Download 2017 AstroGeo Final Exam

Astro/Geo Final Exam 2017
Four of the Most
Common Rock
Forming Minerals
Quartz
Pyroxene*
Olivine
Calcite
Chemical Formula
SiO2
MgSiO3
(Mg,Fe)2SiO4
CaCO3
Use the above table to answer the
questions.
1. What element is common to all four
of these minerals?
A) Silicon B) Oxygen
C) Magnesium D) Carbon
2. Which element used above is not
considered one of the eight most
common elements found in the
Earth’s crust?
A) iron B) calcium C) aluminum
D) carbon
3. What is true about minerals?
A) They are naturally occurring and
inorganic. B) They can be
synthetically produced. C) They
are organic and inorganic. D) They
are occasionally found in a liquid
state.
4. Which of the following is NOT a test
used to identify minerals?
A) luster B) cleavage
C) magnetism D) streak
5. A mineral has a mass of 150 g and a
volume of 25 cm3. What is its
density?
A) 6 g/cm3 B) 3750 g/cm3 C) 175
g/cm3 D) 125 g/cm3
8. Which ore would a car manufacturer
be least interested in?
A) Ilmenite
C) Bauxite
B) Hematite
D) Chromite
9. Which mineral would be most useful
to a chef?
A) bauxite B) aluminum
C) ilmenite D) titanium
10. If chromite was no longer an
available ore, which mineral would
be the best replacement for its uses?
A) titanium B) iron C) aluminum
D) chrome
11. Minerals always exist in a(n) ____
form.
A) liquid B) gaseous C) solid
D) organic
12. The most abundant elements in
Earth’s crust are ____.
A) aluminum and potassium
B) halite and coal C) oxides and
carbonates D) oxygen and silicon
13. Silver, gold, and copper have shiny
surfaces and thus are said to have
____.
A) dull luster B) metallic luster
C) waxy luster D) nonmetallic
luster
14. Ores near Earth’s surface generally
are obtained from ____.
A) waste-removal facilities
B) underground mines C) open-pit
mines D) bodies of water with high
concentrations of dissolved minerals
7. 96% of the minerals present in
Earth’s crust are in which mineral
group?
A) carbonates B) silicates
C) oxides D) sulfates
Mineral
Titanium
Hematite
Iron
Bauxite
Aluminum
Chromite
Chrome
Use
artificial limbs,
paint pigment
steel beams,
automobile parts
food packaging,
automobile parts
auto accessories,
plumbing fixtures
Use the above table to answer the
questions.
18. According to the graph, what is the
range in depth when iron core melts
and solidifies?
A) 3900km-4300km
B) 3000km-5000km
C) 4000km-4500km
D) 2900km-5100km
19. At a temperature of 400ºC, at what
point does intermediate metamorphic
grade switch to high metamorphic
grade?
A) 775 MPa B) 475 MPa C) 625
MPa D) 225 MPa
20. What is occurring at 100ºC with 200
MPa of pressure?
A) low grade metamorphism
B) lithification C) partial melting
of granites D) intermediate grade
metamorphism
Depth into
Earth From
Original Depth
100m
200m
300m
Temperature Increase
From Original
Temperature
3°C
6°C
9°C
Use the table to answer the
questions.
21. After 450m the temperature will have
increased by how much?
A) 12.5°C B) 135°C C) 13.5°C
D) 10.5°C
22. If the temperature is 24°C warmer
than the original temperature, by how
much has the depth increased?
A) 800m B) 80m C) 2400m
D) 72m
6. A mineral’s density if 4.5 g/cm3. If
it has a volume of 30 cm3, what is its
mass?
A) 34.5g B) 6.67g C) 125g
D) 135g
Ore
Ilmenite
17. How far into the Earth must you
travel to reach a temperature of
3000°C?
A) 1000km B) 2000km
C) 1700km D) 3900km
Use the graph to answer the
questions.
15. According to the graph, what is the
temperature of lava?
A) 1000°C B) 250°C C) 1250°C
D) 500°C
16. What would be the temperature at a
depth of 2500km?
A) 3600°C B) 3000°C
C) 1200°C D) 1000°C
23. Which statement best summarizes the
table?
A) For every 100m increased in
depth, the temperature triples.
B) For every 100m increased in
depth, the temperature increases 3°C.
C) Four every 3°C increase, the depth
is doubled. D) For every 3°C
increase, the depth is tripled.
24. Which of the following is NOT a
factor in magma formation?
A) temperature B) time
C) pressure D) water content
32. Rocks are formed when magma ____.
A) erodes B) undergoes radioactive
decay C) crystallizes
D) weathers
Use the chart to answer the
questions.
25. Why does the spectrum go from light
to dark?
A) The rock colors go from light
granitic to dark ultrabasic. B) The
rock weights go from light granitic to
heavy ultrabasic. C) As more
minerals are introduced into the rocks
they become darker. D) Each group
joins together to form the next group
making the rocks denser.
26. Under what category would a rock
which contains quartz, iron and
magnesium be found?
A) granitic B) intermediate
C) basaltic D) ultrabasic
33. Igneous rocks that cool slowly
beneath Earth’s crust are ____.
A) extrusive B) intrusive
C) sedimentary D) always
magnetic
34. Igneous rocks that cool quickly on
Earth’s surface are ____.
A) extrusive B) intrusive
C) metamorphic D) always
magnetic
35. Extrusive rocks, which cool more
rapidly than intrusive rocks, are
generally more ____.
A) coarsely grained B) finely
grained C) radioactive
D) magnetic
36. Factors that affect a rock’s melting
point include ____.
A) pressure and water content
B) value as a gem C) rarity
D) usefulness as a building material
Use the diagram to answer the
questions.
27. In what type of mineral does this
phenomena occur?
A) olivine B) feldspar C) quartz
D) biotite mica
37. Valuable ore deposits and gem
crystals are often associated with
____.
A) oceans B) oil deposits C) thin
crustal areas D) igneous intrusions
28. How does this phenomena occur?
A) When magma cools slowly.
B) When calcium reacts with magma.
C) When sodium reacts with magma.
D) When magma cools rapidly.
39. What is diagram A depicting?
A) cementation B) compaction
C) deposition D) erosion
40. Which diagram is modeling the
process of deposition?
A) A B) B C) C D) D
Rock
Classification
Composition
A
Clastic
B
Clastic
C
Clastic
D
Clastic
large rounded
rock fragments
quartz and
small rock
fragments
large angular
rock fragments
clay
Use the table to answer the following
questions.
41. Which rock could be labeled as
Breccia?
A) A B) B C) C D) D
42. How did Rock A most likely get the
rounded rock fragments?
A) The rock fragments did not travel
far from their source. B) The rock
fragments banged into each other
during travel in water. C) The rock
fragments were smoothed while being
carried by wind. D) The weight of
the layers they were buried in
smoothed the rock fragments.
43. How do Rock B and Rock D differ in
their grain size?
A) Rock B is medium-grained and
rock D is fine-grained. B) Rock B
is fine-grained and rock D is
medium-grained. C) Rock B
contains sediments while rock D
contains no sediments. D) Rock B
contains no sediments while rock D
contains sediments.
29. As the water content of rock
increases, the melting point ____.
A) first increases, then decreases
B) remains the same C) decreases
D) increases
44. What type of sediment particles have
worn surfaces and rounded corners?
A) sorted B) unsorted C) clastic
D) dissolved
30. A model that illustrates the
predictable patterns of mineral
formation from cooling magma is
____.
A) Bowen's reaction series
B) crystal separation C) layered
intrusion formation D) mineral
composition
31. Intrusive igneous rocks form ____.
A) fine-grained rocks B) when a
molten mass of rocks cools quickly
C) on Earth's surface
D) coarse-grained rocks
38. Organize the above four diagrams to
correctly show the formation of
sedimentary rock.
A) A, D, C, B B) B, A, D, C
C) C, D, A, B D) C, A, D, B
45. What type of bedding has the heaviest
and coarsest material is on the
bottom?
A) graded B) clastic
C) cementation D) metamorphic
Use the diagram to answer the
questions.
46. What type of sedimentary rock is
coarse-grained with angular
fragments?
A) foliates B) nonfoliates
C) conglomerates D) breccias
47. What results when rocks come in
contact with molten rocks such as
those in an igneous intrusion?
A) precipitation B) regional
C) contact metamorphism
D) hydrothermal metamorphism
48. The metamorphism of limestone
results in the formation of ____.
A) quartzite B) marble C) gneiss
D) silver
49. The existence of coal beds in
Antarctica indicates that the continent
once had ____.
A) been part of Africa B) a
temperate, rainy climate C) a cold,
dry climate D) been farther from
the equator
50. ____ is a fossil fern that helped
support Wegener’s hypothesis of
continental drift.
A) Gondwanaland
B) Kannemeyerid C) Mesosaurus
D) Glossopteris
51. The youngest part of the ocean floor
is found ____.
A) along deep sea trenches
B) where ocean sediments are
thickest C) near ocean ridges
D) where Earth’s magnetic field
changes polarity
52. At an oceanic-oceanic convergent
boundary, ____.
A) new crust is created B) old crust
is recycled by subduction C) old
crust is deformed or fractured
D) plates side past one another
53. Convection currents transfer thermal
energy ____.
A) between continents B) from
cooler regions to warmer regions
C) from warmer regions to cooler
regions D) as a result of buoyancy
54. The downward part of a convection
current causes a sinking force that
____.
A) pulls tectonic plates toward one
another B) moves plates apart from
one another C) lifts and splits the
lithosphere D) creates a divergent
boundary
55. Many early mapmakers thought
Earth’s continents had moved based
on ____.
A) plate boundary locations
B) fossil evidence C) climatic data
D) matching coastlines
56. Continental drift was not widely
accepted when it was first proposed
because ____.
A) Wegener couldn’t explain why or
how the continents moved
B) continental landmasses were too
big to move slowly over Earth’s
surface C) magnetic and sonar data
proved that Wegener’s hypothesis
was incorrect D) mantle convection
currents weren’t in motion at that
time
57. Compared to ocean crust near
deep-sea trenches, crust near ocean
ridges is ____.
A) younger B) older C) the same
age D) magnetically reversed
58. The magnetic pattern of ocean-floor
rocks on one side of an ocean ridge is
____.
A) a mirror image of that of the other
side B) younger than on the other
side C) much different from the
magnetic pattern found in rocks on
land D) at right angles to the ocean
ridge
59. Isochron maps of the seafloor
indicate that ocean crust is ____.
A) oldest near ocean ridges
B) youngest at deep-sea trenches
C) youngest near ocean ridges
D) thinnest in subduction zones
60. Each cycle of spreading and intrusion
of magma during seafloor spreading
results in ____.
A) magnetic reversals B) new
ocean crust C) subduction
D) plates colliding
61. Features found at divergent
boundaries include ____.
A) ocean ridges B) deep-sea
trenches C) crumpled mountains
D) island arc volcanoes
62. Continental-continental plate
collisions produce ____.
A) island arcs B) rift valleys
C) deep-sea trenches D) very tall
mountain ranges
63. Crust is neither destroyed nor formed
along which of the following
boundaries?
A) convergent B) divergent
C) transform D) magnetic
64. The driving forces of tectonic plates
are related to convection currents in
Earth’s ____.
A) crust B) mantle C) inner core
D) outer core
65. A vast, underwater mountain chain is
called a(n) _________.
A) deep-sea trench B) oceanic crust
C) ocean ridge D) ocean floor
sediment
66. A narrow, elongated depression in the
seafloor is called a(n) _________.
A) deep-sea trench B) oceanic crust
C) ocean ridge D) ocean floor
sediment
67. _____________ is defined as the
study of the history of earth’s
magnetic field.
A) paleogeology B) ocean
topography C) paleomagnetism
D) magnetic symmetry
Use the diagram to answer the
questions.
68. According to the diagram, which
Hawaiian Island is the oldest?
A) Loihi B) Hawaii C) Kauai
D) Molokai
69. Where would the most active volcano
be located on this diagram?
A) Maui B) Kauai C) Oahu
D) Hawaii
70. What is the next volcano to form?
A) Kauai B) Molokai C) Loihi
D) Hawaii
71. Crater Lake in southern Oregon is not
a crater but actually a ___.
A) conduit B) vent C) caldera
D) magma chamber
78. Which of the following are landscape
features associated with volcanoes?
A) uplift, erosion, weathering, and
deposition B) hot spots and flood
basalts C) vents, craters, and
calderas D) batholiths, stocks, sills,
dikes, and laccoliths
Use the graph to answer the
questions.
72. What is the difference in melting
points of dry albite and albite with
water at a depth of 12 km?
A) 1940°C B) 460°C C) 560°C
D) 1200°C
73. How does the melting point of albite
with water change as the depth of its
burial increases from 0 to 3 km?
A) It decreases by 220°C. B) It
increases by 220°C. C) It increases
by 20°C. D) It decreases by 20°C.
Use the table to answer the
questions.
Lava from a hot spot flowed out of a
fissure at the rate of 0.8 km/h.
Time (hours)
12
___
45
79. Movement occurs along fractures in
rocks when _____.
A) stress equals the strength of the
rocks involved B) stress overcomes
the strength of the rocks involved
C) stress is applies to the rocks
involved D) stress is less than the
rocks involved
80. The strain which causes a material to
twist is known as ____.
A) stress B) compression
C) tension D) shear
81. The strain which causes a material to
pull apart is known as ____.
A) stress B) compression
C) tension D) shear
Use the diagram to answer the
questions.
86. What keeps the stable part of this
seismometer from moving during an
earthquake?
A) inertia B) gravity C) its mass
D) its location
87. Which part of the seismometer does
not shake during an earthquake?
A) the frame B) the spring C) the
rotating drum D) the pendulum and
pen
82. P-waves and S-waves are also known
as ____.
A) surface waves B) ground waves
C) body waves D) first waves
Distance (km)
9.6
24
___
74. How long did it take for the lava to
flow 24km?
A) 19.2 hours B) 2 hours C) 30
hours D) 192 hours
75. After 45 hours the lava reached its
maximum distance from the fissure
and cooled. How many kilometer
was the resulting flood basalt?
A) 56.25 km B) 36 km C) 56 km
D) 5.625 km
76. All of the following affect the
temperature at which magma forms
EXCEPT ____.
A) pressure B) composition of
source material C) water
D) viscosity
77. Types of plutons include ____.
A) shields, cinder-cones, and
composites B) vents, craters, and
calderas C) dust, ash, lapilli,
volcanic blocks, and volcanic bombs
D) batholiths, stocks, sills, dikes, and
laccoliths
Use the graph to answer the
questions.
Use the diagram to answer the
questions.
83. Which point marks the epicenter of
the earthquake?
A) A B) B C) C D) D
84. At which point will the most damage
as a result of the earthquake occur?
A) A B) B C) C D) D
85. What is true about the focus?
A) It is the point where the most
surface damage will occur. B) It is
the point where the surface waves
originate and spread out. C) It is
the point where the waves are
attracted. D) It is the point of
failure where the waves originate.
88. A seismogram is located 4500 miles
away from the epicenter of an
earthquake. What is the difference
in time between when the P-waves
reach the seismogram and the
S-waves reach the seismogram?
A) 5 1/2 minutes B) 6 minutes
C) 10 minutes D) 22 minutes
89. P-waves reaches a seismogram 6
minutes after an earthquake occurs
and the S-waves arrive 3 and a half
minutes later. How far is the
seismogram from the earthquakes
epicenter?
A) 1000 km B) 2000 km C) 3000
km D) 4000 km
90. Which type of material would be best
to use for construction in an area
prone to earthquakes?
A) Concrete B) Brick C) Wood
D) Stone
Location
Earthquake
History
A
many
earthquakes
few earthquakes
many
earthquakes
many
earthquakes
B
C
D
Strain
Buildup
Rate
slow
moderate
fast
moderate
91. Organize the locations from lowest to
highest hazard.
A) B, A, D, C B) C, D, A, B
C) A, B, C, D D) B, A, C, D
97. On a seismometer, vibrations of the
ground do not move the ____.
A) frame B) spring C) recording
drum D) suspended mass
98. A ____ fault forms as a result of
horizontal compression.
A) blind B) normal C) strike-slip
D) reverse
99. The San Andreas Fault, a result of
horizontal shear, is a ____ fault.
A) blind B) normal C) strike-slip
D) reverse
92. Location D just experienced an
earthquake. Which location will
most likely experience the next
earthquake?
A) Location C because it has the
highest hazard. B) Location A
because it is just below location D in
hazard level. C) It is impossible to
tell because the data just gives the
risks for earthquakes not a predictable
forecast. D) It is impossible to tell
because the proximity of the other
locations to D is not known.
100. The locations of seismic belts are
determined by plotting ____.
A) earthquake epicenters
B) seismic gaps C) earthquake foci
D) epicentral distances
93. Seismologists have assessed a
particular area and predict that an
earthquake occurs every 17 years in
that area. If the last earthquake
occurred in 1998, when will the next
earthquake most likely occur?
A) 2010 B) 2015 C) 2017
D) 2025
102. Deaths associated with earthquake
deaths in sloping areas can result
from ____.
A) tsunamis B) landslides
C) formation of fault scarps
D) surface ruptures
94. Over the past 250 years a city has
experienced 23 earthquakes at rather
regular intervals. Approximately
how often have these earthquakes
occurred?
A) every 50 years B) every 10
years C) every 100 years
D) every 5 years
95. A city is located over an active fault,
but has not experienced an earthquake
for a long period of time. The city is
most likely located where?
A) over a seismic gap B) in an area
of low recurrence C) over minimal
strain accumulation D) at a location
of low seismic risk
96. ____ and the amount of strain
released during the last quake are
used in earthquake probability
studies.
A) Seismic belts B) Strain
accumulation C) Fault scarps
D) Tsunamis
101. A numerical scale of earthquake
magnitude that takes into account the
size of the fault rupture is the ____.
A) Richter scale B) modified
Mercalli scale C) moment
magnitude scale D) epicentral
distance scale
103. The oldest rock layer in an
undisturbed rock sequence occurs
____.
A) at the bottom of the sequence
B) below the sedimentary rock layer
C) below the unconformity D) at
the top of the sequence
104. The amount of time it takes for
one-half of the original amount of an
isotope to decay is known as its ____.
A) correlation B) half-life
C) period D) radioactivity
105. On the geologic time scale, the
smallest unit of time is called a(n)
____.
A) era B) eon C) period
D) epoch
106. When part of the rock record is
destroyed, the erosional gap that
forms is a(n) ____.
A) inclusion B) key bed
C) unconformity D) superposition
107. Which of the following is used to
determine the absolute age of a rock?
A) relative-age dating
B) correlation C) permineralization
D) radiometric dating
108. Index fossils are useful to geologists
if the fossils ____.
A) have lived over a short period of
time B) are not easily recognized
C) are not widely distributed
geographically D) are scarce
109. What are fossil insects preserved in
hardened tree sap called?
A) trace fossils B) gastroliths
C) coprolites D) amber
110. Molds, casts, coprolites, and petrified
wood are all example of ____.
A) fossils B) radioactive isotopes
C) unconformities
D) disconformities
111. The Phanerozoic Eon includes the
Paleozoic, Mesozoic, and ____.
A) Cenozoic Periods B) Jurassic
Periods C) Tertiary Epochs
D) Cenozoic Eras
112. The Archean and Proterozoic are
examples of ____.
A) eons B) periods C) epochs
D) eras
113. Which of the following is marked by
the appearance of organisms with
hard parts?
A) the beginning of the Cenozoic
B) the end of the Precambrian
C) the end of the Mesozoic D) the
beginning of the Cretaceous
114. Which of the following lists the units
of geologic time in order from
shortest to longest?
A) era, eon, period, epoch
B) epoch, eon, period, era C) eon,
era, period, epoch D) epoch,
period, era, eon
115. An example of a fossil with original
preservation includes a(n) ____.
A) insect imbedded in amber
B) coprolite C) dinosaur footprint
D) mold of a fish skeleton
116. An example of a fossil with altered
hard parts includes ____.
A) a mummified human body B) a
gastrolith C) a saber-toothed cat in
tar D) petrified wood
117. An example of a trace fossil includes
a ____.
A) cast of a clam B) worm trail
C) mud crack D) raindrop
impression
118. Which correctly orders units of
geologic time, from most general to
most specific?
A) eon, era, period, epoch B) era,
epoch, eon, period C) period, era,
eon, epoch D) epoch, eon, period,
era
124. Using the graph, determine the
half-life of thorium-232.
A) A
120. The shaded area of which graph
represents the percentage of geologic
time that is part of the Precambrian?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
B) B
C) C
D) D
130. Which line best represents the level
of oxygen gas in the atmosphere
during the Proterozoic?
119. What is the correct label for “C” on
the diagram?
A) Paleogene B) Paleozoic
C) Permian D) Paleocene
129. Which point on this time line should
be labeled “Formation of Earth?”
A) 7 billion years B) 14 billion
years C) 28 billion years D) 35
billion years
125. Radiocarbon dating can be used to
determine the age of what type of
materials?
A) igneous rock B) living
organisms C) organic materials
D) lava flows
126. The shaded area of which of these
graphs best represents the percentage
of marine organisms that became
extinct at the end of the Paleozoic?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
131. Which graph correctly represents the
relationship of the Precambrian to the
total age of Earth?
121. The principle of superposition can be
used to determine
.
A) A
A) the actual age of these rock layers
B) the relative densities of these rock
layers C) the actual temperatures of
these rock layers D) the relative
age of these rock layers
122. What classification of unconformity
occurs when sedimentary rock
overlies igneous rock?
A) disconformity
B) nonconformity C) angular
unconformity D) conformity
123. What characteristic of radioactive
decay makes it useful for determining
the absolute age of samples?
A) occurs at a constant rate
B) changes based on temperature
C) speeds up under high pressure
D) slows down in very dense samples
B) B
C) C
D) D
127. Why are fossils of organism’s from
the Phanerozoic eon much more
likely to be found than fossils of
organisms from any other eon?
A) Organisms present during the
Phanerozoic eon had only soft body
parts. B) Organisms present during
the Phanerozoic eon were all
microscopic. C) Organisms present
during the Phanerozoic eon had hard
body parts. D) Organisms present
during the Phanerozoic eon are the
most ancient life forms.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
132. What discovery would weaken the
primordial soup hypothesis of the
origin of life?
A) Lightning was common on early
Earth. B) Earth’s early atmosphere
contained carbon dioxide, water, and
trace gases. C) Earth’s early oceans
were warm and shallow.
D) Asteroid impacts were uncommon
when life is presumed to have begun.
133. A scientist can assume that this life
form did not exist during the
Precambrian because________.
128. What information about Earth’s
materials can be inferred by their
arrangement in layers, as shown here?
A) their relative densities B) their
order of formation C) their relative
ages D) their temperatures
A) it is unicellular B) it contains a
nucleus C) it contains RNA and
DNA D) it has a cell membrane
134. What characteristic of Ediacaran
biota leads scientists to think that
these organisms do NOT represent
relatives of present day animals?
A) lack of a mouth, anus, or gut
B) shapes that are dissimilar to all
living organisms C) structures that
were used for movement D) lack of
nuclei
135. Which summarizes the relationship
between density of an element and its
distribution in Earth?
A) The greater an element’s density,
the greater the amount of it found in
the crust. B) The denser an element
is, the smaller the amount of it in
Earth’s core. C) The lower an
element’s density, the smaller the
amount of it found in the crust.
D) The greater an element’s density,
the smaller the amount of it found in
the crust.
136. Which diagram best represents the
relationship of the landmass of
Archean cratons to the total landmass
of Earth?
140. The process by which volcanoes vent
water vapor, carbon dioxide,
nitrogen, and other substances is
called ____.
A) oxidation B) glaciation
C) differentiation D) outgassing
141. Cyanobacteria use the process of
____ to produce energy, and oxygen
is given off as a waste product.
A) oxidation B) differentiation
C) photosynthesis D) glaciation
142. ____ have been found in the waters
of hydrothermal vents, suggesting
that proteins and nucleic acids could
have formed there during the
Archean.
A) Amino acids B) RNA molecules
C) DNA molecules D) Dissolved
minerals
143. When there is no tectonic activity
along the edge of a continent, the
edge is referred to as a ____.
A) coastline B) passive margin
C) transgression D) regression
144. During the ____, all but one of the
major marine phyla appeared.
A) Cambrian explosion B) Antler
Orogeny C) Caledonian Orogeny
D) Ouachita Orogeny
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
137. Which best summarizes the change in
number and size of microcontinents
during the Proterozoic?
A) the number of microcontinents
increased and the size increased
B) the number of microcontinents
increased and the size decreased
C) the number of microcontinents
decreased and the size increased
D) the number of microcontinents
decreased and the size decreased
138. The oldest known mineral on Earth is
____.
A) fluorite B) mica C) zircon
D) quartz
139. An organism composed of a single
cell that does not contain a nucleus
and is the simplest kind of cell is a(n)
____.
A) prokaryote B) eukaryote
C) bryozoan D) animal
145. The series of transgressions and
regressions that produce cyclothems
were likely produced by ____.
A) tectonic collisions B) volcanic
activity C) mass extinctions
D) glaciation
146. As North America rifted from Europe
and Africa, a continuous rift system
called the ____ was formed.
A) Gulf of Mexico B) Cordillera
C) Mid-Atlantic Ridge D) East
African Rift Valley
149. Which line on the graph shows the
sea level change that would result in
continuous shoreline regression?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
150. Seed plants that lived during the
Carboniferous impact life on Earth
today because________.
A) they are the ancestors of all plant
life on Earth B) their remains
formed coal, which is an important
resource C) they produced fossils
that are used to date many geologic
events D) their presence caused
oxygen levels to drop, allowing
animals to evolve
151. A rapid appearance of many new
species of organism’s
usually________.
A) happens just before an extinction
event B) leads to an increase in
glaciation C) is directly related to a
drop in sea level D) happens after a
mass extinction
152. Today, many types of organisms live
in a marine environment. At which
point on this timeline did most of the
groups of marine animals alive today
first appear?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
153. This graph best represents the
populations of marine groups before
and after the
147. The southernmost point to which
glaciers advanced in North America
is marked by the path(s) of the ____.
A) Ohio River and the Missouri River
B) Missouri River C) Ohio River
and the Mississippi River
D) Mississippi River
148. In order to categorize a margin as
active or passive, you must have
information about________.
A) the permeability of the margin
rocks B) the amount of tectonic
activity along the margin C) the
depth of water that covers the margin
D) the rate of glacial movement along
the margin
A) Cambrian explosion
B) Ordovician extinction
C) Permo-Triassic Extinction Event
D) Alleghenian Orogeny
154. If two continents of equal size were
to collide and become one, how
would the total area of continental
shelf space associated with the
landmass change?
A) it would be unchanged B) it
would triple
C) in would decrease
D) in would double
155. Which point on the timeline best
indicates the time when birds first
appeared?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
159. A scientist looking for an optimal
location for a new observatory should
choose a location________.
A) in a large city B) in an area with
an elevation below sea level C) on
a remote hilltop D) in a low-lying
river valley
164. In the northern hemisphere, what day
is represented by this diagram?
160. The Hubble Space Telescope orbits
Earth every 97 minutes. Calculate
how long it would take the Hubble
Space Telescope to orbit Earth 30
times.
A) 48 hours, 30 minutes B) 48
hours, 50 minutes C) 4 hours, 51
minutes D) 4 hours, 30 minutes
A) winter solstice B) summer
solstice C) autumnal equinox
D) vernal equinox
161. The information shown in this graph
can be used to make inferences
about________.
165. Which phase is the Moon in when the
Earth, Sun, and Moon are in the
positions shown in the diagram?
156. The extinction event shown on the
time line was________.
A) devastating to all land animals
B) the most severe extinction event in
Earth’s history C) mild compared
to other extinction events D) most
likely caused by widespread disease
157. The shaded are of this graph could be
used to represent________.
A) the amount of tectonic activity on
Earth and the Moon B) the
chemical composition of Earth and
the Moon C) the relative speed of
rotation of Earth and the Moon
D) the relative brightness of Earth
and the Moon
162. Which point on the timeline indicates
the time when the rocks on the
Moon’s surface formed?
A) the portion of Earth’s land covered
with ice at the peak of the Cenozoic
ice ages B) the portion of Earth’s
land that was a part of Pangaea
C) the portion of Earth’s history
during which humans have existed
D) the portion of Earth’s history
during which tectonic forces acted on
Earth’s surface
158. Which sentence explains how the
frequency and the wavelength of
electromagnetic waves are related?
A) As wavelength decreases,
frequency increases. B) As
wavelength decreases, frequency
remains unchanged. C) As
wavelength increases, frequency
increases. D) As wavelength
decreases, frequency decreases.
A) A
B) B
C) C
A) new moon B) full moon
C) waxing crescent D) waning
gibbous
166. A lunar eclipse could occur when the
Moon is at which position?
D) D
163. At the time indicated in this diagram,
what season is it in the Southern
hemisphere?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
167. What occurs when the Moon is at
positions A and C?
A) spring
D) winter
B) summer
C) fall
A) lunar eclipse B) spring tide
C) neap tide D) solar eclipse
168. Our timekeeping system is based on
the ____.
A) sidereal day B) solar day
C) phases of the moon D) Earth's
tilt
177. Which two planets are separated by a
distance of 1.13 AU?
180. A which labeled interval of its orbit
would the planet move with the
greatest velocity?
169. Earth's tilt in combination with its
orbit around the Sun cause the ____.
A) tides B) full moon C) seasons
D) Coriolis effect
170. The sequential changes in the
appearance of the Moon are called
____.
A) lunar eclipses B) lunar phases
C) lunar tides D) lunar positions
171. A lunar eclipse occurs when the
Moon passes through Earth's ____.
A) atmosphere B) orbit
C) shadow D) umbra
172. People who see a partial solar eclipse
are located in the ____ portion of the
Moon's shadow.
A) umbra B) perigee C) apogee
D) penumbra
A) A
A) Mercury and Mars B) Mars and
Venus C) Earth and Mercury
D) Mars and Earth
175. What is the main reason why Venus’
surface is so hot?
A) the large number of volcanoes on
Venus B) the very efficient
greenhouse effect on Venus C) the
extremely fast rotation of Venus
D) the great amount of water on
Venus
C) C
D) D
181. The center of mass for a typical
planet in the solar system is shown by
which point in the diagram?
178. Use the data in the table to calculate
the difference between the greatest
and least density of the planets in the
solar system.
A) A
173. What force draws the matter in an
interstellar cloud together to form a
star?
A) electric B) gravity
C) magnetism D) friction
174. Which of the following correctly
orders planets by decreasing day
length?
A) Venus, Earth, Jupiter B) Earth,
Jupiter, Venus C) Jupiter, Earth,
Venus D) Venus, Jupiter, Earth
B) B
B) B
C) C
D) D
182. Which of the following should be
added to the column for Zone 2 in
this table showing the three-zone
classification system for objects in
the solar system?
A) 4.83 g/cm3 B) 5.17 g/cm3
C) 6.21 g/cm3 D) 5.83 g/cm3
179. Which correctly identifies the
location of the asteroid belt?
A) Pluto B) Earth
D) Neptune
C) Eris
183. Bodies of interplanetary debris that
orbit the Sun with most in the area
between Mars and Jupiter are called
____.
A) meteors B) comets
C) asteroids D) meteorites
184. Small, icy bodies that have highly
eccentric orbits and can be found in
the Oort cloud or the Kuiper belt are
called ____.
A) meteors B) comets
C) asteroids D) meteorites
176. Which of the following is one of the
characteristics an object MUST have
to be classified as a dwarf planet by
the IAU?
A) a solid surface B) at least one
moon C) a spherical shape D) a
head and at least one tail
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
185. Interplanetary material that enters the
Earth's atmosphere and collides with
the ground rather than burning up is
called a(n) ____.
A) meteor B) comet C) asteroid
D) meteorite
186. What two gas giants appear blue
because of the methane in their
atmosphere?
A) Jupiter and Saturn B) Saturn
and Uranus C) Neptune and Uranus
D) Jupiter and Neptune
187. The result when Earth intersects a
cometary orbit is a(n) ____.
A) asteroid shower B) aurora
borealis C) loss of satellite
communication D) meteor shower
188. Which correctly lists objects in order
of decreasing mass?
A) Solar System, Jupiter, Earth, Sun
B) Solar System, Jupiter, Sun, Earth
C) Sun, Solar System, Jupiter, Earth
D) Solar System, Sun, Jupiter, Earth
189. Which line on the graph best
represents the way in which the
number of sunspots changes over
time?
193. The timeline shows the sequence of
events that occurs during the
formation of a star. What is the
correct label for the blank in the
diagram?
199. When the polarity of the Sun's
magnetic field is taken into account,
the solar activity cycle lasts ____.
A) 22.4 years B) 22.2 years
C) 11.2 years D) 11.4 years
A) nuclear fusion begins
B) internal temperature drops
C) gravity ceases to act D) rotation
begins
194. Which point on the timeline most
correctly identifies the Sun’s current
point in its lifecycle?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
195. Use the table to calculate which of the
following units represents the greatest
distance.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
190. Which planet has composition and
density most similar to the Sun?
A) Saturn B) Mars C) Mercury
D) Venus
191. A scientist comparing the properties
of a large number of different stars
could expect to find the most
variation in the data describing the
stars’________.
A) luminosity B) diameter
C) composition D) temperature
192. The line on this graph best describes
the relationship between________.
A) meter B) parsec
D) kilometer
C) light year
196. If the following line represents
unshifted light from a star, which of
these shows how the light waves
would change if the star started
moving away from the observer?
A)
B)
C)
A) the temperature of a star and its
luminosity B) the temperature of a
star and its distance from Earth
C) the temperature of a star and its
composition D) the temperature of
a star and its location in the universe
198. Most of the light emitted by the Sun
comes from the ____.
A) chromosphere B) corona
C) photosphere D) prominence
D)
197. A scientist using parallax to
determine the distance to a star will
notice the greatest shift in a star’s
apparent position when
measured________.
A) at 6-month intervals B) during
Earth’s coldest weather C) at the
midpoint of the star’s rotation D) at
the peak of the star’s blueshift
200. What causes the dark bands observed
in a solar spectrum?
A) the emission of specific elements
B) different chemical elements which
absorb light at specific wavelengths
C) highly compressed, glowing gas
D) warmer gas in front of a source
that emits a continuous spectrum
201. The apparent shift in a star’s position
caused by the motion of the observer
is called ____.
A) luminosity B) apparent
magnitude C) absolute magnitude
D) parallax
202. A star that is gravitationally bound to
another star can either be part of a
star cluster or a ____ star.
A) constellation B) white dwarf
C) binary D) red giant
203. All stars, including the Sun, have the
following identical composition:
A) 25 percent hydrogen; 73 percent
helium; and 2 percent oxygen
B) 25 percent helium; 73 percent
hydrogen; and 2 percent other
C) 25 percent helium; 73 percent
hydrogen; and 2 percent oxygen
D) 25 percent hydrogen; 73 percent
helium; and 2 percent other
204. The ____ of a star determines its
temperature, luminosity, and
diameter.
A) mass B) composition
C) energy output D) density
205. What characteristic of radio waves
makes them useful for determining
the shape of a galaxy?
A) their long wavelength B) their
high frequency C) their easy
visibility D) their variable energy
206. What method allows astronomers to
locate the structures circled in the
diagram?
212. Which line on the graph shows the
relationship between the size and
brightness of a variable star?
A) A
A) recording radio waves
B) observing RR Lyrae variables
C) measuring infrared radiation
D) observing hydrogen emission
spectra
207. Which of the following is a
characteristics of a Population II star?
A) trace amounts of heavy elements
B) age of less than 10 billion years
C) located in disk arms D) found in
spiral galaxies
208. A star in the location indicated in the
diagram is most likely________.
A) very young B) a main sequence
star C) made up of mostly heavy
elements D) an older star
209. The Milky Way and the Andromeda
are both________.
A) stars B) galaxies C) nebulae
D) quasars
210. A scientist who discovered a galaxy
could use the following diagram to
classify the galaxy according to
its________.
A) shape
D) size
B) age
C) color
211. Which ratio best expresses the mass
of the Sun compared to the mass of
the Milky Way?
A) 1: 100 billion B) 1: 100 million
C) 1: 100 trillion D) 1: 100
thousand
B) B
C) C
D) D
213. The pulsation period of four variable
stars is indicated on the diagram.
Which of the stars in a Cepheid
Variable?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
214. Which sentence best summarizes
Hubble’s Law?
A) The greater the distance to a
galaxy, the greater its velocity.
B) The greater the distance to a
galaxy, the brighter its halo. C) The
greater the distance to a galaxy, the
greater its age. D) The greater the
distance to a galaxy, the greater its
mass.
215. Other galaxies were first believed to
be ____.
A) nebulae or star clusters within the
Milky Way B) quasars outside the
Milky Way C) constellations
within the Milky Way D) the
Andromeda galaxy
216. Elliptical galaxies are divided into
subclasses based on ____.
A) their elongated shapes B) the
length of their diameters C) the
ratio of their major and minor axes
D) the length of their spiral arms
217. Cosmic background radiation has a
wavelength of approximately 1 mm,
which makes it ____.
A) gamma ray radiation
B) microwave radiation C) X-ray
radiation D) infrared radiation
218. If the average density is higher than
the critical density, the universe is
____.
A) closed B) open C) flat
D) round
219. Recent observations show that the
rate of expansion of the universe is
____.
A) slowing down B) stabilizing
C) constantly changing
D) speeding up