Download 2015 PreAP Biology Final Exam Study Guide Part 1 of 2

Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________
ID: A
2015 PreAP Biology Final Exam Study Guide Part 1 of 2
Yes/No
Indicate whether you agree with the statement.
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1. Dear Students and Parents:
This study guide is a compilation of the questions you have already seen for grades. I have simply compiled
the list to aid you remembering what you have already studied and been tested on. This list does not contain
the correct answer for each item as that would constitute a copy of the test. As a study guide it shows in
which direction your studies should be focused. You will receive the last few chapter questions after the last
test in May .
Thanks you for your understanding and Good Luck!
Mr. Lawrence and Mrs. O'Connor
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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2. The age of fossils, such as those of bones, can sometimes be determined by
a. observing their magnetism.
b. measuring the amount of a specific radioactive isotope in the fossil bones.
c. analyzing the DNA in the bones.
d. observing their developmental pattern.
3. The half-life of carbon-14 is 5,730 years. How much of an initial amount of this substance would remain
after 17,190 years, which is three times its half-life?
a. none
b. one-half
c. one-fourth
d. one-eighth
4. Isotopes are forms of the same element that differ in
a. atomic number.
c. number of neutrons.
b. number of electrons.
d. number of protons.
5. Which of the following are examples of fossils?
a. shells or old bones
c. insects trapped in tree sap
b. any traces of dead organisms
d. All of the above
6. Animal fossils may form when
a. an animal is buried by sediment.
b. an animal is buried on the ocean floor, in swamps, in mud, or in tar pits.
c. an animal’s tissue is replaced by harder minerals.
d. All of the above
7. Darwin drew ideas for his theory from observations of organisms on
a. the Samoan Islands.
c. the Hawaiian Islands.
b. Manhattan Island.
d. the Galápagos Islands.
8. The species of finches that Darwin observed differed in the shape of their beaks. According to Darwin, all of
these species probably
a. had a common ancestor.
b. had migrated from Africa.
c. had descended from similar birds in Africa.
d. ate the same diet.
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9. The process by which a population becomes better suited to its environment is known as
a. accommodation. b. variation.
c. adaptation.
d. acclimation.
10. According to Darwin, evolution occurs
a. only through artificial selection.
c. because of natural selection.
b. during half-life periods of 5,715 years.
d. so rapidly that it can be observed easily.
11. The major idea that Darwin presented in his book The Origin of Species was that
a. species change over time and never compete with each other.
b. animals change, but plants remain the same over time.
c. species may change in small ways but cannot give rise to new species.
d. species change over time by natural selection.
12. Natural selection is the process by which
a. the age of selected fossils is calculated.
b. organisms with traits well suited to their environment survive and reproduce more
successfully than organisms less suited to the same environment.
c. acquired traits are passed on from one generation to the next.
d. All of the above
13. Populations of the same species living in different places
a. do not vary.
b. always show balancing selection.
c. are genetically identical to each other.
d. become increasingly different as each population becomes adapted to its own
environment.
14. The occurrence of the same blood protein in a group of species provides evidence that these species
a. evolved in the same habitat.
c. descended from a common ancestor.
b. evolved in different habitats.
d. descended from different ancestors.
15. Evidence that evolution occurs includes all of the following except
a. acquired characteristics.
b. similarities and differences in proteins and DNA sequences between organisms.
c. the fossil record.
d. homologous structures among different organisms.
16. The idea of inheritance of acquired characteristics was proposed by
a. Charles Darwin.
c. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck.
b. George Cuvier.
d. Charles Lyell.
17. Which of the following conditions is required for Hardy-Weinberg genetic equilibrium?
a. No mutations occur.
b. The population is infinitely large.
c. Individuals neither leave nor enter the population.
d. All of the above are required.
18. Natural selection acts
a. on heterozygous genotypes.
c. on phenotypes that are expressed.
b. only on recessive alleles.
d. on all mutations.
19. After Precambrian Time, the basic divisions of the geologic time scale, from larger to smaller are
a. eras and periods.
c. relative and absolute dates.
b. periods and eras.
d. billions of years and millions of years.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 20. In 1859, Charles Darwin published his revolutionary scientific ideas in a work titled
a. Principles of Geology.
b. Essay on the Principle of Population.
c. Evolution in Malaysia.
d. On the Origin of Species.
____ 21. If the half-life of a radioactive isotope is 5,000 years, how much of the radioactive isotope in a specimen will
be left after 10,000 years?
a. all of it
b. one-half of the original amount
c. one-quarter of the original amount
d. none of it
____ 22. When Darwin published his first book about evolution, he included all of the following ideas except
a. the idea that species change slowly over time.
b. the idea that some organisms reproduce at a greater rate than others.
c. the idea that species are permanent and unchanging.
d. the idea that some species become better suited to their environment than others.
____ 23. Refer to the illustration above. The bones labeled “X” can be referred to as
a. vestigial structures.
b. sequential structures.
c. homologous structures.
d. fossil structures.
____ 24. Homologous structures in organisms provide evidence that the organisms
a. share a common ancestor.
b. must have lived at different times.
c. have a skeletal structure.
d. are now extinct.
____ 25. RR : homozygous dominant ::
a. Rr : heterozygous
b. rr : heterozygous recessive
c. Yy : homozygous
d. yy : heterozygous dominant
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 26. The science of classifying living things is called
a. identification.
c. taxonomy.
b. classification.
d. speciation.
____ 27. Taxonomy is defined as the science of
a. classifying plants according to their uses in agricultural experiments.
b. studying ribosomal RNA sequencing techniques.
c. grouping organisms according to their characteristics and evolutionary history.
d. studying reproductive mechanisms and gene flow.
____ 28. As we move through the biological hierarchy from the kingdom to species level, organisms
a. vary more and more.
b. are less and less related to each other.
c. become more similar in appearance.
d. always are members of the same order.
____ 29. The organism Quercus phellos is a member of the genus
a. Plantae.
c. Quercus.
b. phellos.
d. Protista.
____ 30. Poison ivy is also known as Rhus toxicodendron. Its species identifier is
a. poison.
c. ivy.
b. Rhus.
d. toxicodendron.
____ 31. The correct order of the biological hierarchy from kingdom to species is
a. kingdom, class, family, order, phylum, genus, species.
b. kingdom, phylum, order, family, class, genus, species.
c. kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species.
d. kingdom, class, order, phylum, family, genus, species.
____ 32. Phylogenetic trees depict
a. known evolutionary relationships between organisms.
b. presumed evolutionary relationships based on physical features only.
c. only living organisms.
d. presumed evolutionary relationships based on a variety of types of evidence.
____ 33. Which of the following is (are) used in systematic taxonomy to classify organisms?
a. patterns of embryological development
b. homologous features
c. amino acid sequences of proteins
d. All of the above
____ 34. How did Redi test the hypothesis of spontaneous generation?
a. He placed meat in one container and left another container empty. He then observed the
containers for the appearance of maggots.
b. He placed meat in two containers and covered one of them. He then observed the
containers for the appearance of maggots.
c. He placed meat in two containers and fly eggs in one of them. He then observed the
containers for the appearance of maggots.
d. He placed adult flies in two containers, one with meat in it and one without. He then
observed the containers for the appearance of maggots.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 35. What did Pasteur do in his experiments on spontaneous generation that other scientists before him had not
done?
a. He boiled the broth in his flasks.
b. He sealed his flasks.
c. He used curve-necked flasks and left them open.
d. He added microorganisms to the broth before he boiled it.
____ 36. In their experiment, Miller and Urey produced
a. energy.
c. radioactive isotopes.
b. microorganisms.
d. amino acids.
____ 37. The study of the interaction of living organisms with each other and with their physical environment is called
a. health.
c. ecology.
b. economy.
d. geology.
____ 38. A group of organisms of different species living together in a particular place is called a
a. community.
c. biome.
b. population.
d. habitat.
____ 39. An ecosystem consists of
a. a community of organisms.
b. energy.
c. the soil, water, and weather.
d. All of the above
____ 40. All organisms in an ecosystem are linked together in a network of interactions. This quality is called
a. geochemical processes.
c. interdependence.
b. isolation.
d. communication.
____ 41. The specific physical location in which a given species lives is called its
a. habitat.
c. community.
b. abiotic factor.
d. climate.
____ 42. An organism’s niche includes
a. what it eats.
c. when it eats.
b. where it eats.
d. All of the above
____ 43. Organisms that manufacture organic nutrients for an ecosystem are called
a. consumers.
c. producers.
b. predators.
d. omnivores.
____ 44. cows : herbivores ::
a. horses : carnivores
c. algae : consumers
b. plants : producers
d. caterpillars : producers
____ 45. Water and minerals needed by all organisms on Earth pass back and forth between the biotic and abiotic
portions of the environment in a process called
a. a trophic cycle.
b. a trophic pathway.
c. a biogeochemical cycle.
d. a biochemical pathway.
____ 46. Precipitation and evaporation are important components of the
a. nitrogen cycle.
c. carbon cycle.
b. water cycle.
d. All of the above
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 47. Which of the following does not represent a population?
a. all the robins in Austin, Texas
b. all the grass frogs in the pond of Central Park in New York City
c. all the birds in Chicago, Illinois
d. all the elk in Yosemite National Park
____ 48. Demographic studies of populations must take into consideration
a. population size.
b. population density.
c. population dispersion.
d. All of the above
____ 49. Regarding population dispersion patterns, which of the following is an improper pairing?
a. random—not evenly spaced
b. uniform—evenly spaced
c. clumped—clustered in space
d. random—clustered in space
____ 50. A population of organisms grows
a. with no natural restrictions except the availability of food.
b. when the birth rate exceeds the death rate.
c. only in the absence of predators or natural diseases.
d. All of the above
____ 51. Refer to the illustration above. The photosynthetic algae are
a. producers.
c. parasites.
b. consumers.
d. decomposers.
____ 52. Refer to the illustration above. The diagram, which shows how energy moves through an ecosystem, is called
a
a. habitat net.
c. trophic level.
b. food chain.
d. food web.
____ 53. Refer to the illustration above. The leopard seals are
a. producers.
c. herbivores.
b. omnivores.
d. carnivores.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 54. Refer to the illustration above. Which time period shows the highest rate of growth of the population?
a. period W–X
c. period X–Y
b. period W–Y
d. period Y–Z
____ 55. Refer to the illustration above. Which point on the graph indicates the approximate world population in the
year 1950?
a. W
c. Y
b. X
d. Z
____ 56. Refer to the illustration above. The American Revolution began in 1776. According to the graph, what was
the approximate world population at that time?
a. 500 thousand
c. 1 billion
b. 1 million
d. 2 billion
____ 57. As a population reaches its carrying capacity, there may be an increase in competition for
a. food.
c. mates.
b. shelter.
d. All of the above
____ 58. Which of the following is a density-independent regulatory factor?
a. food
c. severe weather
b. water
d. number of nesting sites
____ 59. All of the following are problems arising from inbreeding except
a. reduction of a population’s genetic diversity.
b. increased genetic diversity within a population.
c. increased chance of homozygous recessive alleles for disease occurring.
d. reduction of a population’s ability to adapt to environmental changes.
____ 60. The relationship between a predator and its prey is best illustrated by
a. a snake eating a bird.
c. a lion eating a zebra.
b. a fox eating a mouse.
d. a zebra eating grass.
____ 61. A tick feeding on a human is an example of
a. parasitism.
c. competition.
b. mutualism.
d. commensalism.
____ 62. Which of the following is an example of mimicry?
a. a poisonous species that looks frightening
b. coloration that causes an animal to blend in with its habitat
c. a harmless species that resembles a poisonous species
d. similarly colored body parts on two poisonous species
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 63. Characteristics that enable plants to protect themselves from herbivores include
a. thorns and prickles.
b. sticky hairs and tough leaves.
c. chemical defenses.
d. All of the above
____ 64.
____ 65.
____ 66.
____ 67.
____ 68.
____ 69.
Refer to the illustration above. Because the two species of barnacles attempt to use the same resources, they
are
a. in a parasitic relationship.
b. in competition with one another.
c. in a mutualistic relationship.
d. in symbiosis with one another.
The relationship between flowering plants and the bees that pollinate them is an example of
a. commensalism.
c. mutualism.
b. competition.
d. parasitism.
Cattle egrets are birds that mostly feed on insects that have been disturbed by grazing cattle. The cattle are
neither helped nor harmed by the presence of the egrets. This relationship is an example of
a. commensalism.
c. mutualism.
b. competition.
d. parasitism.
Generally, the closer an ecosystem is to the equator,
a. the longer its growing season.
c. the warmer its temperature.
b. the greater its species richness.
d. All of the above
All the members of the kingdom Animalia
a. are heterotrophs.
b. are multicellular.
c. have cells without cell walls.
d. All of the above
A group of similar cells organized into a functional unit is called
a. a nervous system.
c. a tissue.
b. a specialized cell.
d. an organ.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 70. Many animals have a head that is located at the ____ end of their body and a tail that is located at the ____
end of their body.
a. ventral; dorsal
c. anterior; posterior
b. dorsal; ventral
d. posterior; anterior
____ 71.
Refer to the illustration above. The position of arrow ____ can be referred to as anterior.
a. 1
c. 2
b. 4
d. 3
____ 72. Refer to the illustration above. Organism 2
a. has no symmetry.
b. is bilaterally symmetrical.
c. exhibits radial symmetry.
d. has reverse symmetry.
____ 73. Refer to the illustration above. Organism 1
a. has no symmetry.
b. is bilaterally symmetrical.
c. exhibits radial symmetry.
d. has reverse symmetry.
____ 74. Symmetrical phyla include all of the following except
a. chordates.
c. arthropods.
b. mollusks.
d. sponges.
____ 75. Which of the following is an incorrect match?
a. ectoderm—nervous system
b. mesoderm—skeletal system
c. endoderm—muscular system
d. endoderm—digestive system
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
The diagrams below are cross sections of three types of animal bodies.
____ 76. Refer to the illustration above. An organism with no body cavity is shown in diagram
a. 1.
c. 3.
b. 2.
d. None of the above
____ 77. Sponges
a. are nonsymmetrical.
b. lack organization into tissues and organs.
c. possess cells that are capable of recognizing other sponge cells.
d. All of the above
____ 78. Sponges obtain food
a. through photosynthesis.
b. by using their spicules to paralyze protozoa.
c. by filtering small organisms from the water.
d. with their spongin.
____ 79. Hermaphroditic organisms
a. reproduce only by asexual means.
b. produce both eggs and sperm.
c. have gemmules that are fertilized by amoebocytes.
d. possess only male amoebocytes.
____ 80. Sponges can reproduce
a. by the budding of new sponges from the parent.
b. by a breakup of the original parent into fragments that each become a new sponge.
c. sexually, using sperm and eggs.
d. All of the above
____ 81. The cnidarian’s inner layer of tissue is specialized for
a. digestion.
c. capturing prey.
b. reproduction.
d. All of the above
____ 82. The phylum Cnidaria includes all of the following except
a. jellyfish.
c. sea anemones.
b. squids.
d. corals.
____ 83. To which phylum do roundworms belong?
a. Annelida
c. Platyhelminthes
b. Nematoda
d. Arthropoda
____ 84. Roundworms have a fluid-filled cavity called a
a. coelom.
c. digestive system.
b. pseudocoelom.
d. None of the above
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 85. Roundworms have a digestive tract with ____ opening(s).
a. three
c. one
b. two
d. no
____ 86. Which of the following has a true coelom?
a. flatworm
c. rotifer
b. roundworm
d. mollusk
____ 87. Which of the following is a correct pairing?
a. phylum Platyhelminthes—hydra
b. phylum Nematoda—planaria
c. phylum Mollusca—octopus
d. phylum Annelida—roundworm
____ 88. All of the following are classes of the phylum Mollusca except
a. bivalves.
c. gastropods.
b. cephalopods.
d. pseudopods.
____ 89. Segmented worms are known as
a. nematodes.
c. planarians.
b. annelids.
d. arthropods.
____ 90. Each segment of an annelid
a. is capable of reproduction.
b. has a well-developed brain that allows the annelid to learn simple tasks.
c. has a pseudocoelom.
d. may contain some organ systems that duplicate systems in other segments.
____ 91. Small tubules that collect wastes from the coelom of annelids and discharge the wastes from the body are
called
a. nephridia.
c. bivalves.
b. radulae.
d. spicules.
____ 92. The digestive tube of the earthworm is divided into three regions. Which of the following is not among these
regions?
a. crop
c. radula
b. intestine
d. gizzard
____ 93. The clitellum of an earthworm
a. contains the heart.
b. is associated with reproduction.
c. acts as a primitive respiratory system.
d. is necessary for movement.
____ 94. All of the following are arthropods except
a. spiders.
c. crabs.
b. clams.
d. centipedes.
____ 95. The exoskeleton of arthropods is made of a material called
a. spongin.
c. chitin.
b. mesoglea.
d. None of the above
____ 96. Crabs, lobsters, shrimp, and barnacles are members of the subphylum
a. Diptera.
c. Crustacea.
b. Centipeda.
d. Arachnida.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 97. Spiders typically have
a. three body segments and six walking legs.
b. two body segments and four walking legs.
c. two body segments and eight walking legs.
d. None of the above
____ 98. Most insects
a. have two pairs of wings and two pairs of legs.
b. have one set of wings and six pairs of legs.
c. cannot fly.
d. have two wings and three pairs of legs.
____ 99. Malpighian tubules in insects
a. remove wastes.
c. carry Malpighian fluid.
b. carry blood.
d. are important in respiration.
____ 100. Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled “3” is the
a. diptera.
c. boll.
b. thorax.
d. abdomen.
____ 101. Lobsters, insects, and spiders are all examples of
a. amphibians.
c. arthropods.
b. vertebrates.
d. monerans.
____ 102. Characteristics of the arthropods include
a. segmentation.
c. jointed appendages.
b. a chitinous exoskeleton.
d. All of the above
____ 103. Crabs, lobsters, shrimp, and barnacles are members of the subphylum
a. Diptera.
c. Crustacea.
b. Centipeda.
d. Arachnida.
____ 104. Spiders, scorpions, and horseshoe crabs belong to the subphylum
a. Arthropoda.
c. Chordata.
b. Crustacea.
d. Chelicerata.
____ 105. Centipedes
a. have one pair of legs per segment and eat decaying matter.
b. have two pairs of legs per segment and eat other animals.
c. have two pairs of legs per segment and eat decaying matter.
d. have one pair of legs per segment and eat other animals.
____ 106. The most diverse group of animals on Earth are the
a. reptiles.
c. insects.
b. mammals.
d. amphibians.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 107. All of the following are arthropods except
a. spiders.
c. crabs.
b. clams.
d. centipedes.
____ 108. Arachnids (spiders) use the following for respiration
a. Swimmerettes.
c. Green Glands.
b. Malphigian Tubules.
d. Book Lungs.
____ 109. Echinoderms
a. are radially symmetrical as larvae and as adults.
b. have an exoskeleton as adults.
c. are bilaterally symmetrical as larvae and radially symmetrical as adults.
d. are radially symmetrical as larvae and bilaterally symmetrical as adults.
____ 110. The symmetry exhibited by adult echinoderms is
a. bilateral.
c. radial.
b. spherical.
d. mirror image.
____ 111. The name echinoderm means
a. “little bone.”
c. “outer skin.”
b. “second mouth.”
d. “spiny skin.”
____ 112. Which of the following are echinoderms?
a. sea stars
c. sea urchins
b. sand dollars
d. All of the above
____ 113. Sea stars are members of the class
a. Asteroidea.
c. Crinoidea.
b. Ophiuroidea.
d. Echinoidea.
____ 114. Which of the following is not found in all vertebrates?
a. jaws
c. endoskeleton
b. cranium
d. vertebral column
____ 115. The organ of a fish that filters the blood is the
a. lung.
c. amnion.
b. heart.
d. kidney.
____ 116. Lampreys and hagfishes have
a. jaws.
b. paired fins.
c. scales.
d. a notochord that remains throughout their life cycle.
____ 117. The living jawless fish are the
a. lampreys and sharks.
b. sharks and rays.
c. hagfishes and coelacanths.
d. lampreys and hagfishes.
____ 118. The class Chondrichthyes includes
a. bony fishes.
c. lampreys.
b. jawless fishes.
d. cartilaginous fishes.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 119. Refer to the illustration above. Structure 1, which covers and protects the gills of the fish, is the
a. pharynx.
c. swim bladder.
b. esophagus.
d. operculum.
____ 120. The gills of bony fishes
a. give them buoyancy.
b. are found in a single chamber in front of the operculum.
c. are composed of scales.
d. are housed in chambers on each side of the head.
____ 121. Most fishes get rid of nitrogenous wastes by
a. taking in ammonia through the gills and eliminating it from the kidneys.
b. taking in water through the kidneys and eliminating ammonia from the gills.
c. eliminating ammonia from the gills and from the kidneys.
d. eliminating urine from the gills and ammonia from the kidneys.
____ 122. The skeleton of an echinoderm is composed of individual plates called
a. ocelli.
c. odonata.
b. ossicles.
d. isopods.
____ 123. Which embryonic chordate characteristics do lancelets retain as adults?
a. notochord and postanal tail
b. notochord and dorsal nerve cord
c. notochord, dorsal nerve cord, and postanal tail
d. notochord, dorsal nerve cord, postanal tail, and pharyngeal pouches
____ 124. Toads, like frogs,
a. cannot live in moist areas.
b. generally return to the water to reproduce.
c. have long tails as adults.
d. belong to the order Caudata.
____ 125. Amphibians that have snakelike bodies and no limbs are referred to as
a. anurans.
c. salamanders.
b. caecilians.
d. newts.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 126. The amphibian heart
a. has 2 chambers.
b. has 2.5 chambers.
c. has 3 chambers.
d. has 3.5 chambers.
____ 127. Frogs reproduce in water or moist places because their eggs
a. are fertilized externally.
b. have a jelly-like coating that is permeable to water.
c. will dry out if removed from moisture.
d. All of the above
____ 128. Reptiles, except for alligators and crocodiles, have a heart that has
a. 3 chambers
b. 3.5 chambers
c. 2 chambers
d. 4 chambers
____ 129. Amphibians without tails are classified in the order
a. Apoda.
c. Caudata.
b. Anura.
d. Hydrodela.
____ 130. Newts and salamanders are amphibians of the order
a. Apoda.
c. Caudata.
b. Anura.
d. Gymnophiona.
____ 131. The chorion and amnion are
a. species of primitive fish believed to have been ancestors of modern-day amphibians.
b. protective membranes in reptile, bird, and mammal eggs.
c. protective jelly-like coatings that surround amphibian eggs once they have been
fertilized.
d. chemical forms of nitrogen-containing waste found in aquatic and terrestrial animals.
____ 132. Which of the following is a reptilian adaptation to living on land?
a. external fertilization
c. respiration through gills
b. endothermic temperature regulation
d. the amniotic egg
____ 133. Reptiles, except for alligators and crocodiles, have a heart that has
a. two atria and two ventricles.
b. two atria and one partially divided ventricle.
c. one atrium and two partially divided ventricles.
d. two atria and two partially divided ventricles.
____ 134. Turtles belong to the order
a. Squamata.
c. Crocodilia.
b. Chelonia.
d. Rhynchocephalia.
____ 135. Snakes are reptiles of the order
a. Squamata.
c. Testudines.
b. Saurischia.
d. Ichthysauria.
____ 136. The heat-sensing organs between the eyes and nostril on each side of the head of a rattlesnake are the
a. tracheal organs.
c. thermal organs.
b. Jacobson’s organs.
d. pit organs.
____ 137. Birds are different from reptiles in that they
a. are endothermic.
c. have four-chambered hearts.
b. have feathers covering their bodies.
d. All of the above
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 138. The bones of birds
a. are composed primarily of furcula.
b. are solid.
c. are found only sparingly throughout the body.
d. are thin and hollow.
____ 139. A bird’s heart has
a. one chamber.
c. three chambers.
b. two chambers.
d. four chambers.
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