speciation. (c) Populations generally undergo evolutionary change given sufficient time. Do you believe this statement applies to the human population? Give ONE argument in support of your belief. Value 1 Value 2 84(a) Describe any TWO functions of the placenta. 17 Value 3 (b) Describe ONE harmful effects for each of the following on the environment: (i) Greenhouse effect (ii) Ozone depletion (iii) Habitat destruction 18 Value (c) 1 What is the main advantage to the use of a binomial (2- name) naming system to classify living things? Do EITHER 85 OR 86. FORESTRY Value 3 85 (a) A forester is dispatched to a wooded area to inspect trees for infestation by either the spruce budworm, hemlock looper or balsam woolly aphid. Describe the types of damage that the forester would use to identify each type of insect pest stated above. 19 Value (b) 2 The latest laws have restricted the amount of wood Newfoundlanders can cut. Explain why it is critical to maintain a forest inventory and continue to regulate the use of our forest. FISHERY Value 2 86 The intertidal zone of a sea shore offers harsh conditions for living organisms to survive. (a) Describe any THREE adaptations that organisms have developed to survive in the intertidal zone. 20 Value 3 (b) Describe TWO abiotic factors that determine biotic diversity of tidal pools. 21