Download Unit 8 Test (52

Unit 8 Environmental Test for Savage Science AP Biology. (52-55)
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. Which of the following statements about ecology is incorrect?
A) Ecologists may study populations and communities of organisms. B) Ecological studies may
involve the use of models and computers. C) Ecology is a discipline that is independent from
natural selection and evolutionary history. D) Ecology spans increasingly comprehensive levels
of organization, from individuals to ecosystems. E) Ecology is the study of the interactions
between biotic and abiotic aspects of the environment.
2. Which of the following levels of organization is arranged in the correct sequence from most to
least inclusive?
A) community, ecosystem, individual, population B) ecosystem, community, population, individual
C) population, ecosystem, individual, community D) individual, population, community, ecosystem
E) individual, community, population, ecosystem
3. Ecology as a discipline directly deals with all of the following levels of biological organization
except
A) population. B) cellular. C) organismal. D) ecosystem. E) community.
4. Which statement best contrasts environmentalism with ecology?
A) Ecology is the study of the environment; environmentalism is the study of ecology.
B) Ecology provides scientific understanding of living things and their environment;
environmentalism is more about conservation and preservation of life on Earth.
C) Environmentalists are only involved in politics and advocating for protecting nature;
ecologists are only involved in scientific investigations of the environment. D) Ecologists study
organisms in environments that have been undisturbed by human activities; environmentalists
study the effects of human activities on organisms. E) Environmentalism is devoted to applied
ecological science; ecology is concerned with basic/theoretical ecological science.
5. Studying species transplants is a way that ecologists
A) determine the abundance of a species in a specified area. B) determine the distribution of
a species in a specified area. C) develop mathematical models for distribution and abundance
of organisms. D) determine if dispersal is a key factor in limiting distribution of organisms.
E) consolidate a landscape region into a single ecosystem.
6. Which of the following abiotic factors has the greatest influence on the metabolic rates of
plants and animals?
A) water B) wind C) temperature D) rocks and soil E) disturbances
7. Which of the following statements about light in aquatic environments is correct?
A) Water selectively reflects and absorbs certain wavelengths of light. B) Photosynthetic
organisms that live in deep water probably use red light. C) Longer wavelengths penetrate to
greater depths. D) Light penetration seldom limits the distribution of photosynthetic species.
E) Most photosynthetic organisms avoid the surface where the light is not too intense.
8. Turnover of water in temperate lakes during the spring and fall is made possible by which of
the following?
A) warm, less dense water layered at the top B) cold, more dense water layered at the bottom
C) a distinct thermocline between less dense warm water and cold, dense water. D) the density
of water changes as seasonal temperatures change. E) currents generated by nektonic animals
9. Which of the following causes Earth's seasons?
A) global air circulation B) global wind patterns C) ocean currents D) changes in Earth's
distance from the sun E) the tilt of Earth's axis
10. The success with which plants extend their range northward following glacial retreat is best
determined by
A) whether there is simultaneous migration of herbivores. B) their tolerance to shade.
C) their seed dispersal rate. D) their size. E) their growth rate.
11. Species introduced to new geographic locations
A) are usually successful in colonizing the area. B) always spread because they encounter no
natural predators. C) increase the diversity and therefore the stability of the ecosystem.
D) can out-compete and displace native species for biotic and abiotic resources. E) are always
considered pests by ecologists.
12. Phytoplankton is most frequently found in which of the following zones?
A) oligotrophic B) photic C) benthic D) abyssal E) aphotic
13. Probably the most important factor(s) affecting the distribution of biomes is (are)
A) wind and ocean water current patterns. B) species diversity. C) proximity to large bodies
of water D) climate. E) day length and rainfall.
14. In which of the following terrestrial biome pairs are both dependent upon periodic burning?
A) tundra and coniferous forest B) chaparral and savanna C) desert and savanna D) tropical
forest and temperate broadleaf forest E) grassland and tundra
15. Tropical grasslands with scattered trees are also known as
A) taigas. B) tundras. C) savannas. D) chaparrals. E) temperate plains.
16. Which type of biome would most likely occur in a climate with mild, rainy winters and hot, dry
summers?
A) desert B) taiga C) temperate grassland D) chaparral E) savanna
17. In which community would organisms most likely have adaptations enabling them to respond to
different photoperiods?
A) tropical forest B) coral reef C) savanna D) temperate forest E) abyssal
18. The growing season would generally be shortest in which of the following biomes?
A) savanna B) temperate broadleaf forest C) temperate grassland D) tropical rain forest
E) coniferous forest
19. Trees are not usually found in the tundra biome because of
A) insufficient annual precipitation. B) acidic soils. C) extreme winter temperatures.
D) overbrowsing by musk ox and caribou. E) permafrost.
20. Which of the following is characteristic of most terrestrial biomes?
A) annual average rainfall in excess of 250 cm B) a distribution predicted almost entirely by
rock and soil patterns C) clear boundaries between adjacent biomes D) vegetation
demonstrating stratification E) cold winter months
21. Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with the description of its climate?
A) savanna-low temperature, precipitation uniform during the year B) tundra-long summers,
mild winters C) temperate broadleaf forest-relatively short growing season, mild winters
D) temperate grasslands-relatively warm winters, most rainfall in summer E) tropical forestsnearly constant day length and temperature
22. Suppose the number of bird species is determined mainly by the number of vertical strata
found in the environment. If so, in which of the following biomes would you find the greatest
number of bird species?
A) tropical rain forest B) savanna C) desert D) temperate broadleaf forest E) temperate
grassland
23. An ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square mile in one
woodlot and 20 per square mile on another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing?
A) density B) dispersion C) carrying capacity D) quadrats E) range
24. You are observing a population of lizards when you notice that the number of adults has
increased and is higher than previously observed. One explanation for such an observation would
include
A) reduction in death rate. B) increased immigration. C) increased emigration. D) decreased
emigration. E) increased birth rate.
25. The most common kind of dispersion in nature is
A) clumped. B) random. C) uniform. D) indeterminate. E) dispersive.
26. Which of the following groups would be most likely to exhibit uniform dispersion?
A) red squirrels, who actively defend territories B) cattails, which grow primarily at edges of
lakes and streams C) dwarf mistletoes, which parasitize particular species of forest tree
D) moths in a city at night E) lake trout, which seek out deep water
27. A table listing such items as age, observed number of organisms alive each year, and life
expectancy is known as a (an)
A) life table. B) mortality table. C) survivorship table. D) rate table. E) insurance table.
28. Life tables are most useful in determining which of the following?
A) carrying capacity B) the fate of a cohort of newborn organisms throughout their lives
C) immigration and emigration rates D) population dispersion patterns E) reproductive rates
29. Demography is the study of
A) the vital statistics of populations and how they change over time. B) death and emigration
rates of a population at any moment in time. C) the survival patterns of a population. D) life
expectancy of individuals within a population. E) reproductive rates of a population during a
given year.
30. Natural selection has led to the evolution of diverse natural history strategies, which have in
common
A) many offspring per reproductive episode. B) limitation only by density-independent limiting
factors. C) adaptation to stable environments. D) maximum lifetime reproductive success.
E) relatively large offspring.
31. Natural selection involves energetic trade-offs between
A) choosing how many offspring to produce over the course of a lifetime and how long to live.
B) producing large numbers of gametes when employing internal fertilization versus fewer
numbers of gametes when employing external fertilization. C) the emigration of individuals
when they are no longer reproductively capable or committing suicide. D) increasing the
number of individuals produced during each reproductive episode with a corresponding decrease
in parental care. E) high survival rates of offspring and the cost of parental care.
Keep going…..there is more test it just wouldn’t fit here 
Please read the paragraph below and review Figure 53.2 to answer the following questions.
Researchers in the Netherlands studied the effects of parental caregiving in European kestrels
over 5 years. The researchers transferred chicks among nests to produce reduced broods
(three or four chicks), normal broods (five or six), and enlarged broods (seven or eight). They
then measured the percentage of male and female parent birds that survived the following
winter. (Both males and females provide care for chicks.)
Brood Size Manipulations in the Kestrel: Effects on Offspring and Parent Survival
Figure 53.2
32. Which of the following is a conclusion that can be drawn from this graph?
A) Female survivability is more negatively affected by larger brood size than is male
survivability. B) Male survivability decreased by 50% between reduced and enlarged brood
treatments. C) Both males and females had increases in daily hunting with the enlarged brood
size. D) There appears to be a negative correlation between brood enlargements and parental
survival. E) Chicks in reduced brood treatment received more food, weight gain, and reduced
mortality.
33. In 2005, the United States had a population of approximately 295,000,000 people. If the birth
rate was 13 births for every 1,000 people, approximately how many births occurred in the
United States in 2005?
A) 3,800 B) 38,000 C) 380,000 D) 3,800,000 E) 38,000,000
34. Exponential growth of a population is represented by dN/dt =
A)
(K ! N)
(N ! K)
rN
B) rN C) rN (K + N) D) rN
E) rN
K
K
K
35. Logistic growth of a population is represented by dN/dt =
A)
(K ! N)
(N ! K)
rN
B) rN C) rN (K + N) D) rN
E) rN
K
K
K
36. As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following is predicted by the logistic
equation?
A) The growth rate will not change. B) The growth rate will approach zero. C) The population
will show an Allee effect. D) The population will increase exponentially. E) The carrying
capacity of the environment will increase.
37. The life history traits favored by selection are most likely to vary with
A) fluctuations in K. B) the shape of the J curve. C) the maximum size of a population.
D) population density. E) population dispersion.
38. Carrying capacity is
A) seldom reached by marine producers and consumers because of the vast resources of the
ocean. B) the maximum population size that a particular environment can support. C) fixed for
most species over most of their range most of the time. D) determined by density and
dispersion data. E) the term used to describe the stress a population undergoes due to limited
resources.
39. Which of the following graphs illustrates the growth curve of a small population of rodents that
has grown to reach a static carrying capacity?
A)
D)
B)
C)
E)
40. Which of the following is a density-independent factor limiting human population growth?
A) social pressure for birth control B) earthquakes C) plagues D) famines E) pollution
The following questions refer to this figure, which depicts the age structure of three
populations.
41. Which population is in the process of decreasing?
A) I B) II C) III D) I and II E) II and III
42. Which population appears to be stable?
A) I B) II C) III D) I and II E) II and III
43. Assuming these age-structure diagrams describe human populations, which population is likely to
experience zero population growth (ZPG)?
A) I B) II C) III D) I and II E) II and III
44. An ecological footprint is a construct that is useful
A) for a person living in a developed nation to consider to make better choices when using global
food and energy resources. B) for a person living in a developing country to see how much of
the world's resources are left for him/her. C) in converting human foods' meat biomass to
plant biomass. D) in making predictions about the global carrying capacity of humans. E) in
determining which nations produce the least amount of carbon dioxide from the burning of
fossil fuels.
45. A population's carrying capacity
A) can be accurately calculated using the logistic growth model. B) generally remains constant
over time. C) increases as the per capita growth rate (r) decreases. D) may change as
environmental conditions change. E) can never be exceeded.
46. A recent study of ecological footprints (described in the text) concluded that
A) Earth's carrying capacity for humans is about 10 billion. B) Earth's carrying capacity would
increase if per capita meat consumption increased. C) current demand by industrialized
countries for resources is much smaller than the ecological footprint of those countries.
D) the ecological footprint of the United States is large because per capita resource use is
high. E) it is not possible for technological improvements to increase Earth's carrying capacity
for humans.
47. According to the competitive exclusion principle, two species cannot continue to occupy the
same
A) habitat. B) niche. C) territory. D) range. E) biome.
48. The sum total of an organism's interaction with the biotic and abiotic resources of its
environment is called its
A) habitat. B) logistic growth. C) biotic potential. D) carrying capacity. E) ecological niche.
Use the following diagram of Joseph Connell's study of barnacle distribution in Scotland to
answer the following two questions.
Figure 54.1
49. Which of the following is a good description of an ecological niche?
A) the "address" of an organism B) synonymous with an organism's specific trophic level
C) how an organism uses the biotic and abiotic resources in the community D) the organism's
role in recycling nutrients in its habitat E) the interactions of the organism with other
members of the community
50. Which of the following best describes resource partitioning?
A) Competitive exclusion results in the success of the superior species. B) Slight variations in
niche allow similar species to coexist. C) Two species can coevolve to share the same niche.
D) Differential resource utilization results in the decrease in species diversity E) A climax
community is reached when no new niches are available.
51. Which of the following is an example of cryptic coloration?
A) bands on a coral snake B) brown color of tree bark C) markings of a viceroy butterfly
D) colors of an insect-pollinated flower E) a "walking stick" insect that resembles a twig
52. Which of the following is an example of Müllerian mimicry?
A) two species of unpalatable butterfly that have the same color pattern B) a day-flying
hawkmoth that looks like a wasp C) a chameleon that changes its color to look like a dead leaf
D) two species of rattlesnakes that both rattle their tails E) two species of moths with wing
spots that look like owl's eyes
53. Which of the following is an example of Batesian mimicry?
A) an insect that resembles a twig B) a butterfly that resembles a leaf C) a non-venomous
snake that looks like a venomous snake D) a fawn with fur coloring that camouflages it in the
forest environment E) a snapping turtle that uses its tongue to mimic a worm, thus attracting
fish
54. Which of the following is an example of aposematic coloration?
A) stripes of a skunk B) eye color in humans C) green color of a plant D) colors of an insectpollinated flower E) a katydid whose wings look like a dead leaf
55. Which of the following terms best describes the interaction between termites and the
protozoans that feed in their gut?
A) commensalism B) mutualism C) competitive exclusion D) ectoparasitism
E) endoparasitism
56. During the course of the formation of a parasite/host relationship, a critical first step in this
evolution would be
A) changing the behavior of the host or intermediate host. B) developing asexual reproduction.
C) deriving nourishment without killing the host. D) starting as an ectoparasite and then later
becoming an endoparasite. E) utilizing both heterotropic and autotrophic nutrition during
dormancy.
57. The species richness of a community refers to the
A) complexity of the food web. B) number of different species. C) the bottom-heavy shape
of the energy pyramid. D) relative numbers of individuals in each species. E) total number of
all organisms.
Use the following diagram of a hypothetical food web to answer the following questions. The
arrows represent the transfer of food energy between the various trophic levels.
Figure 54.2
58. Which letter represents an organism that could be a producer?
A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
59. According to the nonequilibrium model,
A) communities will remain in a mature state if there are no human disturbances. B) community
structure remains constant in the absence of interspecific competition. C) communities are
assemblages of closely linked species that are irreparably changed by disturbance.
D) interspecific interactions induce changes in community composition over time.
E) communities are constantly changing after being influenced by disturbances.
60. Zoonotic disease
A) describes sub-organismal pathogens such as viruses, viroids, and prions. B) is caused by
pathogens that are transferred from other animals to humans by direct contact or by means of
a vector. C) can only be spread from animals to humans through direct contact. D) can only be
transferred from animals to humans by means of an intermediate host. E) is too specific to
study at the community level, and studies of zoonotic pathogens are relegated to organismal
biology.
61. The feeding relationships among the species in a community determine the community's
A) secondary succession. B) ecological niche. C) trophic structure. D) species-area curve.
E) species richness.
62. The principle of competitive exclusion states that
A) two species cannot coexist in the same habitat. B) competition between two species always
causes extinction or emigration of one species. C) competition in a population promotes survival
of the best-adapted individuals. D) two species that have exactly the same niche cannot
coexist in a community. E) two species will stop reproducing until one species leaves the
habitat.
63. Keystone predators can maintain species diversity in a community if they
A) competitively exclude other predators. B) prey on the community's dominant species.
C) allow immigration of other predators. D) reduce the number of disruptions in the
community. E) prey only on the least abundant species in the community.
64. Food chains are sometimes short because
A) only a single species of herbivore feeds on each plant species. B) local extinction of a
species causes extinction of the other species in its food chain. C) most of the energy in a
trophic level is lost as it passes to the next higher level. D) predator species tend to be less
diverse and less abundant than prey species. E) most producers are inedible.
65. Based on the intermediate disturbance hypothesis, a community's species diversity is
A) increased by frequent massive disturbance. B) increased by stable conditions with no
disturbance. C) increased by moderate levels of disturbance. D) increased when humans
intervene to eliminate disturbance. E) increased by intensive disturbance by humans.
66. Which of the following could qualify as a top-down control on a grassland community?
A) limitation of plant biomass by rainfall amount B) influence of temperature on competition
among plants C) influence of soil nutrients on the abundance of grasses versus wildflowers
D) effect of grazing intensity by bison on plant species diversity E) effect of humidity on
plant growth rates
67. According to the equilibrium model of island biogeography, species richness would be greatest
on an island that is
A) small and remote. B) large and remote. C) large and close to a mainland. D) small and close
to a mainland. E) environmentally homogeneous.
68. How are matter and energy used in ecosystems?
A) Matter is cycled through ecosystems; energy is not. B) Energy is cycled through
ecosystems; matter is not. C) Energy can be converted into matter; matter cannot be
converted into energy. D) Matter can be converted into energy; energy cannot be converted
into matter. E) Matter is used in ecosystems; energy is not
69. To recycle nutrients, the minimum an ecosystem must have is
A) producers. B) producers and decomposers. C) producers, primary consumers, and
decomposers. D) producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, and decomposers.
E) producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, top carnivores, and decomposers.
70. Which of the following terms encompasses all of the others?
A) heterotrophs B) herbivores C) carnivores D) primary consumers E) secondary consumers
71. Of the following pairs, which are the main decomposers in a terrestrial ecosystem?
A) fungi and prokaryotes B) plants and mosses C) insects and mollusks D) mammals and birds
E) annelids and nematodes
72. Subtraction of which of the following will convert gross primary productivity into net primary
productivity?
A) the energy contained in the standing crop B) the energy used by heterotrophs in
respiration C) the energy used by autotrophs in respiration D) the energy fixed by
photosynthesis E) all solar energy
73. The difference between net and gross primary productivity would likely be greatest for
A) phytoplankton in the ocean. B) corn plants in a farmer's field. C) prairie grasses. D) an
oak tree in a forest. E) sphagnum moss in a bog.
74. Which of these ecosystems accounts for the largest amount of Earth's net primary
productivity?
A) tundra B) savanna C) salt marsh D) open ocean E) tropical rain forest
75. Which of these ecosystems has the highest net primary productivity per square meter?
A) savanna B) open ocean C) boreal forest D) tropical rain forest E) temperate forest
76. Aquatic primary productivity is most limited by which of the following?
A) light and nutrient availability B) predation by fishes C) increased pressure with depth
D) disease E) temperature
77. A porcupine eats 3,000 J of plant material. 1,600 J is indigestible and is eliminated as feces.
1,300 J are used in cellular respiration. What is the approximate production efficiency of this
animal?
A) .03% B) 1% C) 3% D) 10% E) 30%
78. Which of the following lists of organisms is ranked in correct order from lowest to highest
percent in production efficiency?
A) mammals, fish, insects B) insects, fish, mammals C) fish, insects, mammals D) insects,
mammals, fish E) mammals, insects, fish
79. The amount of chemical energy in consumers' food that is converted to their own new biomass
during a given time period is known as which of the following?
A) biomass B) standing crop C) biomagnification D) primary production E) secondary
production
80. Trophic efficiency is
A) the ratio of net secondary production to assimilation of primary production. B) the
percentage of production transferred from one trophic level to the next. C) a measure of how
nutrients are cycled from one trophic level to the next. D) usually greater than production
efficiencies. E) about 90% in most cosystems
81. Which of the following is primarily responsible for limiting the number of trophic levels in most
ecosystems?
A) Many primary and higher-order consumers are opportunistic feeders. B) Decomposers
compete with higher-order consumers for nutrients and energy. C) Nutrient cycles involve
both abiotic and biotic components of ecosystems. D) Nutrient cycling rates tend to be limited
by decomposition. E) Energy transfer between tropic levels is in almost all cases less than 20%
efficient.
82. Which of the following is most likely a tertiary consumer?
A) hawk B) snake C) shrew D) grasshopper E) grass
83. Which of the following probably contains the highest concentration of toxic pollutants
(biological magnification)?
A) hawk B) snake C) shrew D) grasshopper E) grass
84. Which of the following describes carbon dioxide, methane, and water vapor re-reflecting
infrared radiation back toward Earth?
A) depletion of atmospheric ozone B) turnover C) biological magnification D) greenhouse
effect E) eutrophication
85. Which of the following is caused by excessive nutrient runoff into lakes?
A) depletion of atmospheric ozone B) turnover C) biological magnification D) greenhouse
effect E) eutrophication
86. Which of the following organisms is incorrectly paired with its trophic level?
A) cyanobacterium – primary producer B) grasshopper – primary consumer C) zooplankton –
primary producer D) eagle – tertiary consumer E) fungus – detritivore
87. Which of these ecosystems has the lowest net primary production per square meter?
A) a salt marsh B) an open ocean C) a coral reef D) a grassland E) a tropical rain forest
Short Answer
Use the survivorship curves in Figure 53.1 to answer the following questions.
Figure 53.1
88. Which curve best describes survivorship in marine mollusks?
89. Which curve best describes survivorship in elephants?
90. Which curve best describes survivorship in a marine crustacean that molts?
91. Which curve best describes survivorship in humans who live in developed nations?
92. Which curve best describes survivorship in songbirds?
93. Which curve best describes survivorship that is independent of age?
I have serious space problems with this test. There are a couple more questions but, because
of my picture, I could not no way no how fit them on this page. 
Use the following diagram of five islands formed at around the same time near a particular
mainland and MacArthur and Wilson's island biogeography principles to answer the following
questions.
Figure 54.4
94. Which island would likely have the greatest species diversity?
95. Which island would likely exhibit the most impoverished species diversity?