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Transcript
DESIGNER GENES
STATION 1
23. __________________
STATION 10
1.
________
24. __________________
45. ________
2.
________
25. __________________
46. ________
3.
________
26. ________
47. ________
4.
________
STATION 6
48. ________
5.
________
27. ________
STATION 11
STATION 2
28. ________
49. __________________
6.
________
29. ________
50. __________________
7.
________
30. ________
51. __________________
8.
________
31. ________
52. __________________
9.
________
32. ________
53. __________________
STATION 3
33. ________
54. __________________
10. __________________
34. ________
55. __________________
11. ________
STATION 7 – REST
56. __________________
12. ________
STATION 8
STATION 12
13. __________________
35. ________
57. ________
14. __________________
36. ________
58. ________
15. ________
37. ________
59. ________
STATION 4
38. ________
60. ________
16. ________
39. ________
61. ________
17. __________________
40. ________
STATION 13
__________________
41. ________
62. ________
19. __________________
STATION 9
63. ________
20. __________________
42. ________
64. ________
21. __________________
43. __________________
65. ________
STATION 5
44. ________
66. ________
18.
22. __________________
STATION 14 - REST
DESIGNER GENES
STATION 1
23. Homologs
STATION 10
1.
a
24. Down Syndrome
45. e
2.
Hh
25. Male
46. b
3.
c
26. F
47. c
4.
b
STATION 6
48. d
5.
a
27. F
STATION 11
STATION 2
28. T
49. DNA
6.
c
29. T
50. Nucleotides
7.
b
30. T
51. Sugar (Base or Phosphate)
8.
a
31. F
52. Base (Sugar or Phoshpate)
9.
b
32. F
53. Phosphate (Sugar or Base)
STATION 3
33. T
54. Guanine
10. pedigree
34. F
55. Hydrogen
11. 5
STATION 7 – Rest
56. TAAGCATCTAGTCCAGGTCA
12. 3
STATION 8
STATION 12
13. recessive
35. d
57. C
14. autosomal
36. a
58. C
15. 2
37. a
59. A
STATION 4
38. d
60. B
16. c
39. a
61. C
17. Male
40. a
STATION 13
18.
41. c
62. B
19. Hh, hh
STATION 9
63. C
20. 1:2:1
42. c
64. A
21. 3:1
43. Anaphase
65. D
STATION 5
44. b
66. C
STATION 14 - REST
Klinefelter’s Syndrome
22. Karyotype
DESIGNER GENES
2012 DESIGNER GENES C
Event Leader Instructions
Dear Event Leader:
Thank you so much for running the Designer Genes Event for the North Carolina Science Olympiad Regional
tournament.
Teams have up to 50 minutes to complete this event. No reference materials are allowed in this event. Teams
may bring non-programmable calculators with them into the event.
Tell the students they will have 3 minutes per station. Teams will not be allowed to go back to a station after
being at a station. Tell them some stations take longer than others and to wait patiently if they finish a station
prior to the 3 minutes. Tell them to turn over event station and begin. Tell them to ROTATE to next station
every 3 minutes.
1st tiebreaker: Most number correct for Station 3, questions 10-15.
2nd tiebreaker: Most number correct for Station 8, questions 35-41.
3rd tiebreaker: Most number correct for Station 10, questions 45-48.
4th tiebreaker: Most number correct for Station 11, questions 49-56.
DESIGNER GENES
STATION 1
1. In mice, the allele for black coats is dominant to the allele for white coats. If a heterozygous black mouse
is crossed with a homozygous white mouse, what percentage of black coated mice can be expected in
the first generation progeny?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 100%
d. 25%
e. 0%
2. In unicorns, short horns (h) are recessive to long horns (H). A short-horned female unicorn is mated to a
long-horned male unicorn. Six out of ten baby pigs have long horns. What is the genotype of the father?
3. Alternative forms of a gene that influence the same trait and are found at the same location in
homologous chromosomes are called:
a. Phenotypes
b. Genotypes
c. Alleles
d. Codominant
4. Which of the following is represented by word descriptions such as black and tall?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Genotype
Phenotype
Alleles
Homozygous
5. A recessive allele will only be expressed:
a.
b.
c.
d.
In homozygous recessives
In heterozygotes
In homozygous dominants
In Codominance
DESIGNER GENES
STATION 2
6. What type of cell is formed in this male organism at stage D?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Diploid
Quadploid
Haploid
Granddaughter Cell
7. How does the number of chromosomes in the cell at A typically compare to the number of
chromosomes in one of the cells at D?
a. D has twice as much as A
b. A has twice a much as D
c. A has half as much as D
d. A and D have the same number
8. When chromosomes are photographed to allow examination of their details, you are investigating a
a.
b.
c.
d.
Phenotype
Genotype
Karyotype
Holotype
9. If a person inherits two X chromosomes, this individual will be
a.
b.
c.
d.
Male
Female
Color-blind
Sterile
DESIGNER GENES
STATION 3
10. The figure above is called a ___________________.
11. How many children did the original parents have?
12. How many heterozygous females are shown?
13. Is the trait being displayed dominant or recessive?
14. Is the trait autosomal or X-linked?
15. What is the total number of children and grandchildren who have PKU in this family?
DESIGNER GENES
STATION 4
16. Scientifica olympiadis’s autosomal cells contain 116 chromosomes after DNA replicates during cell
division. What is its haploid count?
a. 58
b. 232
c. 29
d. 116
17. A baby is tested for genetic disorders and its genotype is found to be 44: XXY. What is the sex of the
child?
18. What is the common name of the disorder the baby has in question 17?
19. In hobbits, hairy feet (H) are dominant over hairless feet (h). A hairy-footed hobbit has children with a
hairless-footed hobbit and their children look as follows: Three have hairy feet and one has hairless feet.
What are the genotypes of the parents?
20. In hippogriffs, short wings (w) are recessive to long wings (W). Short beaks are dominant over long
beaks. If two hippogriffs heterozygous for long wings mate, what will be the genotype ratio of their
offspring?
21. What will be the phenotypic ratio of the offspring for the hippogriffs in question 20?
DESIGNER GENES
STATION 5
The photo contains all the chromosomes from a single human cell. Based on what you see, answer the following
questions.
22. The number, lengths and staining patterns of chromosomes depicted in this photo is called what?
23. Each number sits below two chromosomes that are the same size and shape.
What are these pairs of chromosomes called with respect to each other?
24. The individual has what genetic disorder? Either the specific name or generic name for the disorder is
acceptable?
25. What sex is the individual?
26. True or False. The chromosomes chould have come from a human sperm cell.
DESIGNER GENES
STATION 6
True or False
27. Meiosis commonly occurs in somatic cells.
28. Wild type usually refers to the dominant trait.
29. Dominant and recessive are terms used to describe phenotype.
30. Metaphase II is observed during meiosis but not mitosis.
31. Only females can express a recessive X-linked trait.
32. Any human cell can be used to generate a karyotype.
33. Hemophilia is an X-linked disease.
34. The paternal allele is the dominant allele.
DESIGNER GENES
STATION 7
YOU ARE AT A REST
STATION.
TAKE A DEEP BREATH
AND RELAX.
DESIGNER GENES
STATION 8
35. A stretch of DNA reads: 5’ ATGGCTACCAAATTG 3’. How does its complementary strand read?
a.
b.
c.
d.
5’ TACCGATGGTTTAAC 3’
3’ TAGCATGCTTAAAC 5’
5’ GTTAAACCATCGGTA 3’
3’ TACCGATGGTTTAAC 5’
36. The enzyme that adds nucleotides (A, T, C, G) to a new strand of DNA, using the old strand as a pattern is
called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
DNA polymerase
DNA helicase
DNA nuclease
DNA patternase
37. The type of RNA that carries the information to the ribosome for protein synthesis is known as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Messenger RNA
Transfer RNA
Ribosomal RNA
Carrier RNA
38. In the genetic code, three nucleotides are needed to specify:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Transcription
Replication
Translation
Initiation
39. The process of copying a gene from DNA and making RNA is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Transcription
Replication
Translation
Initiation
40. A codon is three nucleotides found on a molecule of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Messenger RNA
DNA
Transfer RNA
Ribosomal RNA
41. The synthesis of a protein molecule at the ribosome using messenger RNA is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Transcription
Replication
Translation
Initiation
DESIGNER GENES
STATION 9
42. Refer to the stages of mitosis in the figure below. What sequence of cells represents the correct
chronological sequence of events that occur during mitosis?
a. A, B, C, D
b. A, C, B, D
c. B, A D, C
d. B, C, D, A
A
B
C
43. What stage of mitosis is shown in the illustration below?
44. Meiosis results in
a. 2 haploid daughter cells
b. 4 haploid daughter cells
c. 2 diploid daughter cells
d. 4 diploid daughter cells
D
DESIGNER GENES
STATION 10
45. In a cross between a white-eyed female fruit fly and a red-eyed male, what percent of the female
offspring will have white eyes? (White eyes are X-linked, recessive)
a. 100%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. 0%
46. Hemophilia is due to an X-chromosome mutation. What will be the results of mating between a normal
(non-carrier) female and a hemophiliac male?
a. Half of daughters are normal and half of sons are hemophilic.
b. All sons are normal and all daughters are carriers.
c. Half of sons are normal and half are hemophilic; all daughters are carriers.
d. All daughters are normal and all sons are carriers
e. Half of daughters are hemophilic and half of daughters are carriers; all sons are normal.
47. A human female “carrier” who is heterozygous for the recessive, sex-linked trait causing red-green color
blindness, marries a normal male. What proportion of their male progeny will have red-green color
blindness?
a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 25%
e. 0%
48. Women have sex chromosomes of XX, and men have sex chromosomes of XY. Which of a man’s
grandparents could not be the source of any of the genes on his Y-chromosome?
a. Father’s Mother.
b. Mother’s Father.
c. Father’s Father.
d. Mother’s Mother, Mother’s Father, and Father’s Mother
e. Mother’s Mother.
DESIGNER GENES
STATION 11
49. What is the name of the structure pictured above?
50. What is the name for the individual monomers that make up this large macromolecule?
The individual monomers themselves consist of three functional components that make up the backbone of
the structure above; for questions 51-53 list the three backbone components, one on each line.
54. If the yellow structure above is Cytosine, what is the pink structure?
55. What types of bonds hold together the structure above?
56. A template strand of DNA reads: ATTCGTAGATCAGGTCCAGT. How does the complementary strand
read?
DESIGNER GENES
STATION 12
57. Which of the following is an advantage of single-primer PCR?
A. Less synthetic DNA is incorporated into the product.
B. Unknown sequence adjacent to a known sequence can be amplified with a single primer.
C. No primer-dimer artifacts.
58. Which end of a PCR primer can be extended by polymerase?
A. The 1' end.
B. The 2' end.
C. The 3' end.
D. The 4' end.
E. The 5' end.
59. Which nuclease activity does Taq polymerase NOT have?
A. 5' to 3'
B. 3' to 5’
60. Which of the following significantly inhibits PCR?
A. 12% sucrose
B. Wooden toothpicks made of birch.
C. 0.2mM cresol red.
61. What is the minimum time required for denaturation in rapid-cycle PCR?
A. One minute.
B. 30 seconds.
C. Less than one second.
DESIGNER GENES
STATION 13
62. RNA is synthesized on a DNA template in a process called ______, which utilizes the enzyme _______
A. translation, RNA polymerase
B. transcription, DNA polymerase
C. transcription, RNA polymerase
D. eplication, DNA polymerase
63. Which of the following is NOT a necessary component of translation?
A. Anticodon
B. mRNA
C. ligase
D. amino acid
64. Amino acids are joined together into a protein chain by which of the following?
A. transfer RNA
B. DNA polymerase
C. hydrogen bonds
D. messenger RNA
65. Once transcription has been completed, which of the following is NOT necessary for protein synethesis
to occur?
A. tRNA
B. ribosomes
C. mRNA
D. DNA
66. Okazaki fragments occur on the ___ and are bonded together by ______
A. leading strand, polymerase
B. mRNA, anticodons
C. lagging strand, ligase
D. tRNA, polymerase
DESIGNER GENES
STATION 14
YOU ARE AT A REST
STATION.
TAKE A DEEP BREATH
AND RELAX.