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DESIGNER GENES STATION 1 23. __________________ STATION 10 1. ________ 24. __________________ 45. ________ 2. ________ 25. __________________ 46. ________ 3. ________ 26. ________ 47. ________ 4. ________ STATION 6 48. ________ 5. ________ 27. ________ STATION 11 STATION 2 28. ________ 49. __________________ 6. ________ 29. ________ 50. __________________ 7. ________ 30. ________ 51. __________________ 8. ________ 31. ________ 52. __________________ 9. ________ 32. ________ 53. __________________ STATION 3 33. ________ 54. __________________ 10. __________________ 34. ________ 55. __________________ 11. ________ STATION 7 – REST 56. __________________ 12. ________ STATION 8 STATION 12 13. __________________ 35. ________ 57. ________ 14. __________________ 36. ________ 58. ________ 15. ________ 37. ________ 59. ________ STATION 4 38. ________ 60. ________ 16. ________ 39. ________ 61. ________ 17. __________________ 40. ________ STATION 13 __________________ 41. ________ 62. ________ 19. __________________ STATION 9 63. ________ 20. __________________ 42. ________ 64. ________ 21. __________________ 43. __________________ 65. ________ STATION 5 44. ________ 66. ________ 18. 22. __________________ STATION 14 - REST DESIGNER GENES STATION 1 23. Homologs STATION 10 1. a 24. Down Syndrome 45. e 2. Hh 25. Male 46. b 3. c 26. F 47. c 4. b STATION 6 48. d 5. a 27. F STATION 11 STATION 2 28. T 49. DNA 6. c 29. T 50. Nucleotides 7. b 30. T 51. Sugar (Base or Phosphate) 8. a 31. F 52. Base (Sugar or Phoshpate) 9. b 32. F 53. Phosphate (Sugar or Base) STATION 3 33. T 54. Guanine 10. pedigree 34. F 55. Hydrogen 11. 5 STATION 7 – Rest 56. TAAGCATCTAGTCCAGGTCA 12. 3 STATION 8 STATION 12 13. recessive 35. d 57. C 14. autosomal 36. a 58. C 15. 2 37. a 59. A STATION 4 38. d 60. B 16. c 39. a 61. C 17. Male 40. a STATION 13 18. 41. c 62. B 19. Hh, hh STATION 9 63. C 20. 1:2:1 42. c 64. A 21. 3:1 43. Anaphase 65. D STATION 5 44. b 66. C STATION 14 - REST Klinefelter’s Syndrome 22. Karyotype DESIGNER GENES 2012 DESIGNER GENES C Event Leader Instructions Dear Event Leader: Thank you so much for running the Designer Genes Event for the North Carolina Science Olympiad Regional tournament. Teams have up to 50 minutes to complete this event. No reference materials are allowed in this event. Teams may bring non-programmable calculators with them into the event. Tell the students they will have 3 minutes per station. Teams will not be allowed to go back to a station after being at a station. Tell them some stations take longer than others and to wait patiently if they finish a station prior to the 3 minutes. Tell them to turn over event station and begin. Tell them to ROTATE to next station every 3 minutes. 1st tiebreaker: Most number correct for Station 3, questions 10-15. 2nd tiebreaker: Most number correct for Station 8, questions 35-41. 3rd tiebreaker: Most number correct for Station 10, questions 45-48. 4th tiebreaker: Most number correct for Station 11, questions 49-56. DESIGNER GENES STATION 1 1. In mice, the allele for black coats is dominant to the allele for white coats. If a heterozygous black mouse is crossed with a homozygous white mouse, what percentage of black coated mice can be expected in the first generation progeny? a. 50% b. 75% c. 100% d. 25% e. 0% 2. In unicorns, short horns (h) are recessive to long horns (H). A short-horned female unicorn is mated to a long-horned male unicorn. Six out of ten baby pigs have long horns. What is the genotype of the father? 3. Alternative forms of a gene that influence the same trait and are found at the same location in homologous chromosomes are called: a. Phenotypes b. Genotypes c. Alleles d. Codominant 4. Which of the following is represented by word descriptions such as black and tall? a. b. c. d. Genotype Phenotype Alleles Homozygous 5. A recessive allele will only be expressed: a. b. c. d. In homozygous recessives In heterozygotes In homozygous dominants In Codominance DESIGNER GENES STATION 2 6. What type of cell is formed in this male organism at stage D? a. b. c. d. Diploid Quadploid Haploid Granddaughter Cell 7. How does the number of chromosomes in the cell at A typically compare to the number of chromosomes in one of the cells at D? a. D has twice as much as A b. A has twice a much as D c. A has half as much as D d. A and D have the same number 8. When chromosomes are photographed to allow examination of their details, you are investigating a a. b. c. d. Phenotype Genotype Karyotype Holotype 9. If a person inherits two X chromosomes, this individual will be a. b. c. d. Male Female Color-blind Sterile DESIGNER GENES STATION 3 10. The figure above is called a ___________________. 11. How many children did the original parents have? 12. How many heterozygous females are shown? 13. Is the trait being displayed dominant or recessive? 14. Is the trait autosomal or X-linked? 15. What is the total number of children and grandchildren who have PKU in this family? DESIGNER GENES STATION 4 16. Scientifica olympiadis’s autosomal cells contain 116 chromosomes after DNA replicates during cell division. What is its haploid count? a. 58 b. 232 c. 29 d. 116 17. A baby is tested for genetic disorders and its genotype is found to be 44: XXY. What is the sex of the child? 18. What is the common name of the disorder the baby has in question 17? 19. In hobbits, hairy feet (H) are dominant over hairless feet (h). A hairy-footed hobbit has children with a hairless-footed hobbit and their children look as follows: Three have hairy feet and one has hairless feet. What are the genotypes of the parents? 20. In hippogriffs, short wings (w) are recessive to long wings (W). Short beaks are dominant over long beaks. If two hippogriffs heterozygous for long wings mate, what will be the genotype ratio of their offspring? 21. What will be the phenotypic ratio of the offspring for the hippogriffs in question 20? DESIGNER GENES STATION 5 The photo contains all the chromosomes from a single human cell. Based on what you see, answer the following questions. 22. The number, lengths and staining patterns of chromosomes depicted in this photo is called what? 23. Each number sits below two chromosomes that are the same size and shape. What are these pairs of chromosomes called with respect to each other? 24. The individual has what genetic disorder? Either the specific name or generic name for the disorder is acceptable? 25. What sex is the individual? 26. True or False. The chromosomes chould have come from a human sperm cell. DESIGNER GENES STATION 6 True or False 27. Meiosis commonly occurs in somatic cells. 28. Wild type usually refers to the dominant trait. 29. Dominant and recessive are terms used to describe phenotype. 30. Metaphase II is observed during meiosis but not mitosis. 31. Only females can express a recessive X-linked trait. 32. Any human cell can be used to generate a karyotype. 33. Hemophilia is an X-linked disease. 34. The paternal allele is the dominant allele. DESIGNER GENES STATION 7 YOU ARE AT A REST STATION. TAKE A DEEP BREATH AND RELAX. DESIGNER GENES STATION 8 35. A stretch of DNA reads: 5’ ATGGCTACCAAATTG 3’. How does its complementary strand read? a. b. c. d. 5’ TACCGATGGTTTAAC 3’ 3’ TAGCATGCTTAAAC 5’ 5’ GTTAAACCATCGGTA 3’ 3’ TACCGATGGTTTAAC 5’ 36. The enzyme that adds nucleotides (A, T, C, G) to a new strand of DNA, using the old strand as a pattern is called: a. b. c. d. DNA polymerase DNA helicase DNA nuclease DNA patternase 37. The type of RNA that carries the information to the ribosome for protein synthesis is known as: a. b. c. d. Messenger RNA Transfer RNA Ribosomal RNA Carrier RNA 38. In the genetic code, three nucleotides are needed to specify: a. b. c. d. Transcription Replication Translation Initiation 39. The process of copying a gene from DNA and making RNA is: a. b. c. d. Transcription Replication Translation Initiation 40. A codon is three nucleotides found on a molecule of: a. b. c. d. Messenger RNA DNA Transfer RNA Ribosomal RNA 41. The synthesis of a protein molecule at the ribosome using messenger RNA is called: a. b. c. d. Transcription Replication Translation Initiation DESIGNER GENES STATION 9 42. Refer to the stages of mitosis in the figure below. What sequence of cells represents the correct chronological sequence of events that occur during mitosis? a. A, B, C, D b. A, C, B, D c. B, A D, C d. B, C, D, A A B C 43. What stage of mitosis is shown in the illustration below? 44. Meiosis results in a. 2 haploid daughter cells b. 4 haploid daughter cells c. 2 diploid daughter cells d. 4 diploid daughter cells D DESIGNER GENES STATION 10 45. In a cross between a white-eyed female fruit fly and a red-eyed male, what percent of the female offspring will have white eyes? (White eyes are X-linked, recessive) a. 100% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% e. 0% 46. Hemophilia is due to an X-chromosome mutation. What will be the results of mating between a normal (non-carrier) female and a hemophiliac male? a. Half of daughters are normal and half of sons are hemophilic. b. All sons are normal and all daughters are carriers. c. Half of sons are normal and half are hemophilic; all daughters are carriers. d. All daughters are normal and all sons are carriers e. Half of daughters are hemophilic and half of daughters are carriers; all sons are normal. 47. A human female “carrier” who is heterozygous for the recessive, sex-linked trait causing red-green color blindness, marries a normal male. What proportion of their male progeny will have red-green color blindness? a. 100% b. 75% c. 50% d. 25% e. 0% 48. Women have sex chromosomes of XX, and men have sex chromosomes of XY. Which of a man’s grandparents could not be the source of any of the genes on his Y-chromosome? a. Father’s Mother. b. Mother’s Father. c. Father’s Father. d. Mother’s Mother, Mother’s Father, and Father’s Mother e. Mother’s Mother. DESIGNER GENES STATION 11 49. What is the name of the structure pictured above? 50. What is the name for the individual monomers that make up this large macromolecule? The individual monomers themselves consist of three functional components that make up the backbone of the structure above; for questions 51-53 list the three backbone components, one on each line. 54. If the yellow structure above is Cytosine, what is the pink structure? 55. What types of bonds hold together the structure above? 56. A template strand of DNA reads: ATTCGTAGATCAGGTCCAGT. How does the complementary strand read? DESIGNER GENES STATION 12 57. Which of the following is an advantage of single-primer PCR? A. Less synthetic DNA is incorporated into the product. B. Unknown sequence adjacent to a known sequence can be amplified with a single primer. C. No primer-dimer artifacts. 58. Which end of a PCR primer can be extended by polymerase? A. The 1' end. B. The 2' end. C. The 3' end. D. The 4' end. E. The 5' end. 59. Which nuclease activity does Taq polymerase NOT have? A. 5' to 3' B. 3' to 5’ 60. Which of the following significantly inhibits PCR? A. 12% sucrose B. Wooden toothpicks made of birch. C. 0.2mM cresol red. 61. What is the minimum time required for denaturation in rapid-cycle PCR? A. One minute. B. 30 seconds. C. Less than one second. DESIGNER GENES STATION 13 62. RNA is synthesized on a DNA template in a process called ______, which utilizes the enzyme _______ A. translation, RNA polymerase B. transcription, DNA polymerase C. transcription, RNA polymerase D. eplication, DNA polymerase 63. Which of the following is NOT a necessary component of translation? A. Anticodon B. mRNA C. ligase D. amino acid 64. Amino acids are joined together into a protein chain by which of the following? A. transfer RNA B. DNA polymerase C. hydrogen bonds D. messenger RNA 65. Once transcription has been completed, which of the following is NOT necessary for protein synethesis to occur? A. tRNA B. ribosomes C. mRNA D. DNA 66. Okazaki fragments occur on the ___ and are bonded together by ______ A. leading strand, polymerase B. mRNA, anticodons C. lagging strand, ligase D. tRNA, polymerase DESIGNER GENES STATION 14 YOU ARE AT A REST STATION. TAKE A DEEP BREATH AND RELAX.