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Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________
Exam Review F2011
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1. What is one advantage of reflecting telescopes?
a. They use smaller mirrors.
c. They touch up images.
b. They focus perfect images.
d. They have two focal points.
2. What is each color of light on the electromagnetic spectrum?
a. different magnetic element
b. a different electrical element
c. a different atmosphere
d. a different wavelength of electromagnetic radiation
3. Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation is blocked by the Earth’s atmosphere?
a. X rays
c. infrared light
b. microwaves
d. visible light
4. Why do astronomers put telescopes in space?
a. to reduce air pollution
b. to get closer to objects in space
c. to avoid interference from the Earth’s atmosphere
d. to avoid noise pollution
5. What does a telescope collect from space and focus for closer observation?
a. magnetic particles
c. lenses
b. electromagnetic radiation
d. wavelengths
6. What makes up the electromagnetic spectrum?
a. all colors of visible light
b. all colors of invisible light
c. all of the wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation
d. microwaves, gamma rays, and X rays
7. Where do scientists put telescopes to avoid interference from Earth’s atmosphere?
a. in deserts
c. in space
b. in valleys
d. by cities
8. What does the Earth’s atmosphere do to most types of electromagnetic radiation?
a. blocks them
c. stretches them
b. absorbs them
d. freezes them
9. How does the Earth’s atmosphere affect starlight?
a. It blocks it.
c. It causes it to shimmer and blur.
b. It stretches it.
d. It causes it to change colors.
10. Which of the following telescopes is the largest?
a. a reflecting telescope
c. an X-ray telescope
b. a refracting telescope
d. the VLA radio telescope
11. Which pair of factors contributes to rapid chemical weathering in an area?
a. hot and dry.
c. cold and dry.
b. warm and wet.
d. cold and wet.
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ID: A
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 12. What is the soil’s ability to hold nutrients and to supply nutrients to a plant called?
a. humus
c. soil fertility
b. soil texture
d. soil structure
____ 13. Which climate has the most productive soil for raising crops?
a. tropical rain forest
c. temperate forest and grassland
b. desert
d. arctic
____ 14. What kind of soil remains with its parent rock?
a. residual soil
c. dependent soil
b. transported soil
d. loafer soil
____ 15. Which term refers to the removal of substances from soil that can be dissolved in water?
a. leaching.
c. horizons.
b. infiltration.
d. transporting.
____ 16. Which soil quality refers to its ability to be worked for farming?
a. soil consistency
c. soil fertility
b. soil texture
d. soil structure
____ 17. What quality of sol is based on the relative size of soil particles?
a. residual soil.
c. soil texture
b. soil structure.
d. soil particles.
____ 18. Which soil property influences how nutrients dissolve?
a. soil pH
c. soil fertility
b. soil texture
d. soil infiltration
____ 19. Why is the topsoil of tropical rain forests thin and nutrient poor?
a. heaving leaching and high nutrient demand
b. little precipitation and low temperature
c. slow chemical weathering and humus formation
d. b and c are both correct
____ 20. What is the organic material formed in soil from the decayed remains of plants and animals called?
a. bedrock
c. residual soil
b. parent rock
d. humus
____ 21. Which of the following is a type of frost action?
a. abrasion
c. ice wedging
b. oxidation
d. gravity
____ 22. Which of the following types of chemical weathering causes a karst landscape, such as a cavern?
a. lichens
c. acids in groundwater
b. acid precipitation
d. water
____ 23. How do lichens slowly break down a rock?
a. by abrasion
c. by ice wedging
b. by mechanical weathering
d. by chemical weathering
____ 24. Which of these is most likely to experience oxidation?
a. tennis ball
c. wooden fence
b. aluminum can
d. bicycle tire
____ 25. A process by which softer, less weather-resistant rocks wear away and leave harder, more weather-resistant
rocks behind is called
a. differential weathering.
c. chemical weathering.
b. mechanical weathering.
d. ice wedging.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 26. Small rocks weather more quickly than large rocks because their surface area is
a. thinner.
c. smaller.
b. larger.
d. thicker.
____ 27. The average weather condition in an area over a long period of time is called
a. temperature.
c. weather.
b. climate.
d. humidity.
____ 28. Chemical weathering is most rapid in areas that are
a. hot and dry.
c. cold and dry.
b. warm and wet.
d. cool and wet.
____ 29. Which rocks are exposed to more wind, rain, and ice?
a. rocks at a lower elevation
c. rocks in streams
b. rocks at a higher elevation
d. rocks in a warm, humid climate
____ 30. What is it called when you plow across the slope of hills?
a. crop rotation
c. terracing
b. no-till farming
d. contour plowing
____ 31. The process of changing one steep field into a series of smaller, flatter fields is called
a. terracing.
c. crop rotation.
b. contour plowing.
d. cover crops.
____ 32. The practice of leaving old stalks to provide cover from rain in order to reduce water runoff and soil erosion is
called
a. terracing.
c. contour plowing.
b. no-till farming.
d. cover crops.
____ 33. What is it called when a farmer plants different crops in order to use less nutrients or different nutrients from
the soil?
a. terracing
c. crop rotation
b. cover crops
d. contour plowing
____ 34. Which soil conservation technique did George Washington Carver urge farmers to use?
a. crop rotation
c. cover crops
b. contour plowing
d. no-till farming
____ 35. How do poor farming techniques damage the soil?
a. they decrease the fertility of the soil
b. they contribute to erosion
c. both a and b are correct
d. neiter a nor b is correct
____ 36. What powers the water cycle?
a. rain and snow
c. springs and wells
b. ocean currents
d. sun’s energy
____ 37. Besides gradient and load, what else affects stream erosion?
a. discharge
c. number of tributaries
d. channel length
b. height of divide
____ 38. What kind of river has a wide, flat flood plain and many bends where it deposits rock and soil?
a. a youthful river
c. an old river
b. a mature river
d. a rejuvenated river
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 39. What is the rock and soil deposited by streams called?
a. sediment
c. sinkholes
b. aquifer
d. stalagmites
____ 40. Besides deltas and placer deposits, what else is a result of stream deposits?
a. smaller channels
c. smaller rocks and minerals
b. dissolved calcium and sodium
d. floods and alluvial fans
____ 41. When a stream deposits sediment, what can happen to the land?
a. it decreases in size
c. it increases in size
b. it stays the same
d. it evaporates
____ 42. What method of flood control involves building a barrier that holds excess water in an artificial lake?
a. levee
c. alluvial fan
b. dam
d. placer deposit
____ 43. What method of flood control involves building up the banks of a river to keep the river within its channel?
a. alluvial fan
c. levee
b. dam
d. placer deposit
____ 44. The water table is found at the boundary of what?
a. the base of the river and the start of a delta
b. the zones of aeration and saturation
c. between the artesian formation and spring
d. between the zones of percolation and evaporation
____ 45. What does an aquifer allow to happen?
a. increased porosity in hard materials
b. rivers not to flood their banks
c. the decrease of friction in impermeable rocks
d. the flow and storage of ground water
____ 46. How is a well different from a spring?
a. It forms above ground.
c. It is naturally occurring.
b. It is made by humans.
d. It is difficult to find.
____ 47. When does a sinkhole form?
a. when there is too much runoff from a river
b. when a flood plain is too small
c. when the water table is lower than a cave
d. when there is a lot of rain and snow in one year
____ 48. What are the buried pipes that distribute cleaned water into the ground?
a. artesian spring
c. septic tank
b. drain field
d. Ogallala aquifer
____ 49. What is a tank under the ground that cleans the wastewater from a household called?
a. Ogallala aquifer
c. drain field
b. artesian spring
d. septic tank
____ 50. What do we call efforts by industries and homes to use less water?
a. primary treatment
c. conservation
b. deposition
d. secondary treatment
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 51. If a sewer pipe is leaking from an apartment building and a factory is dumping waste into the same river, what
kind of pollution is it?
a. point-source pollution
c. nonpoint-source pollution
b. runoff pollution
d. fertilizer pollution
____ 52. How did Hubble tell that galaxies were moving apart from each other?
a. by redshift
c. by their speed
b. by blueshift
d. by their size
____ 53. What evidence shows that the universe is expanding?
a. Galaxies are moving closer together.
c. The number of galaxies is growing.
b. Galaxies are moving apart.
d. Galaxies are getting bigger.
____ 54. What is a constellation?
a. a region of the sky
c. a star pattern
b. a group of stars
d. a galaxy
____ 55. What is the imaginary sphere, created by scientists, that surrounds the Earth?
a. a zenith
c. an astrolabe
b. a celestial sphere
d. an ecliptic
____ 56. How did Hubble tell the universe was expanding?
a. Galaxies were moving away from each other.
b. Galaxies were moving toward each other.
c. Galaxies were getting bigger.
d. The number of galaxies was increasing.
____ 57. Which of the following indicates the universe is expanding?
a. a growing celestial sphere
b. an increase in the number of constellations in the sky
c. the discovery of other galaxies
d. observations of redshift
____ 58. What is an imaginary point directly above an observer’s head?
a. celestial sphere
c. right ascension
b. zenith
d. altitude
____ 59. Which of the following is NOT a type of electromagnetic radiation found on the electromagnetic spectrum?
a. microwave
c. radio wave
b. visible light
d. ocean wave
____ 60. Circumpolar stars can be seen all night long during the entire year because they are
a. the brightest stars
c. magnetically polar.
b. above the Earth’s axes.
d. circular in appearance.
____ 61. The vernal equinox is used to establish a star’s
a. zenith.
c. declination.
b. distance from the Earth.
d. right ascension.
____ 62. Another word for an earthquake’s strength is its
a. magnitude.
c. epicenter.
b. intensity.
d. focus.
____ 63. What is the best thing to do if you are inside when an earthquake begins?
a. drive away in your car
c. run outside
b. crouch under a table or desk
d. store food and water
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 64. When should you return to your home after an earthquake?
a. when someone in authority tells you to
c. when the aftershocks begin
b. as soon as the shaking stops
d. when you get hungry
____ 65. A measure of how likely an area is to experience an earthquake is its
a. earthquake-zone level.
c. seismic-gap level.
b. Mercalli-intensity level.
d. earthquake-hazard level.
____ 66. One way to forecast earthquakes in a place is to observe their past
a. strength and intensity.
c. frequency and intensity.
b. strength and frequency.
d. magnitude.
____ 67. Which of the following is NOT a kind of technology used to construct earthquake-resistant buildings?
a. tectonic plate
c. mass damper
b. cross brace
d. base isolator
____ 68. If you are in a car on the open road when an earthquake occurs, you should
a. drive away from the area.
c. stop the car and seek shelter in a ditch.
b. stop the car and stay inside.
d. drive slowly to the nearest overpass.
____ 69. During an earthquake, people inside buildings should
a. move to an outside wall.
c. get under a strong piece of furniture.
b. open all windows.
d. stay standing.
____ 70. What is the measurement of how likely an area is to have damaging earthquakes called?
a. gap hypothesis
c. earthquake hazard
b. seismic gap
d. earthquake frequency
____ 71. What is the theory that active faults with few earthquakes in the past will have strong ones in the future?
a. seismic hypothesis
c. gap hypothesis
b. forecasting hypothesis
d. frequency hypothesis
____ 72. What is magnetic declination?
a. the distance from the equator
b. the difference between the magnetic north and the true north
c. the same as 90° latitude
d. when the needle of a compass points north
____ 73. The prime meridian runs through which city?
a. Greenwich, England
c. New Delhi, India
b. New York City, NY
d. Rome, Italy
____ 74. Which of the following is a good example of a cylindrical projection?
a. a globe
c. an equal-area map
b. a Mercator projection
d. compass rose
____ 75. Which of the following methods would be the best to use to map areas near the equator?
a. cylindrical projection
c. distortion
b. azimuthal projection
d. conic projection
____ 76. Which of the following is NOT a method of remote sensing?
a. determining your distance from Chicago using GPS
b. measuring the depth of the ocean by using sound waves from a ship
c. measuring the length of a trail by hiking on it
d. using a satellite to photograph a city
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 77. Which of the following connects points of equal elevation?
a. contour line
c. distortion
b. legend
d. latitude
____ 78. What color is normally used to indicate contour lines on a topographical map?
a. black
c. pink
b. brown
d. blue
____ 79. Which feature would probably NOT be identified on a topographical map?
a. a river
c. a clothing store
b. a bridge
d. the tallest mountain
____ 80. Which direction does a compass needle point?
a. towards the prime meridian
c. along the Earth’s axis
b. towards the magnetic north pole
d. towards true north
____ 81. What unit of measurement is used to describe magnetic declination?
a. meters
c. degrees
b. feet
d. kilometers
____ 82. On a topographic map, what is used to show elevation?
a. relief
c. blue lines
b. contour lines
d. an open circle
____ 83. A fixed place on the Earth’s surface from which direction and location can be determined is a
a. compass rose.
c. azimuthal projection.
b. reference point.
d. gnomonic projection.
____ 84. Moving information from a curved surface to a flat surface causes
a. distortion.
c. continents.
b. projections.
d. sensing.
____ 85. Lines of latitude
a. run from north to south.
c. are parallel to the equator.
b. start in Greenwich, England.
d. indicate magnetic declination.
____ 86. If a topographic map included a 6,000 ft. mountain next to an area of low hills, which would best describe the
contour lines on the map?
a. The contour lines would be dark blue.
b. The contour lines around the mountain would be very close together.
c. The contour lines would cross near the top of the mountain.
d. The contour lines around the rolling hills would be very close together.
____ 87. A map projection that distorts the size of areas around the equator, while areas near the poles are sized properly
is called
a. azimuthal.
c. equal-area.
b. Mercator.
d. cylindrical.
____ 88. What line connects the North and South Poles?
a. axis
c. equator
d. sphere
b. north
____ 89. What model of the Earth has distortion?
a. globe
c. meridian
b. map
d. latitude
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
Use the map below to answer the following questions.
____ 90. You are planning to climb to the top of either Barrel Hill or Rocky Point. both features are 900 feet tall at the
summit. If you only consider the steepness of the climb, which feature would be more difficult to hike?
a. Barrel Hill
b. Rocky Point
c. They are the same elevation and so of equal difficulty to climb
d. The map does not provide enough information
____ 91. Tectonic plates consist of
a. continental crust.
c. both continental and oceanic crust.
b. oceanic crust.
d. mesosphere.
____ 92. New oceanic lithosphere forms as a result of
a. sea-floor spreading.
c. reverse polarity.
b. normal polarity.
d. continental drift.
____ 93. A possible result of plates moving along a transform boundary is
a. oceans.
c. earthquakes.
b. convection.
d. sea-floor spreading.
____ 94. What is the outermost layer of the Earth called?
a. core
c. asthenosphere
b. lithosphere
d. mesosphere
____ 95. What is the liquid layer of the Earth’s core called?
a. lithosphere
c. inner core
b. mesosphere
d. outer core
____ 96. What type of fault usually occurs because of tension?
a. folded
c. strike-slip
b. normal
d. reverse
____ 97. What type of fault usually occurs because of compression?
a. folded
c. strike-slip
b. normal
d. reverse
____ 98. In a reverse fault, where does the hanging wall move relative to the footwall?
a. upward
c. horizontally
b. downward
d. stays the same
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 99. In a normal fault, where does the hanging wall move relative to the footwall?
a. upward
c. horizontally
b. downward
d. stays the same
____ 100. What type of boundary is formed when plates collide?
a. convergent
c. divergent
b. horizontal
d. transform
____ 101. What type of boundary is formed when plates separate?
a. convergent
c. divergent
b. horizontal
d. transform
____ 102. What type of boundary is formed when plates slide past each other?
a. convergent
c. divergent
b. horizontal
d. transform
____ 103. According to the continental drift theory, a single, huge continent once existed called
a. Pangaea.
c. Panthalassa.
b. Wegener.
d. Eurasia.
____ 104. Where does sea-floor spreading take place?
a. convergent boundaries
c. oceanic volcanoes
b. transform boundaries
d. mid-ocean ridges
____ 105. The core consists mainly of
a. iron.
c. silicon.
b. magnesium.
d. oxygen.
____ 106. Mountains formed by magma that reaches the Earth’s surface are
a. slip-strike.
c. fault-block.
b. folded.
d. volcanic.
____ 107. The fact that similar fossils are found on both sides of the ocean is evidence of
a. global positioning.
c. continental drift.
b. magnetic reversal.
d. oceanic drifts.
____ 108. What is the idea that all continents were part of one big landmass?
a. oceanic drift
c. oceanic theory
b. continental drift
d. continental theory
____ 109. What is it called when Earth’s magnetic poles change places?
a. a strike-slip fault
c. sea-floor spreading
b. magnetic reversal
d. continental drift
____ 110. What can tectonic plates form when they converge?
a. mid-ocean ridges
c. sea floor
b. mountains
d. asthenosphere
____ 111. The order of the layers of the Earth from the surface to the center is:
a. asthenosphere, lithosphere, mesosphere, outer core, inner core
b. lithosphere, asthenosphere, mesosphere, outer core, inner core
c. mesosphere, outer core, inner core, lithosphere, asthenosphere
d. lithosphere, asthenosphere, mesosphere, inner core, outer core
____ 112. Magnetic reversals have helped to support
a. the theory of Pangaea.
c. sea-floor spreading.
b. the age of the Earth.
d. the theory of Gondwana.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 113. The San Andreas Fault is an example of a
a. reverse fault.
c. strike-slip fault.
b. normal fault.
d. divergent plate boundary.
____ 114. Which of the following would you expect to see during a nonexplosive eruption?
a. hot debris, ash, and gas shooting into the air
b. molten rock blowing into the air
c. calm lava flows
d. violent explosions
____ 115. Pillow lava
a. forms a brittle crust that would be painful to walk on.
b. has a glassy surface with rounded wrinkles.
c. usually oozes from a volcano.
d. forms when lava erupts under water.
____ 116. Lava with a high viscosity
a. is runny, almost like water.
c. smells like sulphur.
b. is thick, like pudding.
d. dries smooth and glassy.
____ 117. Large blobs of magma that harden in the air are called
a. volcanic ash.
b. volcanic bombs. c. volcanic blocks. d. lapilli.
____ 118. Which of the following would you expect after an explosive eruption?
a. warmer temperatures
c. calm lava flows
b. darkened skies
d. clear skies
____ 119. A shield volcano
a. is sometimes called a stratovolcano.
c. has gently sloping sides.
b. has a jagged surface.
d. forms when lava erupts underwater.
____ 120. A cinder cone volcano
a. has gently sloping sides.
b. is formed by explosive and nonexplosive eruptions.
c. erodes over thousands of years.
d. has steep slopes.
____ 121. A combination of explosive and nonexplosive eruptions will create a
a. shield volcano.
c. cinder cone volcano.
b. composite volcano.
d. plateau volcano.
____ 122. A large depression that forms when the magma chamber partially empties is a
a. crater.
b. rift.
c. caldera.
d. cinder cone.
____ 123. Which of the following best describes subduction?
a. movement of tectonic plates away from each other
b. movement of one tectonic plate against another
c. movement of one tectonic plate under another
d. side-by-side movement of two tectonic plates
____ 124. A dormant volcano
a. is currently explosive.
c. usually erupts once each year.
b. might erupt again.
d. has never erupted.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 125. An extinct volcano
a. will probably erupt in the near future.
b. will probably erupt in the distant future.
c. will probably never erupt again.
d. has probably never erupted.
____ 126. An active volcano
a. has never erupted.
b. will blow smoke but never erupt.
c. is currently erupting or will erupt very soon.
d. will erupt in 100 years.
____ 127. The landforms that we call volcanoes are created by
a. tectonic plates colliding.
b. cracks in the Earth’s crust.
c. repeated eruptions of lava.
d. collections of ash and other pyroclastic materials.
____ 128. Where are volcanoes most likely to form?
a. near the center of continents
c. along plate boundaries
b. along bodies of water
d. in mountainous areas
____ 129. Which of these would you expect to see during a nonexplosive eruption?
a. giant fountains of lava and rock
c. a mountainside caving in
b. clouds of ash darkening the sky
d. huge lava flows
____ 130. Molten rock deep underground often gathers in a
a. vent.
b. magma chamber. c. landslide.
d. caldera.
____ 131. Lava that is very runny probably
a. has a low silica content.
c. has been cooled below the surface.
b. is hotter than most lava.
d. comes from explosive volcanoes.
____ 132. If the water content of magma is high,
a. a nonexplosive eruption is most likely.
c. an explosive eruption is more likely.
b. probably no eruption will occur.
d. then the temperature at its center is low.
____ 133. When you talk about the viscosity of lava, you are talking about
a. the lava’s temperature.
c. how the lava looks.
b. how the lava flows.
d. the lava’s weight.
____ 134. Which type of lava flows most like dripping wax?
a. aa lava
b. pillow lava
c. blocky lava
d. pahoehoe lava
____ 135. Cool, stiff lava that forms jumbled heaps of sharp chunks near the vent is called
a. pahoehoe lava.
b. lapilli.
c. blocky lava.
d. aa lava.
____ 136. Which type of pyroclastic material gets its name from a word that means “little stones”?
a. blocky lava
b. volcanic bombs
c. pahoehoe lava
d. lapilli
____ 137. The pyroclastic material that can reach the upper atmosphere and circle the Earth for years is
a. pahoehoe lava.
b. aa lava.
c. lapilli.
d. volcanic ash.
____ 138. Pyroclastic material forms when
a. lava flows calmly from a crack in the Earth’s crust.
b. magma remains underground too long.
c. magma explodes into the air and hardens.
d. lava flows underwater.
11
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 139. Which of these describes a possible climate change caused by a volcanic eruption?
a. Temperatures rise because of the heat coming from lava.
b. Scorched land creates drought conditions.
c. Ash blocks sunlight, causing temperatures to drop.
d. Volcanic eruptions rarely affect climate.
____ 140. The three main types of volcanoes are
a. shield, pahoehoe, and vented.
c. cinder cone, lapilli, and caldera.
b. cinder, cone, and composite.
d. shield, composite, and cinder cone.
____ 141. The depression created when the roof of a magma chamber collapses is called a
a. caldera.
b. crater.
c. lava plateau.
d. lapilli.
____ 142. Rock begins to melt when
a. both pressure and temperature decrease.
b. both pressure and temperature increase.
c. temperature increases and pressure decreases.
d. temperature decreases and pressure increases.
____ 143. Most active volcanoes form
a. far from bodies of water.
b. where tectonic plates collide.
c. where tectonic plates separate.
d. where tectonic plates move back and forth.
____ 144. When an oceanic plate collides with a continental plate, the oceanic plate is usually subducted because
a. continental plates move more quickly than oceanic plates.
b. oceanic crust is denser and thinner than continental crust.
c. oceanic crust is denser and thicker than continental crust.
d. continental crust is denser and thinner than oceanic crust.
____ 145. The volcanoes of Hawaii and other places far from tectonic plate boundaries are known as
a. calderas.
c. hot spots.
b. mid-ocean ridges.
d. viscous volcanoes.
____ 146. Which category of volcano is most likely to erupt in the near future?
a. an active volcano
c. a dormant volcano
b. an extinct volcano
d. a viscous volcano
____ 147. A tiltmeter is an instrument that measures
a. gas ratios in a volcano.
c. the intensity of earthquakes.
b. changes in a volcano’s slope.
d. the temperature inside a volcano.
____ 148. Lava that has a fluid, runny consistency probably
a. has a low silica content.
c. has been cooled below the surface.
b. is hotter than most lava.
d. comes from explosive volcanoes.
____ 149. Volcanic activity is common along the Mid-Atlantic Ridge. This activity occurs at a
c. divergent boundary.
a. mantle plume.
b. subducted plane.
d. break in the continental crust.
____ 150. Which of the following is NOT considered when predicting volcanic eruptions?
a. the composition of volcanic gases
c. internal temperature
b. atmospheric activity
d. changes in the volcano’s slope
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 151. What is pyroclastic material?
a. magma that blasts into the air and hardens
b. magma that remains underground too long
c. molten rock
d. lava that flows underwater
____ 152. Which of these describes a climate change caused by a volcanic eruption?
a. Temperatures rise because of the heat coming from lava.
b. Ash blocks sunlight, causing temperatures to drop.
c. Burned land creates dry conditions.
d. Volcanic eruptions don’t cause climate changes.
____ 153. What is a rift?
a. a closed vent
c. an instrument that predicts eruptions
b. a crack in the Earth’s crust
d. a hot spot
____ 154. What is a tiltmeter?
a. an instrument that measures gases
b. an instrument that measures changes in a volcano’s slope
c. an instrument that measures the intensity of earthquakes
d. an instrument that measures the temperature inside a volcano
____ 155. Which kind of volcano is most likely to erupt soon?
a. an active volcano
c. a dormant volcano
b. an extinct volcano
d. a chamber volcano
____ 156. Which kind of volcano will probably never erupt again?
a. an active volcano
c. a dormant volcano
b. an extinct volcano
d. a chamber volcano
____ 157. Which kind of volcanic eruption is most destructive?
a. atmospheric
b. explosive
c. pahoehoe
d. nonexplosive
____ 158. Mount Rainier and Mount St. Helens are
a. shield volcanoes.
c. composite volcanoes.
b. cinder cone volcanoes.
d. calderas.
____ 159. Mauna Kea is a
a. crater.
c. cinder cone volcano.
b. shield volcano.
d. composite volcano.
____ 160. Magma forms deep in the Earth’s crust and in the mantle where
a. temperature and pressure are low.
b. temperature is high and pressure is low.
c. temperature and pressure are high.
d. temperature is low and pressure is high.
____ 161. Only about 5% of volcanoes on land form
a. along divergent boundaries.
c. in hot spots.
b. along convergent boundaries.
d. in the Ring of Fire.
____ 162. When infrared images show that an area is getting hotter, what is probably happening there?
a. Magma is probably sinking deeper into the Earth’s crust.
b. Magma is rising in an active volcano.
c. Lava inside a caldera is being warmed by the sun.
d. Pyroclastic material is filling a magma chamber.
13
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 163. Which is a possible explanation or answer to a question?
a. fact.
b. law.
c. synopsis.
d. hypothesis.
____ 164. Which is a series of steps scientists follow to solve problems?
a. scientific methods.
c. investigation methods.
b. experiment guidelines.
d. standard procedures.
____ 165. What is a controlled experiment designed to test?
a. many variables at once.
c. complex data.
b. one variable at a time.
d. conflicting data.
____ 166. What model is used to show objects that are too small or too large to see completely?
a. a physical model
c. a conceptual model
b. a mathematical model
d. a climate model
____ 167. A climate model is an example of a
a. physical model.
c. conceptual model.
b. mathematical model.
d. global model.
____ 168. Why is it important to have the International System of Units?
a. It preserves the system used in England long ago.
b. It uses the smallest possible numbers.
c. Its units are based on objects that vary in size.
d. It can be used by scientists everywhere.
____ 169. In which unit is the volume of a liquid is often given?
a. meters.
b. centimeters.
c. liters.
d. square units.
____ 170. If you wanted to learn about plants and animals that live in the ocean, to which scientist would you need to
speak?
a. physical oceanographer.
c. geological oceanographer.
b. biological oceanographer.
d. chemical oceanographer.
____ 171. What kind of model is a miniature space shuttle?
a. a physical model
c. an astronomical model
b. a conceptual model
d. a mathematical model
____ 172. If you wanted to learn about the origin, history, and structure of the Earth, you would study
a. meteorology.
b. geology.
c. astronomy.
d. oceanography.
____ 173. Which unit would be most appropriate for measuring the mass of a cow?
a. a kilogram
b. a meter
c. a cubic meter
d. a gram
____ 174. A safety symbol, such as the one shown, shows a picture of a bottle. What does it remind you to do?
a.
b.
c.
d.
wear goggles during a science investigation.
use chemicals safely.
be careful when handling scissors.
use a lot of water during a science investigation.
14
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 175. To find the area of a surface, you
a. use a thermometer.
c. divide mass by volume.
b. multiply length times width times height. d. multiply length times width.
____ 176. What do astronomers study?
a. bodies in space
c. bacteria in water
b. elements in fossils
d. weather on Earth
____ 177. What do scientists use to show or describe how something works?
a. a model
b. a question
c. a debate theory
d. an inquiry
____ 178. Why must computers process data from climate models?
a. The models are on a disk.
c. The models have many pages.
b. The models have numbers.
d. The models have many variables.
____ 179. What is the measure of how much surface an object has?
a. mass
b. volume
c. region
d. area
____ 180. Which is an SI unit of temperature?
a. degrees Farenheit b. grams/liter
c. degrees Celsius
d. degrees latitude
Matching
Match each item with the correct statement.
a. Galileo Gallilei
b. Tycho Brahe
c. Johannes Kepler
d. Sir Isaac Newton
e. Copernicus
f.
g.
h.
i.
j.
Edwin Hubble
Ptolemy
day
year
month
____ 181. showed that planets and moons stay in orbit due to gravity
____ 182. was one of the first persons to use a telescope to observe celestial bodies
____ 183. developed a theory of a sun-centered universe
____ 184. stated that planets move in elliptical orbits around the sun
____ 185. developed a theory of an Earth-centered universe
____ 186. proved the existence of galaxies other than the Milky Way
____ 187. the time required for the Earth to orbit once around the sun
____ 188. roughly the amount of time required for the moon to orbit once around the Earth
____ 189. the time required for the Earth to rotate once on its axis
15
Name: ________________________
Match each item with the correct statement.
a. composition
b. rock
c. erosion
____
____
____
____
____
____
190.
191.
192.
193.
194.
195.
196.
197.
198.
199.
200.
201.
202.
203.
204.
205.
206.
207.
208.
209.
210.
211.
d.
e.
f.
deformation
nonfoliated
regional metamorphism
d.
e.
f.
texture
rock cycle
composition
naturally occurring solid mixture of one or more minerals and organic matter
process in which sediment is dropped and comes to rest
process by which new rock is made from old rock
process by which sediment is removed from its source
the chemical makeup of a rock
Match each item with the correct statement.
a. stratification
b. nonfoliated
c. extrusive igneous rock
____
____
____
____
____
texture
rock cycle
deposition
process other than heat that causes metamorphism
process in which crystals in minerals change in size or composition
metamorphic rock in which mineral grains are not arranged in planes or bands
a change in the shape of rock caused by force
metamorphic rock in which mineral grains are arranged in bands
result of large pieces of rock deep within the Earth’s crust colliding
Match each item with the correct statement.
a. deposition
b. erosion
c. rock
____
____
____
____
____
d.
e.
f.
solid mixture of one or more minerals and organic mater
process by which new rock forms from old rock
process by which sediment is removed from its source
process by which sediment is dropped and comes to rest
the chemical makeup of a rock
size, shape, and position of grains that make up a rock
Match each item with the correct statement.
a. foliated
b. pressure
c. recrystallization
____
____
____
____
____
____
ID: A
d.
e.
strata
intrusive igneous rock
metamorphic rock in which mineral grains are not arranged in bands
layers found in sedimentary rocks
rock that cools at the Earth’s surface
process in which layers in sedimentary rock are formed
rock that cools below the Earth’s surface
16
Name: ________________________
Match each item with the correct statement.
a. organic sedimentary rock
b. extrusive igneous rock
____
____
____
____
212.
213.
214.
215.
216.
217.
218.
219.
220.
221.
222.
223.
224.
225.
226.
227.
228.
229.
230.
231.
232.
233.
234.
d.
e.
f.
mantle
lithosphere
mesosphere
e.
f.
g.
h.
normal fault
anticline
syncline
reverse fault
d.
e.
f.
fossils
rift zones
magnetic reversal
stress at a divergent plate boundary
stress at a convergent plate boundary
upward arching rock layer
downward arching rock layer
hanging wall moves down relative to footwall
hanging wall moves up relative to footwall
sinking of rock layers
rising of rock layers
Match each item with the correct statement.
a. magma
b. seismograph
c. global positioning system
____
____
____
____
____
foliated rock
rock cycle
the layer of rock that comprises 67% of Earth’s mass
the layer of Earth made mostly of iron
the thin, solid outermost layer above the mantle
the rigid layer made up of crust and upper mantle
the layer made of solid rock that slowly flows
the lower part of the mantle
Match each item with the correct statement.
a. uplift
b. subsidence
c. tension
d. compression
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
c.
d.
the process by which new rock forms from old rocks
igneous rock that cools on the Earth’s surface
rocks made from animal or plant remains
metamorphic rocks in which mineral grains are arranged in bands
Match each item with the correct statement.
a. asthenosphere
b. core
c. crust
____
____
____
____
____
____
ID: A
used to measure the movement of tectonic plates
hardens to form new rock at mid-ocean ridges
used to measure the density of the Earth’s layers
used as evidence for continental drift
used as evidence for sea-floor spreading
17
Name: ________________________
Match each item with the correct statement.
a. subsidence
b. uplift
____
____
____
____
235.
236.
237.
238.
239.
240.
241.
242.
c.
d.
compression
tension
c.
d.
fold
seismic waves
stress that squeezes a rock layer
the raising of a rock layer
stress that stretches a rock layer
the sinking of a rock layer
Match each item with the correct statement.
a. asthenosphere
b. fault
____
____
____
____
ID: A
surface of a broken rock layer
bending of a rock layer
help to measure the thickness of the Earth
a layer of flowing rock
Other
Assume you live on the northwest corner of Palace Square.
243. How many times would you cross over the stream on the way to the movie theatre?
a. one time
c. three times
b. two times
d. four times
244. Which feature on the map is farthest east?
a. Movie Theatre
b. Palace Square
c. Central St.
d. Main St. bridge
18
Name: ________________________
ID: A
245. How many cities on the map are located west of the 110°W longitude?
a. 2
c. 7
b. 8
d. 3
246. What is the closest line of latitude to Charleston?
a. 80°W
c. 40°N
b. 30°N
d. 70°W
19
ID: A
Exam Review F2011
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
B
D
A
C
B
C
C
A
C
D
B
C
C
A
A
A
C
A
A
D
C
C
D
B
A
B
B
B
B
D
A
B
C
A
C
D
A
C
1
ID: A
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
A
D
C
B
C
B
D
B
C
B
D
D
C
A
B
A
B
A
D
B
D
B
D
A
B
A
D
B
A
B
C
C
C
B
A
B
A
C
A
B
C
B
C
2
ID: A
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
B
B
A
C
B
A
A
B
B
C
A
C
B
D
B
D
A
B
A
C
D
A
D
A
D
C
B
B
B
B
C
C
C
D
B
B
B
C
D
B
C
C
B
3
ID: A
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
167.
C
C
C
C
D
B
A
C
B
D
C
D
D
C
C
D
A
C
B
B
C
A
B
A
C
B
A
B
B
B
B
B
B
C
B
C
C
B
D
A
B
A
B
4
ID: A
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
D
C
B
A
B
A
B
D
A
A
D
D
C
MATCHING
181.
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
189.
D
A
E
C
G
F
I
J
H
190.
191.
192.
193.
194.
195.
B
E
C
F
A
D
196.
197.
198.
199.
200.
201.
B
C
E
D
A
F
202. C
203. A
204. E
5
ID: A
205. B
206. F
207.
208.
209.
210.
211.
B
D
C
A
E
212.
213.
214.
215.
D
B
A
C
216.
217.
218.
219.
220.
221.
D
B
C
E
A
F
222.
223.
224.
225.
226.
227.
228.
229.
C
D
F
G
E
H
B
A
230.
231.
232.
233.
234.
C
A
B
D
F
235.
236.
237.
238.
C
B
D
A
239. B
240. C
241. D
6
ID: A
242. A
OTHER
243.
244.
245.
246.
B
A
A
B
7