Download do not open the examination paper until you are told by the

EXAMINATION NUMBER:
DO NOT OPEN THE EXAMINATION PAPER UNTIL
YOU ARE TOLD BY THE SUPERVISOR TO BEGIN
DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION
PUBLIC EXAMINATIONS
BIOLOGY 3201
SAMPLE EXAM
Value: 100 marks
Time: 3 hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1.
This is a two-part test. Part I consists of 75 multiple-choice items. Part II consists of
five written response items. Part I has a total value of 75 marks. Part II has a total value
of 25 marks.
2.
Part I is to be answered using the computer scorable answer sheet supplied. Instructions
for completing this answer sheet are given on the sheet itself. Please complete it
according to those instructions and any others given by the supervisor.
3.
Part II is to be answered in the spaces provided in this test booklet. Please pass in the
entire test booklet to the supervisor when you have finished the examination.
4.
Please enter your Public Examination Number on this page, on the computer
scorable answer sheet, and on the first page of Part II as indicated.
5.
Rough work may be done in any blank spaces in Part I and on the blank pages throughout
Part II.
REGULATIONS FOR CANDIDATES
Candidates are expected to be thoroughly familiar with all regulations pertaining to their conduct during
the examinations. These were explained by the chief supervisor prior to the first session, and have been posted for
further reference near the entrance to the examination room. Candidates should ensure that they understand and
comply with all requirements governing the following matters:
)
)
)
)
)
Materials required
Punctuality
Leaving the room
Use of answer booklets
Use of handheld calculator
)
)
)
)
)
Use of pen or pencil
Use of unauthorized means, and penalties
Completion of required information
Materials not permitted
Communication and movement during the
examination
PART I
SECTION A
Total Value: 75%
Shade in the letter of the correct answer on the computer scorable answer sheet.
1.
What biome is important in agriculture?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2.
In which biome do plants produce seeds that are adapted to drought?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3.
frog
mushroom
rabbit
wolf
A tapeworm living in the intestine of a human is an example of which relationship?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
6.
abyssal zone
desert
grassland
tundra
What is an example of a decomposer?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
5.
desert
grassland
tropical rainforest
tundra
In which of the following does photosynthesis NOT occur?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4.
desert
grassland
marine
tropical rainforest
host
parasite
producer
saprophyte
Which sequence represents the successional changes from bare rock to climax vegetation?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
lichens - mosses - grasses - shrubs & saplings - forest
lichens - mosses - shrubs & saplings - grasses - forest
mosses - lichens - shrubs & saplings - grasses - forest
shrubs & saplings - lichens - grasses - mosses - forest
7.
Which of the following would be considered part of the abiotic environment?
8.
(A)
dissolved oxygen
(B)
fish population
(C)
microscopic animal life
(D)
microscopic plant life
Which are producers?
1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
9.
Which is MOST important in determining the distribution of organisms in an aquatic
biome?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
10.
(D)
commensalism
intraspecific competition
interspecific competition
predation
Which generally occurs during ecological succession?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15.
extinction of the esosystem
overpopulation of predators
starvation of carnivores
undernourishment of producers
What is illustrated when: Blowfly larvae are given a restricted amount of food, fewer
adults survive and the population size is reduced.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
14.
grassland
taiga
temperate deciduous forest
tropical rain forest
What results from the elimination of a herbivore from an ecosystem?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
13.
Photosynthesis occurs in the abyssal aphotic zone.
Photosynthesis organisms generally live in the top 200 m.
Light intensity is an important abiotic factor in limiting the distribution of
photosynthetic organisms.
The ocean biome is the most stable biome on earth.
Which biome supports the MOST abundant amount of growth?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
12.
light
pressure
salinity
temperature
Which of the following is INCORRECT statements about in an aquatic environment?
(A)
(B)
(C)
11.
autotrophs
heterotrophs
parasites
saprophytes
Climax plants are replaced by intermediate forms.
Energy is recycled.
Existing organisms make the ecosystem more suitable to new organisms.
Materials can not be recycled.
When moving along altitudinal and latitudinal gradients, you generally find the same
2
sequence of biomes. For which factor are there NO equivalent changes along the
gradient?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
16.
Which BEST describes the effect of climate on biome distribution?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
17.
grasshopper and protozoans
green algae and fungi
monerans and blue-green algae
protozoans and bacteria
Which sequence indicates the least specific to most specific sequence?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
21.
an increase in the length of a year.
an increase in the length of night.
the elimination of seasonal variation.
the elimination of tides.
Which are in the same kingdom?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
20.
Fire is unnatural in ecosystems and should be prevented.
Many kinds of plants and plant communities have adapted to frequent fires.
The chance of fire in a given ecosystem is highly predictable.
The prevention of forest fires has allowed more productive and stable plant
communities to develop.
Imagine an astroid jolts the Earth so that its axis is always perpendicular to the line
between the Earth and the Sun. What is the most obvious effect of this change?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
19.
Biome distribution is determined only by climate
Changes in environmental variables is not important if areas have the same annual
temperature and precipitation means.
Temperate forests, coniferous forests, and grasslands all have the same mean
annual temperatures and precipitation.
The distribution of biomes depends, in part, on the mean annual temperature and
precipitation of an area.
Which statement BEST describes the interaction between fire and ecosystems?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
18.
humidity
oxygen concentration
temperature
vegetation
family - genus - species
kingdom - family - order
order - class - kingdom
phylum - family - class
Which developmental sequences are correct?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
cleavage, blastula, gastrula, and zygote
gastrula, zygote, blastula, and cleavage
zygote, cleavage, blastula, and gastrula
zygote, cleavage, gastrula, and blastula
3
22.
How do spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
23.
What is the function of the structure labelled W?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
24.
bilateral symmetry
radial symmetry
spherical symmetry sides
symmetry asymmetrical
While working in your garden, you uncover an animal with many legs, mostly as two pairs
per segment. What type of animal is it?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
28.
ectoderm and mesoglea
free-swimming and sessile
hydra and sponge
polyp and medusa
Which statement BEST describes the symmetry displayed by the common starfish?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
27.
Contractions of uterine muscles would begin.
Hormones would be secreted from the placenta.
Menstruation would begin.
Ovulation would occur.
What are the two body forms of the coelenterates (cnidarians)?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
26.
exchange nutrients and wastes
form blood cells
produce amniotic fluid
produce food for the fetus
What would happen if a woman in the later stages of pregnancy were given a combination
of estrogen and oxytocin?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
25.
Oogenesis begins at the onset of sexual maturity.
Oogenesis produces four haploid cells, whereas spermatogenesis produces only
one functional spermatozoa.
Oogenesis produces one functional gamete, whereas spermatogenesis produces
four functional spermatogenesis.
Spermatogenesis begins before birth.
centipede
crustacean
insect
millipede
Which organism has both internal fertilization and internal development?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
crayfish
bird
frog
human
4
29.
A student came upon two organisms. Organism A had a cephalothorox, abdomen and
jointed legs. Organism B had a head, thorax, abdomen, and jointed legs. To what groups
would these organisms belong?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
30.
Which represents the vascular plants?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
31.
conifers
ferns
flowering plants
mosses
Which of the following has NOT contributed to the growth of the human population?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
35.
angiosperm
bryophte
conifer
gymnosperm
A botanist discovers a new species of plant in a tropical rainforest. After observing its
anatomy and life cycle, the following characteristics are noted: xylem and phloem,
separate gametophyte and sporophyte generations, and no seeds. To what classification is
this plant most closely related?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
34.
attracting insects to the pollen inside
facilitating dispersal of seeds by wind and animals
nourishing the plants that make them
producing sperm and eggs inside a protective coat
Which category would the bean plant fall?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
33.
bryophytes
club mosses
fungi
tracheophytes
In what way have fruits contributed to the success of angiosperms?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
32.
A - arahnid; crustacean
A - crustacean; B - arachnid
A - crustacean; B - insesct
A - insect; B - arachnid
environmental degradation
improved nutrition
improved sanitation
vaccines
Which of the following has NOT contributed to the rapid growth of human population?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
average age to first give birth
carrying capacity of the environment
high percentage of young people
modern medical techniques
5
36.
Which of the following would be MOST helpful in solving the world’s environmental
problems?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
37.
decreased human birth rates
increased agricultural productivity
increased life expectancy
more food from the oceans
A pregnant female rabbit moves into a new area uninhabited by other rabbits. Which
graph would BEST represent the growth in population during the first three years?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
38.
Which of the following is a density-independent factor limiting human population growth?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
39.
disease
earthquakes
famines
plagues
What does point A represent in the following graph?
6
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
40.
Which statement about the logistic model of population growth is INCORRECT?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
41.
frameshift mutation
nondisjunction
point mutation
translocation
In genetics, what is the physical appearance of an organism described as?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
45.
anaphase I
metaphase I
prophase I
telophase I
Which type of mutation would produce the greatest change in a polypeptide sequence?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
44.
anaphase
interphase
metaphase
prophase
During which phase of meiosis does synopsis occur?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
43.
It exactly predicts the population growth of most populations.
It fits an S-shaped curve.
It incorporates the concept of carrying capacity.
It predicts an eventual state in which birth rate equals death rate.
In what phase of the cell cycle does cell growth occur?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
42.
The extinction point for that species.
The introduction of new species into an area.
The point at which a predator has been introduced in an area.
The time when birth rate and death rate is equal.
genotype
pedigree
phenotype
recessiveness
How do replication of DNA involve the original molecule?
7
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
46.
Which factor causes the genetic defect known as Down’s Syndrome?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
47.
a missing chromosome
an extra chromosome
linkage and crossing over
multiple alleles
Which is true only if the genes for two traits are located on separates pairs of
chromosomes?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
48.
disintegrating and forming a different DNA molecule
reorganizing to form four new DNA molecules
unzipping to eventually become two different DNA molecules
unzipping to eventually become two identical DNA molecules
Mendel’s concept of unit characters
Mendel’s law of independent assortment
Mendel’s law of dominance
Mendel’s law of segregation
What characteristics of the organism results if the paired genes for a trait are identical?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
dominant
heterozygous
homozygous
hybrid
Which of Mendel’s laws is illustrated by: If a garden pea has a gene for round seeds and
a gene for wrinkled seeds, the seeds will be round?
49.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
50.
51.
52.
dominance
incomplete dominance
independent assortment
segregation
In Begonias, purple is dominant over pink. If a heterozygous purple plant is crossed with
a pink, what traits would the expected offspring have?
(A)
(B)
all purple
purple,
pink
(C)
purple,
pink
(D)
pink,
purple
In house cats, pointed ears (E) is dominant to folded ears (e). A folded-eared female
mates with a male of unknown phenotype. All 10 of their offspring have pointed ears.
What is the most probable genotype of the parents?
(A)
ee x EE.
(B)
Ee x Ee.
(C)
ee x Ee.
(D)
ee x ee.
Which of the following BEST describes Meiosis in humans?
8
No.of cells
Produced
53.
Where it occurs
(A)
2
23
testes
(B)
4
46
ovaries
(C)
4
23
testes
(D)
2
23
muscle cells
Two cells unite in the process of fertilization. Why does the number of chromosomes in
the zygote equal the number of chromosomes in the typical parent body cell?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
54.
No. of chromosomes
in each cell
Cleavage occurs following the fertilization of an egg by a sperm.
Eggs contain fewer chromosomes than sperm.
Meiosis occurs prior to fertilization.
Sperm contains fewer chromosomes than eggs.
A central portion of structural gene has the sequence: GTT CGC TAT GAC
Using the table provided, what would be the sequence of amino acids coded by this gene?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
argenine - glutamic acid - alanine - proline
glutamine - alanine - isoleucine - leucine
lysine - asparagine - phenylalanine - threonine
serine - glycine - valine - cysteine
9
55.
If the DNA reads ATACG, what will the RNA produced read?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
56.
Suppose two biochemists investigated the DNA molecule. How would the amount of
adenine compare to the amount of thymine?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
57.
58.
ATACG
AUACG
TATGC
UAUGC
always greater than the amount of thymine.
inversely proportional to the amount of thymine.
the same as the amount of thymine
unrelated to the amount of thymine
Using the statements below, which represents the correct sequence for protein synthesis?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
mRNA moves from the nucleus to the cytoplasm
tRNA carries amino aids to the ribosome
peptide bonds form between the amino acids
DNA is transcribed to mRNA
the ribosome attaches to the mRNA
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2,3,1,5,4
4,1,3,2,5
4,1,5,2,3
5,1,2,3,4
There was a mix-up in a hospital nursey. The doctor wanted to determine which one of
the babies could not belongto Mr. & Mrs. Lindsey. The chart below gives the blood types
of the Lindsey’s and the babies.
Mrs. Lindsey - Type AB
Mr. Lindsey - Type B
Baby Brad - Type B
Baby Jane - Type A
Baby Jill - Type O
Baby Joyce - Type AB
Which child CANNOT be the Lindsey’s?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
59.
Baby Brad
Baby Jane
Baby Jill
Baby Joyce
Two black furred guinea pigs were crossed. Over the years, they produced 22 offspring, 5
of which were white. What are the most likely genotypes for the two parents?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
BB x BB
Bb x BB
bb x bb
Bb x Bb
10
60.
Which statement BEST describes the pedigree below?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
61.
Where would fossils of birds most probably be found in layers of sedimentary rock?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
62.
(D)
comparative anatomy
comparative biochemistry
comparative embryology
genetics
Which is NOT an example of homology?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
65.
Man caused the evolution of all other species.
The species on earth today are the same as those present when life originated.
The species present on earth today have evolved from species that lived in
former periods.
There is no evidence supporting evolution of species.
What is the study of the development of organisms called?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
64.
above layers of most mammals
below layers of most fish
below layers of most insects
below layers of most worms
Which statement related to species evolution is true?
(A)
(B)
(C)
63.
Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
Sex-linked dominant
Sex-linked recessive
The front legs of a horse – the arms of man
The wings of a butterfly – the wings of a bird
The brain of a cat – the brain of a fish
The skeleton of a snake – the skeleton of a man
Who first suggested that human populations (he was referring to humans) tend to over
populate their environment and that death by war, starvation and disease keeps the
population in check?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Darwin
Lamarck
Malthus
Miller
11
66.
Which process is illustrated by: A woodpecker’s beak can drill a hole?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
67.
What substances might have been originally present in the ancient atmosphere before life
evolved?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
68.
chlorophyll-like molecules that underwent photosynthesis
enzymes that could synthesize proteins from inorganic molecules
organic compounds that resulted from atomospheric radiation
organic molecules that entered our atmosphere from space
Five male and five female deer were placed on an island wildlife preserve. There was
adequate food and water for the deer on the preserve. Also, there were no predators
that might kill the deer for food. What will happen to the deer population on the island?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
70.
amino acids
CH4, NH3, and H2O
nucleic acids
O2, CO2, H2
According to the heterotroph hypothesis of the origin of life, what were the first life forms
created from?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
69.
adaptation
development
growth
homeostasis
Artificial selection will occur in the population.
Natural selection will ensure that the offspring best suited to the environment will
survive.
The adult deer will pass on acquired characteristic to their offspring.
The deer population will remain constant.
The allele for dark fur colour is dominant to the allele for light fur colour. If there are
only 4% of the members of a population that have the light fur colour, what percentage of
the population should be homozygous dominant for dark fur colour?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
16%
32%
64%
96%
12
PART I
SECTION B
Fishery
Total Value: 5%
Do EITHER Section B or Section C
71.
What is a whale’s baleen used for?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
72.
A female cod may produce many millions of eggs in a lifetime and potentially then many
offspring. What is this ability of a cod fish called?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
73.
It eats cod.
It is a decomposer
It is a food source for cod.
It is a primary producer.
Which process is illustrated by: Although seal’s gestate for 8 months, they breed in March
and bear young one year later?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
75.
fecundity
overproduction
parthenogenisis
sexual maturity
Which statement describes the niche of capelin?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
74.
assisting movement
filtering food
protecting the eyes
sending and receiving sound
delayed birth
delayed fertilization
delayed gestation
delayed implantation
Which of the following is considered the littoral zone?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
the aphotic regions of the open shelf
the area of the ocean closest to the shore
the low wetland areas around streams
the shallow waters of the continental zone
13
PART I
SECTION C
Forestry
Total Value: 5%
76.
Which of the following may prevent secondary succession from reaching a normal forest
climax?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
77.
The vascular cambium of a woody stem produces both the xylem and the phloem.
Which best describes this production?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
78.
heartwood
sapwood
spring wood
summer wood
Which tissue is part of the xylem?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
80.
As the vascular cambium divides, differentiation of cambium cells toward the
exterior of the cambium layer gives rise to the phloem.
As the vascular cambium divides, differentiation of cambium cells toward the
exterior of the cambium layer gives rise to the xylem.
As the vascular cambium divides, differentiation of cambium cells toward the
interior of the cambium layer gives rise to the phloem.
Phloem is produced at the center of the stem and the xylem is pushed outward
from the vascular cambium.
Which term refers to the older part of the woody stem that is composed of xylem but has
lost its function for water transport?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
79.
black spruce
kalmia
moss
white birch
companion cells
fibers
sieve cells
tracheids
Full tree logging (whole tree harvesting) involves removing the whole tree from the forest
and delimbing it at another site. Why is this NOT a preferred method of tree harvesting?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
decreases nutrient supply at original site
increases soil acidity at original site
is less cost effective
produces large clear cut areas
14
PART II
Total Value: 25%
Do ALL questions in this part.
Value
2
81a. (i)
Give two examples to illustrate the effects of the environment on gene expression.
Value
(ii)
1
Give two reasons why the Drosophila (fruit fly) is an ideal insect for the study of
genetics.
Value
2
81b.
In guinea pigs, black hair (B) is dominant over brown hair (b), and long hair (L) is
dominant (l) over short hair. What would be the expected genotypic and phenotypic
ratios of a cross between a black, homozygous long haired male and a female
heterozygous for both traits. Show all work.
15
The genotypic ratio is:
The phenotypic ratio is:
Value
2
81c.
Blond hair and blue eyes are recessive traits. Why are they the predominant
phenotype in Sweden?
82.
Give a brief description of the Taiga biome under the following headings:
(i) climate (temperature & precipitation)
Value
3
(ii) typical plants & animals (two of each)
16
(c) two key characteristics
Value
1
83(a)
Describe the “Gaia” hypothesis proposed by James Lovelock.
Value
1
(b)
Explain why isolation is considered one of the conditions required to enable speciation.
(c)
Populations generally undergo evolutionary change given sufficient time.
Do you believe this statement applies to the human population? Give ONE argument
in support of your belief.
Value
1
Value
2
84(a)
Describe any TWO functions of the placenta.
17
Value
3
(b)
Describe ONE harmful effects for each of the following on the environment:
(i) Greenhouse effect
(ii) Ozone depletion
(iii) Habitat destruction
18
Value
(c)
1
What is the main advantage to the use of a binomial (2- name) naming
system to classify living things?
Do EITHER 85 OR 86.
FORESTRY
Value
3
85
(a)
A forester is dispatched to a wooded area to inspect trees for infestation
by either the spruce budworm, hemlock looper or balsam woolly aphid. Describe
the types of damage that the forester would use to identify each type of insect
pest stated above.
19
Value
(b)
2
The latest laws have restricted the amount of wood Newfoundlanders can cut.
Explain why it is critical to maintain a forest inventory and continue to regulate
the use of our forest.
FISHERY
Value
2
86
The intertidal zone of a sea shore offers harsh conditions for living organisms to survive.
(a)
Describe any THREE adaptations that organisms have developed to survive
in the intertidal zone.
20
Value
3
(b)
Describe TWO abiotic factors that determine biotic diversity of tidal pools.
21