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Astro/Geo Final Exam 2017 Four of the Most Common Rock Forming Minerals Quartz Pyroxene* Olivine Calcite Chemical Formula SiO2 MgSiO3 (Mg,Fe)2SiO4 CaCO3 Use the above table to answer the questions. 1. What element is common to all four of these minerals? A) Silicon B) Oxygen C) Magnesium D) Carbon 2. Which element used above is not considered one of the eight most common elements found in the Earth’s crust? A) iron B) calcium C) aluminum D) carbon 3. What is true about minerals? A) They are naturally occurring and inorganic. B) They can be synthetically produced. C) They are organic and inorganic. D) They are occasionally found in a liquid state. 4. Which of the following is NOT a test used to identify minerals? A) luster B) cleavage C) magnetism D) streak 5. A mineral has a mass of 150 g and a volume of 25 cm3. What is its density? A) 6 g/cm3 B) 3750 g/cm3 C) 175 g/cm3 D) 125 g/cm3 8. Which ore would a car manufacturer be least interested in? A) Ilmenite C) Bauxite B) Hematite D) Chromite 9. Which mineral would be most useful to a chef? A) bauxite B) aluminum C) ilmenite D) titanium 10. If chromite was no longer an available ore, which mineral would be the best replacement for its uses? A) titanium B) iron C) aluminum D) chrome 11. Minerals always exist in a(n) ____ form. A) liquid B) gaseous C) solid D) organic 12. The most abundant elements in Earth’s crust are ____. A) aluminum and potassium B) halite and coal C) oxides and carbonates D) oxygen and silicon 13. Silver, gold, and copper have shiny surfaces and thus are said to have ____. A) dull luster B) metallic luster C) waxy luster D) nonmetallic luster 14. Ores near Earth’s surface generally are obtained from ____. A) waste-removal facilities B) underground mines C) open-pit mines D) bodies of water with high concentrations of dissolved minerals 7. 96% of the minerals present in Earth’s crust are in which mineral group? A) carbonates B) silicates C) oxides D) sulfates Mineral Titanium Hematite Iron Bauxite Aluminum Chromite Chrome Use artificial limbs, paint pigment steel beams, automobile parts food packaging, automobile parts auto accessories, plumbing fixtures Use the above table to answer the questions. 18. According to the graph, what is the range in depth when iron core melts and solidifies? A) 3900km-4300km B) 3000km-5000km C) 4000km-4500km D) 2900km-5100km 19. At a temperature of 400ºC, at what point does intermediate metamorphic grade switch to high metamorphic grade? A) 775 MPa B) 475 MPa C) 625 MPa D) 225 MPa 20. What is occurring at 100ºC with 200 MPa of pressure? A) low grade metamorphism B) lithification C) partial melting of granites D) intermediate grade metamorphism Depth into Earth From Original Depth 100m 200m 300m Temperature Increase From Original Temperature 3°C 6°C 9°C Use the table to answer the questions. 21. After 450m the temperature will have increased by how much? A) 12.5°C B) 135°C C) 13.5°C D) 10.5°C 22. If the temperature is 24°C warmer than the original temperature, by how much has the depth increased? A) 800m B) 80m C) 2400m D) 72m 6. A mineral’s density if 4.5 g/cm3. If it has a volume of 30 cm3, what is its mass? A) 34.5g B) 6.67g C) 125g D) 135g Ore Ilmenite 17. How far into the Earth must you travel to reach a temperature of 3000°C? A) 1000km B) 2000km C) 1700km D) 3900km Use the graph to answer the questions. 15. According to the graph, what is the temperature of lava? A) 1000°C B) 250°C C) 1250°C D) 500°C 16. What would be the temperature at a depth of 2500km? A) 3600°C B) 3000°C C) 1200°C D) 1000°C 23. Which statement best summarizes the table? A) For every 100m increased in depth, the temperature triples. B) For every 100m increased in depth, the temperature increases 3°C. C) Four every 3°C increase, the depth is doubled. D) For every 3°C increase, the depth is tripled. 24. Which of the following is NOT a factor in magma formation? A) temperature B) time C) pressure D) water content 32. Rocks are formed when magma ____. A) erodes B) undergoes radioactive decay C) crystallizes D) weathers Use the chart to answer the questions. 25. Why does the spectrum go from light to dark? A) The rock colors go from light granitic to dark ultrabasic. B) The rock weights go from light granitic to heavy ultrabasic. C) As more minerals are introduced into the rocks they become darker. D) Each group joins together to form the next group making the rocks denser. 26. Under what category would a rock which contains quartz, iron and magnesium be found? A) granitic B) intermediate C) basaltic D) ultrabasic 33. Igneous rocks that cool slowly beneath Earth’s crust are ____. A) extrusive B) intrusive C) sedimentary D) always magnetic 34. Igneous rocks that cool quickly on Earth’s surface are ____. A) extrusive B) intrusive C) metamorphic D) always magnetic 35. Extrusive rocks, which cool more rapidly than intrusive rocks, are generally more ____. A) coarsely grained B) finely grained C) radioactive D) magnetic 36. Factors that affect a rock’s melting point include ____. A) pressure and water content B) value as a gem C) rarity D) usefulness as a building material Use the diagram to answer the questions. 27. In what type of mineral does this phenomena occur? A) olivine B) feldspar C) quartz D) biotite mica 37. Valuable ore deposits and gem crystals are often associated with ____. A) oceans B) oil deposits C) thin crustal areas D) igneous intrusions 28. How does this phenomena occur? A) When magma cools slowly. B) When calcium reacts with magma. C) When sodium reacts with magma. D) When magma cools rapidly. 39. What is diagram A depicting? A) cementation B) compaction C) deposition D) erosion 40. Which diagram is modeling the process of deposition? A) A B) B C) C D) D Rock Classification Composition A Clastic B Clastic C Clastic D Clastic large rounded rock fragments quartz and small rock fragments large angular rock fragments clay Use the table to answer the following questions. 41. Which rock could be labeled as Breccia? A) A B) B C) C D) D 42. How did Rock A most likely get the rounded rock fragments? A) The rock fragments did not travel far from their source. B) The rock fragments banged into each other during travel in water. C) The rock fragments were smoothed while being carried by wind. D) The weight of the layers they were buried in smoothed the rock fragments. 43. How do Rock B and Rock D differ in their grain size? A) Rock B is medium-grained and rock D is fine-grained. B) Rock B is fine-grained and rock D is medium-grained. C) Rock B contains sediments while rock D contains no sediments. D) Rock B contains no sediments while rock D contains sediments. 29. As the water content of rock increases, the melting point ____. A) first increases, then decreases B) remains the same C) decreases D) increases 44. What type of sediment particles have worn surfaces and rounded corners? A) sorted B) unsorted C) clastic D) dissolved 30. A model that illustrates the predictable patterns of mineral formation from cooling magma is ____. A) Bowen's reaction series B) crystal separation C) layered intrusion formation D) mineral composition 31. Intrusive igneous rocks form ____. A) fine-grained rocks B) when a molten mass of rocks cools quickly C) on Earth's surface D) coarse-grained rocks 38. Organize the above four diagrams to correctly show the formation of sedimentary rock. A) A, D, C, B B) B, A, D, C C) C, D, A, B D) C, A, D, B 45. What type of bedding has the heaviest and coarsest material is on the bottom? A) graded B) clastic C) cementation D) metamorphic Use the diagram to answer the questions. 46. What type of sedimentary rock is coarse-grained with angular fragments? A) foliates B) nonfoliates C) conglomerates D) breccias 47. What results when rocks come in contact with molten rocks such as those in an igneous intrusion? A) precipitation B) regional C) contact metamorphism D) hydrothermal metamorphism 48. The metamorphism of limestone results in the formation of ____. A) quartzite B) marble C) gneiss D) silver 49. The existence of coal beds in Antarctica indicates that the continent once had ____. A) been part of Africa B) a temperate, rainy climate C) a cold, dry climate D) been farther from the equator 50. ____ is a fossil fern that helped support Wegener’s hypothesis of continental drift. A) Gondwanaland B) Kannemeyerid C) Mesosaurus D) Glossopteris 51. The youngest part of the ocean floor is found ____. A) along deep sea trenches B) where ocean sediments are thickest C) near ocean ridges D) where Earth’s magnetic field changes polarity 52. At an oceanic-oceanic convergent boundary, ____. A) new crust is created B) old crust is recycled by subduction C) old crust is deformed or fractured D) plates side past one another 53. Convection currents transfer thermal energy ____. A) between continents B) from cooler regions to warmer regions C) from warmer regions to cooler regions D) as a result of buoyancy 54. The downward part of a convection current causes a sinking force that ____. A) pulls tectonic plates toward one another B) moves plates apart from one another C) lifts and splits the lithosphere D) creates a divergent boundary 55. Many early mapmakers thought Earth’s continents had moved based on ____. A) plate boundary locations B) fossil evidence C) climatic data D) matching coastlines 56. Continental drift was not widely accepted when it was first proposed because ____. A) Wegener couldn’t explain why or how the continents moved B) continental landmasses were too big to move slowly over Earth’s surface C) magnetic and sonar data proved that Wegener’s hypothesis was incorrect D) mantle convection currents weren’t in motion at that time 57. Compared to ocean crust near deep-sea trenches, crust near ocean ridges is ____. A) younger B) older C) the same age D) magnetically reversed 58. The magnetic pattern of ocean-floor rocks on one side of an ocean ridge is ____. A) a mirror image of that of the other side B) younger than on the other side C) much different from the magnetic pattern found in rocks on land D) at right angles to the ocean ridge 59. Isochron maps of the seafloor indicate that ocean crust is ____. A) oldest near ocean ridges B) youngest at deep-sea trenches C) youngest near ocean ridges D) thinnest in subduction zones 60. Each cycle of spreading and intrusion of magma during seafloor spreading results in ____. A) magnetic reversals B) new ocean crust C) subduction D) plates colliding 61. Features found at divergent boundaries include ____. A) ocean ridges B) deep-sea trenches C) crumpled mountains D) island arc volcanoes 62. Continental-continental plate collisions produce ____. A) island arcs B) rift valleys C) deep-sea trenches D) very tall mountain ranges 63. Crust is neither destroyed nor formed along which of the following boundaries? A) convergent B) divergent C) transform D) magnetic 64. The driving forces of tectonic plates are related to convection currents in Earth’s ____. A) crust B) mantle C) inner core D) outer core 65. A vast, underwater mountain chain is called a(n) _________. A) deep-sea trench B) oceanic crust C) ocean ridge D) ocean floor sediment 66. A narrow, elongated depression in the seafloor is called a(n) _________. A) deep-sea trench B) oceanic crust C) ocean ridge D) ocean floor sediment 67. _____________ is defined as the study of the history of earth’s magnetic field. A) paleogeology B) ocean topography C) paleomagnetism D) magnetic symmetry Use the diagram to answer the questions. 68. According to the diagram, which Hawaiian Island is the oldest? A) Loihi B) Hawaii C) Kauai D) Molokai 69. Where would the most active volcano be located on this diagram? A) Maui B) Kauai C) Oahu D) Hawaii 70. What is the next volcano to form? A) Kauai B) Molokai C) Loihi D) Hawaii 71. Crater Lake in southern Oregon is not a crater but actually a ___. A) conduit B) vent C) caldera D) magma chamber 78. Which of the following are landscape features associated with volcanoes? A) uplift, erosion, weathering, and deposition B) hot spots and flood basalts C) vents, craters, and calderas D) batholiths, stocks, sills, dikes, and laccoliths Use the graph to answer the questions. 72. What is the difference in melting points of dry albite and albite with water at a depth of 12 km? A) 1940°C B) 460°C C) 560°C D) 1200°C 73. How does the melting point of albite with water change as the depth of its burial increases from 0 to 3 km? A) It decreases by 220°C. B) It increases by 220°C. C) It increases by 20°C. D) It decreases by 20°C. Use the table to answer the questions. Lava from a hot spot flowed out of a fissure at the rate of 0.8 km/h. Time (hours) 12 ___ 45 79. Movement occurs along fractures in rocks when _____. A) stress equals the strength of the rocks involved B) stress overcomes the strength of the rocks involved C) stress is applies to the rocks involved D) stress is less than the rocks involved 80. The strain which causes a material to twist is known as ____. A) stress B) compression C) tension D) shear 81. The strain which causes a material to pull apart is known as ____. A) stress B) compression C) tension D) shear Use the diagram to answer the questions. 86. What keeps the stable part of this seismometer from moving during an earthquake? A) inertia B) gravity C) its mass D) its location 87. Which part of the seismometer does not shake during an earthquake? A) the frame B) the spring C) the rotating drum D) the pendulum and pen 82. P-waves and S-waves are also known as ____. A) surface waves B) ground waves C) body waves D) first waves Distance (km) 9.6 24 ___ 74. How long did it take for the lava to flow 24km? A) 19.2 hours B) 2 hours C) 30 hours D) 192 hours 75. After 45 hours the lava reached its maximum distance from the fissure and cooled. How many kilometer was the resulting flood basalt? A) 56.25 km B) 36 km C) 56 km D) 5.625 km 76. All of the following affect the temperature at which magma forms EXCEPT ____. A) pressure B) composition of source material C) water D) viscosity 77. Types of plutons include ____. A) shields, cinder-cones, and composites B) vents, craters, and calderas C) dust, ash, lapilli, volcanic blocks, and volcanic bombs D) batholiths, stocks, sills, dikes, and laccoliths Use the graph to answer the questions. Use the diagram to answer the questions. 83. Which point marks the epicenter of the earthquake? A) A B) B C) C D) D 84. At which point will the most damage as a result of the earthquake occur? A) A B) B C) C D) D 85. What is true about the focus? A) It is the point where the most surface damage will occur. B) It is the point where the surface waves originate and spread out. C) It is the point where the waves are attracted. D) It is the point of failure where the waves originate. 88. A seismogram is located 4500 miles away from the epicenter of an earthquake. What is the difference in time between when the P-waves reach the seismogram and the S-waves reach the seismogram? A) 5 1/2 minutes B) 6 minutes C) 10 minutes D) 22 minutes 89. P-waves reaches a seismogram 6 minutes after an earthquake occurs and the S-waves arrive 3 and a half minutes later. How far is the seismogram from the earthquakes epicenter? A) 1000 km B) 2000 km C) 3000 km D) 4000 km 90. Which type of material would be best to use for construction in an area prone to earthquakes? A) Concrete B) Brick C) Wood D) Stone Location Earthquake History A many earthquakes few earthquakes many earthquakes many earthquakes B C D Strain Buildup Rate slow moderate fast moderate 91. Organize the locations from lowest to highest hazard. A) B, A, D, C B) C, D, A, B C) A, B, C, D D) B, A, C, D 97. On a seismometer, vibrations of the ground do not move the ____. A) frame B) spring C) recording drum D) suspended mass 98. A ____ fault forms as a result of horizontal compression. A) blind B) normal C) strike-slip D) reverse 99. The San Andreas Fault, a result of horizontal shear, is a ____ fault. A) blind B) normal C) strike-slip D) reverse 92. Location D just experienced an earthquake. Which location will most likely experience the next earthquake? A) Location C because it has the highest hazard. B) Location A because it is just below location D in hazard level. C) It is impossible to tell because the data just gives the risks for earthquakes not a predictable forecast. D) It is impossible to tell because the proximity of the other locations to D is not known. 100. The locations of seismic belts are determined by plotting ____. A) earthquake epicenters B) seismic gaps C) earthquake foci D) epicentral distances 93. Seismologists have assessed a particular area and predict that an earthquake occurs every 17 years in that area. If the last earthquake occurred in 1998, when will the next earthquake most likely occur? A) 2010 B) 2015 C) 2017 D) 2025 102. Deaths associated with earthquake deaths in sloping areas can result from ____. A) tsunamis B) landslides C) formation of fault scarps D) surface ruptures 94. Over the past 250 years a city has experienced 23 earthquakes at rather regular intervals. Approximately how often have these earthquakes occurred? A) every 50 years B) every 10 years C) every 100 years D) every 5 years 95. A city is located over an active fault, but has not experienced an earthquake for a long period of time. The city is most likely located where? A) over a seismic gap B) in an area of low recurrence C) over minimal strain accumulation D) at a location of low seismic risk 96. ____ and the amount of strain released during the last quake are used in earthquake probability studies. A) Seismic belts B) Strain accumulation C) Fault scarps D) Tsunamis 101. A numerical scale of earthquake magnitude that takes into account the size of the fault rupture is the ____. A) Richter scale B) modified Mercalli scale C) moment magnitude scale D) epicentral distance scale 103. The oldest rock layer in an undisturbed rock sequence occurs ____. A) at the bottom of the sequence B) below the sedimentary rock layer C) below the unconformity D) at the top of the sequence 104. The amount of time it takes for one-half of the original amount of an isotope to decay is known as its ____. A) correlation B) half-life C) period D) radioactivity 105. On the geologic time scale, the smallest unit of time is called a(n) ____. A) era B) eon C) period D) epoch 106. When part of the rock record is destroyed, the erosional gap that forms is a(n) ____. A) inclusion B) key bed C) unconformity D) superposition 107. Which of the following is used to determine the absolute age of a rock? A) relative-age dating B) correlation C) permineralization D) radiometric dating 108. Index fossils are useful to geologists if the fossils ____. A) have lived over a short period of time B) are not easily recognized C) are not widely distributed geographically D) are scarce 109. What are fossil insects preserved in hardened tree sap called? A) trace fossils B) gastroliths C) coprolites D) amber 110. Molds, casts, coprolites, and petrified wood are all example of ____. A) fossils B) radioactive isotopes C) unconformities D) disconformities 111. The Phanerozoic Eon includes the Paleozoic, Mesozoic, and ____. A) Cenozoic Periods B) Jurassic Periods C) Tertiary Epochs D) Cenozoic Eras 112. The Archean and Proterozoic are examples of ____. A) eons B) periods C) epochs D) eras 113. Which of the following is marked by the appearance of organisms with hard parts? A) the beginning of the Cenozoic B) the end of the Precambrian C) the end of the Mesozoic D) the beginning of the Cretaceous 114. Which of the following lists the units of geologic time in order from shortest to longest? A) era, eon, period, epoch B) epoch, eon, period, era C) eon, era, period, epoch D) epoch, period, era, eon 115. An example of a fossil with original preservation includes a(n) ____. A) insect imbedded in amber B) coprolite C) dinosaur footprint D) mold of a fish skeleton 116. An example of a fossil with altered hard parts includes ____. A) a mummified human body B) a gastrolith C) a saber-toothed cat in tar D) petrified wood 117. An example of a trace fossil includes a ____. A) cast of a clam B) worm trail C) mud crack D) raindrop impression 118. Which correctly orders units of geologic time, from most general to most specific? A) eon, era, period, epoch B) era, epoch, eon, period C) period, era, eon, epoch D) epoch, eon, period, era 124. Using the graph, determine the half-life of thorium-232. A) A 120. The shaded area of which graph represents the percentage of geologic time that is part of the Precambrian? A) A B) B C) C D) D B) B C) C D) D 130. Which line best represents the level of oxygen gas in the atmosphere during the Proterozoic? 119. What is the correct label for “C” on the diagram? A) Paleogene B) Paleozoic C) Permian D) Paleocene 129. Which point on this time line should be labeled “Formation of Earth?” A) 7 billion years B) 14 billion years C) 28 billion years D) 35 billion years 125. Radiocarbon dating can be used to determine the age of what type of materials? A) igneous rock B) living organisms C) organic materials D) lava flows 126. The shaded area of which of these graphs best represents the percentage of marine organisms that became extinct at the end of the Paleozoic? A) A B) B C) C D) D 131. Which graph correctly represents the relationship of the Precambrian to the total age of Earth? 121. The principle of superposition can be used to determine . A) A A) the actual age of these rock layers B) the relative densities of these rock layers C) the actual temperatures of these rock layers D) the relative age of these rock layers 122. What classification of unconformity occurs when sedimentary rock overlies igneous rock? A) disconformity B) nonconformity C) angular unconformity D) conformity 123. What characteristic of radioactive decay makes it useful for determining the absolute age of samples? A) occurs at a constant rate B) changes based on temperature C) speeds up under high pressure D) slows down in very dense samples B) B C) C D) D 127. Why are fossils of organism’s from the Phanerozoic eon much more likely to be found than fossils of organisms from any other eon? A) Organisms present during the Phanerozoic eon had only soft body parts. B) Organisms present during the Phanerozoic eon were all microscopic. C) Organisms present during the Phanerozoic eon had hard body parts. D) Organisms present during the Phanerozoic eon are the most ancient life forms. A) A B) B C) C D) D 132. What discovery would weaken the primordial soup hypothesis of the origin of life? A) Lightning was common on early Earth. B) Earth’s early atmosphere contained carbon dioxide, water, and trace gases. C) Earth’s early oceans were warm and shallow. D) Asteroid impacts were uncommon when life is presumed to have begun. 133. A scientist can assume that this life form did not exist during the Precambrian because________. 128. What information about Earth’s materials can be inferred by their arrangement in layers, as shown here? A) their relative densities B) their order of formation C) their relative ages D) their temperatures A) it is unicellular B) it contains a nucleus C) it contains RNA and DNA D) it has a cell membrane 134. What characteristic of Ediacaran biota leads scientists to think that these organisms do NOT represent relatives of present day animals? A) lack of a mouth, anus, or gut B) shapes that are dissimilar to all living organisms C) structures that were used for movement D) lack of nuclei 135. Which summarizes the relationship between density of an element and its distribution in Earth? A) The greater an element’s density, the greater the amount of it found in the crust. B) The denser an element is, the smaller the amount of it in Earth’s core. C) The lower an element’s density, the smaller the amount of it found in the crust. D) The greater an element’s density, the smaller the amount of it found in the crust. 136. Which diagram best represents the relationship of the landmass of Archean cratons to the total landmass of Earth? 140. The process by which volcanoes vent water vapor, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, and other substances is called ____. A) oxidation B) glaciation C) differentiation D) outgassing 141. Cyanobacteria use the process of ____ to produce energy, and oxygen is given off as a waste product. A) oxidation B) differentiation C) photosynthesis D) glaciation 142. ____ have been found in the waters of hydrothermal vents, suggesting that proteins and nucleic acids could have formed there during the Archean. A) Amino acids B) RNA molecules C) DNA molecules D) Dissolved minerals 143. When there is no tectonic activity along the edge of a continent, the edge is referred to as a ____. A) coastline B) passive margin C) transgression D) regression 144. During the ____, all but one of the major marine phyla appeared. A) Cambrian explosion B) Antler Orogeny C) Caledonian Orogeny D) Ouachita Orogeny A) A B) B C) C D) D 137. Which best summarizes the change in number and size of microcontinents during the Proterozoic? A) the number of microcontinents increased and the size increased B) the number of microcontinents increased and the size decreased C) the number of microcontinents decreased and the size increased D) the number of microcontinents decreased and the size decreased 138. The oldest known mineral on Earth is ____. A) fluorite B) mica C) zircon D) quartz 139. An organism composed of a single cell that does not contain a nucleus and is the simplest kind of cell is a(n) ____. A) prokaryote B) eukaryote C) bryozoan D) animal 145. The series of transgressions and regressions that produce cyclothems were likely produced by ____. A) tectonic collisions B) volcanic activity C) mass extinctions D) glaciation 146. As North America rifted from Europe and Africa, a continuous rift system called the ____ was formed. A) Gulf of Mexico B) Cordillera C) Mid-Atlantic Ridge D) East African Rift Valley 149. Which line on the graph shows the sea level change that would result in continuous shoreline regression? A) A B) B C) C D) D 150. Seed plants that lived during the Carboniferous impact life on Earth today because________. A) they are the ancestors of all plant life on Earth B) their remains formed coal, which is an important resource C) they produced fossils that are used to date many geologic events D) their presence caused oxygen levels to drop, allowing animals to evolve 151. A rapid appearance of many new species of organism’s usually________. A) happens just before an extinction event B) leads to an increase in glaciation C) is directly related to a drop in sea level D) happens after a mass extinction 152. Today, many types of organisms live in a marine environment. At which point on this timeline did most of the groups of marine animals alive today first appear? A) A B) B C) C D) D 153. This graph best represents the populations of marine groups before and after the 147. The southernmost point to which glaciers advanced in North America is marked by the path(s) of the ____. A) Ohio River and the Missouri River B) Missouri River C) Ohio River and the Mississippi River D) Mississippi River 148. In order to categorize a margin as active or passive, you must have information about________. A) the permeability of the margin rocks B) the amount of tectonic activity along the margin C) the depth of water that covers the margin D) the rate of glacial movement along the margin A) Cambrian explosion B) Ordovician extinction C) Permo-Triassic Extinction Event D) Alleghenian Orogeny 154. If two continents of equal size were to collide and become one, how would the total area of continental shelf space associated with the landmass change? A) it would be unchanged B) it would triple C) in would decrease D) in would double 155. Which point on the timeline best indicates the time when birds first appeared? A) A B) B C) C D) D 159. A scientist looking for an optimal location for a new observatory should choose a location________. A) in a large city B) in an area with an elevation below sea level C) on a remote hilltop D) in a low-lying river valley 164. In the northern hemisphere, what day is represented by this diagram? 160. The Hubble Space Telescope orbits Earth every 97 minutes. Calculate how long it would take the Hubble Space Telescope to orbit Earth 30 times. A) 48 hours, 30 minutes B) 48 hours, 50 minutes C) 4 hours, 51 minutes D) 4 hours, 30 minutes A) winter solstice B) summer solstice C) autumnal equinox D) vernal equinox 161. The information shown in this graph can be used to make inferences about________. 165. Which phase is the Moon in when the Earth, Sun, and Moon are in the positions shown in the diagram? 156. The extinction event shown on the time line was________. A) devastating to all land animals B) the most severe extinction event in Earth’s history C) mild compared to other extinction events D) most likely caused by widespread disease 157. The shaded are of this graph could be used to represent________. A) the amount of tectonic activity on Earth and the Moon B) the chemical composition of Earth and the Moon C) the relative speed of rotation of Earth and the Moon D) the relative brightness of Earth and the Moon 162. Which point on the timeline indicates the time when the rocks on the Moon’s surface formed? A) the portion of Earth’s land covered with ice at the peak of the Cenozoic ice ages B) the portion of Earth’s land that was a part of Pangaea C) the portion of Earth’s history during which humans have existed D) the portion of Earth’s history during which tectonic forces acted on Earth’s surface 158. Which sentence explains how the frequency and the wavelength of electromagnetic waves are related? A) As wavelength decreases, frequency increases. B) As wavelength decreases, frequency remains unchanged. C) As wavelength increases, frequency increases. D) As wavelength decreases, frequency decreases. A) A B) B C) C A) new moon B) full moon C) waxing crescent D) waning gibbous 166. A lunar eclipse could occur when the Moon is at which position? D) D 163. At the time indicated in this diagram, what season is it in the Southern hemisphere? A) A B) B C) C D) D 167. What occurs when the Moon is at positions A and C? A) spring D) winter B) summer C) fall A) lunar eclipse B) spring tide C) neap tide D) solar eclipse 168. Our timekeeping system is based on the ____. A) sidereal day B) solar day C) phases of the moon D) Earth's tilt 177. Which two planets are separated by a distance of 1.13 AU? 180. A which labeled interval of its orbit would the planet move with the greatest velocity? 169. Earth's tilt in combination with its orbit around the Sun cause the ____. A) tides B) full moon C) seasons D) Coriolis effect 170. The sequential changes in the appearance of the Moon are called ____. A) lunar eclipses B) lunar phases C) lunar tides D) lunar positions 171. A lunar eclipse occurs when the Moon passes through Earth's ____. A) atmosphere B) orbit C) shadow D) umbra 172. People who see a partial solar eclipse are located in the ____ portion of the Moon's shadow. A) umbra B) perigee C) apogee D) penumbra A) A A) Mercury and Mars B) Mars and Venus C) Earth and Mercury D) Mars and Earth 175. What is the main reason why Venus’ surface is so hot? A) the large number of volcanoes on Venus B) the very efficient greenhouse effect on Venus C) the extremely fast rotation of Venus D) the great amount of water on Venus C) C D) D 181. The center of mass for a typical planet in the solar system is shown by which point in the diagram? 178. Use the data in the table to calculate the difference between the greatest and least density of the planets in the solar system. A) A 173. What force draws the matter in an interstellar cloud together to form a star? A) electric B) gravity C) magnetism D) friction 174. Which of the following correctly orders planets by decreasing day length? A) Venus, Earth, Jupiter B) Earth, Jupiter, Venus C) Jupiter, Earth, Venus D) Venus, Jupiter, Earth B) B B) B C) C D) D 182. Which of the following should be added to the column for Zone 2 in this table showing the three-zone classification system for objects in the solar system? A) 4.83 g/cm3 B) 5.17 g/cm3 C) 6.21 g/cm3 D) 5.83 g/cm3 179. Which correctly identifies the location of the asteroid belt? A) Pluto B) Earth D) Neptune C) Eris 183. Bodies of interplanetary debris that orbit the Sun with most in the area between Mars and Jupiter are called ____. A) meteors B) comets C) asteroids D) meteorites 184. Small, icy bodies that have highly eccentric orbits and can be found in the Oort cloud or the Kuiper belt are called ____. A) meteors B) comets C) asteroids D) meteorites 176. Which of the following is one of the characteristics an object MUST have to be classified as a dwarf planet by the IAU? A) a solid surface B) at least one moon C) a spherical shape D) a head and at least one tail A) A B) B C) C D) D 185. Interplanetary material that enters the Earth's atmosphere and collides with the ground rather than burning up is called a(n) ____. A) meteor B) comet C) asteroid D) meteorite 186. What two gas giants appear blue because of the methane in their atmosphere? A) Jupiter and Saturn B) Saturn and Uranus C) Neptune and Uranus D) Jupiter and Neptune 187. The result when Earth intersects a cometary orbit is a(n) ____. A) asteroid shower B) aurora borealis C) loss of satellite communication D) meteor shower 188. Which correctly lists objects in order of decreasing mass? A) Solar System, Jupiter, Earth, Sun B) Solar System, Jupiter, Sun, Earth C) Sun, Solar System, Jupiter, Earth D) Solar System, Sun, Jupiter, Earth 189. Which line on the graph best represents the way in which the number of sunspots changes over time? 193. The timeline shows the sequence of events that occurs during the formation of a star. What is the correct label for the blank in the diagram? 199. When the polarity of the Sun's magnetic field is taken into account, the solar activity cycle lasts ____. A) 22.4 years B) 22.2 years C) 11.2 years D) 11.4 years A) nuclear fusion begins B) internal temperature drops C) gravity ceases to act D) rotation begins 194. Which point on the timeline most correctly identifies the Sun’s current point in its lifecycle? A) A B) B C) C D) D 195. Use the table to calculate which of the following units represents the greatest distance. A) A B) B C) C D) D 190. Which planet has composition and density most similar to the Sun? A) Saturn B) Mars C) Mercury D) Venus 191. A scientist comparing the properties of a large number of different stars could expect to find the most variation in the data describing the stars’________. A) luminosity B) diameter C) composition D) temperature 192. The line on this graph best describes the relationship between________. A) meter B) parsec D) kilometer C) light year 196. If the following line represents unshifted light from a star, which of these shows how the light waves would change if the star started moving away from the observer? A) B) C) A) the temperature of a star and its luminosity B) the temperature of a star and its distance from Earth C) the temperature of a star and its composition D) the temperature of a star and its location in the universe 198. Most of the light emitted by the Sun comes from the ____. A) chromosphere B) corona C) photosphere D) prominence D) 197. A scientist using parallax to determine the distance to a star will notice the greatest shift in a star’s apparent position when measured________. A) at 6-month intervals B) during Earth’s coldest weather C) at the midpoint of the star’s rotation D) at the peak of the star’s blueshift 200. What causes the dark bands observed in a solar spectrum? A) the emission of specific elements B) different chemical elements which absorb light at specific wavelengths C) highly compressed, glowing gas D) warmer gas in front of a source that emits a continuous spectrum 201. The apparent shift in a star’s position caused by the motion of the observer is called ____. A) luminosity B) apparent magnitude C) absolute magnitude D) parallax 202. A star that is gravitationally bound to another star can either be part of a star cluster or a ____ star. A) constellation B) white dwarf C) binary D) red giant 203. All stars, including the Sun, have the following identical composition: A) 25 percent hydrogen; 73 percent helium; and 2 percent oxygen B) 25 percent helium; 73 percent hydrogen; and 2 percent other C) 25 percent helium; 73 percent hydrogen; and 2 percent oxygen D) 25 percent hydrogen; 73 percent helium; and 2 percent other 204. The ____ of a star determines its temperature, luminosity, and diameter. A) mass B) composition C) energy output D) density 205. What characteristic of radio waves makes them useful for determining the shape of a galaxy? A) their long wavelength B) their high frequency C) their easy visibility D) their variable energy 206. What method allows astronomers to locate the structures circled in the diagram? 212. Which line on the graph shows the relationship between the size and brightness of a variable star? A) A A) recording radio waves B) observing RR Lyrae variables C) measuring infrared radiation D) observing hydrogen emission spectra 207. Which of the following is a characteristics of a Population II star? A) trace amounts of heavy elements B) age of less than 10 billion years C) located in disk arms D) found in spiral galaxies 208. A star in the location indicated in the diagram is most likely________. A) very young B) a main sequence star C) made up of mostly heavy elements D) an older star 209. The Milky Way and the Andromeda are both________. A) stars B) galaxies C) nebulae D) quasars 210. A scientist who discovered a galaxy could use the following diagram to classify the galaxy according to its________. A) shape D) size B) age C) color 211. Which ratio best expresses the mass of the Sun compared to the mass of the Milky Way? A) 1: 100 billion B) 1: 100 million C) 1: 100 trillion D) 1: 100 thousand B) B C) C D) D 213. The pulsation period of four variable stars is indicated on the diagram. Which of the stars in a Cepheid Variable? A) A B) B C) C D) D 214. Which sentence best summarizes Hubble’s Law? A) The greater the distance to a galaxy, the greater its velocity. B) The greater the distance to a galaxy, the brighter its halo. C) The greater the distance to a galaxy, the greater its age. D) The greater the distance to a galaxy, the greater its mass. 215. Other galaxies were first believed to be ____. A) nebulae or star clusters within the Milky Way B) quasars outside the Milky Way C) constellations within the Milky Way D) the Andromeda galaxy 216. Elliptical galaxies are divided into subclasses based on ____. A) their elongated shapes B) the length of their diameters C) the ratio of their major and minor axes D) the length of their spiral arms 217. Cosmic background radiation has a wavelength of approximately 1 mm, which makes it ____. A) gamma ray radiation B) microwave radiation C) X-ray radiation D) infrared radiation 218. If the average density is higher than the critical density, the universe is ____. A) closed B) open C) flat D) round 219. Recent observations show that the rate of expansion of the universe is ____. A) slowing down B) stabilizing C) constantly changing D) speeding up