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EXAMINATION NUMBER
DO NOT OPEN THE EXAMINATION PAPER UNTIL
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BIOLOGY 3201
PUBLIC EXAMINATION
November, 2001
Value: 100 marks
Time: 3 hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
Candidates are required to do all items.
This examination consists of the following parts:
Part I - 75 multiple choice - 75%
Part II - constructed response - 25%
Answers to multiple choice items are to be shaded on the computer scorable answer sheet. All
other items are to be answered in this booklet.
Be sure to write your Examination Number in the space provided above.
Rough work may be done in any blank spaces in Part I and on the blank spaces throughout Part
II.
REGULATIONS FOR CANDIDATES
Candidates are expected to be thoroughly familiar with all regulations pertaining to their
conduct during the examinations. These were explained by the chief supervisor prior to the first
session, and have been posted for further reference near the entrance to the examination room.
Candidates should ensure that they understand and comply with all requirements governing the
following matters:
) Materials required
) Punctuality
) Leaving the room
) Use of answer booklets
) Use of handheld calculator
) Use of pen or pencil
) Use of unauthorized means, and penalties
) Completion of required information
) Materials not permitted
) Communication and movement during the
examination
PART I
SECTION A
Total Value: 75%
Shade in the letter of the correct answer on the computer scorable answer sheet.
1.
Which biome has epiphytes?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2.
Epiphytes have evolved to maximize their usage of which abiotic factor?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3.
biome formation
eutrophication
thermocline
succession
Why are green plants important to animals?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
8.
competition
mutualism
parasitism
predation
What term refers to a lake changing to a swamp and then to dry land?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
7.
1st order consumer
2nd order consumer
decomposer
producer
Which relationship benefits both members?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
6.
abyssal
bathyal
intertidal
subtidal
Which BEST describes a grasshopper?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
5.
carbon dioxide
minerals
sunlight
water
Which ocean zone is NOT exposed to light?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4.
taiga
temperate deciduous forest
tropical rain forest
tundra
They consume food and give off oxygen.
They consume food and give off carbon dioxide.
They produce food and give off oxygen.
They produce food and give off carbon dioxide.
Which cycle involves the activity of bacteria within the roots of legumes (clover, beans, etc.)?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
carbon-oxygen
water
phosphorus
nitrogen
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9.
Which statement is TRUE of the marine biome?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
10.
Which terrestrial biome maintains the MOST stable temperature and the poorest soil
fertility?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
11.
1J
10 J
100 J
1000 J
Which marine zone would have the LOWEST rates of primary productivity
(photosynthesis)?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
16.
autotrophs
decomposers
omnivores
source of energy
If 1000 J of sunlight energy is stored in the plant, how much energy will normally pass to
the herbivore?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15.
Both energy and materials are recycled.
Neither energy nor materials are recycled.
Only energy is recycled.
Only materials are recycled.
Which is NOT essential to the survival of an ecosystem?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
14.
desert
forest
pond
ocean
What is TRUE of any ecosystem?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
13.
desert
grassland
taiga
tropical rain forest
Which ecosystem will change the MOST, through natural means, over a long period of
time?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
12.
It covers less than 50% of the Earth’s surface.
It has little biodiversity.
It is more stable than the terrestrial biomes.
It is driven by geothermal energy.
abyssal
intertidal
neritic
pelagic
Which ecological unit incorporates abiotic factors?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
community
ecosystem
population
species
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17.
Why are polar regions cooler than the equator?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
18.
Because of sudden dune erosion, cold salt water begins to mix with the warm fresh water
in a pond. Which BEST describes the response of organisms to this change?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
19.
Animalia
Monera
Plantae
Protista
Which is NOT a function of the stem of a plant?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
22.
biotic growth
equilimited growth
exponential growth
limited growth
To which Kingdom does an organism belong if it has chloroplasts, is multicellular, and has
cells with a cell wall?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
21.
Fish would evolve higher metabolic rates.
Invertebrates would survive.
Most organisms would be unable to survive the change.
Organisms with cell walls would survive.
Which term BEST describes the growth from point B to point C
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
20.
Sunlight strikes the poles at low angles.
There is more ice at the poles.
The poles are farther from the sun.
The poles have thicker atmosphere.
It represents part of the gametophyte generation.
It supports leaves and reproductive organs into the air.
It transports water, minerals and food between the roots and the leaves.
Some stems are modified to carry out photosynthesis.
Why are mollusks considered to be more advanced than cnidarians?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
absence of a coelon
an improved digestive system
they have radial symmetry
they possess nematocysts
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23.
What is the highest rate of reproduction possible for a population (under ideal conditions)
called?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
24.
Why is the human population still in the exponential growth phase?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
25.
exponential curve
straight line
“J” shaped curve
“S” shaped curve
What occurs in the uterus of mammals?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
28.
A
B
C
D
Which statement BEST describes the animal population growth curve?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
27.
Humans have incredible biotic potential.
Mankind has the ability to control disease around the world.
Mankind has unlimited resources world wide.
The human population has not reached the carrying capacity.
According to the hormone levels indicated in the graph below, at what time should this
woman release her egg?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
26.
biotic potential
carrying capacity
cyclic extinction
environmental resistance
development of embryos
fertilization
production of milk
storage of food
What causes the shedding of the uterine lining in the human menstrual cycle?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Implantation and pregnancy are successful.
Progesterone levels decrease.
Progesterone levels remain high.
The corpus luteum is maintained.
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29.
A major change that occurred in the evolution of plants from their algae ancestors was the
origin of a multicellular diploid stage. What advantage would this provide?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
30.
Which statement BEST describes stage 1 in the demographic transition model of human
population growth?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
31.
(C)
(D)
Both pass through the micropyle into the ovule, with both fertilizing the egg.
Both pass through the micropyle into the ovule, with one fertilizing the egg and the
other dying.
Both pass through the micropyle into the ovule, with one fertilizing the egg and the
other fusing with the polar nuclei
Only one passes through the micropyle into the ovule to fertilize the egg.
The major groups of land plants includes mosses, ferns, and the seed plants (gymnosperm
and angiosperms). Which group of plants has a dominant gametophyte generation?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
34.
arthropods
cnidarians
echinoderms
flat worms
During fertilization of an Angiosperm, both sperm cells move through the pollen tube.
Which statements BEST describes what happens to these sperm?
(A)
(B)
33.
Birth rate and death rate are high so the population grows very slowly.
Death rates exceeds birth rate and the population declines.
Improvements in living conditions result in a high birth rate having a positive
effect.
Improvements in living conditions result in a reduced death rate and the population
grows.
Based on developmental trends, which represents the simplest phylum?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
32.
enhanced potential for independence of the diploid stage from the haploid stage
increased gamete production
increased fertilization rate
increased spore production from each fertilization event.
angiosperms
ferns
gymnosperms
mosses
Why are both mosses and ferns limited to a wet habitat?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Neither mosses nor ferns have vascular tissue.
Their sperm are protected within pollen grains that are carried by wind or insects.
Their sperm have flagella so water is required for reproduction.
They both produce seeds and water is required for seed germination.
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35.
Which structure helps keep the temperature of the testicles slightly lower than normal
body temperature?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
36.
Which characteristic is found in birds but not in placental mammals?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
37.
anaphase
metaphase
prophase
telophase
Which results from nondisjunction?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
41.
Four cells, each with one-half the chromosomes of the original cell.
Four cells, each with double the chromosomes of the original.
Two cells, each with one-half the chromosomes of the original cell.
Two cells with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell.
During which phase of mitosis do chromosomes line up at the cell’s equator?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
40.
vagina ÷ cervix ÷ oviduct ÷ uterus
vagina ÷ cervix ÷ uterus ÷ oviduct
vagina ÷ oviduct ÷ cervix ÷ uterus
vagina ÷ oviduct ÷ uterus ÷ cervix
Which statement BEST describes the result of meiosis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
39.
closed circulatory system
external development
four-chambered heart
internal fertilization
Which is the correct sequence for the passage of the sperm from the time it is ejaculated
into the female until it fertilizes the egg?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
38.
W
X
Y
Z
colour blindness
Down’s Syndrome
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
Hemophilia
Which is NOT involved in the synthesis of protein?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
centrioles
messenger RNA
ribosomes
transfer RNA
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42.
What directs the formation of mRNA?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
43.
What is a sudden change in the genetic material?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
44.
Dominance
Independent Assortment
Genetic Inheritance
Segregation
Which phenotype ratio results from a mating of two organisms heterozygous for each of
two particular traits?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
48.
baldness
blood type
colour blindness
Hemophilia
Which of Mendel’s Laws is illustrated by the fact that the height of the plant does not
affect the colour of the seeds?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
47.
He discovered the sources of variations in peas.
He studied large numbers of offspring.
He used only hybrid pea plants.
He used peas with large chromosomes.
Which trait is a result of multiple alleles?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
46.
a gene
a meiosis
a mitosis
a mutation
What is one reason for Mendel’s success with genetic studies of garden peas?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
45.
ATP
DNA
proteins
ribosomes
3:1
9 : 3 :3 : 1
1 : 2 :1
1:1:1:1
The coat of shorthorn cattle, may be red, white, or roan (red-white mix). Crosses between
red bulls and white cows produce only roan colored offspring. What do the alleles for
coat color in shorthorn cattle demonstrate?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
crossing over
codominance
nondisjunction
sex-linkage
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49.
Which diagram below shows crossing over of the original
chromosomes shown to the right?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
50.
Why does the fertilized egg contain the same number of chromosomes as the body cells of
the parents?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
51.
What is the result of DNA exposure to radiation?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
52.
mutation
replication
termination
transformation
In which process would a cell divide to form four genetically unique cells?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
53.
Meiosis occurs during the process of egg and sperm production.
Mitosis occurs during the process of egg and sperm production.
When the fertilized egg divides, meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes.
When the fertilized egg divides, mitosis reduces the number of chromosomes.
meiosis I only
meiosis II only
mitosis only
mitosis and meiosis I
Three women gave birth to children in the same hospital at the same time. The babies are
mixed up in the nursery. The hospital checked the blood type of the parents and children
and the following data was obtained:
Parent Blood Type
Baby Blood Type
Father
Mother
Smiths
A
B
Jane
O
Jones
AB
O
Bob
B
Olsons
A
A
Joan
AB
Who could have produced Baby Bob with blood type B?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
either the Smiths or Jones
only the Jones
only the Olsons
only the Smiths
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Use the following table to answer question 54 and 55
Amino Acids coded by RNA Condons
Second Letter
U
First Letter
U
C
A
G
54.
UCU
UCC
Serine
UCA
UCG
CCU
CCC
Proline
CCA
CCG
ACU
ACC
Threonine
ACA
UAU
UAC
UAA
UAG
CAU
CAC
CAA
CAG
AAU
AAC
AAA
AUG Initiation
Codon
ACG
AAG
GUU
GUC
Valine
GUA
GUG
GCU
GCC
Alanine
GCA
GCG
GAU
GAC
GAA
GAG
Phenylalanine
Leucine
Leucine
Isoleucine
Tyrosine
Stop Codon
Stop Codon
Histidine
Glutamine
Asparagine
Lysine
Aspartic
Acid
Glutamic
Acid
G
UGU
UGC
UGA
UGG
CGU
CGC
CGA
CGG
AGU
AGC
AGA
AGG
GGU
GGC
GGA
GGG
U
C
Stop Codon A
Tryptophan G
U
C
Arginine
A
G
U
Serine
C
A
Arginine
G
U
C
Glycine
A
Cysteine
G
glutamic acid - threonine - arginine
leucine - glutamine - arginine
leucine - tryptophan - alanine
valine - glutamine - alanine
The initial sequence of DNA is GGA CAC. A mutation occurred changing the sequence
to ATC CAC . Which of these situations would result?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
56.
A
A central portion of a gene has the sequence: GAA ACC CGC. What would be the
sequence of amino acids coded by this gene?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
55.
UUU
UUC
UUA
UUG
CUU
CUC
CUA
CUG
AUU
AUC
AUA
C
Protein synthesis would not occur.
The amino acid sequence proline - valine would be produced.
The amino acid sequence isoleucine - valine would be produced.
The encoding would start again where the mutation occurred.
What is the genotype of individual B-5?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
WW only
Ww only
ww only
WW or ww
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57.
One strand of a DNA molecule has nucleotides arranged in the sequence, G - A - C - T.
What is the most likely order of the nucleotides of the other strand?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
58.
Which type of evolutionary evidence is indicated by the fact that human diabetes can be
treated using insulin from a cow?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
59.
Darwin
Malthus
Miller
Oparin
A Galapagos Island species had just recently migrated from the mainland. What would
they look like?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
64.
analogous
organs with a similar function but a different origin
organs with similar origin but may have different function
vestigal
Who would have most likely stated: “The tendency for organisms to overpopulate their
environment provides a struggle for existence in which the best adapted individuals
survive and reproduce – a process I call natural selection”?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
63.
They are actually fish.
They breathe through these gill slits before birth.
They may have had a similar evolutionary ancestor.
They are related to echinoderms.
Which BEST describes homologous structures?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
62.
fossils
pictures in museums
pictures on the walls of caves
present animals that have evolved from them
What does the presence of gill slits in all vertebrate embryos possibly indicate?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
61.
adaptive radiation
comparative anatomy
comparative biochemistry
comparative embryology
No human being has ever seen a dinosaur. What is the BEST evidence that dinosaurs
once lived?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
60.
A-C-T-A
C-T-G-A
T-C-A-G
U-C-A-G
a desert species
a species adapted for island living
exactly like the mainland species
not resemble the mainland species
Who performed an experiment (1950) showing that it is possible for amino acids (life
compounds) to be produced from a mixture of methane, ammonia and water vapor?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Darwin
Lamarck
Miller
Oparin
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65.
Why would assuming life on earth had an extraterrestrial origin NOT solve the mystery of
the origin of life?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
66.
Who would argue that a strong child would be born because its father had practiced
weight-lifting?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
67.
Darwin
Lamarck
Linnaeus
Malthus
What must be present for speciation to occur?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
70.
a change in the gene frequencies
inheritance of acquired characteristics
natural selection
overproduction of a species
Who would argue that humans will evolve bigger noses because big-nosed people have a
survival advantage over small-nosed people?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
69.
Darwin
De Vris
Lamarck
Linnaeus
In areas of heavy insecticide (DDT) use, fly populations may show marked resistance to the
DDT over a period of time. How would Darwin most likely explain this observation?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
68.
We don’t know how it could have gotten to earth.
We don’t know how it will get back home.
We don’t know where in the universe it came from.
We still don’t know how it originated.
abundance of predators
high competition
isolating factors
short supply of biological needs
During a laboratory investigation students determined that 96% of the school population
exhibited the dominant trait. What is the gene frequency for the dominant allele within
this population?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
20%
40%
60%
80%
Do EITHER Section B or C
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PART I
SECTION B
Fishery
Total Value: 5%
Do EITHER Section B or Section C
71.
What is a semi-enclosed costal body of water that has a free connection with the open sea
called?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
72.
The removal of which species would have the greatest negative impact on the cod
population?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
73.
keen eye sight
slowed heart rate
webbed feet
whiskers
What factor MOST likely caused the population of northern cod to decline?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
75.
blue mussel
capelin
mackerel
seal
What is an example of a seal’s adaptation to its cold, watery environment?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
74.
delta
estuary
river
tidal zone
change in water temperature
infestation by cod worm
over fishing by humans
pollution from industrial waste
Which zone of the ocean is MOST affected by the action of waves and tides?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
abyssal
intertidal
littoral
pelagic
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PART I
SECTION C
Forestry
Total Value: 5%
Do EITHER Section B or Section C
76.
A spruce budworm feeds on a fir tree. What term is used to define the role of the spruce
budworm?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
77.
Which statement about taxonomic keys is INCORRECT?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
78.
clearcutting
highgrading
salvage cutting
shelterwood cutting
What category of wetlands form along streams and ponds and are dominated by sedges
and grasses?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
80.
Microscopes are always needed to use a key.
They are usually dichotomous.
They can be used only for plants, animals, and fungi.
They describe and classify organisms.
Which tree harvesting technique is most commonly used in Newfoundland?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
79.
decomposer
herbivore
predator
scavenger
bog
fern
marsh
swamp
What is the MOST likely tree that will grow back in an area burned by a forest fire?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
balsam fir
black spruce
pine
white spruce
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PART II
Total Value: 25%
Do ALL questions in this part.
Value
1
81a.
1
b.
1
c.
2
82.
How did Mendel show that the Blend Theory of Genetics is incorrect?
What is the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis?
Why are sex-linked traits more common in men than in women?
Tall plants (T) are dominant over short plants (t). Green leaves (G) are dominant over
spotted leaves (g). Determine the genotypic ratio and phenotypic ratio of a cross between
a tall, green plant homozygous for both traits, and a tall, green plant heterozygous for both
traits. Show all work.
The genotypic ratio is:
The phenotypic ratio is:
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Value
83.
3
Explain why the concept of gene linkage does not fit well into Mendel’s Law of
84.
forest.
1
Lamarck’s thinking about evolution revolved around two basic assumptions. List
these two assumptions.
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Value
2
85b.
1
c.
2
86a.
1
b.
Describe an example to illustrate how the Hardy - Weinberg Law can be used to
measure evolutionary change.
How would Lynn Margulis have explained the evolution of eukaryotic organisms?
Describe the role of estrogen and progesterone in controlling the human female
menstrual cycle.
Describe one reason why the human population has not reached its carrying capacity.
16 of 18
Value
Describe any THREE
successful form of plant life on earth.
3
Do
86 OR
FISHERY
Value
86.
A rocky sea shore is a complex part of the marine biome which is sub-divided into three
THREE zones and describe any
.
FORESTRY
Value
3
87a
A local logging company wants to maximize the growth of a forest area that it has just
bought. List TWO silviculture practices that the company could use to maximize yield
and give a brief description of ONE of these.
2
b
In Newfoundland, biological controls have sometimes been used to control insect pests.
State ONE advantage and ONE disadvantage of this type of control method.
18 of 18