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85k 7years Class :Examination of Infectious Disease (A)
Multiple choice (0.5 point/ each)
1.Which state is the most common occurrence during the course of
infection?
A. To clear out of organism B. Carrier state C. Covert infection D. Latent
infection E. Overt infection
2.Which one is passive immunization?
A.Typhoid vaccine B. P.P.D. C..Measles vaccine D. Diphtheria
toxoid E.Tetanus antitoxin
3.Which virus belongs to DNA virus?
A.HAV B.HEV C.HCV D.HDV E.HBV
4.What are the basic features of infectious disease?
A. Infectivity,mode of transmission, immunity and epidemiologic features.
B. Infectivity,immunity epidemicity and seasonal.
C. Pathogen,immunity,infectivity and mode of transmission.
D. Pathogen,immunity,infectivity and epidemiologic features.
E. Infectivity,pathogen,immunity,epidemicity and susceptibility.
5.What is the principal measure to wipe out alimentary infectious
diseases?
A. isolation of source of infection.
B. Treatment of source of infection.
C. Protection of susceptible population.
D. Cutting off the route of transmission.
E. Observatoin of contactor.
6.HBsAg can not be detected in the serum of
A. Patients with acute hepatitis B. B. Patients with chronic hepatitis B.
C. Carriers of HBV. D. Persons who have received hepatitis B vaccines.
E. Cirrhosis caused by hepatitis B virus.
7.Three factors of the infective process are:
A.Source of infection,route of transmission,population of susceptibility.
B.Dosage,pathogenicity and specific location of pathogen.
C.Pathogen,vector and host.
D.Pathogen,host and route of transmission.
E.Pathogen,host and environment.
Questions 8-11
A.IgG
B.IgM
C.IgA
D.IgE
E.IgD
8.r-globulin for prevention and treatment of infectious diseases
contains:
9.The most significant antibody for the early diagnosis of infectious
diseases is:
10.Which can pass through the placenta?
11.Major agglutinin in serum is:
Questions 12-14
A.the first day
B.the second day C.the fourth day
D.the fifth day
E.the sixth day
12.When does the rash of chickenpox appear after onset of the
disease?
13.When does the rash of scarlet fever appear after onset of the disease?
14.When does the rash of typhus appear after onset of the disease?
15.Pathogens invade into the host and cause mild damage of the tissues. There
are no clinical manifestations or only atypical symptoms and signs.But there
are specific antibodies in the serum.This condition is called:
A. To clear out pathogens. B. Latent infecton
.C. Carrier state.
D. Covert infection. E. Overt infection.
16.Which is correct in the following items?
A.Most of chronic hepatitis in mild develop cirrhosis.
B.There is not chronic hepatitis A.
C.Hepatitis C can not develop cirrhosis.
D.Chronic active hepatitis is only caused by HBV.
E.Hepatocellular carcinoma is not related to HCV.
17.In acute fulminant hepatitis,the most significant clinical manifestation for
diagnosis is:
A.Progressive deep jaundice.
B.Rapid shrink of the liver.
C.The symptoms of C.N.S.
D.Hemorrhagic tendency.
E.Toxic intestinal tympanites.
18.The aim of using lactulose in fulminant hepatitis is:
A. To increase the nutrition of liver.
B. To supply the energy.
C. To reduce the absorption of ammonia.
D. To reduce the necrosis of liver cells.
E. To increase the regeneration of liver cells.
19.A 18 year female was found HBsAg positive in health check up 2 years ago,
but without symptoms and signs,and the liver functions were normal. In May
this year, she was admitted for fever, weakness, vomiting and jaundice of
sclera. ALT 1200U/L, TBil 167umol/L, anti-HAVIgM(+).Anti-HBc IgG(+)
HBsAg(+).HBVDNA(-),The diagnosis may be:
A. Acute hepatitis A(icteric type) and HBsAg chronic carrier.
B. Chronic hepatitis B(mild degree).
C. Chronic hepatitis B(morderate degree).
D. Acute hepatitis A and acute hepatitis B.
E. Acute hepatitis A and chronic hepatitis B(mild degree)..
20.The most common pathogen causing icteric hepatitis in children is:
A.HAV. B.HBV. C.HCV. D.HEV.
E.HDV.
21.The antibody protecting human body from hepatitis B is:
A.Anti-HBs .
B.Anti-HBcIgM. C.Anti-HBcIgG. D.Anti-DNA.
E.Anti-HBe.
22.The patient with HBsAg(+) and HBeAg(+) has:
A. No infectivity.
B. Immunity. C. Inactive disease.
D. Active disease.
E. Infectivity.
23.The main route of transmission for hepatitis A is:
A. By injection and blood transfusion. B. By droplets in the air.
C. By saliva. D. By fecal-oral.
E. By vertical transmission.
24.The most sensitive serum enzyme for diagnosing viral hepatitis is:
A.AST. B.ALT. C..ALP. D. r-GT. E. LDH.
25.Human can not suffer from paragonimiasis by:
A. Ingesting crayfish curd. B. Eating raw crabs and crayfishes.
C. Drinking contaminated water.
D. Eating raw meat of wild boar. E. Eating raw shrimps.
26.The chronic carrier of typhoid fever is that:
A.The period of discharge of bacteria is no more than 1 month
B.The period of discharge of bacteria is no more than 2 months
C.The period of discharge of bacteria is no more than 3 months
D.The period of discharge of bacteria is more than 3 months
E.The period of discharge of bacteria is more than 6 months
27.What is the main factors that cause the sustained fever and toxic symptoms
in typhoid fever?
A.The typhoid bacilli multiply at local site and invade into blood constantly
B.The typhoid bacilli multiply largely in blood
C.The endotoxin released by typhoid bacilli acts upon the central of regulating
temperature
D.Delayed allergy
E.The endogenous pyrogen released by macromononuclear cells in site of lesion
A girl, 6 month old, high fever 3 days, the temperature 40 ℃, the typhoid bacilli
was positive in blood culture, widal test :“H” and “O”were negative.
28.What disease did the child suffer from?
A.The carrier of bacilli of typhoid fever
B.Ambulatory type of typhoid fever
C.The common type of typhoid fever
D.The bacteremia of typhoid bacillI
E.No infection of typhoid fever
29.What is the main complication of this disease?
A Toxic hepatitis
B. Toxic myocarditis C. Intestinal bleeding
D. Intestinal perforation
E. Bronchopneumonia
30.Which is the most significant manifestation of toxic bacillary dysentery?
A. Onset abruptly
B. Diarrhea
C. High fever, coma and convulsion
D. Shock in early time
E. Respiratory failure
31.Chronic bacillary dysentery relates to the following factors, except for:
A. The bacteria having a strong virulence
B. Treating without thorougly and not in time
C. Hypotrophy
D. Chronic cholecystitis
E. Intestinal parasitosis
Questions 32~34:
A.fever+abdominal pain +diarrhea+stool with pus and blood
B.fever+ abdominal pain +diarrhea+stool like jams
C.fever+ abdominal pain +diarrhea+watery stool
D.no fever+ abdominal pain +diarrhea+watery stool
E.no fever+no abdominal pain +diarrhea+watery stool
32.Ameba has:
33.Bacillary dysentery has:
34.Cholera has:
35.Since 1961,the pathogen of the 7th pandemic of cholera in the world is:
A. Classical biotype B. EL-Tor biotype C. O139 biotype
D. O137 biotype
E. O157 biotype
A female,22 years old,
was hospitalized because violent diarrhea and profuse
vomitting,no fever, no abdominal pain, the diarrhea is more than 10 times with a
large amount of watery stool.
36.The diagnosis may be :
A.Bacillary dysentery B.Poisoning of food C.Acute gastroenteritis
D.Cholera
E.Other
37.In order to make clinical diagnosis ,what is the first choice of the test?
A.Blood routine B. Stool routine C. Smear of stool D. Culture of stool
E. Culture of blood
38.According to <the prophylaxis and treatment laws of infectious disease of
P.R of China>,when should this disease be reported to epidemic prevention
station in town and in countryside:
A. 3 hours and 6 hours
B. 6 hours and 12 hours C.12 hours and 24 hours
D. 24 hours and 48 hours E. <3 hours
39.which is the most important treating method to this patient?
A. Injection of cirofloxacin
B. Injection of 0.9%N.S
C. Injection of 5%bicarbonas solution
D. Injection of humorous
E. Injection of dopamine
40.A patient, with intermittent fever for 20days,and parasitic protozoa were
found in blood thick smear,the most obvious sign in the patient may be:
A. Anemia B.Jaudice
C. Hepatomegaly
D. Splenomegaly
E. Heroes simplex on lips
41.the common radical treating plan of malaria is:
A. Chloroquine+Pyrimethamine B.Chloroquine+Primaquine
C.Quinine+ Pyrimethamine
D.Quinine+ Primaquine
E.Quinine+ Pyrimethamine
42.Which is the drug , most easily causing the Black-Water Fever in malaria?
A.Chloroquine
B.Pyrimethamine
C.Primaquine
D.Artemisinine
E.Quinine
43.The classical attacks of malaria appear in following patients except for:
A. The early period of tertian malaria B. Malignant malaria
C. Malaria of infant
D. Malaria from infusion of blood
E. The co-infection of different kinds of protozoa
44.Which change of blood picture is the most significant for the diagnosis of
typhoid fever?
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Leukocytosis+increased eosinophiles
C. Leukopenia+decreased eosinophiles
D. Lymphocytosis+ increased eosinophiles
E. Lymphocytosis+decreased eosinophiles
45.The course of chronic bacillary dysentery is beyond:
A.Two months B.Three months C.Six months D.One week E.One year
46.The first choice drug for treatment of typhoid fever is:
A.Penecillin
B.Ampicillin
C.Ofloxacin
D.Chloromycetin
E.SMZco.
47.In bacillary dysentery,pathological changes are the most severe in:
A. Cecum B. Lower part of ileum C. Sigmoid and rectum
D. Ascending colon
E. Descending colon
48.What is the vector of transmission of malaria:
A.Pig
B.Rat
C.Anopheles minimus D.Anopheles Hyrcanus Sinensis
E.Culex Tritaenio-rhynchus
49.The examinations of cholera don’t include:
A. Direct observation of the stool B. Fecal smears C. Fecal culture
D. Urine test
E. Anti-bacterial agglutinin
50.In chronic carriers of typhoid fever ,the bacteria exist mainly in:
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Lymphnodes of the intestine
D. Gallbladder
E. MPS
51.The most cardinal reason of bleeding in febrile period of EHF is:
A. DIC
B.Heparin-like substance increasing
C.Thrombocytopenia and vascular injury
D.Azotemia
E.Coagulation factor decreasing
52. Which point is not true about poliomyelitis?
A. Polio is an acute infectious disease caused by viruses.
B. Most of cases are sporadic.
C. Most of patients with Polio may develop into paralysis.
D. This disease is often seen in children.
E. Polio is a preventable disease.
53.which treatment is not available in the treatment of preparalytic period of
patients with Polio?
A. Rest in bed and nursing. B. Oral vitamin B and vitamin C.
C. Muscular injection of ribavirin
D. Using hot moist pack to muscles.
E. Hydrocortisone may be used for severe patients.
54. The basic pathogenic change of EHF is:
A.Inflammation of small blood vessels and inflammatory cell infiltration around
blood vessels.
B.Extensive lesions of general small blood vessels.
C.Toxic damage of general capillaries.
D.Damage of endothelial cells of blood vessels and lymphatics.
E.Direct damage of endothelial cells of capillaries.
55.The main cause of early shock in EHF are :
A. Infection. B. Blood plasma-losing C. Hypervolemia
D. Hemorrhage E. Vomiting .
56. The patient had fever,lumbago,headache for three days. Pysical
examination: drunken face , petechiae in axillary folds, chemosis, urine
protein (+++), RBC 3-5/HP, WBC 4-6/HP,
diagnosis may be:
A. Typhoid fever B. Typhus C. Acute glumerulonephritis
D. Epidemic hemorrhagic fever E. Leptospirosis
57. What is correct liquid supplement for patients with EHF in transitional
stage of diuretic period :
A. 1500ml/day
B. 200ml/day
C. 500~700ml/day
D. Urine volume +500~700ml/day
E. Urine volume+1000ml/day
58. A patient, ten years old ,was admitted to hospital for fever ,lethargy,
headache for three days in 15, August. Physical examination: T 40℃, coma,
neck stiffness, knee reflexes were hyperactive , Babinski’s sign (+), CSF:
transparent, cell count 100 × 106/L, N 80%, L20%,protein:0.45g/L,
glucose3.8mmol/L ,chloride:125mmol/L. blood routine examination: WBC 15
×109/L, N 79%,L21%, which diagnosis most possibly be considered?
A.Epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis
B.Tuberculous meningitis
C.Toxic bacillary dysentery
D.Epidemic encephalitis B
E. Leptospirosis
59. The main source of infection of epidemic encephalitis B is:
A. Patients
B. Carriers
C. Swine
D. Mosquitoes
E. Rodents
60. The main vectors of transmission in encephalitis B is:
A. Culex tritaeniorhynchus B. Mites C.Anophelets aconitus
D. Anopheles hyrcanus sinensis
E. Anopheles minimus
61. The pathological injury regions of poliomyelitis are mainly in:
A. Nerve cells of brain
B. Respiratory center
C. Vasomotor center
D. Motor neurons in anterior horn of spinal cord
E. Motor neurons in posterior horn of spinal cord
62. The pathological diagnosis of EHF is mainly according to the item as follow,
but excluding:
A. Typical lesion of kidney
B. Hemorrhage in right cardiac atrium
C. Adenohypophysis lesion
D. Retroperitoneal gelatinous edema
E. Hemorrhage and necrosis of lungs
63. An male patient , 40 years old ,farmer was admitted for fever, headache,
fatigue for 4 days. Physical examination: T 37℃, P 120 times/min, Bp 75/60
mmHg, with drunken face and petechia in chest and back skin. Physical
examination of heart and lung were normal, abdominal tenderness (+).the
most important examinations for this patient at this time were:
A.Blood and urine routine examination
B.DIC routine examination
C.Blood culture
D.X-ray examination of abdomen
E.Smear and culture of bone barrow
64. the most possible diagnosis is:
A. Leptospirosis B. Epidemic hemorrhagic fever C. Septicemia
D. Leukemia
E. Thrombopenia purpura
65. The most suitable treatment is:
A. Atibiotics iv drop
B. Dexamethason iv drop C. Vaso-active drug iv drop
D. Supplement of blood volume
E. Heparin iv drop
66. The pathological lesion regions of epidemic encephalitis B are principally
in:
A Cerebral cortex and spinal cord B. Spinal cord and oblongata medulla
C. Midbrain and thalamus
D. Cerebral cortex, midbrain and thalamus
E. Cerebral cortex, oblongata medulla and spinal cord
67. The most common cause for convulsion of epidemic encephalitis B is:
A. High fever
B. Hypoxia
C. Inflammation of cerebral parenchyma and brain edema
D. Sputum obstruction
E. Hyponatremic encephalopathy
68. Which item is false about pathologic changes of encephalitis B?
A Swelling and necrosis of endothelial cell of blood vessel in CNS
B Degeneration and necrosis of nerve cell
C Neurogliocyte hyperplasia and inflammatory cell infiltration
D Neuronophagia
E. soften focuses of spinal cord
69. The cardinal sources of infection for flood or rain type of leptospirosis are:
A. Pigs B. Dogs C. Patients D. Apodemus agrarius
E. Rattus norvegicus
70. The patients with leptospirosis excrete pathogen by:
A. Stool
B. Urine
C. Vomiting substance
D. Blood
E. Secretion of nose and pharynx
71. The leptospirosis is transmitted by mainly:
A. Air borne
B. Insect borne
C. Direct contact transmission
D. Food water borne
E. Indirect contact transmission
72. The main cause of death of patients with icterohemorrhagic type of
leptospirosis is:
A Acute liver function failure
B.Acute renal function failure
C.Massive bleeding of intestine
D.Pneumorrhagia
E.Central respiratory failure
A patient, 5 years old, was admitted to hospital for high fever, coma, convulsion for
2 days in 10 ,August. Physical examination: T 40 ℃ , P 90 times/min,
Bp135/105mmHg, deep coma, his breathing was irregular, and the size of his two
pupil was not same, neck stiffness (+), examinations of heart and lungs are normal,
Babinski’s sign (+), blood routine examination: WBC 15×109/L, N 85%, L 15%.
73.The most possible diagnosis is:
A Toxic bacillary dysentery,
B Epidemic encephalitis B
C Fulminant type of epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis
D Meningoencephalitis type of leptospirosis
E Brain type of malaria
74.For excluding toxic bacillary dysentery, the most simple and reliable
method is:
A. Stool culture
B. Examination of CSF
C. Stool routine examination
D. Test of specific IM antibody
E. Complement fixation test
75. Which item is false for disposal of the patient?
A.20% mannitol iv drop
B.To make spinal acupuncture at once for making correct diagnosis
C.Physical cooling and subhibernation
D.Lobelin iv
E.Dexamethason iv drop
76.Which is the envelope of HIV ：
A.gp121
B.gp40 C.p24 D.p18 E.gp120 and gp41
77.Which belongs to the regulatory genes ?
A.gag.pol.env B.rev.vif.tat C.vif.vpv.vpr D.vpx.vif.vpr
E.Tat.rev.vpr
78.HIV-2 infection is mainly located in：
A. Thailand
B. U.S.A C. West Africa D. Japan E. Europe
79.Which can activate HIV ?
A. TNF B. IL—2 C. LgG
D. NK 11 E. CD4+ Tlymphocyte
80.How many years may the asymptomatic infection last after the infection of
HIV?
A.1year B.2~10years or more C.5~10years
D.2~5years E.1~20years
81.The most common pulmonary infection is caused by.
A. CMV
B. TB
C. pneumocystis carinii
D. Mycobacteria.Avium
E. EBV
82.Which is used for pneumocystis carinii pneumnia.
A.pentamidine B.Bleomycin C.spiromycin D.clindamycin E.Gancyclovir
83.Which is used for cryptococcal meningitis
A.pentamidine B.fluconazole
C.spiromycin
D. clindamycin
E.VCR
84.Which can be the reservoirs of HIV
A.CD4+lymphocyte B.lymphocyte C.NK
D.Monophagocyte
+
E.CD8 lymphocyte
85.The specific sign of measles in the prodomal period is:
A.fever
B.catarrhea
C.rash
D.Koplik's spot
E.strawberrry tongue
86.Pigmentation may be seen after rashes fade in:
A.measles
B.varicella
C.rubella D.Scarlet fever
E.typhoid fever
87.Desquamation can be seen in:
A. epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis B. scarlet fever C. rubella
D. Varicella
E. Herpes zoster
88.Leukopenia is ususlly seen in :
A.scarlet fever B.measles C.epidemic cerebropinal meningtis
D.Bacillary dysentery
E.Epidemic encephalitis B
89.The incubation period of SSPE is:
A.2~17 years
B.2~10 years C.1~2 years D.3 weeks
E.3~5 years
90.The complication of scarlet fever is caused by:
A.purulent lesion
B.toxic lesion C.allergic lesion
D.secondary infection E. Endotoxin
91.How many serotypes does erythrogenic toxin have:
A. 19
B. 80
C. 5
D. 10
E. 7
92.The course of antibiotics given for scarlet fever is:
A. 10~14 days B. one week C. two weeks
D.7~10 days
E. 3~5 days
93.Which can produce autolysin:
A. Group A β-hemolytic streptococcus
B Meningitis Neserria
C. streptococus mitis
D. staphylococcus aureus
E. E. Coli
94.The main pathological factor of epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis is:
A. hemolysin o.s. B. autolysin C. exotoxin
D. streptokinase
E. Endotoxin
95.Which is the first choice for epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis:
A. AZT B. chloromycin C. ofloxacin D. Penicillin E. SD
96.Which is the first choice for intracranial hypertension:
A. Dexamethasone B. Hydrocortisone C. 20% mannitol
D. Heparin
E. 654-2
97.What cause hairy leucoplakia:
A. M avium infection
B. candiasis
C. viral infection
D. toxoplasma infection
E. Kaposi sarcoma
98.The main site of lesion for bacillary dysentery is:
A sigmoid colon and rectum
B. Terminal ileum
C. Duodenum and jejiuaum
D. Whole intestine
E. Rectum
99.Which drug is the first choice for preventing malaria?
A Quinine B. Chloroquine C. Pyrimethamine D.Primaquine
E. Mefloquine
100.Which is type A infectious disease?
A.Smallpox B.Rabies C.Poliomyelitis D.Cholera E.Scarlet fever
Fill in blank (0.5point/each blank)
1.In bacillary dysentery, (1)
turns to chronic easily,
common in China.
(2)
is the more
2.HIV usually infect
(3)
and
(4)
, mainly infects
(5)
.
3.The cercaria of schistosoma japonica develops into adult worm in the
(6) .
4.The first choice of pathogenic treatment of leptospirosis is
(7)
、the
common dose is (8) 、the first dose is
(9)
,for preventing
(10)
.
Simply Answer Question(3 point/each):
1.What is Koplik's spots and what are the clinical significances of it?
2.Please answer the clinical manifestation of pneumocystitis carinii pneumnia .
3.How many types are there for chronic stage of paragonimiasis?
4.Please simply answer the cardinal clinical manifestation and clinical types of
common type of epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis.
5.What is the covert infection and its significance?
Answer Question(5 point/each):
l. what are the basic features of infection disease ?
2.Please describe in detail the clinical manifestation about acute icteric hepatitis.
3.What is principle of the radical treatment of malaria? please to indicate the
reasons.
4.What is the definite criterion and considering criterion of cholera?
5.please answer the cardinal clinical manifestation in crisis period of epidemic
encephalitis B.
6.please answer the therapical principle of oliguric period in HFRS.
85k 7years Class :Examination of Infectious Disease (A)
Answer sheet
Choice answer
1.C 2.E
3.E
11.B 12.A 13.B
21.A 22.E 23.D
31.A 32.B 33.A
41.B 42.C 43.D
51.C 52.C 53.C
61.D 62.E 63.A
71. E 72.B 73.B
81.C 82.A 83.B
91.C 92.B 93.B
4.D
14.D
24.B
34.E
44.C
54.B
64.B
74.C
84.A
94.E
5.D
15.D
25.E
35.B
45.A
55.B
65.D
75.B
85.D
95.D
6.D 7.A 8.A
16.B 17.C 18.C
26.D 27.C 28.C
36.D 37.C 38.B
46C 47.C 48.D
56.D 57.D 58.D
66.D 67.C 68.E
76.E 77.B 78.C
86.A 87.B 88.B
96.C 97.B 98.A
9.B
19.A
29.C
39.B
49.D
59.C
69.A
79.A
89.A
99.C
10.A
20.A
30.D
40.C
50.D
60.A
70.B
80.B
90.C
100.D
Fill in blank (0.5 point)
⑴ S. flexneri ⑵ S. Sonnei
(3) lymphocyte
(4) nerve cells (5) CD4+
lymphocyte (6) liver (7) penicillin (8)400000u q6h or q8h、 (9) 50000u、(10)
Herxheimer reaction
Simply answer question:(3 point)
1.In 90% patients, It appears at 2th-3th day after onset , white and red circle rose,
locates at buccal mucosa oppositing the 1th molar teeth，diammond about
0.5 -1.0 mm, like thrush in sever patient The early diagnosis base on it。
2. chronic cough,fever,tachypnea ,cyanosis,arterial oxygen pressure decrease ,moist
rales occasionally, X-ray film resemble interstial pneumnia.
3.five types :lung type; abdominal type; brain—spinal cord type; subcutaneous
nodule type; ubclinical type.
4.high fever, severe headache, vomiting, petechiae and ecchymosison skin and
mucosa, signs of meningeal irritation.
clinical types: prodromal period, septicemia period, meningitis period,
convalescent period.
5.covert infection is also called subclinical infection. after invasion of pathogen it
can’nt cause the damage of tissue and there are no any clinical manifestation
even the biochemical changes. but it may cause specific immune reation and
there is important significance in the prevention of infectious disease.
Answer question (5 point)
1.1) Pathogen 2) Infectivity 3) Epidemiologic feature including sporadic
occurrence, epidemic, pandemic, epidemic outbreak and seasinal destribution,
regional distribution, sex, age, occupation.
2. 1) Preicteric period:
① The symptoms of digestive tract.
② The urine darkens.
③ 5-7 days.
2) Icteric period
① The jaundice appears on the skin,sclera.
② Subjective symptoms abate.
③Liver and spleen may be palpable.
④ Liver function is abnormal.
⑤ 2-6 weeks.
3)Convalescent period
① The jaundice and symptoms disappear gradually. Liver
and spleen retract.
②Liver function return to normal.
③2weeks to 4 months.
3.chloroquine : 1g /d, for 3 day, p.o. it can kill merozoites and trophozoites in
RBC, so may prevent attack..
primaquine: for 8day, p.o. it can kill microgametocytes ，
macrogametocytes and hypozoites, so may prevent relapse and
transmission.4.Definite criterion:
1).Symptoms plus culture positive
2).In epidemiologic investigation, initial stool culture was positive, diarrhea
existed before
or after stool culture for 5 days.
3).In epidemic period ,the patient has typical symptoms but culture is
negative, without
any other explanting reasons.
Considering criterion:
1).Having typical symptoms , the first patient is waiting for the result of
culture.
2).In epidemic period, contact history (+), the patient suffers from
diarrhea without any other explanting reasons.
5. (1) high fever: >40℃, sustained for 7~10 days.
(2)altered consciousness: lethargy, confusion, delirium, stupor, semicoma, coma.
(3)convulsion or twitch
(4)respiratory failure:
manifestation of central RF: cacorhythmic breathing (cheyne-stokes
breathing, apnea)
manifestation of peripheral RF: dyspnea, regular breathing(5)other
symptoms & signs of CNS:
meningeal irritations (neck stiffness,Kernigs & Brudzinskis signs
positive)
tendon reflexes from hyperactive to disappear,
pathologic reflexes positive
limbs paralysis.
6. 1）Stabilization of internal environment;
(1) control of azotemia: Glucose 200g~300g/day
(2) maintaining fluid-electrolyte balance:
limitation of liquid:
urine volume + 500~700ml
electrolyte: K Na Cl
(3) maintaining acid-base balance:
(4) stabilization of blood pressure:2）diuresis:
early phase
20%mannitol 125ml
Furosemide
40~100mg/time
3）eccoprotic and phlebotomy:
high blood volume syndrome,
hyperkalemia, mannitol, magnesium, rhubarb.
4）dialysis therapy :
BUN >28.56mmol/L
BUN> 7.14mmol/L/day
K > 6 mmol/L
high blood volume syndrome
blood dialysis.
85k 7 years Class :Examination of Infectious Disease (B)
Multiple choice (0.5 point/ each)
1.The most cardinal reason of bleeding in febrile period of EHF is:
A.DIC
B. Heparin-like substance increasing
C. Thrombocytopenia and vascular injury
D. Azotemia
E. Coagulation factor decreasing
2.which point is not true about poliomyelitis?
A. Polio is an acute infectious disease caused by viruses.
B. Most of cases are sporadic.
C. Most of patients with Polio may develop into paralysis.
D. This disease is often seen in children.
E. Polio is a preventable disease.
3.which treatment is not available in the treatment of preparalytic
period of patients with Polio?
A.Rest in bed and nursing.
B.Oral vitamin B and vitamin C.
C.Muscular injection of ribavirin
D.Using hot moist pack to muscles.
E.Hydrocortisone may be used for severe patients.
4.The basic pathologic change of EHF is:
A.Inflammation of small blood vessels and inflammatory cell infiltration
around blood vessels.
B.Extensive lesions of general small blood vessels.
C.Toxic damage of general capillaries.
D.Damage of endothelial cells of blood vessels and lymphatic vessels.
E.Direct damage of endothelial cells of capillaries.
5.The main reasons for early shock in EHF are :
A.Infection.
B. Blood plasma-losing
C.Hypervolemia
D. Hemorrhage
E.Vomiting .
6.The patient had fever,lumbago,headache for three days. physical
examination: drunken face , petechiae in axillary folds , chemosis, urine
protein (+++), RBC 3-5/HP, WBC4-6/HP,diagnosis may be:
A.Typhoid fever
C.Acute glumerulonephritis
B.Typhus
D.Epidemic hemorrhagic fever
E.Leptospirosis
7.Which is the correct method of liquid supplement in transitional stage of
patients with EHF:
A. 1500ml/day
B. 200ml/day
C. 500~700ml/day
D. Urine volume +500~700ml/day
E. Urine volume+1000ml/day
8.A patient, ten years old ,was admitted to hospital in 15, August.the
medical history is the following: fever ,lethargy, headache for three
days Physical examination: T 40℃, coma, neck stiffness, knee reflexes
were hyperactive ,Babinski‘s sign(+),CSF: transparent, cell count
100×106/L, N 80%,Na 125mmol/L, protein:0.45g/L,glucose
3.8mmol/L ,chloride: 79%,L 21%.blood routine examination: WBC 15
×109/L, N 80%,L20%. which diagnosis is considered most possibly?
A.Epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis
B.Tuberculous meningitis
C.Toxic bacillary dysentery
D. Epidemic encephalitis B
E. Leptospirosis
9.The main source of infection of epidemic encephalitis B is:
A. Patients
B. Carriers
C. Swine
D. Mosquitoes
E. Rodents
10.The main vectors of transmission in encephalitis B is:
A. Culex tritaeniorhynchus B. Mites
C.Anophelets aconitus
D. Anopheles hyrcanus sinensis
E. Anopheles minimus
11.The pathological injury regions of poliomyelitis are mainly in:
A Nerve cells of brain
B. Respiratory center
C. Vasomotor center
D. Motor neurons in anterior horn of spinal cord
E.Motor neurons in posterior horn of spinal cord
12. The pathological diagnosis of EHF is mainly according to the item as
follow, but excluding:
A.Typical lesion of kidney
B.Hemorrhage in right cardiac atrium
C.Adenohypophysis lesion
D.Retroperitoneal gelatinous edema
E.Hemorrhage and necrosis of lungs
13.An male patient , 40 years old ,farmer was admitted for fever,
headache, fatigue for 4 days. Physical examination: T 37℃, P 120
times/min, Bp 75/60 mmHg, with drunken face and petechia in chest
and back skin. Physical examination of heart and lung were normal,
abdominal tenderness (+).the most important examinations for this
patient at this time were:
A.Blood and urine routine examination
B.DIC routine examination
C.Blood culture
D.X-ray examination of abdomen
E.Smear examination and culture of bone barrow
14.When the pupil don’t have the same size in the patients with fulminant
type of epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis, which drug is the first
choice:
A. Antibiotics
B. sedatives C. 654-2
D. steroid
E.dehydrant
15.The source of infection for measles is:
A.chronic viral carriers
B. acute patients with measles
C. convalescent patients with measles
D.covert infection patients with measles
E. patients with subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
16.The pathological lesion regions of epidemic encephalitis B are
principally in:
A.Cerebral cortex and spinal cord
B. Spinal cord and oblongata medulla
C. Midbrain and thalamus
D.Cerebral cortex, midbrain and thalamus
E. Cerebral cortex, oblongata medulla and spinal cord
17.The most common reason of convulsion for epidemic encephalitis B is:
A.High fever
B. Hypoxia
C. Inflammation of cerebral parenchyma and brain edema
D. Sputum obstruction
E. Hyponatremic encephalopathy
18.Which item is wrong about pathologic changes of encephalitis B?
A.Swelling and necrosis of endothelial cell of blood vessel in CNS
B. Degeneration and necrosis of nerve cell
C. Neurogliocyte hyperplasia and inflammatory cell infiltration
D.Neuronophagia
E. soften focuses of spinal cord
19.The infective period of measles is:
A. From 5days before eruption to 5days after eruption
B. From exposure to eruption
C. From appearance of the koplik‘s spots to their disappearance
D. From fever to eruption
E. From the rash appearance to it‘s subsidence
20.The patients with leptospirosis discharge the pathogen by:
A.Stool B. Urine
C. Vomiting substance
D.Blood E. Secretion of nose and pharynx
21.The leptospirosis is transmitted mainly by:
A.Air borne
B.Insect borne
C.Direct contact transmission
D.Food water borne
E.Indirect contact transmission
22. The main reason for death of patients with icterohemorrhagic type of
leptospirosis is:
A.Acute liver function failure
B.Acute renal function failure
C.Severe bleeding of intestine
C.Pneumorrhagia
E.Central respiratory failure
A patient, 5 years old, was admitted to hospital in 10, August. The
medical history is : high fever, coma, convulsion for 2 days Physical
examination: T 40℃, P 90 times/min, Bp135/105mmHg, deep coma,
irregular breathing, and the size of both pupil was not same, neck
stiffness (+), examinations of heart and lungs are normal, Babinski‘s
sign (+), blood routine examination: WBC 15×109/L, N 85%, L 15%.
23.The most possible diagnosis is:
A Toxic bacillary dysentery,
B. Epidemic encephalitis B
C. Fulminant type of epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis
D. Meningoencephalitis type of leptospirosis
E. Brain type of malaria
24.For excluding toxic bacillary dysentery, the most simple and reliable
method is:
A. Stool culture B. Examination of CSF C. Stool routine examination
D. Test of specific IgM antibody
E. Complement fixation test
25.Which disposal to the patient is wrong?
A.20% mannitol iv drop
B.To make spinal acupuncture at once for making correct diagnosis
C.Physical cooling and subhibernation.
D.Lobelin iv E.Dexamethason iv drop
26.The first change of CSF of fulminant type of epidemic cerebrospinal
meningitis is:
A.Cloudy appearance
B.Cells elevation
C.Protein elevation
D.Sugar decrease
E.Pressure raise
27.The first antibiotic drug chosen in treating shock type of fulminant
epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis is:
A. Sulfadiazine
B. Penicillin
C. Ampicillin
D. Chloromycetin
E. ceftriaxone
28.HIV infecfion is mainly located in：
A.Thailand
B.U.S.A
C.Africa
D.Japan
E.Europe
29.Which cell is the target cell of HIV?
A.CD8+ cells
B.Mononuclear cells
C.CTL
D.NK cells
E.CD4+ cells
30.How many years may the asymptomatic infecfion last
After the infection of HIV ?
A.1year
B.20years
C.2~10years or more
D.2~15years
E.1~20years
31.The most main route of transmission for AIDS is:
A.Sexual contact
B.Receiving blood and blood products
C.Abuser of intravenous drug
D.Receiving organs or tissues
E.Eating uncooked food
32.Which drug is used for the treatment of pneumocystis carinii
pneumnia.
A.pentamidine
B.Bleomycin
C.spiromycin
D.clindamycin
E.Gancyclovir
33.Adhere to epithelial cell of group A -hemolytic streptococcus rely on:
A.Protein M
B.Thythrogenic toxin
C.Lipoteichoic acid
D.Hymolysins
E.Hyaluronic acid
34.The common clinical manifestations of common form of epidemic
cerebrospinal meningitis are:
A.Obvious upper respiratory symptoms, headache, fever, petechiae, neck
stiffness
B.Abrupt onset, headache, vomiting, maculopapules on the skin, neck
stiffness
C.Abrupt onset, vague upper respiratory symptoms, fever, headache,
petechiae in skin, neck stiffness
D.Obvious symptoms of prodrome, headache, vomiting, petechiae, neck
stiffness
E.Abrupt onset, high fever, convulsions, hypotension, neck stiffness
35.The specific sign of measles in the prodromal period is:
A.fever
B.catarrhea
C.rash
D.Koplik’s spot
E.strawberrry tongue
36.Pigmentation may be seen after rashes fade in:
A.measles
B.varicella
C.rubella
D.Scarlet fever
E.typhoid fever
37.Desquamation can be seen in:
A.epidemic cerebrospinal meninqitis
B.scarlet fever
C.rubella
D.Varicella
E.Herpes zoster
38.Leukopenia is ususlly seen in :
A. scarlet fever
B. measles
C.epidemic cerebropinal meningtis
D. Bacillary dysentery
E. Epidemic encephalitis B
39.The incubation period of SSPE is:
A.2~17 years
B.2~10 years
C.1~2 years
D.3 weeks
E.3~5 years
40.Which one is patient with AIDS:
A.PGL
B.PGL+ARS
C.Anti-HIV(+)
D.CD4+:CD8+ <1+ anti-HIV(+)
E.Anti-HIV(+)+opportunistic infection or tumor
41.How many serotypes does erythrogenic toxin have:
A.19
B.80
C.5
D.10
E.7
42.Which one is late complication of the scarlet fever:
A.Otitis media
B.Cellulitis
C.Pharyngitis
D.Septicemia
E.Acute glomerulonephritis
43.Which form of epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis is the most
dangerous:
A.Common form
B.Shock type of fulminant form
C.Cerebromeningitis type of fulminant form
D.Mixed type of fulminant form
E.Chronic septicemic form
44.Main evidence of diagnosing scarlet fever is:
A.Fever, eruption in 4th day from onset, petechiae
or ecchymosis
B.Fever, pharyngitis, congested gooseflesh,
strawberry tongue and desquamation after rash
C.Finding G- diplococci in petechiae
D.In blood culture finding a-hemolytic streptococcus
E.Pigmentation after rash
45.Which one of the shock type of fulminant epidemic cerebrospinal
meningitis is incorrect:
A.Violent chills, high fever, dizziness, headache and profound weakness
B.Petechiae appearing on the extremities, and rapidly increasing in
number and coalescing
C.circulatory failure
D.Normal CSF
E.Obvious meningeal irritant signs
46.Main sources of infection of leptospirosis are:
A.Patients and carriers of leptospires
B.Rats and pigs
C.Rats and patients
D.Pigs and patients
E.Dogs and cats
47.The evidence of making a correct diagnosis of poliomyelitis is:
A.Features of paralysis
B.Changes of CSF
C.Menigeal irritation sign
D.Impaired consciousness
E.Not any above
48.Which clinical type of poliomyelitis is the most commom:
A.Paralytic type
B.Non-paralytic type
C.Brain type
D.Covert infection
E.Abortive infection
49.Which drug is the first choic for preventing malaria?
A.Quinine
B.Chloroquine
C.Pyrimethamine
D.Primaquine
E.Mefloquine
50.Which is type A of infectious disease?
A.Smallpox
B.Rabies
C.Poliomyelitis
D.Cholera
E.Scarlet fever
51.Pathogen of the scartler fever is:
A.group A – hemolytic streptococcus
B.group A – hemolytic streptococcus
C.group B – hemolytic streptococcus
D.group A – hemolytic streptococcus
E.group C – hemolytic streptococcus
52.Which one is passive immunization?
A.Typhoid vaccine
B.P.P.D.
C.Measles vaccine
D.Diphtheria toxoid
E.Tetanus antitoxin
53.The most common complication of the measles is:
A.heart failure
B.encephalitis
C.laryngitis
D.bronchopneumonia
E.secondary infection
54.The basic features of infectious disease are?
A.Infectivity,mode of transmission, immunity and epidemiologic
features.
B.Infectivity,immunity epidemicity and seasonal.
C.Pathogen,immunity,infectivity and mode of transmission.
D.Pathogen,immunity,infectivity and epidemiologic features.
E.Infectivity,pathogen,immunity,epidemicity and susceptibility.
55.What is the principal measure to wipe out alimentary infectious
diseases?
A. Isolation of source of infection.
B. Patients therapy
C. Protection of susceptible population.
D. Cutting off the route of transmission.
E. Observatoin of contactor.
56.HBsAg can not be detected in the serum of
A. Patients with acute hepatitis B.
B. Patients with chronic hepatitis B.
C. Carriers of HBV.
D. Persons who have received hepatitis B vaccines.
E. Cirrhosis caused by hepatitis B virus.
57.Three factors of the infective process are:
A. Source of infection,route of transmission,population of susceptibility.
B. Dosage,pathogenicity and specific location of pathogen.
C. Pathogen,vector and host.
D. Pathogen,host and route of transmission.
E. Pathogen,host and enviroment.
Questions58-61
A.IgG
B.IgM
C.IgA
D.IgE
E.IgD
58.r-globulin for prevention and treatment of infectious diseases
contains:
59.The most significant antibody for the early diagnosis of infectious
diseases is:
60.Which can pass through the placenta?
61.Major agglutinin in serum is:
Questions 62-64
A.the first day
B.the second day
C.the fourth day
D.the fifth day
E the sixth day
62.When does the rash of chickenpox appear after onset of the disease?
63.When does the rash of scarlet fever appear after onset of the disease?
64.When does the rash of typhus appear after onset of the disease?
65.Pathogens invade into the host and cause mild damage of the
tissues.There are no clinical manifestations or only atypical
symptoms and signs.But there are specific antibodies in the
serum.This condition is called:
A.To clear out pathogens.
B.Latent infecton
C.Carrier state.
D.Covert infection.
E.Overt infection.
66.Which is correct in the following items?
A. Most of chronic hepatitis in mild degree edevelop cirrhosis.
B.There is no chronic hepatitis A.
C.Hepatitis C can not develop cirrhosis.
D.Chronic active hepatitis is only caused by HBV.
E.Hepatocellular carcinoma is not related to HCV.
67.In acute fulminant hepatitis,the most signigicant clinical
manifestation for diagnosis is:
A.Progressive deep jaundice.
B.Rapid shrink of the liver.
C.The symptoms of C.N.S.
D.Hemorrhagic tendency.
E.Toxic intestinal tympanites.
68.The aim of using lactulose in fulminant hepatitis is:
A.To increase the nutrition of liver.
B.To supply the energy.
C.To reduce the absorption of ammonia.
D.To reduce the necrosis of liver cells.
E.To increase the regeneration of liver cells.
69. A 18 year female was found HBsAg positive in health check up 2 years
ago,but without symptoms and signs,and the liver functions were
normal. 1 week ago, she was admitted for fever, weakness, vomiting
and jaundice of sclera. ALT 1200U/L,TBil 167umol/L , anti-HAV
IgM(+),Anti-HBc IgG(+), HBsAg(+),HBVDNA(-) .The diagnosis may
be:
A. Acute hepatitis A(icteric type) and HBsAg chronic carrier.
B. Chronic hepatitis B(mild degree).
C. Chronic hepatitis B(moderate degree).
D. Acute hepatitis A and acute hepatitis B.
E. Acute hepatitis A and chronic hepatitis B(mild degree).
.
70.The most common pathogen causing icteric hepatitis in children is:
A.HAV.
B.HBV.
C.HCV.
D.HEV.
E.HDV.
71.The antibody protecting human body from hepatitis B is:
A.Anti-HBs
B.Anti-HBcIgM
C.Anti-HBcIgG.
D.Anti-DNA
E.Anti-HBe.
72.The patient with HBsAg(+) and HBeAg(+) has:
A.No infectivity.
B. Immunity.
C. Inactive disease.
D.Active disease.
E. Infectivity.
73.The main route of transmission for hepatitis A is:
A.By injection and blood transfusion.
B. By droplets in the air.
C. By saliva.
D.By fecal-oral.
E. By vertical transmission.
74.The most sensitive serum enzyme for diagnosing viral hepatitis is:
A.AST.
B.ALT.
C.ALP.
D.r-GT.
E.LDH.
75.Human can not suffer from paragonimiasis by:
A. Ingesting crayfish curd.
B. Eating raw crabs and crayfishes.
C. Drinking contaminated water.
D. Eating raw meat of wild boar.
E. Eating raw shrimps.
76.The chronic carrier of typhoid fever is that:
A.The period of discharge of bacteria is no more than 1 month
B.The period of discharge of bacteria is no more than 2 months
C.The period of discharge of bacteria is no more than 3 months
D.The period of discharge of bacteria is more than 3 months
E.The period of discharge of bacteria is more than 6 months
77.What is the main factors that cause the sustained fever and toxic
symptoms in typhoid fever?
A.The typhoid bacilli multiply at local site and invade into blood
constantly
B.The typhoid bacilli multiply largely in blood
C.The endotoxin released by typhoid bacilli acts upon the central of
regulating temperature
D.Delayed allergy
E.The endogenous pyrogen released by macromononuclear cells in site
of lesion
A girl, 6 month old, high fever 3 days, the temperature 40 ℃, the
typhoid bacilli was positive in blood culture, widal test:“H” and
“O”were negative.
78.What disease did the child suffer from?
A.The carrier of bacilli of typhoid fever
B. Ambulatory type of typhoid fever
C. The common type of typhoid fever
D.The bacteremia of typhoid bacillI
E. No infection of typhoid fever
79.What is the main complication of this disease?
A.Toxic hepatitis
B. Toxic myocarditis
C. Intestinal bleeding
D.Intestinal perforation
E. Bronchopneumonia
80.Which one is the most significant manifestation of toxic bacillary
dysentery?
A.Onset abruptly
B. Diarrhea
C. High fever,coma and convulsion
D.Shock in early time
E. Respiratory failure
81.Chronic bacillary dysentery relates to the following factors, except for:
A.The bacteria having a strong virulence
B.Treating without thorougly and not in time
C.Hypotrophy
D.Chronic cholecystitis
E.Intestinal parasitosis
Questions 82~84:
A. fever+abdominal pain +diarrhea+stool with pus and blood
B. fever+ abdominal pain +diarrhea+stool like jams
C. fever+ abdominal pain +diarrhea+watery stool
D. no fever+ abdominal pain +diarrhea+watery stool
E. no fever+no abdominal pain +diarrhea+watery stool
82.Ameba dysentery has:
83.Bacillary dysentery has:
84.Cholera has:
85.Since 1961,the pathogen of the 7th pandemic of cholera in the world
is:
A.Classical biotype
B.EL-Tor biotype
C.O139 biotype
D.O137 biotype
E.O157 biotype
A female,22 years old, was hospitalized because violent diarrhea
and profuse vomitting,no fever, no abdominal pain, the diarrhea is
more than 10 times with a large amount of watery stool.
86.The diagnosis may be :
A.Bacillary dysentery
B.Poisoning of food
C.Acute gastroenteritis
D.Cholera
E.Other
87.In order to make clinical diagnosis ,what is the first choice of the
test?
A. Blood routine
B. Stool routine
C. Smear of stool
D. Culture of stool
E. Culture of blood
88.According to <the prophylaxis and treatment laws of infectious disease
of P.R of China>,when should this disease be reported to epidemic
prevention station in town and in countryside:
A.3 hours and 6 hours
B.6 hours and 12 hours
C.12 hours and 24 hours
D.24 hours and 48 hours
E.<3 hours
89.which is the most important treatment to this patient?
A.Injection of cirofloxacin
B.Injection of 0.9%N.S
C.Injection of 5%bicarbonas solution
D.Injection of humorous
E.Injection of dopamine
90.A patient, with intermittent fever for 20days,and parasitic protozoa
were found in blood thick smear,the most obvious sign in the
patient may be:
A.Enlargement of lymph node
B. Jaudice
C. Hepatomegaly
D.Splenomegaly
E. Herpes simplex on lips
91.the common radical treating plan of malaria is:
A.Chloroquine+Pyrimethamine
B. Chloroquine+Primaquine
C. Quinine+ Pyrimethamine
D.Quinine+ Primaquine
E. Quinine+ Pyrimethamine
92.Which is the drug most easily causing the Black-Water Fever in
malaria?
A.Chloroquine
B.Pyrimethamine
C.Primaquine
D.Artemisinine
E.Quinine
93.The classical attacks of malaria appear in following patients except for:
A.The early period of tertian malaria
B.Malignant malaria
C.Malaria of infant
D..Malaria from transfusion of blood
E.The co-infection of different kinds of protozoa
94.Which change of blood picture is the most significant for the diagnosis
of typhoid fever?
A.Thrombocytopenia
B.Leukocytosis+increased eosinophiles
C.Leukopenia+decreased eosinophiles
D.Lymphocytosis+ increased eosinophiles
E.Lymphocytosis+decreased eosinophiles
95.The course of chronic bacillary dysentery is beyond:
A.Two months
B.Three months
C.Six months
D.One week
E.One year
96.The first choice drug for treatment of typhoid fever is:
A.Penecillin
B.Ampicillin
C.Ofloxacin
D.Chloromycetin
E.SMZco.
97.In bacillary dysentery,pathological changes are the most severe in:
A.Cecum
B. Lower part of ileum
C. Sigmoid and rectum
D.Ascending colon
E.Descending colon
98.What is the vector of transmission of malaria:
A.Pig
B.Rat
C.Anopheles minimus
D.Anopheles Hyrcanus Sinensis
E.Culex Tritaenio-rhynchus
99.The examinations of cholera don‘t include:
A.Direct observation of the stool
B. Fecal smears
C. Fecal culture
D.Urine test
E. Anti-bacterial agglutinin
100.Evidence of making a definite diagnosis for epidemic cerebrospinal
meningitis is:
A.season
B.high fever, headache, vomiting and petechiae
C.signs and symptoms of cerebromeningitis
D.find meningococcus in petechiae
E.purulent CSF
Fill in blank (0.5 point/each)
1.The mediated host of plasmodium.is
(1)
, the final host of
plasmodium.is
(2)
.
2.Schistosoma japonica mainly parasite in
(3) vein and
(4)
vein。
3.Clorchis Sinensis parasite in (5) of human ,the first choice drug for
Clorchiasis Sinensis is
(6) .
4.Poliovirus belongs to
(7)
family,
virus, and can be distinguished in
(10)
(8)
genus, which is
types.
(9)
Simply answer question(3 point/each):
1.What are the clinical type of bacillary dysentery？
2.The high risk populations of AIDS.
3.Please answer the clinical manifestation of late stage of schistosomiasis japonica.
4.What is the conception of incubation period and it’s significance?
5.How to differentiate epidemic encephalitis B from toxic bacillary dysentery?
Answer question(5 point/each):
1.What are the early clinical diagnosis criterion and definite diagnosis criterion of
measles?
2.please to recount the mechanism of violet diarrhea and vomiting in cholera.
3.What are the route of transmission for viral hepatitis B?
4.Please describe in detail the three antigen-antibody systems of hepatitis B virus
(HBV) and its significance.
5.What are the main treatment measures of fulminant type ofepidemic
cerebrospinal meningitis?
6.Please try to describe the main changes of blood and urine routine examination in
HFRS？
85k 7years Class :Examination of Infectious Disease (B)
Answer sheet:
Multiple choice answer:
1.C 2.C 3.C 4.B 5.B 6.D 7.D 8.D 9.C 10.A
11.D 12.E 13.A 14.E 15.B 16.D 17.C 18.E 19.A 20.B
21.E 22.B 23.B 24.C 25.B 26.E 27.B 28.C 29.E 30.C
31.A 32.A 33.C 34.C 35.D 36.A 37.B 38.B 39.A 40.E
41.C 42.E 43.D 44.B 45.E 46.B 47.E 48.D 49.C 50.D
51.A 52.E 53.D 54.D 55.D 56.D 57.A58.A 59.B 60.A
61.B 62.A 63.B 64.D 65.D 66.B 67.C 68.C 69.A 70.A
71.A 72.E 73.D 74.B 75.E 76.D 77.C 78.C 79.C 80.D
81.A 82.B 83.A 84.E 85.B 86.D 87.C 88.B 89.B 90.D
91.B 92.C 93.D 94.C 95.A 96.C 97.C 98.C 99.D 100.D
Blank answer:
(1)human (2) mosquito (3) inferior mesenteric (4) superior rectal hemorrhoid .
(5)intrahepatic bile duct
(6) pyquiton
(7)picornaviridae (8)enterovirus
(9)RNA. (10)three serum
Simply Answer Question(3 point):
1. Acute bacillary dysentery: mild type , typical type, toxic type (shock form，
brain form，mixed form);
Chronic bacillary dysentery: chronic delayed type，chronic latent type，acute
attack type
2.male homosexual; drug abusers; people who have multiplesexual
parters; hemophilia patients, receipt of blood or blood products.
3. giant spleen type, hypersplenism; ascites type; colon granuloma type,
abdominal pain ,diarrhea ,constipation even abdominal dullness,intestinal
obstruction; dwarf type.
4.the period from invading of pathogen to appearing first symptom is called
incubation period.
To help diagnosis, to determine guarantine period.
5.
Epidemic
encephalitis B
Toxicbacillary
dysentery
onset
abrupt
More abrupt
CSF
abnormal
normal
Stool
examination
Circulatory
failure
Meningeal
irritation
normal
A lot of RBC,WBC
—
+
+
—
<24h
Answer question(5 point/each):
1.the early clinical diagnosis criterion:
1).Fever;
2).Catarrhal inflammation of URT;
3).Koplik’s spots;
4).anti-measles-IgM positive in blood
definite diagnosis criterion:
1).Fever;
2).Catarrhal inflammation of URT;
3).Koplik’s spots;
4).anti-measles-IgM positive in blood
5).Maculopapular
2.Bacteria enter small intestine, then attach to brush border of epithelia cell and
release choleragen which divide into A and B subunits. B subunit is binding
subunit by specific receptor GM1, A subunit acts on intestinal membrane cell,
actives adenyl cyclase that transform ATP into cAMP, than the later as a the
second message r act on crypt cell to secrete a large amount of cl- 、H2o and
HCO3 ,meanwhile intestinal membrane cells of villus reabsorb Na+
decreasingly.
3.
1)Humoral transmisson or parenteral transmisson..
2) Mather to infant transmission or vertical transmission
3)Sexual contact transmission
4）Insect transmission
4. HBsAg-anti-HBs
HBeAg-anti-HBe
HBcAg-anti-HBc(IgM,IgG)
1）HBsAg including HBsAg, pre-s1, s2 antigen, they are the markers of
infectivity.
Anti-HBs is α kind of protective antibody.
Anti-pre-s2 may have the action of clearing virus.
2) HBcAg is the marker of the replication of HBv.
Anti-HBc IgM is α marker of acute infection and acute attack of
chronic infection of HBV.
Anti-HBc IgG is the marker of past infection of HBV. But high titer of
anti-HBc IgG is α marker of low level replication of HBV.
3) HBeAg is α reliable indicater of active replication of HBV.
5.fulminant form:
1). Shock type:
(1)pathogenic therapy: penicillin
(2)anti-shock:
replacement of fluid and correct acidosis.
654-2: 0.3~0.5mg/kg/time, 10~15 min.
steroid:hydrocortisone:
adult:100~150mg/day
child: 8~10mg/kg/day, <3d.
anti-DIC: heparin: 0.5~1mg/kg, 4~6h.
protective organ: cardiotonic drugs
2) .meningoencephalitis type:
pathogenic therapy: penicillin
decrease intracranial hypertension;
20%mannitol:adult:1~2g/kg/time,
child: 0.25g/k/time ,q4~6h
steroid; dexamethason:10~20mg/time
anti-respiratory failure;
treatment of high fever and convulsion
6.Blood routine examination: WBC15~30×109/L ,
thrombocytopenia,
heteromorphic lymphocyte increase
Urine routine examination: proteinuria ,
hemoturia (RBC),
cast,
membranoid substance,
large diffuse cell.