Download Ministry of the Health of Ukraine

Ministry of the Health of Ukraine
KHARKOV NATIONAL MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
HUMAN ANATOMY DEPARTMENT
Head of the department – prof. A. Tereshchenko
MATERIALS
for preparation of the practical classes
Human anatomy tests
Human anatomy clinical tests
KROK-1
Kharkov – 2015
1
Materials for preparation of human anatomy tests . Common editor
prof. A. Tereshchenko – Kharkov: KNMU, 2015 – 125 р.
Compilers: A. Polyakova
I. Ladna
M. Lupir
N. Jarova
A. Korobchanska
D. Sheyan
O. Boyagina
L. Babiy
Approved by the Learned
Counsil of Kharkov National Medical University
© Kharkov National Medical University, 2015
First answers are right
2
OSTEOLOGY
5. Scapula, clavicle, first rib.
1. The bone grows in length due
to:
7. In which bone is the radial fossa
1. Metaphyseal cartilages.
located?
2. Epiphyseal centres of osification.
1. Humerus.
3. Diaphyseal cavity.
2. Ulna.
4. Diaphysis.
3. Radius.
5. Periosteum.
4. Clavicle.
5. Sternum.
2. The bone grows in width due to:
1. Kambial layer of periosteum.
8. Which bone of the forearm is
2. Apophysis.
located medially?
3. Diaphysis.
1. Ulna.
4. Epiphyseal cartilages.
2. Radius.
5. Medullar cavity.
9. Name the bones which have a
3. Clavicle is classified as:
styloid process:
1. Mixed bone.
1. Temporal bone, ulna, radius.
2. Spongy bone.
2. Ulna, radius, pisiform bone.
3. Tubular bone.
3. Temporal bone, radius, humerus.
4. Flat bone.
4. Radius, humerus, ulna.
5. Sesamoid bone.
5. Sternum, clavicle, temporal bone.
4. Patella is classified as:
10. Lunate and scaphoid bones
1. Sesamoid bone.
belong to:
2. Mixed bone.
1. Proximal row of carpal bones.
3. Spongy bone.
2. Distal and proximal rows of carpal
4. Tubular bone.
bones.
5. Pneumatic bone.
3. Distal row of carpal bones.
4. Bones of metacarpus.
5. What bones of an adult have red
5. Sesamoid bones.
bone marrow?
1. Sternum, ribs, vertebrae, bones of
11. How many metacarpal bones
skull, epiphysis of tubular bones.
are there in one hand?
2. Sternum, tubular bones, bones of
1. 5.
pelvis.
2. 8.
3. Ribs, bones of skull, vertebrae,
3. 14.
long tubular bones.
4. 12.
4. Flat and spongy bones, epiphysis
5. 7.
and of tubular bones.
12. Which vertebra has the carotid
6. The bones of shoulder girdle
tuberculum?
1. 6-th cervical.
are:
1. Scapula, clavicle.
2. 7-th cervical.
2. Scapula, clavicle, sternum.
3. 5-th cervical.
3. Scapula, humerus, clavicle.
4. 1-st thoracic.
4. Sternum, scapula, humerus.
5. 2-nd cervical.
3
5. 31-32.
19. Which bones have the spinous
process?
1. Vertebrae.
2. Ulna.
3. Humerus.
4. Temporal.
5. Sphenoid.
20. Which ribs are joined to the
sternum?
1. 1-7.
2. 8-9.
3. 8-10.
4. 9-10.
5. 8-11.
21. Which vertebrae have the bifid
spinous processes?
1. Cervical except 1-st and 7-th.
2. Lumbar.
3. Thoracic except 1-st.
4. Sacrum and lumbar.
5. 6-th and 7-th lumbar.
22. What is the largest measure of
the pelvis?
1. Transverse diameter.
2. Diagonal conjugate.
3. Oblique diameter.
4. Anatomical conjugate.
5. Gynaecological conjugate.
23. Which bone has xiphoid
process?
1. Sternum.
2. Temporal bone.
3. 4-th cervical vertebra.
4. Scapula.
5. 6-th cervical vertebra.
24. Which vertebra has fovea
dentis?
1. 1-st cervical.
2. 3-th cervical.
3. 2-nd cervical.
4. 1-st thoracic.
5. 12-th thoracic.
13. In which plane are the
articular processes of thoracic
vertebrae located?
1. Frontal.
2. Horizontal.
3. Sagittal.
4. Between sagittal and frontal.
5. Between frontal and horizontal.
14. Which vertebra doesn’t have a
body?
1. 1-st cervical.
2. 2-nd cervical.
3. 5-th cervical.
4. 6-th cervical.
5. 1-st thoracic.
15. Which vertebrae have foramen of transverse processes?
1. Cervical.
2. Cervical except 1-st.
3. Cervical except 6-th.
4. Thoracic.
5. Lumbar.
16. Which thoracic vertebrae have
the complete costal facet on its
body?
1. 1, 11, 12.
2. 10, 12.
3. 1, 10, 11, 12.
4. 1, 12.
5. 1, 10, 11.
17. Which bones have the
auricular surfaces?
1. Sacrum and iliac bone.
2. Sacrum and temporal bone.
3. Temporal bone and iliac bone.
4. Sternum and sacrum.
5. Scapula and sacrum.
18. How many vertebrae does the
vertebral column have?
1. 30-34.
2. 35-38.
3. 34-36.
4. 30-32.
4
4. Lumbar and sacral.
5. 11-12 thoracic.
31. Which ribs has not the costal
groove?
1. 1 and 12.
2. 2-11.
3. 1, 2.
4. True ribs.
5. False ribs.
32. What are the boundaries of the
thoracic inlet?
1. Body T1 vertebra, manubrium
sterni, 1-st ribs.
2. Body T2 vertebra, manubrium
sterni, 1-st ribs, clavicle.
3. Body C7vertebra, manubrium
sterni, 1-st ribs, clavicle.
4. Infrasternal angle, T12 vertebra,
7-12 ribs.
33. What are the boundaries of the
thoracic outlet?
1. Infrasternal angle, T12 vertebra,
7-12 ribs.
2. Body T1 vertebra, manubrium of
sternum, 1-st rib.
3. Body T2 vertebra, manubrium of
sternum, 1-st rib, clavicule.
4. Body C7 vertebra, manubrium of
sternum, 1-st rib, clavicule.
34. On which rib is tubercle for
scalenus anterior muscle located?
1. On 1.
2. On 2.
3. On 10.
4. On 11.
5. On 12.
35. On which thoracic vertebrae
are costal facets on the transverse
processes absent?
1. On XI, XII.
2. On X.
3. On IX.
5. On III.
25. Which bone has the
trochanters?
1. Femur.
2. Tibia.
3. Fibula.
4. Calcaneus.
5. Navicular.
26. Which bone has a medial
malleolus?
1. Tibia.
2. Fibula.
3. Talus.
4. Navicular.
5. Femur.
27. Which parts the foot has?
1. Tarsus, metatarsus, phalanges.
2. Carpus, metacarpus, metatarsus.
3. Phalanges, carpus, metatarsus.
4. Metatarsus, carpus, phalanges.
5. Metacarpus, metatarsus,
phalanges.
28. What are the borders of
scapula?
1. Lateral, medial, superior.
2. Lateral, medial, inferior.
3. Superior, inferior, lateral.
4. Lateral, inferior, posterior.
29. What are the physiological
curvatures of vertebral column?
1. Cervical and lumbar lordoses,
thoracic and sacral kyphosis.
2,Cervical and lumbar lordoses, .
thoracic kyphosis.
3. Thoracic and cervical
lordoses,lumbar kyphosis.
4. Cervical,sacral and lumbar
lordosis,.
4. Cervical and sacral kyphosis,
thoracic lordosis.
30. Which vertebrae has the costal
facets on its transverse processes?
1. 1-10 thoracic
2. Cervical and lumbar.
5
1. Promontory.
2. Protection.
3. Atlant.
4. Axis.
42. What are the special features
of the first rib?
1. Head has one articular facet;
tubercle and angle of shaft are in one
point; it has no costal groove.
2. Head has two articular facets;
shaft has outer and inner surfaces
and upper and lower borders.
3. Head has two articular facets; it is
the shortest, broadest shaft and has
upper and lower borders.
43. What are the structures related
to grooves on superior surface of
the first rib?
1. Arterior groove for subclavian
vein; posterior groove for subclavian
artery.
2. Arterior groove for subclavian
artery; posterior groove for
subclavian vein.
44. What are the special features
of the 12th rib?
1. Neck, tubercle, angle and groove
are absent.
2. Groove, angle and head are
absent.
3. Neck is absent; head has two
articular facets.
45. What are the typical thoracic
vertebrae?
1. 2nd-9th thoracic vertebrae.
2. 1st-10th thoracic vertebrae.
3. 2nd-10th thoracic vertebrae.
4. 1st, 9th-12th thoracic vertebrae.
46. Which vertebra has two
arches?
1. I cervical.
2. II thoracic.
3. I sacral.
36. Which vertebra is the
prominent vertebra?
1. VII cervical.
2. I cervical.
3. V lumbar.
4. I sacral.
5. VII thoracic.
37. On which part of sternum is
jugular notch located?
1. Manubrium.
2. Body.
3. Xiphoid process.
4. Sternal angle.
38. What structures form the
intervertebral foramen?
1. Upper vertebral incisura and lower
vertebral incisura.
2. Upper vertebral incisura and two
transverse processes.
3.Lower vertebral incisura and two
bodies of vertebrae.
4. Two vertebral arches.
39. What are the characteristic
features of all thoracic vertebrae?
1. Costal facets on the body.
2. Small body.
3. Costal facets on the transversus
process.
40. What are the characteristic
features of the first cervical
vertebra?
1. Anterior and posterior arches, 4
articular facets, transversus
processes,lateral masses,
anterior and posterior tubercles.
2. Body, arch, processes,lateral
masses,transverse processes.
3. Anterior and posterior
arches,body.
41. What is the name of the
junction between base of sacrum
and body of the last lumbar
vertebra?
6
4. II cervical.
47. Which bones form the shoulder
girdle?
1. Clavicle, scapula.
2. Clavicle, acromion.
3. Scapula, olecranon.
4. Sternum, scapula.
48. Name processes of the scapula?
1. Coracoid, acromion.
2. Sternal, coracoid
3. Coronoid, acromion.
4. Spine, coracoid.
49. On which margin of scapula is
scapular notch located?
1. Superior.
2. Inferior.
3. Medial.
4. Lateral.
5. Anterior.
50. On which surface of humerus
is deltoid tuberosity located?
1. Lateral.
2. Medial.
3. Anterior.
4. Posterior.
51. On which end of humerus are
medial and lateral epicondyles
located?
1. Distal.
2. Upper.
3. Proximal.
4. Lower.
52. What is the anatomical
position of the humerus in arm?
1. Head is directed medially,
upwards and backwards.
2. Head is directed laterally, upwards
and backwards.
3. Medial epicondile is directed
anteriorly.
53. What are the boundaries of the
trochlear notch of ulna?
1. Olecranon, coronoid process.
3. Olecranon, styloid process.
4. Olecranon, trochlear process.
5. Olecranon, acromion process.
54. On which surface of radius is
radial tuberosity situated?
1. Medial.
2. Lateral.
3. Anterior.
4. Posterior.
55. On which end of ulna is head
located?
1. Distal.
2. Proximal.
3. Medial.
4. Lateral.
56. On which end of radius is head
located?
1. Proximal.
2. Distal.
3. Medial.
4. Lateral.
57 . Where is ulnar groove
present?
1. Posterior surface of medial
epicondyle of humerus.
2. Posterior surface of lateral
epicondyle of humerus.
3. On the posterior surface of shaft
of humerus.
4. On the anterior surface of shaft of
humerus.
58. What are the different parts of
hip bone?
1. Ilium, pubic, ischium.
2. Ilium, acetabulum, pubic.
3. Ischium, ilium, femur.
4. Ilium, sacrum, pubic, ischium.
59. What bones form the
boundaries of obturator foramen?
1. Pubic and ischium.
2. Ilium and pubic.
3. Sacrum and ischium.
4. Ilium and ischium.
7
60. Which structures form
terminal line?
1. Arcuate lines of hip bones and
promontorium of sacrum.
2. Pubic crest and pubic symphisis.
3. Abturator groove and iliac crest.
4. Arches of pubic bone and pubic
symphysis.
61. Where is the intertrochanteric
crest of femur located?
1. Between trochanters on the
posterior surface.
2. Between trochanters on the
anterior surface.
3. Between trochanters on the medial
surface.
4. Between trochanter and head of
femur.
62. Where is trochateric fossa of
femur located?
1. On medial surface of greater
trochanter.
2. On lateral surface of lesser
trochanter.
3. On the neck.
4. Lower intertrochanteric crest.
63. Where is a rough line of the
femur situated?
1. On posterior surface of the femur
shaft.
2. On anterior surface of the femur
shaft.
3.On posterior surface of the
trochanters.
4. Between head and greater
trochanter.
64. What is the normal anatomical
position of the femur in the thigh?
1. Head is directed medially, two
condyles are on the distal epiphysis.
2. Head is directed laterally, two
condyles are on the lower surface
65. Which sesamoid bones present
in the lower limb?
1. Patella, two bones on the foot.
2. Patella, epicondyles.
3. Patella, navicular.
4. Patella, cuboid.
66. Which structures are located
on the posterior surface of tibia?
1. Line of soleus muscle.
2. Pectineus line.
3. Linea aspera.
4. Patellar surface.
5. Intercondylar fossa.
66. Which structures are located
on the posterior surface of tibia?
1. Line of soleus muscle.
2. Pectineus line.
3. Linea aspera.
4. Patellar surface.
5. Intercondylar fossa.
67. What are parts of the ilium?
1. Body and wing.
2. Body and crest.
3. Body and rami.
4. Body and head.
68. What are parts of the
ischium?
1. Body and 1 ramus.
2. Body and 2 rami.
3. Body and wing.
4.Body and crest.
69. What are parts of the pubis?
1. Body and 2 rami..
2. Body and 1 ramus.
3. Body and wing.
4.Body and crest.
70. What are boundaries of the
obturator foramen?
1. Two rami of the pubis and ramus
of the ischium.
2. One ramus of the pubis and ramus
of the ischium.
8
3. 6
4. 9
78. What two rows are formed by
the carpal bones?
1. Proximal and distal.
2. Superior and inferior.
3. First and second.
4. Medial and lateral.
79. Which carpal bone of the hand
is sesamoid?
1. Pisiform
2. Lunate
3. Capitate
4. Scaphoid
80. Which bones are called
“sesamiod”?
1. Small bones located inside
muscle’s tendon.
2. Small bones located inside
muscle’s belly.
3. Small bones located outside
muscle’s tendon.
4. Small bones located outside
muscle’s belly.
81. On which end of the humerus
is capitulum humeri located?
1. Distal epiphysis.
2. Proximal epiphysis.
3. Medial epiphysis.
4. Lateral epiphysis.
82. On which surface of the
humerus is sulcus nervi radialis
located?
1. Posterior.
2. Anterior.
3. Medial.
4. Lateral.
83. Which bone of the forearm is
medial bone?
1. Ulna.
2. Radius.
3. Humerus.
4. Metacarpal.
71. By means of what structures is
acetabulum formed?
1. By bodies of the ilium, ischium
and pubis.
2. By bodies of the ilium and pubis.
3. By bodies of the ilium and
ischium.
4. By bodies of the ischium and
pubis.
72. How many tarsal bones are on
the foot?
1. 7
2. 6.
3. 8.
4. 5.
73. On which tarsal bone the
sustentaculum tali is located ?
1.On the calcaneus.
2. On the talus.
3. On the navicular bone.
4. On the cuboid bone.
74. Which bone is medial bone of
the leg?
1. Tibia
2. Fibula.
3. Ulna
4. Femur.
75. What bone has a lateral
malleolus?
1. Fibula
2. Tibia
3. Femur
4. Ulna
76. On what fibular epiphysis is
head located?
1. Proximal
2. Distal.
3. Medial
4. Lateral
77. How many carpal bones are on
the hand?
1. 8
2. 10
9
84. On what forearm’s bone is the
large styloid process located?
1. Radius.
2. Ulna.
3. Humerus .
4. Metacarpal.
85. Interosseus margin of the ulna
faces:
1. Laterally
2. Medially
3. Proximally
4. Distally
86. Interosseus margin of the
radius faces:
1. Medially
2. Laterally
3. Proximally
4. Distally
87. What ribs are called “true”?
1. 1-7.
2. 8-10.
3. 11,12.
4. 1-9.
5. 1-6.
88. What ribs are called “false”?
1. 8-10.
2. 1-7.
3. 11,12.
4. 1-9.
5. 1-6.
89.What ribs are called
“floating”?
1. 11, 12.
2. 1-7.
3. 8-10.
4. 1-9.
5. 1-6.
90. On which angle of the scapula
is cavitas glenoidalis located?
1. Lateral
2. Superior
3. Inferior
4. Medial
91. On which part of the sternum
are clavicular notches located?
1. Manubrium.
2. Body.
3. Xiphoid process.
92. How many costal facets are on
the lateral margin of the
manubrium sterni?
1. One and half.
2. Two.
3. One.
4. Two and half.
93. Which vertebra has only
transverse processes?
1. 1-st cervical.
2. 2-nd cervical.
3. 5-th cervical
4. 1-st thoracic.
94. Which vertebra has dens?
1. Axis
2. Atlas
3. Prominens
95. On what process of 6-th
cervical vertebra is carotid
tubercle located?
1. Transverse
2. Spinous
3. Superior articular
4. Inferior articular
96. Which cervical vertebra has
longest spinous process?
1. 7.
2. 6.
3. 5.
4. 4.
97. How many vertebrae form
sacrum?
1. 5.
2. 4.
3. 6.
98. How many vertebrae form
coccyx usually?
1. 1-5
10
2. 1-3
3. 1-6
4. 1-7
99. Crista sacralis mediana is
formed by following processes of
the vertebrae:
1. Spinous
2. Transverse
3. Superior articular
4. Inferior articular
100. Hiatus sacralis is:
1. Exit of the sacral canal
2. Entrance of the sacral canal
101. The sagittal plane divides
body into the following parts:
1. Right (dexter) and left (sinister)
2. Superior (upper, cranial) and
inferior (lower, caudal)
3. Anterior (front) and posterior
(back)
102. The frontal plane divides the
body into the following parts:
1. Anterior (front) and posterior
(back)
2. Right (dexter) and left (sinister)
3. Superior (upper, cranial) and
inferior (lower, caudal)
103. The horizontal plane divides
the body into the following parts:
1. Superior (upper, cranial) and
inferior (lower, caudal)
2. Anterior (front) and posterior
(back)
3. Right (dexter) and left (sinister)
SKULL
1. Between what formations of the
frontal bone is the ethmoid notch
located?
1. Between orbital parts.
2. Between nasal and orbital parts.
3. Between frontal squama and
orbital parts.
4. Between internal part and.
external part.
2. At which surface of the frontal
squama is foramen caecum
located?
1. Internal.
2. External.
3. In which part of the sphenoid
bone is canalis opticus located?
1. Lesser wing.
2. Greater wing.
3. Pterygoiod process greater wing.
4. Body.
5. Sella turcica.
4. Which surface of the body of the
sphenoid bone has sella turcica?
1. Upper.
2. Back.
3. Front.
4. Lover.
5. Lateral.
5. In which part of the sphenoid
bone is foramen rotundum
located?
1. Greater wing.
2. Lesser wing.
3. Pterygoid process.
4. Body.
5. Pterygoid hamulus.
3. Temporal.
4. Lateral.
5. Lower.
11
3. Petrosal part.
4. Mastoid part.
5. Tympanic cavity.
12. Which part of the temporal
bone has styloid process?
1. Petrosal part.
2. Lateral part.
3. Basilar part.
4. Perpendicular plate.
5. Tympanic part.
13. Which part of the temporal
bone has mastoid process?
1. Petrosal.
2. Tympanic.
6. Which part of the sphenoid
bone has orbital surface?
1. Greater wing.
2. Pterygoid process.
3. Lesser wing.
4. Body.
5. Maxillary.
6. Frontal.
7. In which part of the sphenoid
bone are lateral and medial plates
located?
1. Pterygoid process.
2. Greater wing.
3. Lesser wing.
4. Superior orbital fissure.
5. Sella turcica.
8. On which part of the occipital
bone is pharyngeal tubercle
located?
1. Basilar part.
2. Lateral part.
3. Occipital squama.
4. Occipital process.
5. Clivus.
9. Which part of the occipital bone
has occipital condyle?
1. Lateral part.
2. Basilar part.
3. Occipital squama.
4. External occipital protuberance.
5. Cruciate eminence.
10. Which part of the ethmoidal
bone do superior and medial nasal
conchae belong to?
1. Ethmoidal labyrinth.
2. Ethmoidal plate.
3. Perpendicular plate.
4. Uncinate process.
5. Ethmoidal bulla.
11. Which part of the temporal
bone has zigomatic process?
1. Squamous.
2. Tympanic part.
3. Squamosus.
4. Lateral.
5. Pyramidal.
14. To which type of bones does
maxilla belong to?
1. Paired bones, pneumatic.
2. Unpaired bones.
3. Sesamoid.
4. Pneumatic.
15. On which surface of the
maxilla is foramen infraorbitale
located?
1. Anterior surface.
2. Orbital surface.
3. Infraorbital surface.
4. Nasal surface.
5. Alveolar surface.
16. Which type of bones does the
palatine bone belong to?
1. Paired.
12
2. Unpaired.
3. Pneumatic.
17. Which bones have perpendicular and horizontal plates?
1. Palatine.
2. Nasal.
21. Choose all parts of the occipital
bone:
1.Basilar,lateral parts and occipital
squama.
2. Basilar, lateral and mastoid parts.
3. Basilar,orbital and lateral parts.
3. Zygomatic.
22. Which margins does parietal
bone have?
4. Hyoid.
5. Temporal.
1. Frontal, occipital, sagittal,
squamous.
18. What are the boundares of the
jugular foramen?
1. Jugular notch of the occipital and
jugular fossa of the temporal bones.
2. Jugular notch of the occipital and
jugular fossa of the temporal bones.
2. Frontal, occipital, mastoid,sagittal.
6. Frontal, occipital, sagittal,
zygomatical.
23. On which surface of the
temporal pyramid is trigeminal
impression located?
1. Anterior.
2. Posterior.
3. Occipital process and pyramid of
the temporal bones.
4. Temporal pyramid and clivus.
5. Basilar part of the occipital bone
and temporal pyramid.
19. What parts does the frontal
bone have?
1. Squama part, orbital part, nasal
part.
2. Squama part, orbital par jugular
fossae, petrosal part.
3. Squama part, orbital part, basilar
part.
20. What parts does sphenoidal
bone have?
1. Body, greater and lesser wings,
pterygoid processes.
2. Body and two pairs of processes.
3. Inferior.
4. Superior.
5. Medial.
6. Lateral.
24. Name the parts of the maxilla:
1. Body, frontal process, palatine
process, alveolaris process,
zygomatic process.
6. Body, frontal process, palatine
process, maxillar process.
7. Body, frontal process, palatine
process, pterygoid process.
8. Body, frontal process, palatine
process, alveolaris process, occipital
3. Body, frontal process, greater and
lesser wings.
13
process.
4. Foramen ovale.
3. The ratio of the minimum
diameter to the maximum length of
the skull.
4. Meeting point between coronal
and sagittal sutures.
29. What types of skull are
distingnished by cephalic index?
1. Brachycephalic, mesocephalic,
dolichocephalic.
2. Mesocephalic, dolichocephalic,
miton.
3. Meson, metacephalic.
30. Name surfaces of the greater
wings of the sphenoid bone?
1. Orbital, temporal cerebral,
maxillary,infratemporal.
2. Infratemporal, basilar, pterygoid,
orbital.
3. Anterior, temporal, infratemporal,
cerebral.
31. What bones of skull have
pneumatic sinuses?
1. Ethmoid, frontal, maxilla,
sphenoid.
2. Ethmoid, occipital, nasal.
3. Ethmoid, occipital, temporal.
4. Ethmoid, zygomatic, occipital,
frontal.
32. What is the ratio of cerebral
and facial skull of new-born?
1. 8:1.
2. 8:3.
5. Pterygoid canal.
3. 4:1.
28. What is the cephalic index?
4. 2:1.
1. The ratio of the maximum
diameter to the maximum length of
the skull.
2. It is the highest point on sagittal
suture.
5. 1:1.
25. What are the portions of the
internal base of skull?
1. Anterior, middle and posterior
cranial fossae.
2. Temporal, infratemporal, anterior
cranial fossae.
3. Pterygoid, anterior and posterior
cranial fossae.
26. Pterygopalatine fossa is
connected with nasal casity
through:
1. Foramen sphenopalatinum.
2. Foramen rotundum.
3. Foramen lacerum.
4. Inferior orbital fissure.
5. Foramen ovale.
27. Pterygopalatine fossa is
connected with middle cranial
fossa through:
1. Foramen rotundum.
2. Foramen sphenopalatinum.
3. Foramen lacerum.
33. Name the periods of more
intensive growth of facial skull of a
child?
1. The period of sexual maturation.
14
2. The period of formation of milk
occlusion (2-6 years).
4. Pterygopalatine fossa with nasal
cavity.
5. Bone palate with pterygopalatine
fossa.
37. In which of the formations
does maxillar sinus open?
1. Middle nasal meatus.
2. Pterygopalatine fossa.
3. The period of formation of
permanent occlusion (7-15 years).
4. The period of formation of milk
and permanent occlusion.
3. Superior nasal meatus.
34. What formations are jointed
through the sphenopalatine
foramen?
1. Pterygopalatine fossa and nasal
cavity.
2. Infratemporal and pterygopalatin
fossae.
4. Inferior nasal meatus.
5. Sphenoid sinus.
38. In which of the formations
does frontal sinus open?
3. Sphenoidal sinus and nasal cavity.
1. Middle nasal meatus.
2. Superior nasal meatus.
4. Bone palate and pterygopalate
fossa.
3. Inferior nasal meatus.
5. Medial cranial fossa and
pterygopalate fossa.
35. What formations are jointed
through the pterygoid canal?
1. Pterygopalatin fossa and external
base of the skull.
2. Spenoidal sinus and nasal cavity.
3. Pterygopalatin fossa and nasal
cavity.
4. Bones palate and pterygopalate
fossa.
5. Medial cranial fossa and
pterygopalatin fossa.
36. Which of the mentioned
structures is connected through
the foramen rotundum?
1. Middle cranial fossa with
pterygopalatine fossa.
2. Pterygopalatine fossa with
external base of skull.
3. Sphenoid sinus with nasal cavity.
4. Common nasal meatus.
5. Pterygopalatine fossa.
39. Which openings are located on
the bone (hard) palate?
1. Greater palatine foramen, lesser
palatine foramen, incisive foramen.
2 Greater palatine foramen, lesser
palatine foramen, ethmoidal
foramen.
3 Greater palatine foramen, lesser
palatine foramen, millar foramen.
40. On what part of lower jaw is
mandibular foramen located?
1. On inner surface of ramus.
2. On anterior surface of body.
3. On posterior surface of body.
4. On external surface of body.
15
5. On the alveolar process.
41. Pterygopalatine fossa connects
with orbital cavity through:
1. Inferior orbital fissure.
2. Superior orbital fissure.
4. Fundus of the external auditory
opening.
5. Arcuate eminence.
46. In what formation does carotic
canal finish?
1. Apex of petrosal part.
2. Tympanic cavity.
3. Rotundum foramen.
4. Foramen orale.
5. Optic canal.
42. Into what formation does the
nasolacrimale canal open?
1. Inferior nasal meatus.
2. Superior nasal meatus.
3. Internal auditory meatus.
4. Muscolutubal canal.
5. Jugular fossa.
47. In what formation does facial
canal finish?
1. Stylomastoid foramen.
2. Arcuate fossa.
3. Middle nasal meatus.
4. Inferior nasal concha.
43. Name the formations, which
belong to occipital bone?
1. Hypoglossal canal, jugular notch.
2. Foramen rotundum, mastoid
canal.
3. Petrosal fossula.
4. Meatus acusticus externus.
3. Stylomastoid foramen, optic
canal, jugular foramen.
5. Canalis musculotubarius.
48. What formations does alveolar
process of maxilla have?
1. Dental (alveolar) sockets,
interalveolar septa.
2. Oblique line.
3. Myloyoid line.
4. Mental tubercule.
5. Zygomatic arch.
49. What parts does hyoid bone
have?
1. Lesser horn, body, greater horn.
2. Lesser horn, lacrimal process.
3. Lesser horn, alveolar process.
4. Greater horn, orbital process.
50. Which bones form the superior
wall of orbit?
1. Orbital part of frontal bone, lesser
wing of sphenoid bone.
2. Greater wing of sphenoid bone.
4. Carotic groove, temporale angle,
groove for chiasma.
44. What structures does ethmoid
bone have?
1. Perpendicular plate, cribriform
plate, etmoidal labyrinth.
2. Nasal part, infraorbital bordes.
3. Perpendicular plate,
pterygospinous process.
45. In what formation does the
canal of the facial nerve begin?
1. Fundus of the internal auditory
meatus.
2. Subarcuate fossa.
3. Petrous fossula.
16
4. Nasal part of frontal bone.
5. Lacrimal bone.
6. Zygomatic bone.
51. Which structures form the
lateral wall of orbit?
1. Orbital surface of zygomatic bone,
orbital surface of greater wing.
2. Orbital surface of occipital bone,
orbital surface of lacrimal bone.
3. Orbital surface of zygomatic bone,
orbital surface of maxilla.
52. Which structures form the
medial wall of orbit?
1. Frontal process of maxilla,
lacrimal bone, orbital plate of
ethmoid bone, body of sphenoid
bone.
2. Greater wing of sphenoid bone,
body of sphenoid bone, lacrimal
bone.
3. Orbital plate of ethmoid bone,
lesser wing of sphenoid bone.
53. The orbit is jointed with
middle cranial fossa through the
following formations:
1. Superior orbital fissure, optic
canal.
2. Anterior and posterior ethmoidal
foramen.
3. Zygomaticotemporal foramen.
4. Nasolacrimal canal.
54. Which structures form the
nasal floor?
1. Palatine process of maxilla,
horizontal plate of palatine bone.
2. Alveolar process of maxilla.
5. Perpendicular plate of palatine
bone.
55. Which structures form the
septum of nasal cavity?
1. Perpendicular plate of ethmoid
bone and vomer.
2. Perpendicular plate of palatine
bone and vomer.
3. Medial plate of pterygoid process
and vomer.
4. Lateral of pterygoid process and
vomer.
56. Which formations open in
superior nasal meatus?
1. Sphenoid sinus, posterior ethmoid
air cells, sphenopalatine foramen.
3. Frontal sinus.
4. Maxillary sinus.
5. Anterior ethmoid air cells.
6. Middle ethmoid air cells.
57. Which structures form the
walls of pterygopalatine fossa?
1. Pterygoid process of sphenoid
bone, maxilla, plate of palate bone.
2. Pterygoid process of sphenoid
bone, plate of sphenoid bone.
3. Body of sphenoid bone.
4. Ramus of mandibule.
58. What grooves for mentioned
sinuses does occipital bone have?
1. For inferior petrosal sinus, for
transverse sinus, for superior sagittal
sinus, for sigmoid sinus.
2. For superior petrosal sinus, for
transverse sinus, for cavernous sinus.
3. For inferior sagittal sinus, for
transverse sinus, for superior sagittal
sinus.
59. On what formation is arcuate
eminence located?
1. Petrous part of temporal bone.
2. Squamous part of temporal bone.
3. Pterygoid process.
4. Medial plate of pterygoid process.
17
3. Tympanic part of temporal bone.
4. Lateral wall of part of temporal
cavity.
5. Fundus of jugular fossa.
60. Parts of the mandibule are:
1. Body, two rami.
2. Body, one ramus.
3. Body, coronoid process.
4. Body, condylar process.
61. What structures are on the
mandible’s alveolar part?
1. Alveoli dentales, septae
interalveolares, septa
interradicularis, jugae alveolaria.
2. Alveoli dentales, septae
interalveolares, spina mentalis,
tuberculum mentale, foramen
mentale.
3. Alveoli dentales, septa
interradicularis, jugae alveolaria,
foramen mandibulae, lingula
mandibulae.
62. What tuberositas is located on
the outer surface of the
mandibular angle?
1. Tuberositas masseterica.
2. Tuberositas pterygoidea.
1. Tuberositas mentalis.
1. Tuberositas mandibularis.
63. Name the anterior process of
the mandibular ramus:
1. Processus coronoideus
2. Processus condylaris
3. Processus corocoideus
4. Processus mandibularis
64. Name the posterior process of
the mandibular ramus:
1. Processus condylaris
2. Processus coronoideus
3. Processus corocoideus
4. Processus mandibularis
65. Name the entrance of the
mandibular canal:
1. Foramen mandibulae
2. Foramen mentale
3. Foramen alveolaris
4. Foramen condylaris
66. Name the exit of the
mandibular canal:
1. Foramen mentale
2. Foramen mandibulae
3. Foramen alveolaris
4. Foramen condylaris
67. What tuberositas is located on
the inner surface of the
mandibular angle?
1. Tuberositas pterygoidea
2. Tuberositas masseterica
3. Tuberositas mandibularis
4. Tuberositas mentalis
68. What fovea is located above
the mylohyoid line?
1. Fovea sublingualis
2. Fovea submandibularis
3. Fovea pterygoidea
4. Fovea mentalis
69. What fovea is located under
the mylohyoid line?
1. Fovea submandibularis
2. Fovea sublingualis
3. Fovea pterygoidea
4. Fovea mentalis
70. On what part of mandible is
fovea pterygoidea located?
1. On the neck
2. On the head
3. On the angle
4. On the body
71. On what surface of the maxilla
are foramina alveolaria located?
1. On the infratemporal surface
2. On the anterior surface
3. On the nasal surface
4. On the alveolar surface
72. Sinus maxillaris opens on the:
1. Nasal surface of the maxillar body
18
2. Nasal surface of the frontal
process
3. Nasal surface of the alveolar
process
73. On what part of the maxilla is
the conchal crest located?
1. On the nasal surface of the body
2. On the nasal surface of the frontal
process
3. On the anterior surface of the
body
4. On the infratemporal surface of
the body
74. On what part of the maxilla is
the ethmoidal crest located?
1. On the nasal surface of the frontal
process
2. On the nasal surface of the body
3. On the anterior surface of the
body
4. On the infratemporal surface of
the body
75. Between what bones is jugular
foramen located?
1. Between temporal and occipital
2. Between temporal and spenoid
3. Between temporal and frontal
4. Between temporal and parietal
76. Between what bones is
foramen lacerum located?
1. Between temporal and spenoid
2. Between temporal and frontal
3. Between temporal and parietal
4. Between temporal and occipital
77. Where is foramen lacerum
located?
1. Between apex of the temporal
pyramid and sphenoid body
2. Between apex of the temporal
pyramid and greater sphenoid wing
3. Between apex of the temporal
pyramid and occipital bone
4. Between apex of the temporal
pyramid and its squama
78. Name the small bones of the
facial skull:
1.Lacrimal, nasal, inferior nasal
concha, vomer
2.Lacrimal, nasal, inferior nasal
concha, zygomatic
3.Lacrimal, nasal, inferior nasal
concha, palate
4.Lacrimal, nasal, inferior nasal
concha, ethmoid
79. Name the processes of the
ethmoid bone:
1. Superior nasal concha, middle
nasal concha, uncinate process
2. Superior nasal concha, middle
nasal concha, inferior nasal concha
3. Superior nasal concha, inferior
nasal concha, uncinate process
4. Superior nasal concha, middle
nasal concha, posterior nasal concha
80. How many groups of the air
cells does the ethmoid bone have?
1.3
2.2
3.4
4.5
ARTROLOGY
2. Between sphenoid and temporal.
1. Between which bones of skull is
anterior fontanelle located?
1. Between parietals and frontal.
3. Between frontal and temporal.
19
4. Between parietal and ethmoid.
5. Between temporal and sphenoid.
2. Between which bones of skull is
posterior fontanelle located?
1. Between parietals and occipital.
2. Between sphenoid and temporal.
2. Plane.
3. Pivot.
4. Bail-and-socket.
8. Which is type of the proximal
radio-ulnar joint?
1. Pivot.
2. Plane.
3. Ball-and-socket.
4. Hinge.
9. Which is type of the
humeroradial articulation?
1. Ball-and-socket.
2. Pivot.
3. Plane.
4. Hinge.
10. Which is type of the wrist
joint?
1. Ellipsoid.
2. Plane.
3. Hinge.
4. Pivot
11. Which is type of the
carpometacarpal joint of the
thumb?
1. Saddle.
2. Pivot.
3. Plane.
4. Ellipsoid.
12. Which is type of the
mediocarpal joints?
1. Compound.
2. Simple.
3. Complex.
4. Combined.
13. What is type of the metacarpophalangeal joints?
1. Simple.
2. Compound.
3. Complex.
4. Combined.
14. Which of the following joints
are uniaxial?
1. Hinge, pivot.
3. Between frontal and temporal.
4. Between parietal and frontal.
5. Between temporal and sphenoid.
3. Name the sutures posed between
the bones of cerebral skull?
1. Coronal suture, lambdoid suture,
sagittal suture.
2. Coronal suture, lambdoid suture,
nasofrontal.
3. Lambdoid suture, sagittal suture,
nasofrontal.
4. What are fontanells of the skull
of new-born?
1. Anterior, posterior, mastoid,
sphenoid.
2. Anterior, posterior, parietal,
occipital.
3. Jugular, occipital, mastoid,
sphenoid
5. Which is type of the
sternoclavicular joint?
1. Saddle.
2. Plane.
3. Ball and socket.
4. Hinge.
6. Which is type of the
acromioclavicular joint?
1. Plane.
2. Saddle.
3. Pivot.
4. Hinge.
7. Which is type of the elbow
joint?
1. Hinge.
20
2. Ball-and-socket, ellipsoid.
3. Plane , condyloid.
4. Compound ,hinge.
5. Complex ,pivot.
15. Which of the following joints
are biaxial?
1. Ellipsoid, condyloid, saddle.
2. Ellipsoid, ball-and-socket.
3. Pivot, hinge.
16. Which of the following joints
are condyloid?
1. Knee joint.
2. Radiocarpai.
3. Humeroulnar
4. Humeroradial.
17. Which of the following joints
are hinge?
1. Humeroulnar.
2. Radiocarpal.
3. Knee joint.
4. Humeroradial.
18. Which of the following joints
are trochoid?
1. Proximal radio-ulnar.
2. Humeroradial.
3. Humeroulnar.
4. Tarsometatarsal.
19. Which of the following joints
are ball-and-socket?
1. Humeroradial, shoulder joint.
2. Elbow joint, humeroulnar.
3. Lateral atlantoaxial joint.
20. What are the characteristic
features of synovial joint?
1. Articular surfaces, fibrous
capsule, articular cavity.
2. Articular surfaces, cartilaginous
lip.
3. Articular surfaces, articular disc.
21. How are joints classified
according to their structure?
1. Fibrous, cartilagenous, synovial
joints.
2. Fibrous, cartilagenous joint,
interosseous membrane.
3. Freely movable, slightly movable,
immovable.
22. Which is type of the proximal
radioulnar joints?
1. Pivot joint, type of synovial joint.
2. Pivot joint, syndesmoses.
4. Pivot joint, trochoid joint.
23. Name the ligaments of the
wrist joint.
1. Radiocarpale dorsale and palmare,
ulnar and radial collateral ligaments.
2. Ulnar collateral ligament, arcuate
ligament.
3. Radial collator ligament,
radioulnar ligament.
24. Inversion of the foot is the
movement so that the sole faces:
1. Medially.
2. Downward and posteriorly.
3. Laterally.
4. Downward.
5. Downward and laterally.
25. What are the movements of
elbow joint?
1. Flexion, extension.
2. Adduction.
3. Supination.
4. Rotation.
26. Where.are hyaline cartilages
present?
1. Cover the articular surfaces of the
synovial joints
2.Found in the intraarticular discs.
3.Found in the intervertebral discs.
27. Why the shoulder joint is a
weak joint?
1. The glenoid cavity is shallow and
small, head of humerus is larger than
glenoid cavity.
21
2. The glenoid cavity is deep and
large, head of humerus is larger than
glenoid cavity
28. Name the ligaments of elbow
joint.
1. Ulnar and radial collateral
ligaments.
2. Anterior and posterior ligaments.
3. Glenohumeral and ulnar collateral.
4. Anterior and posterior cruciate.
29. What movements are possible
around of the sagittal axis?
1. Abduction, adduction.
2. Flexion, extension.
3. Pronation, supination.
4. Rotation.
30. What movements are possible
around of the vertical axis?
1. Pronation, supination, rotation.
2. Flexion, extension.
3. Abduction, adduction.
31. What movements are possible
at the knee joint?
1. Flexion, extension, medial and
lateral rotations.
2. Abduction, adduction.
3. Pronation, supination.
32. What type of movements are
termed "conjunct" rotation at the
knee joint?
1. Rotation of knee joint combined
with flexion.
2. Rotation of knee joint occurring
independently in a partially flexed
knee.
33. What are the intraarticular
ligaments of the knee joint?
*1. Anterior and posterior cruciate,
transverse.
2. Collateral tibial.
3. Collateral fibular
4. Obbique popliteal.
5. Arcuate popliteal.
34. What is the type of the hip
joint?
1. Cotyloid (cup-like), synovial.
2. Ball-and-socket, hinge.
3. Biaxial.
4. Saddle.
35. The yellow ligament joins:
1. Vertebral arches.
2. Vertebral body.
3. Transverse processes of the
vertebrae in the cervical part.
4. Spinous processes.
5. Transverse processes of the
lumbar vertebrae with crista iliaca.
36. The temporomandibular joint
is related to the:
1. Complex joint, combined joint.
2. Compound joint, simple joint.
3. Complex joint, simple joint.
4. Complex joint, compound joint.
5. Combined joint, simple joint.
37. The ligaments of the temporomandibular joint are:
1. Sphenomandibular, stylomandibular and lateral ligaments.
2. Anterior and posterior discotemporal ligaments.
3. Lateral and medial discomandibular ligaments.
4. Sphenomandibular and lateral
ligaments
38. The extension at the elbow
joint is limited by:
1. The olecranon.
2. The anular ligament of the radius.
3. The articular capsule.
4. The coronoid process of the ulnar.
5. The ulnar collateral ligament.
39. The radiocarpal (wrist) joint is
related to:
1. Compound joint.
2. Simple joint.
3. Complex joint.
22
4. Combined joint.
40. The radiocarpal (wrist) joint
is related to:
1. Ellipsoid joint.
2. Saddle joint.
3. Spheroid joint.
4. Hinge joint.
5. Pivot joint.
41. The abduction and adduction
at the wrist joint are carried by:
1. The anterior radiocarpal ligament.
2. The medical ligament (lig.
collaterale carpi ulnare).
3. The lateral ligament (lig.
collaterale carpi radiale).
4. The posterior radiocarpal
ligament.
5. The interosseous membrane of the
forearm.
42. Which motions are possible in
the proximal and distal radioulnar
joints?
1. The pronation, the supination.
2. The pronation, the abduction.
3. The adduction, the abduction.
4. The circumduction.
43. The II-V carpometacarpal
joints are related to:
1. The plane joints.
2. The ellipsoid joints.
3. The saddle joints.
4. The hinge joints.
5. The condyloid joints.
44. In which condition the extramotions are possible in the
talocrural joint to side?
1. In the plantar flexion.
2. In the dorsiflexion.
3. In the support on the heel.
4. In the flexion at the knee joint.
5. In the support on the toes.
45. What is type of the talocrural
joint ?
1. The hinge joint
2. The condyloid joint
3. The saddle joint
4. The ball-and-socket joint
5. The ellipsoid joint
46. How many longitudinal arches
are distinguished in the whole
arched structure of the foot?
1. Five
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. Four
47. Shape of the
temporomandibular joint is:
1. Condyloid
2. Ellipsoid
3. Hinge
4. Trochoid
5. Saddle
48. Articular surfaces of the
temporomandibular joint are:
1. Mandibular fossa of the temporal
bone and head of the mandibule
2. Coronoid process of the
mandibule and mandibular fossa of
the temporal bone
3. Neck of the mandibule and
mandibular fossa of the temporal
bone
49. Name the main ligament of the
temporomandibular joint:
1. Lateral ligament
2. Sphenomandibular ligament
3. Stylomandibular ligament
50. What ribs articulate with the
sternum by synchondrosis?
1. 1-st ribs
2. 2-nd ribs
3. 5-th ribs
4. 7-th ribs
51. Which ribs form sternocostal
joints?
23
1. 2 – 7 ribs
2. 1 – 7 ribs
3. 3 – 5 ribs
4. 2 – 6 ribs
52. Joints between ribs and
vertebrae are:
1. Trochoid
2. Hinge
3. Plane
4. Ellipsoid
5. Saddle
53. What is shape of the
sternoclavicular joint?
1. Saddle
2. Plane
3. Ellipsoid
4. Hinge
5. Trochoid
54. What is shape of the distal
radioulnar joint?
1. Trochoid
2. Saddle
3. Ellipsoid
4. Hinge
5. Plane
55. What is shape of the shoulder
joint?
1. Ball-and-socket
2. Cotyloid
3. Saddle
4. Ellipsoid
56. Due to presence of which
cartilage the shoulder joint is
complex?
1. Cartilaginous lip
2. Cartilaginous disk
3. Cartilaginous meniscus
57. Name the type of the
intermetacarpal joints:
*1. Plane, amphiarthroses
2. Plane, mobile
3. Ellipsoid, immovable
4. Trochoid, mobile
58. What are shape of the
metacarpophalangeal joints?
1. Ellipsoid
2. Trochoid
3. Hinge
4. Plane
59. What are shape of the
interphalangeal joints?
1. Hinge
2. Trochoid
3. Ellipsoid
4. Plane
60. The pubic symphysis is related
to following bone articulations:
1. Hemiarthroses
2. Synarthroses
3. Diarthroses
61. What is type of the knee joint?
1. Compound, complex, condyloid
2. Compound, complex, ellipsoid
3. Compound, complex, hinge
4. Compound, complex, cotyloid
62. How many synovial bursae are
in the knee joint?
1. 7
2. 8
3. 5
4. 6
5. 4
67. Which articulation is between
proximal ends of the leg’s bones?
1. Tibiofibular joint
2. Tibiofibular hemiarthrosis
3. Tibiofibular syndesmosis
4. Tibiofibular synchondrosis
68. Which articulation is between
distal ends of the leg’s bones?
1. Tibiofibular syndesmosis
2. Tibiofibular synchondrosis
3. Tibiofibular joint
4. Tibiofibular hemiarthrosis
69. Shape of the subtalar joint is:
1. Trochoid
24
2. Ellipsoid
3. Hinge
4. Saddle
70. Shape of the
talocalcaneonavicular joint is:
1. Ball-and-socket
2. Cup-like
3. Plane
4. Ellipsoid
71. Shape of the calcaneocuboid
joint is:
1. Saddle
2. Ball-and-socket
3. Ellipsoid
4. Hinge
72. Chopar’s joint is formed by:
1. Talocalcaneonavicular and
calcaneocuboid joints
2. Talocalcaneonavicular and
cuneonavicular joints
73. What ligament is “key” to the
Chopar’s joint?
1. Bifurcate ligament
2. Calcaneonavicular ligament
3. Talonavicular ligament
74. What joints are named as
Lisfranc’s joint?
1. Tarsometatarsal joints
2. Intertarsal joints
3. Metatarsophalangeal jonts
75. Shapes of the
metatarsophalangeal jonts are:
1. Ball-and-socket
2. Ellipsoid
3. Condyloid
4. Cotyloid
MYOLOGY
5. Zygomatic m.m.
4. The main muscle of the laugh is:
1. Greater zygomatic m.
2. Smaller zygomatic m.
3. Levator m. of upper lip.
4. Risorius m.
5. Procerus m.
5. What fascia of the neck covers
deep muscles?
1. Prevertebral layer of cervical
fascia.
2. Superficial layer of cervical
fascia.
3. Profundus layer of cervical fascia.
4. Pretracheal layer of cervical
fascia.
5. Retrovisceral layer of cervical
fascia.
6. What are the boundaries of
interscalene space?
1. Anterior and middle scalene m.m.
1. Erector muscle of spine consists
of:
1. Iliocostal, longissimus, spinalis
m.m.
2. Splenius mm. of head and neck.
3. Spinalis, semispinal m.m.
4. Rotator m.m.
2. Lateral displacement of the
mandible is realized by
contraction of:
1. Lateral pterygoid m.
2. Masseter m.
3. Temporal m.
4. Medial pterygoid m.
5. Sternocleidomastoid m.
3. What muscles of the facial
expression have fascia?
1. Buccinator (cheek) m.
2. Epicraniusl m.
3. Depressor m. of the mouth angle .
4. Risorius m.
25
2. Anterior and posterior scalene
m.m.
3. Middle and posterior sclene m.m.
4. All scalene m.m.
7. What muscles elevate the ribs?
1. External intercostal.
2. Internal intercostal.
3. Subclavius.
4. Subcostal.
5. Transversus thoracis.
8. What muscles lower the ribs?
1. Internal intercostals, subcostal,
transversus thoracis.
2. External intercostals, subcostal,
transversus thoracis
3. Subclavius, subcostal,.
9. Which muscle is the main flexor
of the vertebral column?
1. Rectus m. of abdomen.
2. Qudratus lumborum m.
3. External oblique m.
4. Internal oblique m.
5. Transversus abdominis m.
10. Which openings does the
inguinal canal have?
1. Superficial, deep.
2. Superior, inferior.
3. Anterior, posterior.
4. Superior, profundus.
5. Anterior, inferior.
11. Which structures form the
lower wall of the inguinal canal?
1. Inguinal ligament.
2. Internal oblique m.
3. Ilioinguinal ligament.
4. Lacunar ligament.
5. Transvers ligament.
12. Which structures form the
anterior wall of inguinal canal?
1. Aponeurosis of external oblique.
2. Aponeurosis of internal oblique.
3. Aponeurosis of trunsversus m. of
abdomen.
4. Inguinal ligament.
13. Which structures form the
posterior wall of inguinal canal?
1. Transversus fascia.
2. Aponeurosis of external oblique.
3. Aponeurosis of internal oblique.
4. Aponeurosis of transversus m. of
abdomen.
14. Which structure corresponds
to the deep inguinal ring?
1. Lateral inguinal fossa.
2. Supravesical fossa.
3. Medial inguinal fossa.
4. Umbilical fossa.
15. The superficial inguinal ring is
located opposite to:
1. Medial inguinal fossa.
2. Supravesical fossa.
3. Lateral inguinal fossa.
4. Umbilical fossa.
16. Aponeurosis of what muscles
form the anterior wall of the
sheath of rectus abdominis muscle
above navel?
1. External oblique, half of internal
oblique.mm.
2. Internal oblique m...
3. Transversus m..
4. Quadratus lumborum.m.
5. Rectus m.
17. What muscles rotate the trunk
on the same side of contraction?
1. Internal oblique m..
2. Rectus m..
3. Transversus m. .
4. Quadratus lumborum m.
5. External oblique.m.
18. What muscles contract on the
opposite side to which the trunk is
rotated?
1. External oblique m.
2. Internal oblique m..
3. Rectus m. .
26
4. Transversus m..
5. Quadratus lumborum m..
19. What muscles form the
anterior abdominal wall?
1. Rectus, pyramidalis mm..
2. Rectus m.
3. Transversus m..
4. Quadratus lumborum m..
5. External oblique m..
20. Which of the neck muscles take
part in the inspiration
(inhalation)?
1. Scalene m.m.
2. Long muscles of the head.
3. Frontal and lateral muscles of the
neck.
4. Sternohyoid, sternothyoid mm..
5. Each of the mentioned muscles.
21. In which triangle is Pirogov's
triangle located?
1. Submandibular.
2. Carotic triangle.
3. Omoclavicular.
4. Omotracheal.
22. What are actions of the
sternocleidomastoid m. while one
muscle contracts?
1. Bend neck part of the spine in its
direction and at the same time raised
the head turning the face at the
opposite side.
2. Bend neck part of the spine in the
opposite direction.
3. Bend neck part of the spine in its
direction and at the same
time lower the head turning the face
at its side.
4. Bend neck part of the spine backwards.
23. Which muscles pull down the
lower jaw with fixed hyoid bone?
1. Mylohyoid, digastric, geniohyoid.
2. Mylohyoid, stylohyoid, digastric.
3. Mylohyoid, thyrohyoid, digastric.
4. Digastric, stylohyoid.
24. Which muscles form the
muscular basis of the oral cavity
diaphragm?
1. Mylohyoid mm..
2. Geniohyoid mm..
3. Geniohyoid, digastrics mm..
4. Stylohyoid mm..
25. Point of the insertion of the
anterior scalenus m.?
1. On tubercul of the first rib, in the
front of the sulcus of subclavian
artery.
2. On the first rib, behind of the
sulcus of subclavian artery.
3. On the tubercul of the first rib,
behind of the sulcus of subclavian
artery.
4. On the head of the second rib.
26. What is the action of splenius
capitis and cervicis muscles during
their bilateral contractions?
1. Bend the head and neck
backwards.
2. The head turns in its direction.
3. The head turns in opposite
direction.
4. Hold the neck erect.
27. What are the boundaries of the
carotid triangle?
1. Posterior belly of digastric,
superior belly of omohyoid,
sternocleidomastoid m.m.
2. Anterior belly of digastric,
omohyoid, mylohyoid m.m.
3. Anterior belly of digastric, inferior
belly of omohyoid,
sternocleidomastoid m.m.
28. What are the boundaries of the
submandibular triangle?
1. Mandible, two bellies of digastric
m..
27
2. Anterior belly of digastric m.,
mylohyoid m., mandible.
3. Posterior belly of digastric m.,
superior belly of omohyoid m.,
mandible.
4. Posterior and anterior bellies of
digastric m., mandible.
29. What muscles are inserted to
the crest of lesser tubercle of the
humerus?
1. Latissimus dorsi.
2. Trapezius.
3. Pectoralis major.
4. Pectoralis minor.
5. Rhomboid major and minor.
30. What muscles are inserted to
the crest of the greater tubercle of
the humerus?
1. Pectoralis major.
2. Pectoralis minor.
3. Rhomboid major and minor.
4. Trapezius.
5. Latissimus dorsi.
31. Where is insertion of internal
abdominis muscle?
1. Inferior margins of the three lower
ribs.
2. Iliac crest, pubic tubercle.
3. Xiphoid process of sternum.
4. Arch of rib.
32. Where is tranversus abdominis
muscle originated?
1. Internal lip of iliac crest, inner
surface of six lower ribs,
thoracolumbar fascia, lateral 2/3 of
inguinal ligament.
2. Inner surface of three lower ribs,
lumbal fascia.
3. Iliac crest, lumbal fascia.
4. Inner lip of iliac crest, three lower
ribs.
33. Where is the inferior angle of
scapula displaced, if the inferior
fibres of trapezius muscle
contract?
1. Downward and to the medial side.
2. Back and downward.
3. Forward, and to the lateral side.
4. Upward, and to the lateral side.
34. Where is the head displaced ,if
the fibres of trapezius muscle
contract?
1. Backward.
2. Forward.
3. To the lateral side.
4. To the right.
35. Where are insertions of
rhomboid major and minor
muscles located?
1. Medial border of scapula.
2. Acromial end of clavicle, inferior
angle of scapula.
3. To the 2-6 ribs.
4. Lateral border of scapula.
36. Between what plates of neck’s
fascia is the suprasternal space
situated?
1. Between superficial and deep
plates of the pretracheal fascia.
2. Between endocervical and
prevertebral fascia.
3. Between pretrachealis and
previsceralis plate.
37. Between what structures of the
neck is the previsceral space
situated?
1. Pretrachealis fascia and trachea.
2. Superficial and pretrachealis
fascia.
3. Superficial and prevertebralis
fascia.
4. Pharynx and prevertebralis fascia.
38. Between what structures of the
neck is the retrovisceral space
situated?
1. Pharynx and prevertebralis fascia.
28
2. Superficial and pretrachealis
fascia.
3. Pretrachealis fascia and trachea.
4. Prevertebralis.
39. What is the insertion of
muscular fibres of diaphragm?
1. Central tendon.
2. Lower six ribs.
3. Lumbar vertebra.
4. Sternum, angle of ribs.
40. Where is the origin of
diaphragm located?
1. Xiphoid process, lower six ribs,
lumbar vertebra.
2. Central tendon.
3. Sacral vertebra, lower five ribs,
sternum.
41. Name the infrahyoid muscles.
1. Sternohyoid, sternothyroid,
thyrohoid, omohyoid.
2. Sternohyoid, sternothyroid,
thyrohoid, mylohyoid.
3. Sternohyoid, sternothyroid,
thyrohoid, digastric.
4. Sternohyoid, sternothyroid,
thyrohoid, geniohyoid.
42. Name the suprahyoid muscles.
1. Mylohyoid, digastric, stylohyoid,
geniohyoid.
2. Mylohyoid, digastric, sternohyoid,
geniohyoid.
3. Omohyoid, digastric, sternohyoid,
geniohyoid.
4. Sternothyroid, digastric,
sternohyoid, geniohyoid.
43. What is the action of the
pyramidalis muscle?
1. It tenses the linea alba.
2. It is accessory muscle of
expiration.
3. It is accessory muscle of
inspiration.
4. It compresses abdominal contents.
44. What is the action of the
transversus abdominis muscle?
1. It compresses abdominal
contents.
2. It is accessory muscle of
expiration.
3. It flexes vertebral column.
4. It assists in forced expiration.
45. Which structure forms the
posterior wall of the rectus m.
sheath 4-5 cm below the navel?
1. Transversalis fascia.
2. Transversus abdominis m.
3. External oblique abdominis m.
4. Internal oblique abdominis m.
5. Conjoint tendon.
46. Where is foramen vena cavae
located in the diaphragm?
1. At the level of the Th8 vertebra in
the central tendon.
2. Anterior to the body of the Th12
vertebra between crura.
3. At the level Th10 vertebra in a
sling of muscle fibres derived from
the right crus.
47. Where is aortic opening
located in the diaphragm?
1. Anterior to the body of the Th12
vertebra between crura of the
diaphragm.
2. At the level Th10 vertebra in a
sling of muscle fibres derived from
the right crus.
3. At the level of the Th8 vertebra in
the central tendon.
48. Where is oesophageal opening
located in the diaphragm?
1. At the level Th10 vertebra
between the muscular fibers of the
lumbar part of the diaphragm.
2. Anterior to the body of the Th12
vertebra between crura.
29
3. At the level Th11 vertebra in a
sling of muscle fibres derived from
the right crus.
49. What is the action of the
diaphragm?
1. Pulls down its central tendon,.
takes part in inspiration (inhalation)
2. Pulls down its central tendon,
takes part in expiration.
3. Supports abdominal contents.
50. What is the origin of external
intercostal muscle?
1. Lower border of the rib.
2. Upper border of the rib.
3. Middle part of the rib.
51. In what part of the intercostal
spaces are the external intercostal
muscles located?
1. From the spine to the costal
cartilages.
2. From the lateral margin of the
sternum to the angles of the ribs.
52. In what part of the intercostal
spaces are the internal intercostal
muscles located?
1. From the lateral margin of the
sternum to the angles of the ribs.
2. From the tubercle of rib to its
costochondral junction.
53. What is the direction of
bundles of the external oblique
abdominis muscle?
1. Obliquely downward and forward.
2. Longitudinal bundles running
verticaly.
3. Fibres run upward.
4. Fibres run horizontally forward
and medially.
54. What are the boundaries of
pectoral triangle?
1. Upper and lower border of
pectoralis minor m.
2. Upper border of pectoralis major
m. and clavicle.
3. Upper border of pectoralis minor
m. and clavicle.
55. What parts of the diaphragm
are the weakest?
1. Sternocostal and lumbocostal
triangles.
2. Lumbar and costal parts.
3. Sternal parts.
4. Lumbal, sternocostal triangle.
56. Which muscles protrude the
mandible?
1. Lateral pterygoid mm..
2. Medial pterygoid mm..
3. Deep part of masseter mm..
4. Horizontal fibres of temporalis
mm..
57. Quadrangular opening is
situated in the:
1. Back wall of axillary fossa.
2. Lumbar region.
3. Femur front surface.
4. Diaphragm.
5. Popliteal fossa.
58. What muscles restrict
triangular opening?
1. Subscapular muscle, teres major
muscle, triceps muscle of arm (long
head).
2. Triceps muscle of arm, trapezoid
muscle.
3. Serratus anterior muscle, pectoral
minor muscle, pectoral major
muscle.
4. Brachial muscle, brachioradial
muscle, biceps muscle of arm.
5. Anconeus muscle, biceps muscle
of arm (short head).
59. What canal is situated on an
arm?
1. Radial nerve canal.
2. Medial.
30
3. Metacarpal canal.
4. Inguinal canal.
5. Abductor canal.
60. What muscles abduct an arm?
1. Deltoid and supraspinous mm.
2. Deltoid and trapezoid mm.
3. Deltoid and coracobracial mm.
4. Teres minor and teres major mm.
61. What muscles pronate a
forearm?
1. Pronator quadratus and pronator
teres mm.
2. Flexor carpiradialis m. and flexor
carpi ulnaris m.
3. Biceps m. of arm.
4. Pronator teres m. and pronator
anconeus m.
62. What muscles adduct 2,4,5
fingers to middle finger?
1. Palmar interosseous mm.
2. Lumbrical mm.
3. Dorsal and palmar interesseous
mm.
4. Dorsal interosseous mm.
5. Dorsal interosseous and lumbrical
mm.
63. What muscles abduct 2, 4, 5,
fingers from the 3 finger?
1. Dorsal interosseous mm.
2. Lumbrical mm.
3. Dorsal and palmar dorsal
interosseous mm.
4. Palmar mm.
5. Dorsal interosseous and lumbrical
mm.
64. What formation corresponds
to external foramen of the femoral
canal?
1. Saphenous opening.
2. Vacular part
3. Tendinous opening.
4. Femoral ring.
5. Muscular part.
65. What muscles adduct femur?
1. Adductor magnus, brevis and
longus muscles, pectineal m.
2. Adductor magnus m., adductor,
adductor brevis m., adductor longus
m., gemellus muscles.
3. Adductor magnus, brevis and
longus muscles, piriform m.
4. Gluteus medius m., gluteus
minimus m.
5. Piriform m., gemellus m.,
iliopsoas m.
66. What formations are the walls
of cruropopliteal canal?
1. Posterior tibial m., soleus m.
2. Long flexor muscle of great toe.
3. Fibula.
4. Fibrosus crural septum.
67. What formations are the walls
of musculofibularis canal?
1. Fibula, flexor hallucis longus
muscle, posterior tibial m.
2. Fibula, long peroneal muscle.
3. Fibrasus crural septum.
68. The muscles of arm are
subdivided into the following
groups:
1. Anterior and posterior.
2. Anterior, posterior and lateral.
3. Anterior, posterior and medial.
4. Profound and superficial.
5. Superficial, middle and profound.
69. What muscles are related to
the anterior group of the arm?
1. M. brahialis, m. biceps brahii, m.
coracobrahialis.
2. M. triceps brahii, m. brahialis, m.
anconeus.
3. M. biceps brahii, m. brahialis, m.
anconeus.
4. M. coracobrahialis, m.anconeus,
m. biceps brahii.
5. M. biceps brahii, m. triceps brahii.
31
3. M. supraspinatus.
4. M. triceps brachii.
77. What muscle passes through
lacuna musculorum?
1. M. iliopsoas.
2. M. pectineus.
3. M. gluteus maximus.
4. A. and v. femoralis.
78. What muscle passes through
foramen ischiadicum minor?
1. M. obturatorius internus.
2. M. pectineus.
3. M. iliopsoas.
4. M. piriformis.
5. M. obturatorius externus.
79. What muscle passes through
foramen ischiadicus major?
1. M. piriformis.
2. M. iliopsoas.
3. M. pectineus.
4. M. internus.
5. M. obturatorius externus.
80. What is muscle of the thigh’s
posterior group?
1. M. semitendinosus.
2. M. quadriceps femoris.
3. M. gracialis
4. M. adductor longus.
5. M. pectineus.
81. What is muscle of the thigh’s
medial group?
1. M. gracialis.
2. M. semitendinosus.
3. M. semimembranosus.
4. M. biceps femoris.
5. M. quadriceps femoris.
82. What structure restricts
femoral triangle from medial side?
1. M. adductor longus.
2. M. sartorius.
3. Lig. inguinale.
4. Lig. pectineale.
70. What structures form anterior
wall of the canalis n. radialis?
1. Os humerus.
2. M. biceps brachii.
3. Os ulna.
4. M. triceps brachii.
5. M. coracobrachialis.
71. What structures form
posterior wall of the canalis
n.radialis?
1. M. triceps brachii.
2. M. biceps brachii.
3. Os radii.
4. M. coracobrachiatis.
5. Os humeri.
72. What muscles bend(flex)
forearm?
1. M. biceps brachii, m. brachialis.
2. M. coracobrachialis.
3. M. coracobrachialis, m. brachialis.
4. Caput longum m.triceps brachii.
73. What formations lies in the
canalis carpi radialis?
1. Tendon m. flexor carpi radialis.
2. N. ulnaris.
3. N. radialis.
4. A. ulnans.
5. Tendon m. flexor carpi ulnaris.
74. What muscle forms bottom of
cubital fossa?
1. M. brachialis.
2. M. brachioradialis.
3. M. pronator teres.
4. M. anconeus.
75. What muscle abducts arm?
1. M. deltoideus.
2. M. latissimus dorsi.
3. M. pectoralis major.
4. M. biceps brachii.
5. M. triceps brachii.
76. What muscle adducts arm?
1. M. pectoralis major.
2. M. deltoideus.
32
2. From tuberculum supraglenoidale.
3. From processus coracoideus.
4. From acromion.
89. From what do the most of
flexors muscles of the forearm
begin?
1. From epicondilus medialis
humerus.
2. From epicondilus lateralis
humerus.
3. From tuberositas deltoideae.
4. From tuberositas radii.
90. To what formation does m.
biceps brachii insert?
1. Tuberositas radii.
2. Olecranon.
3. Tuberositas deltoidea.
4. Tuberositas ulnae.
91. Name the muscles of the arm’s
posterior group :
1. M. triceps brachii m. anconeus.
2. M. biceps brachii m. anconeus.
3. M. triceps brachii m.
coracobrachialis.
4. M. triceps brachii m. brachialis.
92. Name the muscles of the
shoulder girdle:
1. M. deltoideus, m. supraspinatus,
m. infraspinatus, m. subscapularis.
2. M. deltoideus, m. supraspinatus,
m. brachialis.
3. M. anconeus, m. infraspinatus, m.
subscapulans.
93. Name the antogonist of m
gluteus maximus:
1. M. iliopsoas.
2. M. psoas major.
3. M. iliacus.
4. M. psoas minor.
94. Name the action of m.
quadriceps femoris:
1. Extension of the leg in knee joint.
2. Flexion in knee joint.
83. What formation forms the
internal foramen of the femoral
canal?
1. Anulus femoralis.
2. Lacuna vasorum.
3. Lacuna musculorum.
4. Anulus inguinalis superficialis.
5. Hiatus saphenus.
84. What muscles realize flexing of
the knee joint?
1. Muscles of femur (posterior
group).
2. Muscles of femur (anterior group).
3. Muscles of femur (medial group).
4. Muscles of femur (lateral group).
85. To what does m. triceps
brachii insert?
1. Olecranon.
2. Acromion.
3. Tuberositas radii.
4. Tuberositas ulnae.
86. What muscles restrict sulcus
bicipitalis lateralis?
1. M. biceps brachii and m.
brachialis on lateral side of the arm.
2. M. biceps brachii and m.
brachialis on medial side of the arm.
3. M. biceps brachii and m.
anconeus.
4. M. triceps brachii and m.
brachialis.
87. What structures restrict sulcus
bicipitalis medialis?
*1. M. biceps brachii and m.
brachialis on the medial arm’s side.
2. M. triceps brachii and
m.brachialis.
3. M. biceps brachii and m.
brachialis on the lateral arm’s side.
4. M. biceps brachii and m.anconeus.
88. From what does the long head
of m. triceps brachii begin?
1. From tuberculum infraglenoidale.
33
3. Rotate the shin inward.
4. All named functions.
95. What structures bound
superior musculoperoneal canal?
1. Fibula and m.peroneus longus.
2. Fibula and m.flexor hallucis
longus.
3. Fibula and m.flexor digitorum
longus.
4. Fibula and m.peroneus brevis.
96. What structures bound fossa
poplitea?
1. M. biceps femoris and facies
poplitea femoris, m. semitendinosus
and semimembranosus, m. gastrocnemius: caput laterale and mediale.
2. M. biceps femoris, mm.
semimem-branosus and
semitendinosus.
3. M. soleus, mm. semimembranosus
and semitendinosus
4. M. quadriceps femoris, m. gastrocnemius: caput laterale and mediale.
97. What muscles form sulcus
femoralis anterior?
1. M. vastus medialis, mm.
adductores longus and magnus.
2. M. vastus lateralis, m. adductor
magnus.
3. M. vastus intermedius, m.
adductor longus.
4. M. adductor longus and m.
adductor brevis.
98. What muscles form adductor
canal?
1. M. vastus medialis. m. adductor
magnus and lamina vastoadductoria.
2. M. rectus femoris, m. adductor
magnus and lamina cribrosa.
3. M. vastus intermedius, m.
adductor longus and fascia lata
4. M. vastus lateralis, m. vastus
medialis and tractus iliotibialis
99. What structures form
posterior wall of femoral canal?
1. Deep lamina of fascia lata
femoris.
2. Superior horn of falciform margin.
3. Femoral vessels.
4. Lacunar ligament.
100. Name the functions of m.
peroneus longus and m. peroneus
brevis.
1. Pronation of foot, elevate lateral
margin of foot.
2. Depress medial margin of foot.
3. Abduction of foot.
4. Plantar flexion of foot.
101. What muscles bound sulcus
plantaris medialis?
1. M. flexor digitorum brevis and m.
abductor hallucis.
2. M. flexor digitorum brevis, m.
adductor hallucis.
3. M. abductor hallucis, m. flexor
hallucis brevis.
4. M. flexor digitorum brevis, m.
abductor digiti minimi.
102. Name the anterior muscle of
the leg.
1. M. extensor digitorum longus.
2. M. peroneus longus.
3. M. gastrocnemius.
4. M. soleus.
103. Name the posterior muscle of
the leg.
1. M. triceps surae.
2. M. peroneus longus.
3. M. tibialis anterior.
4. M. extensor digitorum longus.
104. What structures bound exit
opening of femoral canal?
1. Margo falciformis and its superior
and inferior cornua(horns).
2. Margo falciformis and its cornua
superius.
34
3. Margo falciformis and its cornua
infenus.
4. Ligg. inguinale and lacunare.
105. Between what muscles is
sulcus iliopectineus situated?
1. M. iliopsoas and m. pectineus.
2. M. iliopsoas and m. adductor
magnus.
3. M. iliopsoas and m. rectus
femoris.
4. M. iliopsoas and m. gracilis.
5. M. iliopsoas and m. piriformis.
106. What structures bound
femoral triangle?
1. Lig. inguinale, m. adductor longus
and m. sartorius.
2. Lig. inguinale, m. adductor
magnus and m. sartorius.
3. Lig. inguinale, m. gracilis and m.
sartorius.
4. Lig.inguinale, m. iliopsoas and m.
pectineus.
107. What structures bound
entrance opening of femoral
canal?
1. Femoral vein, lig. inguinale, lig.
lacunare and lig. pectineale.
2. Femoral vein, femoral artery,
anulus femoralis.
3. Femoral vein, iliopectineal arch,
lacuna musculorum.
4. Femoral vein, subcutaneous vein,
n. obturatorius.
108. What structures form
anterior wall of femoral canal?
1. Lig. inguinale and cornu superius
of falciform margin of fascia lata.
2. Pectineal fascia and septum
femorale.
3. Inferior horn of superficial sheeth
of wide fascia and v. femoralis.
109. What structure forms lateral
wall of femoral canal?
1. Femoral vein.
2. Lacunar ligament.
3. Superior horn of falciform margin.
4. Iliopectineal arch.
110. What muscles carry out
flexion in the knee joint?
1. M. semimembranosus and m.
semitendinosus, m. biceps femoris
and m. popliteus.
2. M. adductor longus, m. adductor
magnus
3. M. rectus femoris, m. soleus.
4. M. sartorius, m. gracilis and m.
gastrocnemius
111. What muscle carries out
extension in the knee joint?
1. M. quadriceps femoris.
2. M. sartorius, m. gracilis.
3. M. adductor longus, m. quadratus
femoris.
4. M. biceps femoris.
112. What structures form m.
triceps surae?
1. M. soleus and mm. gastrocnemius.
2. M. soleus and m. tibialis anterior.
3. M. soleus and m.tibialis posterior.
3. M. soleus and m. plantaris.
113. Name the muscles of the leg’s
anterior group:
1. M. tibialis anterior, m. extensor
digitorum longus, m. extensor
hallucis longus.
2. Mm. peroneus longus and brevis.
3. M. flexor digitorum longus, m.
peroneus anterior.
4. M. extensor digitorum brevis. m.
extensor hallucis brevis.
114. Name the muscles of the leg’s
posterior group :
1. M. gastrocnemius, m. plantaris, m.
soleus, m. tibialis posterior,
35
m. flexor digitorum longus, m. flexor
hallucis longus.
2. M. gastrocnemius, m. plantaris, m.
tibialis posterior.
3. M. triceps surae, m. flexor
digitorum longus, m. tibialis
posterior.
4. M. triceps surae, m. flexor
digitorum longus.
115. Name the muscles of the leg’s
lateral group:
1. M. peroneus longus and m.
peroneus brevis.
2. M. peroneus longus, m. tibialis
anterior.
3. M. peroneus brevis, m. peroneus
tertius.
4. Mm. peronei (all of them).
116. To what formation does
triceps of the leg insert?
1. Tuber calcanei.
2. Tuberosity of V-th metatarsus
bone.
3. I-st sphenoid and I- st metatarsus
bone.
4. Three sphenoid bones and basis of
II-V metatarsus bone.
117. By what structures is
trigonum clavipectorale bounded?
1. Superior margin of m. pectoralis
minor and clavicle.
2. Inferior margin of m. pectoralis
major and clavicle.
3. Inferior margin of m. pectoralis
minor and clavicle.
4. Superior margin of m. pectoralis
minor and inferior margin of
m. pectoralis major.
118. What are situated in lacuna
musculorum?
1. M. iliopsoas and n. femoralis.
2. M. iliopsoas, n. femoralis, n.
ilioinguinalis.
3. M. iliopsoas, n. femoralis, v.
femoralis.
4. M. iliopsoas, a. and v. femoralis.
119. Where is trigonum pectorale
located?
1. Under m.pectoralis minor
2. Under m.pectoralis major
3. Under m.subclavius
120. By what muscles is trigonum
subpectorale bounded?
1. Inferior margins of m.pectoralis
minor and m.pectoralis major
2. Superior margins of m. pectoralis
minor and m.pectoralis major
3. Superior margins of m.pectoralis
minor and inferior margin of
m.pectoralis major
121. Name the superficial muscles
of the chest:
1. Greater and lesser pectoral mm,
anterior serrate m, subclavius m.
2. Greater pectoral m., anterior
serrate m., posterior serrate m.
3. Greater pectoral m., subclavius
m., transversus thoracis m.
122. What are deep chest's
muscles?
1. Mm. intercostales externus and
internus.
2. Mm. intercostales externus and
m.subclavius
3. Mm. intercostales externus and
m.serratus anterior
123. What muscles are flexors of
the upper arm?
1. Coracobrachial, biceps, brachial
muscles.
2.
Coracobrachial,
biceps,
supraspinatus muscles.
3. Coracobrachial, brachial, teres
minor muscles.
124. What muscles are located on
the posterior surface of the arm?
36
1. Triceps, anconeus mm.
2. Triceps, brachial mm.
3. Triceps, deltoid mm.
4. Triceps, brachioradial mm.
125. Abduction of the arm is
performed by the contraction of:
1. Deltoid and supraspinatus mm.
2. Deltoid and infraspinatus mm.
3. Deltoid and teres major mm.
4. Deltoid and teres minor mm.
126. Adduction of the arm is
performed by the contraction of:
1. Greater pectoral, teres major,
lattissimus dorsi mm.
2. Greater pectoral, teres minor,
deltoid mm.
3. Greater pectoral, teres major and
minor mm.
127. Flexion and medial rotation of
the arm are performed by the
contraction of:
1. Deltoid, biceps brachii, teres
major, subscapular mm.
2. Deltoid, triceps brachii, teres
major mm.
3. Deltoid, infraspinatus, teres major,
subscapular mm.
128. Flexion of the forearm is
performed by the contraction of:
1.
Biceps
brachii,
brachial,
brachioradial, round pronator mm.
2. Biceps brachii, coracobrachial,
brachial mm.
3. Biceps brachii, brachioradial,
coracobrachial mm.
129. Extension of the forearm is
performed by the contraction of:
1. Triceps, anconeus mm.
2. Triceps, extensor digitorum mm.
3. Triceps, radial extensor of the
wrist mm.
130. Flexion of the thigh is
performed by the contraction of:
1. Iliopsoas, rectus femoris, sartorius
mm.
2. Iliopsoas, gracilis, sartorius mm.
3. Iliopsoas, biceps femoris, sartorius
mm.
131. Flexion of the leg is
performed by the contraction of:
1.
Semimembramosus,
semitendinosus, biceps femoris,
popliteus mm.
2.
Semimembranosus,
rectus
femoris, biceps femoris mm.
3. Semimembranosus, quadriceps
femoris, biceps femoris mm.
132. Dorsal flexion of the foot is
performed by the contraction of:
1. Anterior leg's muscles.
2. Lateral leg's muscles.
3. Posterior leg's muscles.
133. Plantar flexion of the foot is
performed by the contraction of:
1. Posterior leg's muscles.
2. Anterior leg's muscles.
3. Lateral leg's muscles.
134. Closing of the mouth is
performed by the contraction of:
1. Temporal, masseter, medial
pterygoid mm.
2. Temporal, masseter, lateral
pterygoid mm.
3. Temporal, masseter, digastric mm.
135. Opening of the mouth is
performed by the contraction of:
1. Three suprahyoid mm. of the
neck.
2. Two suprahyoid muscles of the
neck.
3. One suprahyoid muscles of the
neck.
136. Name some superficial
anterior muscles of the forearm:
1. M. pronator teres, m. flexor carpi
radialis, m. flexor carpi ulnaris.
37
2. M. pronator teres, m. flexor carpi
radialis, m. flexor pollicis longus.
3. M. pronator teres, m. flexor carpi
ulnaris, m.pronator quadratus.
137. Name the deep anterior
muscles of the forearm:
1. M. pronator quadratus, m. flexor
digitorum profundus, m. flexor
pollicis
longus.
2. M. pronator quadratus, m. flexor
digitorum profundus, m. flexor carpi
ulnaris
3. M. pronator quadrarus, m. flexor
digitorum profundus, m. flexor carpi
radialis
138. Name the muscles of the
posterior lateral group of the
forearm:
1. M. brachioradialis, mm. extensor
carpi radialis longus and brevis.
2. M. extensor digitorum, mm.
extensor carpi radialis longus and
brevis.
3. M. brachioradialis, mm. extensor
carpi ulnaris longus and brevis.
139.
Name
the
superficial
posterior muscles of the forearm:
1. M. extensor digitorum, m.
extensor digiti minimi, m. extensor
carpi ulnaris.
2. M. extensor digitorum, m.
extensor digiti minimi, m. extensor
carpi radialis.
3. M. extensor digitorum, m.
extensor digiti minimi, m. abductor
pollicis brevis.
4. M. extensor digitorum, m.
extensor digiti minimi, m. extensor
pollicis longus.
140 Name the deep posterior ulnar
muscles of the forearm:
1. M. abductor pollicis longus, m.
extensor pollicis longus and brevis,
m. supinator, m. extensor indicis.
2. M. abductor pollicis longus, m.
abductor
pollicis
brevis,
m.
supinator.
3. M. abductor pollicis longus, m.
extensor pollicis longus, m. pronator,
m. extensor indicis.
141. What are muscles of the
thenar group?
1. M. abductor pollicis brevis, m.
flexor pollicis brevis, m. opponens
pollicis, m. adductor pollicis.
2. M. abductor pollicis brevis, m.
flexor pollicis longus, m. oppones
pollicis, m. adductor pollicis.
3. M. abductor pollicis brevis, m.
abductor
pollicis
longus,
m.opponens pollicis, m. adductor
pollicis.
142. What are muscles of the
hypothenar group?
1. M. palmaris brevis, m. abductor
digiti minimi, m. flexor digiti
minimi, m. opponens digiti minimi.
2. M. palmaris longus, m. abductor
digiti minimi, m. flexor digiti
minimi, m. opponens digiti minimi.
3. M. palmaris brevis, m. adductor
digiti minimi, m. flexor digiti
minimi, m. opponens digiti minimi.
143. What are muscles of the
hand's hollow?
1. Four mm. lumbricales, three mm.
interossei palmares, four mm.
interossei dorsales.
2. Four mm. lumbricales, three mm.
interossei palmares, three mm.
interossei dorsales.
3. Four mm. lumbricales, five
interossei palmares, two interossei
dorsales.
38
surgical neck of the humerus.
149. What is muscle of the anterior
group of the pelvic girdle?
1. M. iliopsoas
2. M. piriformis
3. M. sartorius
4. M. pectineus
5. M. obturatorius
150. Foramen supraperiforme is
bounded by:
1. Upper margin of m. piriformis and
incisura ischiadicum major
2. Upper margin of m. piriformis and
incisura ishiadicum minor
3. Upper margin of m. piriformis and
lig. sacrospinale.
151. Foramen infrapiriforme is
bounded by:
1. Lower margin of m. piriformis
and lig.sacrospinale
2. Lower margin of m. piriformis
and lig. sacrotuberale
3. Lower margin of m. piriformis
and incisura ishiadicum minor.
152. What are medial muscles of
the thigh?
1. Mm. adductor longus, brevis,
magnus, minimus, m. gracilis, m.
pectineus.
2. Mm. adductor longus, brevis,
magnus, minimus, m. sartorius, m.
bicipes.
3. Mm. adductor longus, brevis,
magnus, minimus, m. gracilis, m.
triceps.
153. What are muscles of the
medial plantar group?
1. M. abductor hallucis, m. flexor
hallucis brevis, m. adductor hallucis.
2. M. abductor hallucis, m. extensor
hallucis brevis, m. adductor hallucis.
3. M. abductor hallucis, m. flexor
digitorum, m. adductor hallucis.
144. How many canals are located
under retinaculum flexorum on
the palmar surface of the wrist?
1. 3
2. 5
3. 6
4. 4
145. How many canals are located
under retinaculum extensorum on
the dorsal surface of the wrist
joint?
1. 6
2. 5
3. 7
4. 4
146. What forearm's muscles move
thumb?
1. M. flexor pollicis longus, m.
extensor pollicis longus and brevis.
m. abductor pollicis longus.
2. M. flexor pollicis longus, m.
abductor pollicis longus and brevis,
m. extensor pollicis.
3. M. flexor pollicis longus, m.
adductor pollicis, m. extensor
pollicis
longus.
147. What is superficial muscle of
the back?
1. M. rhomboideus
2. M. erector spinae
3. M. splenius capitis
4. M. serratus anterior
148. What are boundaries of the
quadrangular opening?
1. M. teres major, m. subscapularis,
long head of the m. triceps brachii,
surgical neck of the humerus.
2. M. teres major, m. subscapularis,
short head of the m. triceps brachii,
surgical neck of the humerus.
3. M. teres major, m. teres minor,
long head of the m. triceps brachii,
39
1. Aponeurosis of the external
oblique abdominis muscle.
2. Aponeurosis of the internal
oblique abdominis muscle.
3. Aponeurosis of the transversus
abdominis muscle.
160. Posterior wall of the inguinal
canal is formed by:
1. Fascia transversalis.
2. Tunica serosa.
3. Fascia interna.
4. Fascia subserosa.
161. Superior wall of the inguinal
canal is formed by:
1. Inferior borders of the internal
oblique and transversus mm.
2. Inferior borders of the internal
oblique and external oblique mm.
3. Inferior borders of the internal
oblique and pyramidalis mm.
4. Inferior borders of the internal
oblique and rectus abdominis mm.
162. Inferior wall of the inguinal
canal is formed by:
1. Groove of the inguinal ligament.
2. Groove of the ligamentum
reflexum.
3. Groove of the lacunar ligament.
163.
Aponeurosis
of
what
abdominal muscles form the
posterior wall of the sheath
of rectus abdominis muscle above
navel?
1. Half of mm. obliques internus
abdominis
and m. transversus
abdominis.
2. M. obliques externus abdominis
and m. obliques internus abdominis.
3. M. obliques externus abdominis
and m. transversus abdominis.
164. Posterior wall of the sheath of
rectus abdominis muscle 4-5cm
below navel is formed by:
154. What are muscles of the
lateral plantar group?
1. M. abductor digiti minimi, m.
flexor digiti minimi, m. opponens
digiti minimi.
2. M. abductor digiti minimi, m.
flexor digiti minimi, m. adductor
digiti minimi.
3. M. abductor digiti minimi, m.
flexor digitorum brevis, m. adductor
digiti minimi.
155. What are muscles of the
middle group of the sole?
1. M. flexor digitorum brevis, m.
quadratus plantae,
four
mm.
lumbricales, seven mm.interossei.
2. M. flexor digitorum brevis, m.
quadratus plantae, three mm.
lumbricales,seven mm.interossei.
3. M. flexor digitorum brevis, m.
quadratus plantae,
four
mm.
lumbricales, six mm. interossei.
156. What is superficial muscle of
the back?
1. M. levator scapulae.
2. M. erector spinae.
3. M. pectoralis major.
157. Name superficial chest's
muscles.
1. M. pectoralis major, subclavius.
2.M. pectoralis minor, m. transversus
thoracis.
3. M. pectoralis major, serratus
posterior.
158. What deep muscles of the
chest are inspiration muscles?
1. Mm. intercostales externi.
2. Mm. intercostales interni.
3. Mm. subcostales.
4. Mm. transversus thoracis.
159. Anterior wall of the inguinal
canal is formed by:
40
1. Fascia transversalis.
2. Aponeurosis of the m. transversus
abdominis.
3. Aponeurosis of the m. obliquus
internus abdominis.
165. Anterior wall of the sheath of
rectus abdominis muscle 4-5cm
below navel is formed by:
1. Aponeuroses of three lateral
abdominal muscles.
2. Aponeuroses of the two lateral
abdominal muscles.
3. Aponeurosis of four lateral
abdominal muscles.
167. What muscle forms posterior
abdominal wall?
1. M. quadratus lumborum.
2. M. rectus abdominis.
3. M. serratus posterior.
4. M. transversospinalis.
168. What structure passes
through male inguinal canal?
1. Spermatic cord.
2. A. testicularis.
3. Spermatic duct.
4. N. testicularis.
169. What structure passes
through female inguinal canal?
1. Lig. teres uteri.
2. Uterine tube.
3. Lig. teres ovary.
4. Lig. lata uteri.
170. Where is Pirogov's triangle
located?
1. In the inferior angle of the
submandibular triangle.
2. In the inferior angle of the carotid
triangle.
3. In the inferior angle of the
omotracheal triangle.
41
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
1. Contraction of what muscle
makes tongue flat?
1. M. verticalis linguae.
2. M. longitudinalis inferior
3. M. longitudinalis superior.
4. M. transversus linguae.
2. In what papillae of the tongue
are the gustatory receptors
located?
1. Fungiformes, vallatae,
foliatae,lentiformes
2. Fungiformes, vallatae,
filiformes.lentiformes
3. Vallatae, filiformes,
conicae,lentiformes
4. Fungiformes, vallatae, conicae.
3. Name the proper muscles of the
tongue.
1. Upper longitudinal muscle, lower
longitudinal muscle, transversal
muscle of tongue, vertical muscle of
tongue.
2. Stiloglottis muscle, transversal
muscle of tongue, vertical muscle of
tongue.
3. Stylopharyngeal m., transversal
muscle of tongue, vertical muscle of
tongue.
4. Which of the mentioned parts
does tongue have?
1. Root, body, tip.
2. Bottom, body, tip.
3. Fornix, tip, body.
5. Where do the excretory ducts of
the sublingual salivary gland
open?
1. On the sublingual papilla.
2. On the root of tongue.
3. On the mucous cheek on the level
of canine.
4. On the mucous cheek on the level
of 1st molar.
5. On the sublingual fold.
6. The ducts of what mentioned
salivary glands open on the
sublingual papilla?
1. Submandibular, sublingual..
2. Submandibular,lingual.
3. Submandibular,labial.
4. Submandibular,parotid.
7. Name the formula of milk-teeth.
1. 2.1.0.2
2. 2.0.1.2
3. 1.2.0.2
4. 0.2.1.2
5. 1.2.2.0
8. Name the formula of
permanent teeth.
1. 2.1.2.3
2. 3.2.1.2
3. 2 2.1.3
4. 1.3.2.2
5. 3.2.2.1
9. What parts does the tooth have?
1. Corona, root, neck.
2. Corona, root, body.
3. Root, neck, head.
10. Which tissues form the tooth's
substance?
1. Enamel, dentine, cement.
2. Enamel, dentine, collagen.
3. Dentine, cement, elastin.
11. Which of the mentioned glands
belong to the large salivary
glands?
1. Parotis, submandibular,
sublingual.
2. Parotis, submandibular, buccal.
3. Parotis, submandibular, labial.
12. What parts does pharynx
have?
1. Nasal, oral, laryngeal.
2. Nasal, oral, subpalate.
3. Nasal, oral, thoracal.
42
3. Cervical, thoracic, diaphragmatic.
19. What anatomical constrictions
does oesophagus have?
1. Pharyngeal, bronchial,
diaphragmatic.
2. Pharyngeal, bronchial, aortal.
3. Aortic, cardiac.
20. What parts does stomach
have?
1. Fundus, cardiac, body, piloric.
2. Ampula, horizontal, abdominal,
thoracic.
3. Cardiac, fundus, ampula.
21. With what muscular layer is
m.sphincter pylorici formed?
1. Stratum circulare.
2. Stratum obliquum.
3. Stratum longitudinale.
4. Stratum fibroelastica.
22. In what part of stomach is
incisura angularis located?
1. Lesser curvature.
2. Pars pylorica
3. Pars cardiaca.
4. Corpus ventriculi.
5. Fundus ventriculi.
23. What layers (coats) does the
wall of stomach have?
1. Serous, muscular, submucous,
mucous.
2. Adventitia, collagen, endothelial.
3. Serous, muscular, adventitia.
4. Mucous, submucous, adventitia.
24. What ligaments of the stomach
does peritoneum form?
1. Hepatogastric, gastrolienal,
gastrocolicum.
2. Gastrodiaphragmatic, gastrolienal.
3. Gastrocolic, gastroduodenal.
25. On the mucous coat of stomach
along the lesser curvature there
are such plicae:
1. Longitudinal.
2. Semilunar.
3. Serrate.
4. Reticulate.
5. Circular.
13. In what part of the pharynx is
ostium pharyngeum tubae
auditivae located?
1. Lateral wall of the nasopharynx.
2. Anterior wall of the oral part.
3. Posterior wall of the laryngeal
part.
4. Upper wall of the nasopharynx.
5. Pearshaped pocket.
14. The duct of which salivary
glands open into the vestibulum
oris on the level of the second
upper molar?
1. Parotis.
2. Buccal.
3. Sublingual.
4. Subjawal.
5. Lingual.
15. With what structure does
pharynx begin on the base of
skull?
1. Fascia pharyngobasilaris
2. Mucous tunic.
3. Muscular tunic.
4. Adventitia.
5. Submucosal layer.
16. Which of the mentioned tonsils
form the Pirogov’s lymphoid ring
of the pharynx?
1. Tonsilla pharyngea, tonsillae
tubariae, tonsillae palatinae, tonsilla
lingualis.
2. Tonsilla pharyngea, tonsilla
palatina, tonsilla submandibularis.
3. Tonsilla tubaria, tonsilla
sublingualis.
17. Where is the lingual tonsil
located?
1. In the root of the tongue.
2. In the vault of the pharynx.
3. In the soft palate.
4. In the almond-shaped fossa.
5. In the lower surface of the tongue.
18. What parts does oesophagus
have?
1. Cervical, thoracic, abdominal.
2. Cervical, thoracic, cephalic.
43
26. How is stomach located
according to the peritoneum?
1. Intraperitonealy.
2. Extraperitonealy.
3. Mesoperitonealy.
4. Retroperitonealy.
27. What parts does small intestine
have?
1. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum.
2. Colon, caecum, rectum.
3. Duodenum, jejunum, colon.
4. Colon, caecum, duodenum.
28. What parts does duodenum
have?
1. Upper, descending, horizontal,
ascending.
2. Lower, upper, descending.
3. Upper, descending, lower.
4. Descending, ascending, lower
29. What formations form the
relief of mucous membrane of
small intestine?
1. Circular plicae, villi intestinales
2. Fibres.
3. Fields.
4. Semilunar folds.
30. What parts of intestine don't
have mesentery?
1. Colon ascendens, duodenum.
2. lleum, colon descendens.
3. Jejunum, .colon ascendens
4. Colon sigmoideum, duodenum.
31. On what level is flexura
duodenojejunalis located?
1. II lumbar vertebrae.
2. I lumbar vertebrae.
3. III lumbar vertebrae.
4. XII thoracic vertebrae.
5. XI thoracic vertebrae
32. On what formation of the
duodenum is the opening of
additional duct of pancreas
located?
1. On the lesser papilla.
2. On the greater papilla.
3. On the circular plica.
4. On the semilunar plica.
33. How is duodenum located
according to the peritoneum?
1. Intraperitonealy, extraperitonealy.
2. Retroperitonealy, intraperitonealy.
3. Extraperitonealy, retroperitonealy.
4. Mesoperitonealy,
extraperitonealy.
5. Mesoperitonealy, intraperitonealy.
34. How are jejunum and ileum
located according to the peritoneum?
1. Intraperitonealy.
2. Extraperitonealy.
3. Mesoperitonealy.
4. Extraperitonealy, mesoperitonealy.
5. Mesoperitonealy, intraperitonealy.
35. What parts does large intestine
have?
1. Caecum, colon, rectum.
2. Sigmoid intestine, ileum, caecum.
3. Caecum, colon, sigmoid intestine.
4. Colon, rectum, sigmoid intestine.
36. What parts of large intestine
don't have mesentery?
1. Caecum, ascending colon,
descending colon.
2. Transverse colon, sigmoid colon.
3. Caecum, ascending colon,
transverse colon.
4. Transverse colon, sigmoid colon,
descending colon.
37. Which of the mentioned
features are main for caecum and
colon?
1. Haustrae coli, appendices
epiploicae, teniae coli.
2. Circular plicae, crypts, tenia coli.
3. Haustrae coli, circular plicae, tenia
coli.
38. How is appendix vermiformis
located according to the
peritoneum?
1. Intraperitonealy
2. Mesoperitonealy
3. Extraperitonealy.
4. Retroperitonealy.
44
39. How is colon descendens
located according to the
peritoneum?
1. Mesoperitonealy.
2. Intraperitonealy.
3. Extraperitonealy.
4. Retroperitonealy.
40. What formations form the
relief of mucous coat of the colon?
1. Semicircular plicae, single lymph
follicles.
2. Aggregate lymph nodes, circular
plicae, papillae.
3. Semicircular plicae, aggregate
lymph nodes, circular plicae.
4. Single lymph nodes, aggregate
lymph nodes.
41. Name the teniae of colon:
1. Mesentery, omental, libera.
2. Longitudinal, intestine, omental.
3. Mesentery, omental, longitudinal.
4. Longitudinal, intestine, mesentery.
42. What flexures does rectum
have?
1. Sacral, perineal.
2. Pelvic, perineal.
3. Left, right.
43. What parts does the diaphragmatic surface of liver have?
1. Left, right lobes.
2. Square, caudate lobes.
3. Upper lobe.
44. Which of the mentioned
ligaments connect liver with
diaphragm?
1. Coronal, triangular, falciform.
2. Round, liverodiaphragmal.
3. Coronal, triangular,
liverodiaphragmal.
45. Which of the mentioned ducts
leave the porta of liver?
1. Common hepatic.
2. Common bile.
3. Thoracic.
4. Subgastric.
5. Cystic.
46. What formations are located in
the hepatoduodenal ligament?
1. Common bile duct, portal vein,
proper hepatic artery.
2. Gastric artery, upper mesenterial
artery, portal vein.
3. Gastric artery, upper mesenterial
artery, proper hepatic artery.
47. What formations separate the
caudate lobe of liver?
1. Liver's porta, fossa of venous
duct, groove of vena cava.
2. Fossa of gall bladder, groove of
vena cava.
3. Groove of umbilical vena, groove
of vena cava.
48. The surface of which part of
liver is the upper wall of omental
sac?
1. Caudate lobe.
2. Square lobe.
3. Left lobe.
4. Right lobe.
49. The surface of which part of
liver is the wall of pregastric sac?
1. Left lobe.
2. Caudal lobe.
3. Square lobe.
4. Right lobe.
5. None.
50. What parts does gall bladder
have?
1. Fundus, body, neck.
2. Head, tail, body.
3. Bottom, body, head.
4. Head, tail, neck.
51. What parts does pancreas
have?
*1. Head, body, tail.
2. Square part, tail part, body.
3. Head, square part, tail part.
52. How is pancreas located
according to the peritoneum?
1. Extraperitonealy.
2. Mesoperitonealy.
3. Intraperitonealy.
4. Retroperitonealy.
45
3. Jejunum.
4. Stomach.
5. Caecum.
60 .The molars of the maxilla
have:
1. Three roots.
2. One root.
3. Two roots.
61. The molars of the mandible
have:
1. Two roots.
2. One root.
3. Three roots.
62. Which of the following types of
the teeth are not found in
deciduous (milk) row?
1. Premolars.
2. Incisors.
3. Canines.
4. Molars.
63. Crown of each tooth has:
1. 5 surfaces.
2. 3 surfaces.
3. 4 surfaces.
4. 2 surfaces.
64. Contact surfaces of the tooth
are:
1. Facies approximalis mesialis and
distalis.
2. Facies vestibularis and lingualis.
3. Facies occlisalis and vestibularis.
65. Name the surfaces of the tooth
crown:
1.Vestibular, lingual, masticating
and two contact surfaces.
2.Vestibular, 2 lingual and
2masticating surfaces.
3. Vestibular, 2 lingual, right and
left surfaces.
4. Vestibular, 2 contact, masticating
and right surfaces.
66. What three sings determine to
which side of the teeth row a tooth
belongs?
1. Root sing, crown sing, crown
curvature sing.
2. Angel of the root sing, crown
angel sing, crown curvature sing.
3. Root sing, curvature of angel sing,
crown curvature sing.
67. What is the tooth organ?
1. Tooth, periodontum, walls of the
alveoli, gum.
53. What organs of abdomen are
located intraperitonealy but have
no mesentery?
1. Stomach, caecum, part of
duodenum.
2. Ascending colon, transverse
colon.
3. Descending colon, sigmoid colon
4. Sigmoid colon, transverse colon.
54. What ligaments form the lesser
omentum?
1. Hepatogastric, hepatoduodenal .
2. Falciform, gastrocolonal.
3. Gastrocolonal, coronal.
55. How many layers of the peritoneum compose greater omentum?
1. Four.
2. Two
3. Three.
4. Five.
5. Six.
56. How many layers of the
peritoneum compose the
mesentery of small intestine?
1. Two
2. One.
3. Three.
4. Four.
5. Five.
57. Where is omental bursa
located?
1. Behind stomach.
2. In front of stomach.
3. Behind pancreas.
4. Between liver and gallbladder.
5. In front of right kidney.
58. What organs are situated
mesoperitonealy?
1. Ascending colon, descending
colon.
2. Stomach, ileum.
3. Stomach, sigmoid colon.
4. Descending colon, sigmoid colon.
59. In which intestinal part are
Peyer’s patches located?
1. lleum.
2. Duodenum.
46
2.Tooth, cementum, periodontum,
gum.
3.Tooth, periosteum, walls of the
alveoli, gum.
68. Time of the eruption of the
“milk teeth”:
1. 6 month — 2 years of age.
2. 1 —3 years of age.
3. 1 — 3 years of age.
4. 1 — 2 years of age.
69. What molar erupted at 6 years
of age?
1. First.
2. Second.
3. Third.
70. Name the groups of the small
salivary glands:
1. Labial, buccal, palatine, lingual.
2. Labial, buccal, parotis, lingual.
3. Labial, buccal, sublingual, lingual.
4. Labial, submandibular, buccal,
palatine.
71. Contraction of what muscles of
the soft palate separates nasal and
oral parts of the pharynx?
1. M. levator veli palatine, m. tensor
veli palatine.
2. M. levator veli palatine, m.
palatoglossus.
3. M. levator veli palatine, m.
palatopharyngeus.
4. M. levator veli palatine, m. uvulae.
72. What opening communicates
mouth cavity with oral part of the
pharynx?
1. Isthmus faucium.
2. Ostium pharyngeum tubae
auditivae.
3. Choanae.
4. Aditus laryngis.
73. Boundaries of the isthmus
faucium are formed by:
1. Soft palate, root of the tongue,
palate's arches.
2. Soft palate, body of the tongue,
palate's arches.
3. Soft palate, tongue, palate's
arches.
74. Where are palate tonsils
located?
1. Between two palate's arches.
2. Inside soft palate.
3. Inside hard palate.
75. Where is pharyngeal tonsil
located?
1. Between superior and posterior
walls of the nasopharynx.
2. Between superior and lateral walls
of the nasopharynx.
3. Between superior and anterior
walls of the nasopharynx.
76. In what papillae of the tonguae
are receptors of the common
senses located?
1. Filiformes, conical.
2. Filiformes, vallatae.
3. Fungiformes, conical.
4. Fungiformes, filiformes.
77. The oesophageal wall is formed
by the following coats (from inner
to outer):
1. Mucous, submucous, muscular,
adventitious coats.
2. Mucous, muscular, submucous,
adventitious coats.
3. Mucous, adventitious, submucous,
muscular.
78. How many layers are in the
muscular coat of the oesophegus?
1. Two.
2. Three.
3. One.
4. Four.
79. How many layers are in the
muscular layer of the stomach's
wall?
1. Three.
2. Two.
3. One.
4. Four.
80. What are muscular layers of
the stomach's wall?
1. External longitudinal, middle
circular, inner oblique layers.
2. External circular, middle oblique,
inner longitudinal layers.
3. External longitudinal, middle
oblique, inner circlar layers?
81. Length of the small intestine in
the body of the living person is:
1. 5-6,5m.
2. 5-5,5m.
3. 5-6,0m.
4. 5-7,0m.
82. Length of the duodenum is:
*1. 25-30cm.
47
2. 25-40cm.
3. 25-50cm.
83. What part of the duodenum is
covered intraperitoneally?
1. Superior.
2. Descending.
3. Horizontal.
4. Ascending.
84. What part of the duodenum
are covered extraperitoneally?
1.
Descending,
horizontal,
ascending.
2. Descending, superior, ascending.
3. Descending, ascending, superior.
85. How is colon ascendens located
according to the peritoneum?
1. Mesoperitoneally.
2. Intraperitoneally.
3. Extraperitoneally.
4. Retroperitoneally.
86. What parts of the large
intestine have mesantary?
1. Transverse colon, sigmoid colon.
2. Caecum, sigmoid colon.
3. Transverse colon, descending
colon.
4. Transverse colon, ascending
colon.
87. Which part of the large
intestine is called “intestinal
tonsil ”?
1. Vermiforme process.
2. Caecum.
3. Sigmoid colon.
4. Rectum.
88. How is rectum covered by
peritoneum (from up to down)?
1. Intraperitoneally, esoperitoneally,
extraperitoneally.
2.
Intraperitoneally,
extraperitoneally, mesoperitoneally.
3.
Mesoperitoneally,
intraperitoneally, extraperitoneally.
89. In what part of the rectum the
longitudinal mucous folds located?
1. Anal canal.
2. Rectal ampulla.
3. Pelvic part.
90. On the liver's visceral surface
there are following lobes:
1. Caudate, quadrate, right, left
lobes.
2. Caudate, quadrate, superior,
inferior lobes.
3. Caudate, quadrate, right, inferior
lobes.
91. How is liver covered by
peritoneum?
1. Mesoperitoneally.
2. Intraperitoneally.
3. Extraperitoneally.
4. Retroperitoneally.
92. Common bile duct is formed
by:
1. Common hepatic and cystic ducts.
2. Common hepatic and right hepatic
ducts.
3. Common hepatic and left hepatic
ducts.
93. What sacs (bursae) located in
the upper storey of the peritoneal
cavity?
1. Hepatic, pregastric, omental
bursae.
2. Hepatic, pregastric, superior
bursae.
3. Hepatic, mesenteric, omental
bursae.
94. The upper storey of the
peritoneal cavity is bounded by:
1. Diaphragm and root of the
mesocolon transversum.
2. Diaphragm and root of mesentery.
3. Diaphragm and entrance of the
true pelvis.
95. How many ligaments are in the
upper storey of the peritoneal
cavity?
1. Nine.
2. Eight.
3. Seven.
4. Ten.
96. Which mesenteric sinuses are
located in the middle storey of the
peritoneal cavity?
1. Right and left.
2. Right and upper.
3. Right and inferior.
4. Right and lateral.
97. Which mesenteric sinus is
closed?
1 Right.
2. Left.
3. Superior.
4. Inferior.
98. Which mesenteric sinus
communicates with the pelvis
cavity?
48
1. Left.
2. Right.
3. Superior.
4. Inferior.
99. How many peritoneal recesses
are in the middle story of the
peritoneal cavity?
1. Six.
2. Five.
3. Four.
4. Seven.
100. How many pouches are
located in male's lower peritoneal
storey?
1. One.
2. Two.
3. Three.
4. Four.
101. How many pouches are
located
in
female's
lower
peritoneal storey?
1. Two.
2. One.
3. Three.
4. Four.
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
1. Name the opening in the
superior nasal meatus:
1. Posterior ethmoidal air cells
2. Frontal air sinus
3. Maxillary air sinus
4. Middle ethmoidal air cells
2. Name the opening in the inferior
nasal meatus:
1. Nasolacrimal duct
2. Frontal air sinus
3. Maxillary air sinus
4. Middle ethmoidal air cells
5. Posterior ethmoidal air cells
3. Name the paranasal air sinuses:
1. Frontal, maxillary, sphenoidal,
ethmoidal
2. Superior sagittal, sigmoidal
3. Frontal, maxillary, sigmoidal
4. Where is the larynx located?
1. In front of C 4-6 vertebrae
2. In front of C 2-3 vertebrae
3. From root of tongue to bronchi
4. From root of tongue to bifurcation
of trachea
5. Name the unpaired cartilages
forming the skeleton of larynx:
1. Thyroid, cricoid, epiglottis
2. Arytenoid, corniculate, cuneiform
3. Thyroid, cricoid, cuneiform
4. Epiglottic, corniculate, cuneiform
6. Name the paired cartilages
forming the skeleton of larynx:
1. Arytenoid, corniculate,
cuneiforme
2. Thyroid, cricoid, epiglottic
3. Thyroid, cricoid, cuneiform
4. Epiglottic, corniculate, cuneiform
7. Name laryngeal ligaments.
1. Hyoepiglottic, thyrohyoid
2. Cricotracheal, quadrate
3. Hyoepiglottic, cricotracheal
4. Thyrohyoid, quadrate
8. What are the parts of the
laryngeal cavity?
1. Vestibule, glottis part, infraglottis
part
2. Vestibule,glottis part, floor.
3. Vestibule,apex, glottis part
9. Which surfaces does the lung
have?
1. Diaphragmatic, medial, costal
2. Cardiac, medial, costal
3. Diaphragmatic, medial, lateral
4. Diaphragmatic, lateral, costal
5. Sternal,cardiacal, medial
10. Name the structures forming
the alveolar tree:
1. Respiratory bronchioles, alveolar
ducts, alveoli, alveolar saccules
2. Terminal bronchioles, alveolar
ducts, alveoli, air saccules
49
3. Terminal and respiratory
bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveoli.
11. Name the structures forming
the bronchial tree:
1. All bronchi, from the principal
bronchi to the terminal bronchioli.
2. All bronchi, from the principal
bronchi to the lobular..
3. All bronchi, from the principal
bronchi to the seqmental bronchi
12. What is pleura?
1. It is serous membrane
2. It is a mucous membrane
3. It is an adventitial membrane
4. It is a connective membrane
13. Name the structures of the
posterior mediastinum: .
1. Descending aorta, oesophagus,
thoracic duct, azygos and
hemiazygos veins, vena cava
inferior,vagus nerves,splanchnic
nerves.
2. Heart, pericardium, arch of the
aorta, oesophagus,vagus nerves.,
3. Oesophagus, heart, descending
aorta, splanchnic nerves,vagus
nerves.
14. Name the structures of the
anterior mediastinum.
1. Heart, pericardium, bifurcation of
the trachea, bronchi, phrenic nerves
2. Loose alveolar tissue, lymphatic
glands and vessels, arteriel vessels
3. Oesophagus, heart, descending
aorta, splanchnic nerves
15. What are portions of the
parietal pleura?
1. Costal, diaphragmatic, mediastinal
2. Costal, pulmonary
3. Diaphragmatic, mediastinal,
pulmonary
4. Mediastinal, costal, pulmonary
16. What are portions of the
pleura?
1. Visceral, parietal
2. Visceral, costal
3. Costal, mediastinal,
4. Parietal, mediastinal
17. Name of the pleural recesses:
1.Costodiaphragmatic,costomediasti
nal
2. Diaphragmatic, phrenicocostal,
mediastinal
3. Costomediastinal, diaphragmatic
4. Costomediastinal, mediastinal
18. The main structures composing the root of the right lung from
up to down:
1. Bronchus, pulmonary artery,
pulmonary veins
2. Bronchus, pulmonary artery,
bronchial glands
3. Bronchus, pulmonary vein,
pulmonary artery
4. Pulmonary artery, bronchus,
pulmonary vein
19. The main structures composing the root of the left lung from
up to down:
1. Pulmonary artery, bronchus,
pulmonary veins
2. Bronchus, pulmonary artery,
pulmonary vei
3. Pulmonary artery, pulmonary
vein, bronchus
4. Pulmonary vein, pulmonary
artery, bronchus
20. The root of the lung is formed
by:
1. Bronchus, pulmonary artery and
veins, nerves, lymphatic vessels
2. Bronchus, trachea, pulmonary
artery and vein
3. Bronchial tube, pulmonary artery
and vein, nerves, alveolar lobules
4. Bronchus, pulmonary artery,
lymphatics, alveolar lobules
21. Name the structures bounding
the inlet of the larynx:
1. Epiglottis, arytenoid cartilages,
interarytenoid fold, aryepiglottic
folds
2. Cricoid cartilages,
epiglottis,interarytenoid fold ,
aryepiglottic fold
3. Epiglottis, arytenoid cartilages,
vestibular ligament
50
22. Where is the trachea situated?
1. From VI-th cervical to V-th
thoracic vertebra
2. From IV-th cervecal to VII-th
thoracic vertebra
3. From IV-th cervical to III-th
thoracic vertebra
23. Where is the apex of the lung
situated?
1. 3-4sm above the I-st rib
2. 2-5 sm above the clavicle
3. 1-2 sm above the I-st rib
4. 4-5 sm above the clavicle
24. Which lobe of the lung forms
lingula pulmonis?
1. Upper lobe of left lung
2. Lower lobe of left lung
3. Lower lobe of right lung
4. Middle lobe of right lung
25. How many semirings of the
cartilage does trachea have?
1. 16-20
2. 15-25
3. 10-15
4. 30-35
26. What is sinus of Highmore?
1. Maxillary sinus.
2. Frontal sinus.
3. Sphenoidal sinus.
4. Ethmoidal air cells.
27. What are nasal conchae?
1. Processes of ethmoidal labyrinth,
and separating small shell – like
bone projection
2. Process of maxilla, process of
ethmoidal labyrinth
3. Margins of maxilla, shell-like
bony projections from lateral wall of
nose.
28. What are the meatuses of
nose?
1. Passages beneath the overhanging
conchae.
2. Passages above the overhanging
conchae.
3. Space between the conchae and
the nasal septum.
29. What are the common meatus
of nose?
1. Space between the conchae and
the nasal septum.
2. Passages above the overhanging
conchae.
3. Passages beneath the overhanging
conchae.
30. Where does maxillary sinus
open?
1. In middle meatus.
2. In superior meatus.
3. In inferior meatus.
31. Where does frontal sinus open?
1. In middle meatus.
2. In superior meatus.
3. In inferior meatus.
32. Where does posterior
ethmoidal air cells open?
1. In sphenoethmoidal recess of the
superior miatus.
2. In superior meatus.
3. In middle meatus.
4. In inferior meatus.
33. Where does anterior and
medial ethmoidal air cells open?
1. In middle meatus.
2. In superior meatus.
3. In sphenoethmoidal recess.
4. In inferior meatus.
34. Where is the olfactory region
situated?
1. Superior concha, superior nasal
meatus, upper part of nasal septum.
2. Middle concha, superior concha
3. Middle meatus, superior nasal
meatus
4. Inferior concha, upper part of
nasal septum.
35. What are respiratory parts of
pharynx?
1. Nasal, oral.
2. Nasal, laryngeal.
3. Nasal, pharyngeal
4. Laryngeal.
36. What is the position of palatine
tonsils?
51
1. Between diverging of the
palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal
arches.
2. On the posterior wall of the
pharynx.
3. Between diverging of the
palatoglossal and palatolaryngeal
arches.
4. On the superior wall of the
pharynx.
37. What is the position of
pharyngeal tonsil?
1. Between superior and posterior
walls of pharynx.
2. Between superior and anterior
walls of pharynx.
3. Between superior and lateral walls
of pharynx.
38. What tonsils form Pirogov's
ring?
1. Palatine tonsils, tubarian tonsils,
lingual, pharyngeal tonsils.
2. Pharyngeal, lingual tonsils,
thyroid.
3. Epiglottic, lingual, pharyngeal
tonsils.
39. What are laryngeal joints?
1. Cricothyroid, cricoarytenoid.
2. Thyroepiglottic, cricoarytenoid.
3. Conus elasticus, cricothyroid
40. What movements are produced
by cricothyroid joint?
1. Flexion, extention.
2. Rotation, flexion
3. Gliding movements.
41. What movements are produced
by cricoarytenoid joint?
1. Rotation, gliding movements.
2. Flexion, rotation
3. Extention.
42. Where is the ventricle of the
larynx situated?
1. On each side of larynx between
vestibular and vocal cords.
2. Between thyrohyoid membrane
and conus elasticus.
3. In infraglottic part.
4. On each side of larynx in
vestibule.
43. What is the conus elasticus?
1. Cricothyroid ligament, its lateral
part
2. Oblique arytenoid ligament.
3. Posterior cricoarytenoid.
4. Thyroepiglottic ligament.
5. Lateral cricoarytenoid.
44. Name parts of trachea.
1. Cervical, thoracic.
2. Esophageal, thoracic
3. Tracheal, cervical
4. Laryngeal, tracheal
45. What are anterior relations of
the thoracic part of trachea?
1. Thymus, aortic arch.
2. Thyroid gland, sternothyroid
muscle
3. Oesophagus, aortic arch
46. What are posterior relations of
thoracic part of the trachea?
1. Oesophagus, vertebral column.
2. Thyroid gland, oesophagus
3. Aortic arch, vertebral column
4. Thymus, oesophagus
47. Where trachea can be
palpated?
1. In suprastenal notch, midway.
2. Between thyroid and cricoid
cartilages.
3. In retrothyroid region after cutting
the isthmus of thyroid gland.
48. Where is bifurcation of trachea
situated?
1. Between T4 and T5 vertebra.
2. Between T3 and T4 vertebra.
3. T6 vertebra.
4. Between T5 and T6 vertebra.
5. Between T6 and T7 vertebra.
49. The right main bronchus is:
1. Wider, shorter (2,5 cm) and more
vertical, passes to root of lung on the
level of T5.
2. Wider, shorter (2,5 cm) and more
vertical, passes to root of lung on the
level of T6.
52
3. Narrower, longer (5 cm) and less
vertical.
4. Wider, shorter (2,5 cm) and less
vertical.
50. The left main bronchus is:
1. Narrower, longer (5 cm) and less
vertical,passes to the root of the lung
on the level of T6.
2. Narrower, longer (5 cm) and less
vertical,passes to the root of the lung
on the level of T5.
3. Wider, shorter (2,5 cm) and less
vertical.
4. Wider, shorter (6 cm) and more
vertical.
51. Foreign bodies and inspirated
material tend to pass rather into
right bronchus or into left?
1. Into right bronchus, because of the
greater width and more vertical
course.
2. Into right bronchus, because of the
greater width and less vertical
course.
3. Into left bronchus, because of the
greater width and more vertical
course.
52. On what level are the roots of
lungs located?
1. T5 -T7 vertebra.
2. T3 -T4 vertebra.
3. T1 -T3 vertebra.
4. T7 -T9 vertebra.
53. What structures unite
semirings of the cartilages of the
trachea?
1. Fibrous annular ligaments.
2. Fibrous broad ligaments.
3. Tringular ligaments.
4. Pulmonary ligaments.
5. Fibrous membrane.
54. Name the lobes of the right
lung?
1. Superior, inferior, middle.
2. Anterior, inferior, middle
3. Superior, interior, lingula.
55. Name the margins of the lung?
1. Inferior, anterior, posterior.
2. Superior, diaphragmatic
3. Inferior, posterior.
4. Diaphragmatic, posterior.
56. What is a broncho-pulmonary
segment?
1. Segment of the lung with
segmental bronchus.
2. Segment of the lung with lobar
bronchus.
3. Pulmonary tissue with respiratory
bronchioles.
57. What are the features of the
right lung?
1. Wider, 3 lobes, shorter.
2. 3 lobes, cardiac notch .
3. Longer, narrower
58. On what level the horizontal
fissure of lung lie?
1. IV-d rib.
2. II-d rib.
3. III-d rib.
4. V-d rib.
5. VI-d rib.
59. The lingula of the lung is part
of the:
1. In upper lobe of left lung.
2. In upper lobe of right lung.
3. In middle lobe of right lung.
4. In lower lobe of left lung.
60. What part of the right lung
corresponds to the lingula of the
left lung?
1. Middle lobe.
2. Upper lobe.
3. Lower lobe.
4. Cardiac notch.
5. Root of lung.
61. The inferior boundary of the
right pleural sac crossing
medioclavicular line is located on
the level of:
1. YII rib
2. YIII rib
3. X rib
4. Y rib
62.The inferior boundary of the
right pleural sac crossing middle
53
1. Mediastinal, diaphragmatic,
costal.
2. Pulmonary, diaphragmatic
3. Mediastinal, thoracic.
4. Mediastinal, pulmonary
69. Which part of the pleura
covers lung?
1. Visceral.
2. Thoracic.
3. Diaphragmatic.
4. Costal.
5. Mediastinal.
70. What are the boundaries of the
mediastinum?
1. Diaphragm, thoracic vertebral
column, sternum, mediastinal
pleurae, thoracic inlet.
2. Thoracic inlet, sternum,
mediastinal pleura, ribs.
3. Thoracic inlet, sternum, visceral
pleura.
4. Diaphragm, mediastinal pleura,
visceral pleura.
71. What cartilages form wings of
the nose?
1. Cartilagines alares minores and
cartilago alaris major.
2. Cartilagines alares minores and
cartilago nasi lateralis.
3. Cartilago alaris major and
cartilago nasi lateralis.
72. Which laryngeal muscle
streatch the vocal ligaments?
1. Crycothyroid and vocal muscles.
2. Crycothyroid and thyroepiglotic
muscles.
3. Crycothyroid and aryepiglottic
muscles.
73. Which tissue forms posterior
wall of the trachea?
1. Membranous.
2. Cartilaginous.
3. Bone.
4. Connective.
axillary line is located on the level
of:
1. IX rib
2. VII rib
3 X rib
4. X rib
63. The inferior boundary of the
right pleural sac crossing scapular
line is located on the level of:
1. XI-XII ribs.
2. VII-YIII ribs.
3. VIII-IX ribs
4. X-XI ribs
5. X-XI ribs.
64. The inferior boundary of the
right pleural sac crossing
paravertebral line is located on the
level of:
1. The head of the XII rib.
2. The head of the XI rib.
3. The head of the X rib.
4. The head of the IX rib.
65. Where does parietal pleura
continuous with visceral one?
1. On the root of the lung.
2. On the costal surface of the lung.
3. On the diaphragmatic surface of
the lung.
66. How many tubular systems are
in the lungs?
1. 6.
2. 3.
3. 4.
4. 5.
5. 2.
67. Name the tubular systems of
the lungs:
1. Bronchial arteries and veins,
lymphatic vessels, bronchi,
pulmonary arteries and veins.
2. Alveolar ducts, bronchi, limphatic
vessels
3. Bronchi, alveolar tissue,
pulmonary arteries and veins
68. Which following parts of
pleura are parietal?
54
1. Principal, lobar, segmental,
lobular bronchi and terminal
bronchioles.
2. Principal, segmental, lobular
bronchi and respiratory bronchioles.
3. Principal, lobar, segmental
bronchi and ductuli alveolares.
80. Alveolar tree consists of:
1. Bronchioli respiratorii, ductuli
alveolares, sacculi alveolares.
2. Bronchioli respiratorii, sacculi
alveolares, terminal bronchioles.
3. Bronchioli respiratorii, terminal
bronchioles, ductuli alveolares.
81. How is anatomical unit of the
lung's parenchyma called?
1. Acinus.
2. Nephron.
3. Saccculus.
4. Nodulus.
82. In which part of the bronchial
tree the cartilages disappear
completely?
1. Terminal bronchiole.
2. Respiratory bronchioli.
3. Lobar bronchi.
4. Ductuli alveolares.
83. Which is the common area of
all alveoli?
1. 80m2
2. 70m2
3. 90m2
4. 60m2
74. How many segments are in the
upper lobes of the right and left
lungs?
1. Three and five.
2. Two and five.
3. Four and six.
4. Five and one.
75. How many segments are in the
middle lobe of the right lung?
1. Two.
2. Three.
3. One.
4. Four.
76. How many segments are in the
lower lobes of the right and left
lungs?
1. Five and five.
2. Four and five.
3. Two and four.
4. Three and five.
77. Name the segments of the
upper lobe of the right lung?
1. Apical, anterior, posterior.
2. Apical, anterior, medial.
3. Apical, posterior, lateral.
4. Apical, medial, lateral.
78. Name the segments of the
middle lobe of the right lung?
1. Lateral, medial.
2. Superior, inferior.
3. Lateral, inferior.
4. Medial, superior.
79. Bronchial tree consists of:
UROGENITAL SYSTEM
3. From upper border of XII thoracic
to centre of body of III lumbar
vertebrae
4. From XI thoracic to III lumbar
vertebrae
2. Where is the left kidney
situated?
1. Where is the right kidney
situated?
1. From the lower margin of XI
thoracic vertebrae to midline of III
lumbar vertebrae
2. From I to III lumbar vertebrae
55
1. From centre of body of XI
thoracic vertebrae to upper border of
III lumbar vertebrae
2. From I to III lumbar vertebrae
3. From X thoracic to II lumbar
vertebrae
4. From XII thoracic to III lumbar
vertebrae
3. What are the constituents of
muscular seat of the kidney?
1. Psoas major and quadratus
lumborum muscles, transversus
abdominis muscle and diaphragm
2. Psoas minor and psoas major
muscles
3. Internal oblique muscle and
diaphragm
4. A complex of the folowing
structures is responsible for
fixation of the kidney in place:
1. Muscular seat, renal vessels,
fascia renalis, intra-abdominal
pressure
2. Muscular seat, fibrous capsule of
kidney
3. Fatty capsule of kidney, muscular
seat
5. What are the coverings of the
kidneys?
1. Fibrous capsule, fatty capsule,
renal fascia
2. Fibrous capsule, cortex, renal
fascia
3. Fibrous capsule, renal fascia,
peritoneum
4. Fibrous capsule, perirenal fat,
peritoneum
6. How many major calyces are
located in kidney?
1. 2-3
2. 3-10
3. 10-15
4. 8-12
7. In the kidney there are
following surfaces:
1. Anterior, posterior
2. Lateral, medial
3. Upper, lower
4. External, internal
8. In the kidney there are
following ends (poles):
1. Upper, lower
2. Lateral, medial
3. Anterior, posterior
4. External, internal
9. In the kidney there are
following margins:
1. Lateral, medial
2. Anterior, posterior
3. Upper, lower
4. External, internal
10. What are the structures
located at the hilum of kidney
(from front to back)
1. Renal vein, renal artery, renal
pelvis
2. Renal artery, renal vein, pelvis of
the ureter
3. Ureter, renal artery, renal vein
11. Where are the renal pyramids
located?
1. In renal medulla
2. In renal pelvis
3. In renal cortex
4. In renal columns
12. Where are the renal columns
located?
1. Between the renal pyramids
2. In renal cortex
3. Between renal cortex and renal
medulla
4. In renal pelvis
13. The renal cortex is divided
into:
1. Radiate part, convoluted part
2. Renal columns, pyramidale part
3. Radiate part, pyramidale part
4. Renal columns, convoluted part
14. What structures form the renal
pelvis?
1. 2-3 greater calyces
2. 8-12 lesser calyces
3. Greater calyces and ureter
56
4. Lesser calyces and fornical
apparatus
15. What is the glomerulus?
1. Tufts of blood vessel’s capillaries
2. Renal tubules
3. Convoluted tubule
16. What are the contens of
nephron?
1. Corpuscle of kidney, proximal and
distal convoluted tubules, Henle's
loop, junctional tubule
2. Glomerulus, Henle's loop,
collecting tubule
3. Corpuscle of kidney, proximal and
distal convoluted tubules,
4. Henle's loop, collecting tubule
17. Where are the corpuscles of
the kidney located?
1. In convoluted part of the renal
cortex
2. In radiate part of renal cortex
3. In pyramids
4. In renal colums
18. What is the ureter?
1. It is a pair of narrow, thick walled
muscular tubes, which
convey urine from the kidneys to
urinary bladder
2. This is a tube extending from the
urinary bladder to the external
urethral orifice
19. The ureter is divided into next
parts:
1. Abdominal, pelvic, intramural
2. Sacral, abdominal, pelvis
3. Abdominal, sacral, pelvis
4. Abdominal, sacral, adventitious
20. What are the coats of the
ureter?
1. Adventitious, muscular, mucous
2. Fibrous, muscular, adventitious
3. Mucous, serous, muscular
4. Fibrous, muscular, serous
21. By means of what is the reflux
(back flowing) of urine from the
urinary bladder into ureter
prevented?
1. The intramural oblique course of
ureter has valvular action
2. Iliopsoas, psaas minor and
obturator internus muscles
3. Sphincter vesicae muscle
4. Sphincter urethrae muscle
22. What are the parts of the
urinary bladder?
1. Apex, body, fundus, neck
2. Body, fundus, head
3. Body, neck, head
4. Base, neck, trigone
5. Base, neck, trigone, apex
23. What are the coats of the
urinary bladder?
1. Serous, muscular, submucous,
mucous
2. Serous, muscular, mucous,
adventitious
3. Adventitious, muscular, serous
4. Serous, muscular, submucous
5. Adventitious, muscular, mucous
24. Mucous coat of the urinary
bladder never forms folds in the
next parts:
1. Trigone
2. Neck of bladder
3. Base, trigone
4. Trigone, apex
5. Trigone, neck
25. What are the characteristic
features of the bladder’s trigon?
1. Mucosa is firmly attached to
muscular coat, folds are absent
2. Interureteric ridge forms base of
trigone, which are the
continuations of longitudinal muscle
coat of two ureters
3. Mucosa forms folds
4. Mucosa forms medial umbilical
fold
26. What are the parts of urethra
in male?
1. Prostatic, membranous, spongy
2. Prostatic, membranous, cavernous
3. Prostatic, perineal, cavernous
57
4. Prostatic, pelvic, spongy
27. What are the characteristic
features of internal urethral
sphincter?
1. Involuntary, made up of smooth
muscular fibres
2. Voluntary, made up of smooth
muscular fibres
3. Voluntary, made up of striated
muscular fibres
4. Involuntary, made up of striated
uscular fibres
28. What are the characteristic
features of external urethral
sphincter?
1. Voluntary, made up of striated
muscular fibres
2. Involuntary, made up of smooth
muscular fibres
3. Voluntary, made up of smooth
muscular fibres
4. Involuntary, made up of striated
muscular fibres
29. Which part of male urethra
can be ruptured during
examination?
1. Membranous part because it is
narrowest and curved
2. Proctatic part, because it is
narrowest and least dilatable
3. Spongy part, because it is
narrowest and longest
4. Pelvic part, because it is narrowest
and longest
30. Where are constrictions of the
male urethra situated ?
1. External and internal urethral
orifices, membranous part
2. In prostatic and membranous part
3. Internal urethral orifice,
membranous and prostatic part
4. External urethral orifice,
membranous part
31. Where are dilatations of male
urethra situated ?
1. In prostatic part, bulb, fossa
navicularis
2. In membranous part, prostatic part
3. In membranous and spongy part,
terminal fossa (navicularis)
4. In membranous, bulb, terminal
fossa (navicularis)
32. Where is the terminale fossa
(fossa navicularis) of the male
urethra situated ?
1. In glans penis
2. In prostatic part of urethra
3. In bulb
4. In membranous part
33. What ducts open into prostatic
part of urethra ?
1. Prostatic ducts, ejaculatory ducts
2. Vas deferens, vasa recta, vasa
eferentia
3. Prostatic ducts, ducts of
bulbourethral gland
4. Prostatic ducts, duct of seminal
vesicle
34. What are the bodies of penis ?
1. 2 corpora cavernosa, 1 corpus
spongiosum
2. 2 corpora spongiosa. 1 corpus
cavernosum
3. 1 corpus cavernosum, 1 corpus
spongiosum
35. The head (glans) penis is
formed by:
1. Corpus spongiosum
2. Corpus cavernosum
3. Fibrous-elastic tissue
4. Musculo-mucous tissue
36. What is scrotum ?
1. It is cutaneous bag containing
testis, epididymis, spermatic cord
2. It is cutaneous bag containing
testis, seminal vesicles,epididymis
3. It is cutaneous bag containing
testis, epididymis, bulbourethral
glands, spermatic cord
37. Name the structures forming
coats of the testis (from outside
inside):
1. Skin, tunica dartos, external
spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia,
cremasteric muscle, internal
spermatic fascia, tunica vaginalis
58
2. Skin, dartos muscle, external and
internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric
fascia and muscle, tunica vaginalis
3. Skin, dartos muscle, external
spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia
and muscle, tunica vaginalis, internal
spermatic fascia
38. What is processus vaginalis ?
1. It is a prolongation of peritonium
projecting into a scrotum
2. It is a process of external
spermatic fascia
3. It is a process of external oblique
muscle
4. It is a part of mucous membrane
39. What are the surfaces of the
testes ?
1. Medial, lateral
2. Right, left
3. Anterior, posterior
4. Lower, upper
40. What are the borders of the
testes ?
1. Anterior, posterior
2. Medial, lateral
3. Lower, upper
4. Anterior, medial
41. What are the poles of the
testes?
1. Lower, upper
2. Lateral, medial
3. Anterior, posterior
42. What are the components of
the spermatic cord ?
1. Vas deferens, coverings of testis,
vessels , nerves, pampiniform
venous plexus
2. Vas deferens, remains of
processus vaginalis, areolar tissue,
vessels,
pampiniform plexus, nerves
3. Epididymis, vas deferens.
pampiniform plexus- vessels , nerves
43. External spermatic fascia is
continuation of the:
1. Fascia superficialis
2. Internal oblique aponeurosis
3. Internal oblique and transversus
abdominal muscle
44. What structures form the
ejaculatory duct ?
1. Duct of seminal vesicle unites
with deferent duct
2. Duct of seminal vesicle unites
with prostatic part of urethra
3. Straight seminiferous tubules
unites with efferent ductules of the
testis
45. What is position of prostate ?
1. Below neck of urinary bladder, in
front of rectum ampulla
2. Just beneath of head of epididymis
3. Above fundus of urinary bladder,
in front of rectum
4. Posteriorly urinary bladder
46. Name the structures lying in
the prostate interior?
1. Prostatic urethra, ejaculatory
ducts, prostatic utricle
2. Prostatic urethra, prostatic utricle,
duct of seminal vesicle
3. Ejaculatory ducts, prostatic
utricle, prostatic ducts
4. Prostatic utricle, prostatic ducts,
prostatic urethra
47. What is the mesosalpinx ?
1. It is part of the uterus broad
ligament located between
mesovarium and uterine tube
2. It is part of round ligament of the
uterus
3. It is part of broad ligament
between ovary and rectum
48. Infundibulum of the uterine
tube opens into:
1. Peritoneal cavity by abdominal
opening
2. Uterine cavity by uterine opening
49. What are the parts of uterus ?
1. Fundus, body, cervix
2. Body. cervix, isthmus, fundus
3. Isthmus, cervix, body, round
ligament
4. Cervix, body. right and left
borders
59
50. What are the parts of the neck
of the uterus ?
1. Supravaginal, vaginal
2. Upper, lower
3. Vaginal, uterus's part
4. Vaginal, isthmus, supravaginal
51. What are the layers of uterus
wall ?
1. Endometrium, myometrium,
perimetrium,
2. Perimetrium, parametrium,
endometrium
3. Myometrium, endometrium,
parametrium
4. Perimetrium, connective tissue,
epithelium
52. What are the ligaments of the
ovary?
1. Proper ligament, suspensory
ovarian. ligament.
2. Round and broad ligament.
3. Inguinal ligament.
53. The internal spermatic fascia is
continuation of the :
1. Transverse fascia.
2. Cremasteric fascia.
3. Superficial fascia of the abdomen.
4. Vaginal process.
54. What are the muscles of
urogenital diaphragm?
1. Deep transverse perinei m.,
sphincter urethrae m., superficial
transverse perinei m., ischiocavernous m., bulbospongious m.
2. Levator ani m., ischiocavernous
m., bulbospongious m.
3. Deep transverse perinei m.,
superficial transverse perinei m.,
levator ani m.
55. What are the muscles of pelvic
diaphragm?
1. Levator ani m., coccygeal m.,
external anal sphincter m.
2. Deep transverse perinei m.,
superficial transverse perinei m.
3. Levator ani m., coccygeal m.,
deep transverse perinei m.
56. How many lesser calyces are
located in the renal sinus?
1. 8-9.
2. 10-12.
3. 5-6.
4. 2-3.
57. What walls of the empty
urinary bladder are covered by
the serous coat?
1. Posterior wall and apex.
2. Anterior wall and apex.
3. Lateral wall and apex.
58. M. sphincter vesicae is:
1. Involuntary smooth muscle.
2. Voluntary smooth muscle.
3. Involuntary skeletal muscle.
4. Voluntary skeletal muscle.
59. With what organ does
posterior wall of the female
urethra contact?
1. Vagina.
2. Rectum.
3. Sigmoid colon.
60. How many coats cover testis?
1. 7.
2. 8.
3. 6.
4. 9.
61. Name the ligaments of the
epididymis.
1. Superior and inferior.
2. Superior and posterior.
3. Superior and anterior.
4. Superior and lateral.
62. Name the parts of the
epididymis:
1. Head, body, tail.
2. Head, neck, body.
3. Head, body, processes.
63. Where is paradidymis located?
1. On the upper pole of the testis.
2. On the lower pole of the testis.
60
3. On the anterior border of the
testis.
4. On the posterior border of the
testis.
64. How many lobes are in the
testis?
1. 250-300.
2. 100-200.
3. 300-500.
4. 150-250.
65. What seminiferous tubules are
in each lobe of the testis?
1. 2-3 convoluted and 1 straight.
2. 1 convoluted and 2-3 straight.
3. 5-6 convoluted and 2-3 straight.
4. 2-3 convoluted and 2-3 straight.
66. How long is straightened out
convoluted seminiferous tubules?
1. 90cm.
2. 3m.
3. 50cm.
4. 2m.
67. How long is straightened out
epididymis duct?
1. 3-4m.
2. 1-2m.
3. 5-6m.
4. 2-5m.
68. Which seminiferous tubules
produce semen?
1. Convoluted.
2. Straight.
3. Efferent ducts.
4. Network of channels.
69. Epididymis duct continuous
with the:
1. Deferent duct.
2. Efferent duct.
3. Ejaculatory duct.
4. Excretory duct.
70. What are parts of the penis?
1. Root, body, glans.
2. Root, body, neck.
3. Root, body, head.
71. Which ligament bridges
between pubic symphysis and root
of the penis?
1. Lig. suspensorium penis.
2. Lig. puboprostatica.
3. Lig. anterior penis.
4. Lig. fundiforme penis.
72. In which part of the male
urethra is the seminal colliculus
located?
1. Prostatic part.
2. Membranous part.
3. Spongy part.
73. Into which part of the male
urethra
do
ducts
of
the
bulbourethral glands open?
1. Bulbus urethrae.
2. Fossa navicularis urethrae.
3. Prostatic part.
74. Which ligament bridges
between linea alba and lateral
surfaces of the penis?
1. Lig. fundiforme penis.
2. Lig. suspensorium penis.
3. Lig. puboprostatica.
75. The infrapubic curvature is
fixed by:
1.
Puboprostatic
ligament,
suspensory ligament, urogenital
diaphragm.
2.
Puboprostatic
ligament,
fundiforme ligament, urogenital
diaphragm.
3.
Puboprostatic
ligament,
suspensory
ligament,
pelvic
diaphragm.
76. What is right position of the
uterus?
1. Anteversio, anteflexio.
2. Anteversio, retroflexio.
3. Retroversio, anteflexio.
4. Retroversio, retroflexio.
61
2. Uterine part, neck, ampulla,
infundibulum.
3. Uterine part, body, ampulla,
infundibulum.
84. How does peritoneum cover
uterine tube?
1. Intraperitoneally.
2. Mesoperitoneally.
3. Extraperitoneally.
4. Retroperitoneally.
85. The mucous coat of the uterine
tube forms following folds:
1. Longitudinal.
2. Circular.
3. Oblique.
86. What are layers of the uterine
tube from outer to inner?
1. Tunica serosa, tunica subserosa,
tunica muscularis, tunica mucosa.
2.
Tunica
adventitia,
tunica
subserosa, tunica muscularis, tunica
mucosa.
3. Tunica serosa, tunica muscularis,
tunica submucosa, tunica mucosa.
87. What ends does ovary have?
1. Upper and lower.
2. Upper and medial.
3. Upper and lateral.
88. What surfaces does ovary
have?
1. Lateral and medial.
2. Superior and inferior.
3. Right and left.
4. Lateral and posterior.
89. What margins does ovary
have?
1. Anterior and posterior.
2. Anterior and lateral.
3. Anterior and superior.
4. Posterior and inferior.
90. What margin of the ovary is
called “margo liber”?
1. Posterior.
77. Ligamentum teres uteri is
more good visible on the:
1. Anterior surface of the broad
ligament.
2. Posterior surface of the broad
ligament.
78. What is the mesometrium?
1. It is part of the uterus broad
ligament located below mesovarium
and proper ligament of the ovary.
2. It is part of the mesosalpinx.
3. It is part of the broad ligament
located above mesovarium and
proper ligament of the ovary.
79. Name the ligament which fixes
uterine neck:
1. Lig. cardinale uteri.
2. Lig. teres uteri.
3. Lig. ovarium proprium.
80. Where is parametrium
located?
1. On the sides of the uterine neck
and upper part of the vagina.
2. On the sides of the uterine neck
and body.
3. On the sides of the uterine neck
and fundus.
81. How does peritoneum cover
uterus?
1. Intraperitoneally.
2. Mesoperitoneally.
3. Extraperitoneally.
4. Retroperitoneally.
82. The Dougla's pouch is located
between:
1. Uterus, vagina and rectum.
2. Uterus, vagina and urinary
bladder.
3. Uterus and ovary.
83. The parts of the uterine tube?
1. Uterine part, isthmus, ampulla,
infundibulum.
62
2. Anterior.
3. lateral.
4. Medial.
91. Is ovary covered with
peritoneum?
1. No.
2. Yes.
3. Partly.
92. What tissue covers the ovary?
1. Embryonic epithelium
2. Serous coat.
3. Adventitious coat.
4. Mucous coat.
93. Which fornix of the vagina is
deeper?
1. Posterior.
2. Anterior.
3. Lateral.
4. Medial.
94. Which fornix of the vagina
takes part in the formation of the
Dougla's pouch?
1. Posterior.
2. Anterior.
3. Medial.
4. Lateral.
95. Pudendum femininum consists
of:
1. Greater and lesser pudendal lips,
greater and lesser vestibular glands,
clitoris, vestibular bulb.
2. Greater and superior pudendal
lips, greater and inferior vestibular
glands, clitoris, cavernous body.
3. Greater and lesser pudendal lips,
spongy body, vestibular gland,
clitoris, vestibular bulb.
96. What body of the penis does
the clitoris correspond to?
1. Cavernous body.
2. Spongy body.
3. Bulbus penis.
97. What body of the penis does
the vestibular bulb correspond to?
1. Spongy body.
2. Cavernous body.
3. Bulbus penis.
98. Is m. sphincter ani externus
voluntary muscle?
1. Yes.
2. No.
3. Partly.
99. What are fasciae of the
urogenital diaphragm?
1. Superficial, superior and inferior.
2. Superficial, deep and inferior.
3. Superficial, anterior and posterior.
100. What are fasciae of the pelvic
diaphragm?
1. Parietal, visceral and inferior.
2. Parietal, internal and external.
3. Parietal, visceral and superior.
HEART, LYMPHATIC SYSTEM
1. How many chambers does heart
have?
1. 4.
2. 3.
3. 2.
4. 5.
5. 1.
2. From what chamber of the heart
does the greater circulation begin?
1. From the left ventricle.
2. From the right auricle.
3. From the right ventricle.
4. From the left auricle.
5. From the left auricle.
3. In what chamber of the heart
does the lesser circulation begin?
1. In the right ventricle.
2. In the left ventricle.
3. In the left ventricle and left auricle.
4. In the right ventricle and right
atrium
5. In the left auricle
63
4. What blood fills the pulmonary
veins?
1. Arterial (oxyginated).
2. Venous (dioxyginated)
3. Mixed.
5. To what chamber of the heart
does the venosus blood from
systemic circulation flow?
1. To the right atrium.
2. To the left atrium.
3. To the left ventricle.
4. To the right ventricle.
5. To the arterial cone.
6. What veins carry blood to right
atrium?
1. V. cava superior, v. cava inferior,
sinus coronarius, anterior and
smallest veins of the heart
2. V. jugularis interna, v. jugularis
externa.
3. Vv. pulmonales dextrae, sinus
coronarius.
4. V. jugularis anterior, v. jugularis
externa
5. V. cava inferior et v. azygos.
7. What layers of myocardium are
common for both ventricles?
1. External and internal.
2. External.
3. Internal.
4. Middle.
5. Middle and internal.
8. What layers of myocardium are
their own for each ventricle?
1. Middle.
2. External.
3. Internal.
4. External and internal.
5. Middle and internal.
6. Middle and external.
9. What layer of myocardium forms
papillar muscles?
1. Internal.
2. External.
3. Middle.
4. External and internal.
5. Middle and internal.
6. Middle and external.
10. What layer of the heart’s wall
form valvulae of the coronary
sinus and inferior vena cava?
1. Endocardium.
2. Epicardium.
3. Fibrous pericardium.
4. Serous pericardium.
5. Myocardium.
11. What valvulae does valve of
pulmonary trunk have?
1. Valvulae semilunares anterior,
dextra and sinistra.
2. Valvulae semilunares posterior,
dextra and sinistra.
3. Valvulae semilunaris
anterior,cuspis anterior,cuspis
posterior.
12. What valvulae does valve of
aorta have?
1. Valvulae semilunares posterior,
dextra and sinistra.
2. Valvulae semilunares anterior,
dextra and sinistra.
3. Vavula semilunaris posterior,
cuspis anterior.
13. What cuspises does right atrioventricular valve have?
1. Cuspises septalis, anterior and
posterior.
2. Cuspis anterior, valvula
semilunaris anterior,cuspis posterior
3. Cuspis posterior, valvula
semilunaris posteri,cuspis septalis.
4. Cuspis septalis, valvula semilunaris
dextra, cuspis anterior
14. What cuspises does left atrioventricular valve have?
1. Cuspises anterior and posterior.
2. Cuspis posterior, valvula
semilunaris anterior.
3. Cuspis septalis and anterior
4. Valvula semilunaris posterior.
5. Valvula semilunaris dextra.
15. Where is oval fossa located?
1. On the atrial septum from the side
of right atrium.
2. On the atrial septum from the side
of left atrium.
3. On posterior wall of right atrium.
4. In posterior expension of right
atrium.
5. Between ostium venae cavae
inferioris and crista terminalis.
16. What sinuses does pericardium
have?
64
1. Transverse and oblique.
2. Apical and interatrial.
3. Cavernous and sigmoid.
4. Intervenous and aortic.
5. Subaortic and intervenous.
17. What arteries carry blood to
the walls of the heart ?
1. Coronary arteries.
2. Subclavicular artery.
3. Commune carotids.
4. lleac arteries.
5. Pulmonary arteries.
18. How is line of upper bound of
the heart projected on anterior
thoracis wall?
1. Along upper margin of III costal
cartilages
2. Along lower margin of II costal
cartilages.
3. On the level of II costa.
4. On the level of IV costa.
5. Along upper margin of IV costal
cartilages.
19. How is apex of heart projected
on anterior thoracic wall?
1. On the level of V intercostals
space on 1-1,5 cm to the right from
the left medioclavicular line
2. On the level of lower margin of V
costal cartilage from the left.
3. On the level of V intercostals
space on 1-1,5 cm to the left from
left medioclavicular line.
4. On the level of V rib on 1 -1,5 cm to
the left from the margin of sternum.
5. On the level of V intercostals
space on 1-1,5 cm to the left from
the margin of sternum.
20. Where can we hear cardiac
(apical) beat ?
1. On the level of V intercostal
space on 1-1,5 cm to the right from
left medioclavicular line.
2. On the level of lower margin of
costal cartilage from the left.
3. On the level of V rib on 1 -1,5 cm
to the right from the left
medioclavicular line.
4. On the level of V rib on 1-1,5 cm
to the left from the margin of
sternum.
5. On the level of V intercostal
space on 1-1,5 cm to the left from
the margin of sternum
21. What anatomical formation
of a foetus directs the blood
flowing from the right to the left
cavity of the heart?
1. Foramen ovale.
2. Ductus venosus.
3. Ductus arteriosus.
4. Vena umbilicalis.
5. Fossa ovalis.
22. What vessel is connected
with aorta by obliterated ductus
arteriosus of a foetus ?
1. Truncus pulmonalis.
2. A. umbilicalis.
3. Lig.venosus.
4. V.umbilicalis.
5. V.cava inferior.
23. Which part of the conductive
system of the heart connects
atriums with ventricles?
1. Fasciculus atrioventricularis.
2. Crus dextrum.
3. Crum sinistrum.
4. Nodus sinuatrialis.
5. Nodus atrioventricularis.
24. What vessels are located in
sulcus interventricularis anterior
cordis ?
1. V.cordis magna and ramus
interventricularis anterior a. coronaria
sinistra.
2. V.cordis media and ramus interventricularis posterior a. coronaria
dextra.
3. Vv.cordis minimae and ramus
circumflexus sinister.
4. V.obliqua atrii sinistri and ramus
interventricularis anterior
a.coronaria sinistra
5. V.cordis magna and ramus
circumflexus dexter
25. What chamber of the heart
has the heaviest walls?
1. Ventriculus sinister.
2. Atrium dextrum.
3. Atrium sinistrum.
4. Ventriculus dexter.
26. Where are musculi pectinati
located?
1. Auricula cordis.
65
2. Atrium cordis.
3. Ventriculus cordis.
4. All named formations.
27. How is external layer of heart's
wall called?
1. Epicardium.
2. Endocardium.
3. Myocardium.
4. Pericardium.
28. How is internal layer of heart's
wall called?
1. Endocardium.
2. Myocardium.
3. Epicardium.
4. Pericardium.
29. How is middle layer of heart's
wall called?
1. Myocardium.
2. Endocardium
3. Epicardium.
4. Pericardium
30. The sound of what cardiac
valve can doctor listen on the
level of II intercostal space to the
right from sternum?
1. Aortic valves.
2. Mitral valve.
3. Tricuspid valve.
4. Pulmonary valve.
31.The sound of what cardiac
valves can doctor listen on the
level of II intercostal space to the
left from the sternum?
1.Pulmonary valve.
2.Mitral valve.
3. Tricuspid valve.
4. Aortic valves.
32. The sound of what cardiac
valves can doctor listen close to
the right sternal margin on the
level of V costal cartilage ?
1.Tricuspid valve.
2. Aortic valves.
3. Pulmonary valve.
4. Mitral valve.
33. Where is sinus transversus
pericardii located?
1. Behind aortae and truncus
pulmonalis.
2. Between openings of aortae and
truncus pulmonalis.
3. Between openings of vv
pulmonales sinistri and v.cava
inferior.
4. Between openings of
vv.pulmonales sinistri and v cava
superior.
5. Behind truncus pulmonalis
6. Between openings of v.cava
superior et v.cava inferior.
34. Where is sinus obliquus
pericardii located?
1. Between openings of vv.pulmonales sinistri and v.cava inferior.
2. Behind aortal and truncus
pulmonalis.
3. Between openings of vv.pulmonales sinistri and v.cava superior.
4. Between openings of
vv. pulmonales dextri and v.cava
superior
5. Between openings of v.cava
superior and v.cava inferior.
35. What vessels carry blood
from the foetus to placenta?
1. Aa.umbilicales.
2. W.umbilicales.
3. VV.paraumbilicales.
4. Aa.epigastricai interiores.
5. Ductus arteriosus.
6. Ductus venosus.
36. What vessels carry blood
from placenta to foetus?
1. V.umbilicalis.
2. Aa.umbilicales.
3. VV.paraumbilicales.
4. Aa.epigastricae interiores.
5. Ductus arteriosus
6. Ductus venosus.
37. In the wall of what heart’s
chamber are nodus atrioventricularis and nodus sinuatrialis
located?
1. In atrium dextrum.
2. In atrium sinistrum.
3. In ventriculus sinistrum.
4. In ventriculus dextrum.
38. What articulate regions
have the highest amount of the
regional lymph nodes of the
upper limb?
1. Axillary, cubital.
2. Carpioradialis.
3. Sternoclauicularis.
66
39. What regions of the lower limb
have the highest amount of the
lymph nodes ?
1. Fossa poplitea, regio inguinale.
2. Canalis adductorius
3. Canalis cruropoplitus
4. Canalis cruromuscularis inferior
40. What part of digestive system
has chyle vessels?
1. Small intestine.
2. Pharynx.
3. Esophagus.
4. Gaster.
5. Large intestine.
41. Which of the lymph nodes
belong to the regional nodes of
the head and the neck?
1. Occipital, mastoid, parotid,
mandibular,submandibular,
submental,buccal,retropharyngeal
2. Auricular anteriores, auricular
posteriores, submental, buccal.
3. Mediastinal, mandibular,
submandibular, buccal.
42. What lymph nodes collect
lymph from tunica mucosa of the
nasal cavity and paranasal
sinuses?
1. Retropharyngeal.
2. Buccal
3. Auricular
4. Mammilar.
43. What lymph nodes collect
lymph from bulbus oculi (eye)?
1. Mandibular.
2. Submandibular
3. Buccal
4. Retropharyngeal.
5. Occipital
44. What lymph nodes collect
lymph from middle ear?
1. Retropharyngeal.
2. Submandibular.
3. Omental.
4. Occipital.
5. Buccal.
45. What organ is called
"cemetery” of erythrocytes"?
1. Spleen.
2. Medulla osseum.
3. Glandula retrostemalis.
4. Hepar.
5. Nodi lymphatici.
46. What structure is called
"passive lymphatic heart?
1. Diaphragma.
2. Ileolumbal muscle.
3. Ventriculus dexter.
4. Aorta.
5. Ductus thoracicus.
47. Which statements are right?
1. Lymphatic system is a
supplementary bed of the venous
system
2. Lymphatic system is a part of
systema arterialis, systema
lymphatica is a part of systema
venosa
48. What formations are major
lymphatici ducts?
1. Ductus thoracicus, ductus
lymphaticus dexter.
2. Vasa lymphocapillaria.
3. Ductus lymphaticus sinister.
4. Truncus lymphaticus jugularis.
49. What organs have no vasa
lymphocapillaria?
1. Bone marrow, cartilages, parts of
the eye, brain, placenta.
2. Gaster, duodenum, eye.
3. Uterus, vesica fellea, nails.
4. Heart, trachea, cartilages .
50. Where is the lymphoepitelial
Pirogov’s ring located?
1. In fauces region.
2. In gaster.
3. In vesica fellea.
4. In trachea.
5. In caecum.
51. What lymph nodes collect
lymph from the lower limb?
1.Popliteal and inguinal
2. External iliac lymph nodes.
3.Internal ileac lymph nodes.
52. What formations form thoracic
lymphatic duct?
1. Lumbar trunks.
2. Bronchomediastenal trunks with
subclavicular trunks.
3. Right lymph duct and intestineal
trunk.
4. Right subclavicular trunk and right
jugular trunk.
67
5.Left subclavicular trunk and
left jugular trunk.
53. What formations form ductus
throracicus dexter?
1. Truncus jugularis dexter, truncus
subclavicularis dexter and truncus
bronchomediastinales dexter.
2. Ductus intestinales and truncus
transversus.
3. Truncus transversus dexter and
sinister.
4. It is a continue of truncus
transversus.
54. To what formation does
ductus thoracicus carry limph?
1.Vena jugularis interna sinistra.
2. Portal vena.
3. Spleen.
4. Atrium dextrum.
5. Atrium sinistrum.
55. To what formation does
ductus lymphaticus dexter carry
lymph?
1. Vena subclavia dextra.
2. Ductus thoracicus lymphaticus.
3. Atrium dextrum.
4. Vena cave superioris.
5. Vena jugularis interna dextra.
56. How many layers does the
myocardium of ventricles have?
1. 3.
2. 2.
3. 4.
4. 1.
57. The superficial layer of the
ventricular
myocardium
is
composed of following
fibres:
1.
Oblique longitudinal.
2.
Oblique transverse
3.
Oblique circular.
58. The inner layer of the
ventricular
myocardium
is
composed of following fibres:
1. Oblique longitudinal.
2. Oblique transverse.
3. Oblique circular.
59. Middle layer of the ventricular
myocardium is composed of
following fibres:
1. Circular.
2. Longitudinal.
3. Oblique.
4. Transverse.
60. Where is vortex cordis
located?
1. Apex of the heart.
2. Base of the heart.
3. Right ventricle.
4. Left atrium.
61. How many layers does the
myocardium of atriums have?
1. 2.
2. 3.
3. 4.
4. 1.
62. The superficial layer of the
atrium's myocardium is:
1. Transverse.
2. Longitudinal.
3. Oblique.
63. The deep fibres of the atrium's
myocardium consist of:
1. Looped and annular.
2. Transverse and annular.
3. Longitudinal and annular.
4. Oblique and annular.
64. What rings separated atriums
and ventricules?
1. Fibrous.
2. Connective tissue.
3. Tendinous.
4. Muscular.
65. Name papillary muscles of the
right ventricule.
1. Anterior, posterior, septalis.
2. Anterior, posterior, right.
3. Anterior, posterior, left.
4. Anterior, posterior, middle.
66. Name papillary muscles of the
left ventricle.
1. Anterior, posterior.
2. Anterior, septalis
3. Anterior, right.
4. Anterior, left.
67. Where do coronary arteries
arise?
1. Aortic bulb below superior margins
of the aortic valves.
2. Aortic bulb above superior margins
of the aortic valves.
68. Posterior papillary muscle of
the left ventricle is supplied by:
1. Right coronary artery.
2. Left coronary artery.
3. Superior coronary artery.
4. Inferior coronary artery.
69. Interarterial septum and
posterior 1/3of the interventricular
septum are supplied by:
1.
Right coronary artery.
2.
Left coronary artery.
3.
Superior coronary artery.
4.
Inferior coronary artery.
70. Name the groups of the veins
of the heart:
68
1. Veins of the system of the
coronary sinus, anterior and smallest
cardiac vein.
2. Greater cardiac vein, anterior and
deep cardiac veins.
3. Posterior veins, anterior and
smallest cardiac veins.
71. Which vein of the heart passes
along posterior interventricular
groove?
1. Middle cardiac vein.
2. Posterior cardiac vein.
3. Greater cardiac vein.
4. Oblique cardiac vein.
72. Which vein of the heart passes
along anterior interventricular
groove?
1. Greater cardiac vein.
2. Anterior cardiac vein.
3. Middle cardiac vein.
4. Oblique cardiac vein.
73.
Where
is
superficial
extracardiac
nerve
plexus
located?
1. Between aortic arch and
bifurcation of the pulmonary trunk.
2. Between aortic arch and vena
cava superior.
3. Between aortic arch and
bifurcation of the trachea.
74. Where is deep extracardiac
nerve plexus located?
1. Between aortic arch and
bifurcation of the trachea.
2. Between aortic arch and
bifurcation of the pulmonary trunk.
3. Between aortic arch and superior
vena cava.
75. How many intracardiac nerve
plexuses
are
located
under
epicardium?
1. 6.
2. 5.
3. 4.
4. 7.
76. Name intracardiac nerve
plexuses.
1. Left and right posterior, left and
right anterior plexuses , plexus of the
coronary sinus, anterior plexus of the
atriums.
2. Left anterior, right posterior,
anterior plexus of the ventricles,
plexus of the
coronary sinus, posterior plexus of
the atriums.
77. What tissues form walls of the
pericardium?
1. Fibrosum and serosum.
2. Fibrosum and adventitial.
3. Fibrosum and connective tissue.
78. What duct communicates v.
umbilicalis and vena cava inferior
in the foetus body?
1.
Ductus venosus Arantii.
2.
Ductus arteriosus Batalii.
3.
Ductus urachus.
4.
Ductus umbilicalis
79. In which period of the life is
ductus arteriosus obliterated?
1. In first 8-10 days after birth.
2. In first 2-3 days after birth.
3. In first 5-6 days after birth.
80. In which period of the life are
ductus venosus and umbilical vein
obliterated?
1. During 6-7 days after birth.
2. During 8-10 days after birth.
3. During 2-3 days after birth.
81. In which period of the life are
umbilical arteries obliterated?
1. During 2-3 days after birth.
2. During 6-7 days after birth.
3. During 8-10 days after birth.
82. What lymphatic trunk collects
lymph from the lower lobe of the
left lung?
1. Right mediastinal.
2. Left mediastinal.
3. Left subclavian.
4. Right bronchial.
83. The inguinal lymph nodes are
subdivided into:
1. Superficial and deep.
2. Superficial and greater.
3. Superior and inferior.
4. Lateral and medial.
84. Name groups of the lymph
nodes of the pelvis:
1. External, internal and common
iliac, sacral.
2. External, internal, iliac, pelvic,
sacral.
3. External, common iliac, vesical,
sacral.
85. Name groups of the lymph
nodes of the abdomen.
1. Parietal and visceral.
2. Parietal and deep.
3. Parietal and superior.
4. Parietal and superficial.
86. Name parietal lymph nodes of
the thoracic cage.
1. Posterior intercostal, anterior
parasternal and inferior nodes.
2. Posterior intercostal, posterior
parasternal and superior nodes.
3. Posterior intercostal, anterior and
posterior parasternal.
69
87. Name visceral lymph nodes of
the thoracic cage.
1.
Tracheal,
tracheobronchial,
bronchopulmonary,
pulmonary,
anterior and posterior mediastinal.
2.
Tracheal,
tracheobronchial,
bronchial, pulmonary, anterior and
superior mediastinal.
ORGANS OF THE ENDOCRINE AND IMMUNOLOGICAL SYSTEMS
1. What endocrine glands have no
control of the hypophysis?
1.Parathyroid.
2.Ovary.
3.Suprarenal.
4.Thyroid.
5.Testis.
2. What endocrine glands are
developed by the superior wall of
the third ventricle of the brain?
1.Epiphisis.
2. Thymus.
3.Thyroid.
4. Parathyroid.
5. Hypophysis.
3. On what surface of thyroid are
parathyroid glands located?
1.On posterior.
2. On lateral.
3. On anterolateral.
4. On posteriolateral.
5. On anterior.
4. What part of the hypophysis
produces thyreotrophic
hormone?
1.Anterior lobe.
2. Anterior, posterior lobes.
3. Posterior lobe.
4. Isthmus.
5. Intermediate part.
5. What organ is the primary and
central organ of immunogenesis?
1.Thymus gland.
2. Spleen.
3. Red marrow.
4. Suprarenal gland.
5. Liver.
6. What part of the interbrain does
hypophysis belong to?
1. Hypothalamus.
2. Methatalamus.
3. Thalamus.
4. III ventricle.
5. Epythalamus.
7. How are suprarenal glands
located relatively to the
peritonium?
1. Extraperitonealy.
2. Intraperitonealy.
3. Retroperitonealy.
4. Mesoperitonealy.
8. What hormones are produced
by neurohypophysis?
1. Vasopressin, oxytocin.
2. Vasopressin, somatotropin.
3. Thyreotropin, somatotropin.
4. Adrenocortycotrophic,
gonadotrophic.
9. What hormone is produced by
hypophysis?
1. Somatotrophic.
2. Adrenalin
3. Cortisone
4. Aldosterone
10. On what surface of the
suprarenal gland is the hilum
located?
1. Anterior
2. Posterior
3. Lateral
4. Inferior
11. In what part of the pancreas
are the endocrine islets located?
1. Cauda pancreatis.
2. Caput pancreatis.
3. Corpus pancreatis.
4. Ductus pancreatis.
12. What hormones of adrenal
gland are produced by the medulla
of adrenal gland?
1. Adrenaline, noradrenaline.
2. Vasopressin, oxytocin.
3. Glucocorticoid, mineralocorticoid.
13. What hormones are produced
by the cortex of adrenal gland?
1. Glucocorticoid, mineralocorticoid.
70
2. Adrenaline, noradrenaline
3. Vasopressin, oxytocin.
14. How many parathyroid glands
are on the posterior surface of the
thyroid lobe?
1. 2.
2. 4.
3. 1.
4. 5.
15. The parathyroid glands are:
1. Two superior and two inferior.
2. Two superior and one inferior.
3. Two superior and four inferior.
4. Two inferior and one superior.
16. Where is hypophysis cerebri
located?
1. In the hypophysial fossa of the
sphenoid bone.
2. In the hypophysial fossa of the
temporal bone.
3. In the hypophysial fossa of the
frontal bone.
17.
The
hypothalamus
is
subdivided into:
1. Anterior and posterior parts.
2. Anterior and superior parts.
3. Anterior and inferior parts.
18. The suprarenal glands are
located on the level of:
1. Th11-Th12.
2. Th10-Th11
3. Th12- - L1
4. L1-L2.
19. Where is the bone marrow
located?
1. In the tubular and spongy bones.
2. In the tubular and flat bones.
3. In the tubular and sesamoid
bones.
20. What are types of the bone
marrow?
1. Red and yellow.
2. Red and white.
3. Red and black.
4. Red and blue.
21. How is spleen covered by
peritoneum?
1. Introperitoneally.
2. Mesoperitoneally.
3. Extraperitoneally.
22. On what level is the isthmus of
the thyroid gland located?
1. II-III tracheal rings.
2. I-II tracheal rings.
3. III-IV rings.
23. Which fascia forms capsule of
the thyroid gland?
1. Deep layer of the pretrachial
fascia.
2. Superficial layer of the pretracheal
fascia.
3. Deep layer of the prevertebral
fascia.
4.
Superficial
layer
of
the
prevertebral fascia.
24. How many types of the
endocrine glands are in the human
body?
1. 3.
2. 4.
3. 2.
4. 5.
25. The sizes of the islets of
langerhans are:
1. 0,1-0,3mm.
2. 0,1-0,5mm.
3. 0,2-0,6mm.
4. 0.1-0,4mm.
71
OSTEOLOGY
1. Three separating bones
5. The wounded man has bleeding
connected by the cartilage in the
from branches of carotid artery.
area of the pelvis cavity are
For arrest bleeding carotid artery
noticed on the X-ray photo of the
can be compressed againts carotid
newborn’s pelvis. What are these
tubercle of the cervical vertebra.
bones?
Which cervical vertebra has the
1. Iliac, pubic, sciatic
carotid tubercle?
2. Iliac sacral, coccyx
1. YI
3. Sacral, pubic, coccyx
2. Y
4. Sciatic, femoral, sacral
3. IY
5. Pubic, sciatic, femoral
4. III
5. II
2. A doctor defined sizes of the
pelvis of the pregnant woman. He
6. X-ray photo of the patient shows
measured the distance between
big opening located on the anterior
two superior anterior iliac spines.
surface of the hip bone between
What size of the pelvis was
branches of the pubic and
defined?
ischiadic bones. What is this
1. Distantia spinarum.
opening?
2. Distantia cristorum.
1. Obturator foramen.
3. Distantia trochanterica.
2. Greater ischiadic foramen.
4. Conjugata vera.
3. Lesser ischiadic foramen.
5. Conjugata anatomica.
7. Victim has elbow joint trauma
3. Which bone is more suitable for
with avulsion of medial epicondyle
the taking of medulla (bone
of humerus. What nerve can be
marrow) with the help of syringe
hurt in this trauma?
1. Ulnar
for diagnosis of some diseases?
1. Sternum.
2. Medial cutaneous nerve of
2. Humerus.
forearm
3. Ribs.
3. Radial
4. Scapula.
4. Cardiac cutaneous nerve
5. Vertebrae.
5. Musculocutaneous nerve
4. An old woman fractured the
8. During the football match a
humeral bone after a fall on ice
player injuried his knee joint. The
-covered ground. Which part of
X-ray examination showed
the bone is most probably
fracture of the bone, which is
fractured?
situated in the tendon’s thick-ness
1. Surgical neck of humerus.
of musculus quadriceps femoris.
2. Anatomical neck of humerus.
What of the mentioned groups
3. Midlle third of humerus.
does this bone belong to?
4. Inferior third of humerus.
1. Sesamoid
5. Head of humerus.
2. Tubular
3. Flat
72
4. Hollow
5. Combined
9. A child had fracture
9. A child had a fracture of the
humeral bone. After this his arm
began to lagging behind in growth.
What part of the bone was
destroyed?
1. Metaphysis.
2. Epiphysis.
3. Diaphisis.
4. Apophysis.
10. For establishment of the
border between cervical and
thoracic part of the vertebral
column doctor must palpate and
find protrude part of the VII
cervical vertebra. Name this part?
1. Spinous process.
2. Transverse process.
3. Superior articular process.
4. Inferior articular process.
11. The wounded has bleeding
from the branches of the carotid
artery. For a temporal stopping of
the bleeding the carotid artery
must be pressed to the carotid
tubercle of the trans-verse process
f vertebra. What cervical vertebra
has this process?
1. VI
2. VII
3. V
4. IV
5. III
12. As a result of blow on the
lateral surface of the chest on the
level of the inferior angle of the
scapula a man had multiple
fractures of the ribs. What ribs
were hurt?
1.
VI-VII.
2. VIII-IX.
3.
X-XI.
4.
XII.
5.
I-III.
13. A man had fracture of the
lower part of the fibula. Name the
site of this fracture.
1. Malleolus lateralis.
2. Maleolus medialis.
3. Neck of the fibula.
4. Body of the fibula.
14. As a result of fall down a
women had fracture of the process
of the ulna which prevents
extension of the elbow joint. Name
this process:
1. Olecranon.
2. Coronoid.
3. Medial styloid.
4. Lateral styloid.
15. As a result of trauma a man
had fracture of the lower lateral
1/3 of the leg. What bone is
fractured?
1. Fibula
2. Tibia
3. Femur
4. Talus
5. Calcaneus
16. As a result of diving an young
man hit against the bottom of a
lake. After that he had acute pain
of the neck, could not turn neck.
What bones are injured?
1. Cervical vertebrae
2. Frontal bone
3. Hyoid bone
4. Scapula
5. Clavicula
17. The arches of the III and IV
lumbar vertebrae did not fuse in
the spine of the child. How is such
pathology called?
1. Spina bifida
73
2. Kyphosis
3. Lordosis
4. Scoliosis
18. During examination of a child
a doctor found out the left bend of
the thoracic part of the vertebral
column. What diagnosis can be
put?
1. Left – side thoracic scoliosis
2. Right – side lumbar scoliosis
3. Thoracic lordosis
4. Lumbar kyphosis
19. What curvatures of the
vertebral column must be formed
by 11,5 months of a child ?
1. Cervical lordosis, thoracic
kyphosis, lumbar lordosis,
sacrococcygeal kyphosis
2. Cervical lordosis, thoracic
lordosis, lumbar kyphosis,
sacrococcygeal kyphosis
3. Cervical kyphosis, thoracic
lordosis, lumbar kyphosis,
sacrococcygeal lordosis
20. The victim has trauma of the
internal surface of middle third of
the leg. The fracture of what
anatomical structure is most
credible?
1. Diaphisis of tibia
2. Proximal epiphysis of fibula
3. Distal epiphysis of tibia
4. Proximal epiphysis of tibia
5. Distal epiphysis of fibula
21. A child has spinal hernia at the
level of XII thoracic vertebra.
What anatomical structure didn’t
fuse?
1. Arch of vertebra
2. Body of vertebra
3. Intervertebral disk
4. Articular processes
5. Spinal process
22. During examination of victim
girl doctor found out a bruise of
the inferior part of sacral region.
What bone is fractured?
1. Coccygeal bone
2. Femur
3. The ischium bone
4. The pubic bone
5. Sternum
23. The defect of the spinal column
(fissura of right peduncles of the
arches of I-II thoracic vertebrae)
was determined after X-ray
exami-nation. What can be
diagnosed at patient?
1. Spina bifida
2. Fracture of skull’s base
3. Thoracic kyphosis
4. Thoracic lordosis
5. Fracture of arches of I-II thoracic
vertebrae
24. As result of trauma a child has
bruise on the left side of chest,
painfulness during pal-pation and
crepitation at the left side of chest.
What bones can be injured?
1. Ribs
2. Thoracic vertebrae
3. Clavicula
4. Scapula
5. Sternum
25. A patient has flat chest (small
chest’s circumference). For what
type of body constitution is such
form characteristic?
1. Dolichomorphic
2. Brachyomorphic
3. Mesomorphic
4. Dolichocephalic
5. Brachycephalic
26. Victim has deformation in the
middle third of lateral surface of
the left leg. The ends of trihedral
74
4. Lunate bone.
31. There was a trauma of a
vertebral column.The blood
supply a posterior part of a brain
was disturbed. What part of the
vertebral column has undergone
to trauma?
1. Cervical part
2. Thoracic part
3. Lumbar part
4. Sacral part
5. Coccygeal part
32. On X-ray film it is revealed a
cleft in the region of middle part of
the sacrum posteriorly. Before
that clinical signs has not been
revealed. As a result of nonunion
what processes of the sacral
vertebrae this cleft was formed?
1. Spinous.
2. Transverse
3. Articular
4. Accessory
33. The patient was ill with a
pneumonia after which the
pleuritis has developed. How it is
necessary to make a puncture of
the pleural cavity?
1. Along the superior edge of a rib
2. Along the inferior edge of the rib
3. Between spinous processes of
thoracic vertebrae
4. Between transverse processes of
thoracic vertebrae
5. Between articular processes of
thoracic vertebrae
34. A 20 years old man complains
of a pain in the inferior region of
the breast bone. From anamnesis:
jumped from a tower in water and
has hit on a stone and feel
discomfort in this region. Fracture
of what formation of a breast bone
bone are visible from wound.
What bone can be fractured?
1. Fibula
2. Tibia
3. Femur
4. Patella
5. Talus
27. Old man had fracture of
femur. Name the most credible site
of fracture:
1. Neck of the femur
2. Upper third of the femur
3. Lower third of the femur
4. Condulus of the femur
5. Diaphisis of the femur
28. Three parts of hip bone
separated by wide gaps are visible
on roentgenogram. What age is it
characteristic for?
1. To 16 years
2. To 36 years
3. To 46 years
4. To 40 years
5. To 50 years
29. Fractures often occur in the
region of surgical neck of a bone.
What bone does surgical neck
have?
1. Humerus
2. Radius
3. Femur
4. Fibula
5. Ulna
30. During basketball match a
player injured his hand in the
carpal region. The X-ray
examination showed fracture of
the bone located in the tendon of
one flexor muscle of the forearm.
Name this bone:
1. Pisiform bone.
2. Scaphoid bone.
3. Trapezium bone.
75
has taken place during the jump?
1. Xiphoid process
2. Handle of the sternum
3. Angle of the sternum
4. Body of the sternum
35. At falling on the right hand
adducted to a trunk the victim has
felt a crunch and acute pain in the
superior third of right arm.
Movement in the arm is not
possible; its superior third is
deformated. What bones can be
injured?
1. Humerus
2. Sternum
3. Scapula
4. Clavicle
5. Ribs
36. 45 years patient has a trauma
of the posterior region of middle
third of humerus. What bony
formation is injured in this case?
1. Groove of the radial nerve
2. Groove of the biceps brachii
muscle
3. Groove of the median nerve
4. Groove of the humeral nerve
5. Groove of the ulnar nerve
37. An young man has fallen to
the right arm. After one day he
has addressed to the
traumatologist with complaints on
a severe pain in elbow joint. At
medical examination: edema,
morbidity in the region of
posterior part of elbow joint.
What process and what bone has
undergone to a trauma?
1. Olecranon of the ulna
2. Styloid process of the ulna
3. Coronoid process of the ulna
4. Styloid process of the radius
38. After trauma a patient had
morbidity, edema and hematoma
of medial part of the wrist . What
bone of the wrist has most likely
undergone to a trauma?
1. Pisiform
2. Cuboid
3. Capitate
4. Trapezoid
5. Scaphoid
39. There was a road accident
after which 30 years woman has
morbidity at a palpation in the
region of anterior part of the hip
bone. What pelvic bone is injured?
1. Pubic
2. Ischium
3. Ilium
4. Sacral
5. Femur
40. 78-years woman has trauma
one of free lower limb bones after
falling. Nutrition of the head of
this bone is disturbed. Objective
findings: swelling, palpatory
tenderness, haematoma within
upper segment of free lower limb.
Which bone is traumatized?
1. Femur.
2. Fibula.
3. Tibia.
4. Talus.
5. Calcaneus.
41. After trauma a patient had
edema and hematoma on the
medial side of superior third of the
leg. Which part at what bone of
the leg was injured ?
1. Metaphyseal zone of a tibia
2. Diaphysis of a fibula
3. Metaphyseal zone of a fibula
4. Diaphysis of a tibia
5. Apophysis of a tibia
76
42. A man got trauma as the result
of direct impact on internal
surface of the middle third of shin.
Fracture of what anatomic
formation is most possible?
1. Diaphysis of a tibia
2. Distal epiphysis of a fibula
3. Distal epiphysis of a tibia
4. Proximal epiphysis of a tibia
5. Proximal epiphysis of a fibula
43. A patient of 45 years complains
of a pain in region of foot. At
medical investigation: oedema,
morbidity, and a hematoma on the
medial side of a dorsum of a foot.
The patient cannot step on a sick
limb. Fracture of what tarsal
bones is most probably in this
case?
1. Navicular
2. Calcaneus
3. Cuboid
4. Lateral cuneiform
5. Talus
44. An older women has been
hospitalised with acute pain and
edema of the right hip joint that
appeared after a fall. Objectively:
the hip is adducted inwards, hip
joint movements are impaired.
The patient is most likely to have a
fracture of the following bone or
bone part:
1. Femoral neck
2. Shaft of femur
3. Ichial bone
4. Pubic bone
5. Condyle of femur
45. A 25 year old patient was
examined by a medical board.
Examination revealed pathology of
the chest. Transverse dimensions
were small and the sternum was
strongly protruding. What chest
tipe is it?
1. Keeled chest
2. Funnel chest
3. Flat chest
4. Cylindrical chest
5. Barrel chest
46. A casuality has a fracture in
the region of the inner surface of
the left ankle. What is the most
likely site for the fracture?
1. Medial malleolus
2. Lower third of the fibula
3. Astragalus
4. Lateral malleolus
5. Calcaneus
SKULL
2. Infundibulum of the ethmoid
bone.
3. Pterygo-palate foramen.
4. Pterygo-ethmoid depression.
5. Bony air cells of the ethmoid
bone.
2. The patient has rhinitis and
symptoms of the inflammation of
the mucous coat of the frontal
1. The patient has rhinitis and
symptoms of the inflammation of
the mucous coat of the maxillary
sinus. Through which structure
the infection can pass from the
nasal cavity into the maxillary
sinus?
1.Hiatus sinus maxillaris.
77
2. Interpterygoid space.
3. Frontal sinus.
4. Interaponeurotical temporal space.
5. Tympanic cavity.
6. After an acute rhinitis the
patient has difficult nasal
respiration, increasing of the
temperature, headache and pain in
the region of the right fossa
canina. The inflammation of what
sinus starts?
1. Sinus maxillaris dexter.
2. Sinus frontalis dexter.
3. Sinus maxillaris sinister.
4. Sinus sphenoidalis dexter.
5. Right middle air cells of the
ethmoid bone.
7. A patient has a pus
inflammation of the mucous coat
of the frontal sinus. Where will
pus spread?
1. Middle nasal passage.
2. Superior nasal passage.
3. Inferior nasal passage.
4. Choanae.
8. A patient complained to the
nasal papilloma. A doctor
determined that it is located at the
formation under which the
nasolacrimal canal opens. What is
this formation?
1. Inferior nasal concha.
2. Superior nasal concha.
3. Sphenoethmoid depression.
4. Ethomoid bull.
5. Middle turbinated bone.
9. A patient has a headache during
5 days. A doctor found-«maxillary
sinusitis». From what nasal
passage can infection pass?
1. Middle.
2. Upper.
3. Lower.
sinus. Through which structure
the infection can pass from the
nasal cavity into the frontal sinus?
1. Infundibulum of the ethmoid
bone.
2. Semilunar fissure.
3. Pterygo-palate foramen.
4. Pterygo-ethmoid depression.
5. Bony air cells of the ethmoid
bone.
3. The patient has rhinitis and
symptoms of the inflammation of
the mucous coat of the sphenoid
sinus. Through which structure
the infection can pass from the
nasal cavity into the sphenoid
sinus?
1. Orifice of the sphenoid sinus.
2. Semilunar fissure.
3. Pterygo-palate foramen.
4. Semilunar fissure.
5. Bony air cells of the ethmoid
bone.
4. During examination of the nasal
cavity the doctor detected pus in
the middle nasal passage. What
paranasal sinuses can take this
inflammation?
1. Maxillary and frontal sinuses,
anterior and middle air cells of the
ethmoid bone.
2. Maxillary and sphenoid sinuses.
3. Frontal and sphenoid sinuses,
anterior and posterior air cells of the
ethmoid bone.
4. Anterior, middle and posterior air
cells of the ethmoid bone.
5. Sphenoid sinus, posterior air cells
of the ethmoid bone.
5. A patient has abscess of the
pterygopalate fossa. Where can
the infection pass?
1. Orbit
78
4. Common.
5. Nasopharynx.
10. A patient has inflammation of
a fat of the eye-socket. He has
purulent inflammation in the
region of the infraorbital opening.
Through what canal can infection
pass?
1. Canalis infraorbitalis.
2. Canalis incisivus.
3. Canalis pterygoideus musseter m.
4. Fissure orbitalis inferior.
5. Canalis nasolacrimalis.
11. There is purulent otitis in a
patient.The upper wall of the
tympanic cavity is broken. Where
can pus spread from the tympanic
cavity in this case?
1. In middle cranial fossa.
2. In front cranial fossa.
3. In pterygoid fossa.
4. In orbita.
5. In back cranial fossa.
12. After trauma there was a
purulent inflammation of soft
tissues of the orbit. Through what
anatomical formation will pus pass
to the pterygopala-tine fossa?
1. Fissure orbitalis inferior.
2. Pterygopalatine opening.
3. Fissure orbitalis superior.
4. Zigomaticoorbital opening.
5. Round opening.
13. Right maxillary sinus has an
accumulation of the pus. In which
nasal passage will the pus pass?
1. In a right middle nasal passage.
2. In a right nasopharyngeal passage.
3. In a right lower nasal passage.
4. In a right upper nasal passage.
5. In a right common nasal passage.
14. After an infectious disease of
the respiratory apparatus, pain
appeared in the area of the frontal
bone. Where is the inflammation
located?
1. Frontal sinus.
2. Superior nasal concha.
3. Sphenoidal sinus.
4. Maxillary sinus.
5. Superior nasal passage.
15. During the examination of the
nasal cavity of a patient
accumulation of the pus in the
inferior nasal passage was
detected. Into which of mentioned
formations may the inflammatory
process proceed?
1. Nasolacrimal canal.
2. Highmore sinus.
3. Frontal sinus.
4. Sphenoid sinus.
5. Ethmoid sinus.
16. The patient was admitted to
the department for the correct of
the nasal septa deformity. Which
of the mentioned bones form the
nasal septum?
1. Perpendicular plate of ethmoid
bone, vomer.
2. Horisontal plate of palatine bone,
vomer.
3. Inferior nasal concha, vomer.
4. Perpendicular plate of palatine
bone, vomer.
17. An X-ray photo revealed the
shading and presence of liquid in
the right maxillary sinus.
Maxillary sinusitis was diagnosed.
Doctor should do the puncture of
the sinus for the extraction of the
pus. Into which of the mentioned
formations should the needle be
introduced for puncture?
1. Medial nasal passage.
2. General nasal passage.
79
3. Inferior nasal passage.
4. Nasal vestibule.
5. Upper nasal passage.
18. The doctor predicts the
probability of inflammation of the
orbital cellular tissue during the
inflammation in the area of fossa
canina. Through which formation
can the infection spread?
1. Infraorbital canal.
2. Inferior orbital fossura.
3. Pterygoid canal.
4. Nasolacrimal canal.
5. Incisivus canal.
19. Due to the tumor of the
hypophysis, destruction and
enlargement of the fossa
hypophysialis was detected during
X-ray examination. Which
structure can be destroyed?
1. Sinus of the sphenoid bone.
2. Sinus of the frontal bone.
3. Sinus of the maxilla.
4. Optic canal.
5. Tympanic cavity.
20. After trauma of the head, the
pyramid of patient’s temporal
bone was broken. The line of
fracture was perpendicular to the
axis of the pyramid, on the lateral
side from internal auditory
opening. Which canal of the
temporal bone can be destroyed?
1. Facial canal.
2. Mastoid canal.
3. Tympanic canal.
4. Canalicilus of chorda tympani
nerve.
5. Semicircular canals of labyrinth.
21. After a nasopharyngeal
inflammation, acute pain appeared
in the right ear of 2-year-old boy.
During exami-nation, the
inflammation of middle ear was
detected. Through which
anatomical formation can the
infection pass to the cavity of
middle ear from the nasopharynx?
1. Semicanal of auditory tube.
2. Canaliculus of chorda tympani
nerve.
3. Canaliculus tympanicus.
4. Caroticotympanic canaliculi.
5. Semicanal of tensor tympanic m.
22. In a car accident the passenger
injured the left eyebrow. During
the examination of the nasal
cavity, blood discharging from the
left side of middle nasal passage
was detected. The fracture of
which formation is possible?
1. Fracture of the wall of frontal
sinus.
2. Fracture of sphenoid sinus.
3. Damage of nasolacrimal canal.
4. Damage of labyrinths of ethmoid
bone.
5. Fracture of maxillary sinus.
23. After a fall, victim felt pain in
occipital area. The fracture of
which bone is suspected?
1. Occipital bone.
2. Parietal bone.
3. Temporal bone.
4. Frontal bone.
5. Sphenoid bone.
24. A cranial trauma caused the
fracture of the sphenoid bone at
the base of the pterygoid process.
The content of which canal can be
destroyed?
1. Pterygoid.
2. Musculotubarian.
3. Tympanic.
4. Carotid.
5. Facial.
80
4. From posterior cells of ethmoid
bone to the upper nasal passage.
5. From frontal sinus to the middle
nasal passage.
28. In a car accident the passenger
injured the right surface of the
face. During X- ray examination
the fracture of the zygomatic arch
was detected. Which bones form
zygomatic arc?
1. Zygomatic process of the temporal
bone and temporal process of the
zygomatic bone.
2. Zygomatic process of the temporal
bone and frontal process of the
maxilla.
3. Zygomatic process of the maxilla
and temporal process of the
zygomatic bone.
29. A 5 year child has the purulent
inflammation of the middle ear.
The disease began with
inflammation of the nasopharynx.
Through what canal of the
temporal bone did the infection
pass to the tympanic cavity?
1. Canalis musculo-tubarius
2. Canalis caroticus
3. Canaliculus tympanici
4. Canalis chorda tympani
5. Canaliculi carotico-tympanici
30. Examination of a patient
revealed an abscess of the
pterygopalatine fossa. Where can
the infection spread to unless the
disease is managed in time?
1. To the orbit
2. To the subgaleal temporal space
3. To the interpterygoid space
4. To the frontal sinus
5. To the tympanic cavity
31. At road accident the lachrymal
gland together with the bone, on
25. For a long time patient has
been suffering from the
inflammation of mucous
membrane of the labyrinths of the
ethmoid bone. Other paranasal
sinuses are not injured. In which
formation can the doctor find the
inflammatory secret.
1. In upper and middle nasal
passages.
2. In inferior and middle nasal
passages.
3. Only in inferior nasal passage.
4. Only in middle nasal passage.
5. In mandibular sinus.
26. An abscess located deep in
infratemporal fossa, partially
penetrates the pterygopalatine
fossa. Through which formations
will the inflammatory process
probably spread?
1. Sphenopalatine and round
openings, great palatine and
pterygoid canals, infraorbital fissure.
2. Jugular and lacerum openings,
great palatine and pterygoid canals.
3. Pterygopalatine and round
openings, optic and infraorbital
canals.
27. Patient complains of the pain
in the right side of face. Xray
examination of the head showed
shading in the right side of the
maxillary body. Chronic exudative
maxillitis was diagnosed. From
which formation and where can
the inflammation spread?
1. From maxillary sinus to the
middle nasal passage.
2. From nasolacrimal canal to the
inferior nasal passage.
3. From incisor canal to the inferior
nasal passage.
81
5. Sphenoid
36. A patient had an inflammation
of a mucosa of a nose. Disease has
become complicated by an
inflammation of conjunctiva of the
eye. Through what anatomical
formation an infection may
spread?
1. Nasolacrimal canal.
2. Sphenopalatine foramen.
3. Hiatus semilunaris.
4. Greater palatine canal.
5. Lesser palatine canal.
37. At the patient the complete
blindness has appeared after a
road accident. What canal has
been damaged?
1. Optic canal
2. Superior orbital fissure
3. Inferior orbital fissure
4. Nasolacrimal canal
38. As a result of road accident
there was a fracture in the region
of the central part of the base of
the skull. What bone is damaged
at a trauma?
1. Spheniod
2. Frontal
3. Temporal
4. Parietal
5. Ethmoid
39. How inflammatory process
may spread from occipital region
into the cranial cavity?
1. Via condyloid canal.
2. Via parietal foramen.
3. Via mastoid foramen.
4. Via foramen spinosum.
5. Via foramen ovale.
40. Dissolution of which orbital
wall may be happen as a result of
the maxillar inflammation?
1. Inferior.
which it is situated are damaged.
What bone is damaged?
1. Frontal
2. Maxilla
3. Lachrymal
4. Nasal
5. Ethmoid
32. A patient has fracture of the
base of the skull. The line of
fracture passes through round and
spine openings. What bone is
injured?
1. Sphenoid.
2. Temporal.
3. Frontal.
4. Ethmoid.
5. Occipital
33. A victim has right-side fracture
of middle third of mandible. What
canal can be injured?
1. Mandibular.
2. Greater palatine.
3. Pterygoid.
4. Infraorbital.
5. Lesser palatine.
34. At a trauma of the maxilla the
numbness is marked in the region
of the upper molars. What
formations are damaged?
1. Alveolar foramens of maxilla
2. Infraorbital canal
3. Ethmoid aperture of maxilla
4. Infraorbital foramen of maxilla
5. Supraorbital foramen of maxilla
35. After a trauma in the region of
the nose a woman complains of the
absence of smelling, an edema of
mucous layer of the nose. What
bone of a skull is damaged?
1. Ethmoid
2. Frontal
3. Zygomatic
4. Temporal
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2. Superior.
3. Medial.
4. Lateral.
5. Posterior.
41. What is a most probable
source of spreading of purulent
inflammation into mastoid cells?
1. Tympanic cavity.
2. Sterno-cleido-mastoid muscle.
3. Posterior cranial fossa
4. Middle cranial fossa.
42. A patient has an inflammation
in the pterygopalatine fossa. The
infection has spread into the nasal
cavity. Which anatomical
structure has the infection spread
through?
1. Foramen sphenopalatinum
2. Foramen rotundum
3. Canalis palatines major
4. Canalis palatines minor
43. Underdvelopment of which
parts of facial skeleton in the
embryonal period is the reason for
such malformation as cleft palate?
1. Palatine processes
2. Frontal processes
3. Frontal and maxillary processes
4. Mandibular processes
5. Mandibular and palatine processes
44. A 5 year old child was
admitted to the ENT department
with suppurative inflammation of
middle ear (tympanitis).It began
with the inflammation of
nasopharynx. Through what canal
of temporal bone did the infection
get into tympanic cavity?
1. Musculotubal canal
2. Small canal of chorda tympani
3. Caroticotympanic foramina
4. Small tympanic canal
5. Carotid canal
45. The surgical department
admitted a newborn girl who
choked during sucking.
Examination revealed cleft palate
arising from non-union of the
middle frontal process and
maxillary process of the 1-st
branchial arch. The cleft was
located in the palate between:
1. Os incisivum et processus
palatines maxillae
2. Processus palatines maxillae
dextrae et sinistrae
3. Lamina horizontalis os palatinum
dextrum et sinistrum
4. Processus palatines maxillae et
lamina
46. X-ray examination revealed an
accumulation of suppuration in
maxillary sinus. Into what nasal
meatus the suppuration excretes?
1. Median nasal
2. Nasopharyngeal
3. Inferior nasal
4. Superior nasal
5. Common nasal
47. An eye trauma caused soft
tissues infection of eye-socket.
Through what anatomical
formation can the infection
penetrate into the middle cranial
fossa?
1. Through the superior orbital
fissure
2. Through the anterior ethmoidal
foramen
3. Through the posterior ethmoidal
foramen
4. Through the inferior orbital fissure
5. Through the zygomatic orbital
foramen
48. Examination of a 6 month-old
child revealed a delay in closure of
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3. Until 6 months
4. Until the first year of life
5. Until the end of the second year of
life
the occipital fontanelle. When it
should be normally closed?
1. Until 3 months
2. Before the child is born
ARTHROLOGY
1. The anterior fonticulus wasn’t
closed in 2 years child. In what age
bones of the skull must be joined?
1. On the 2 year of the life
2. On the 4-6 months of the life
3. On the 1 year of the life
4. On the 2-3 months of the life
5. On the 3 year of the life
2. It’s necessary to examine a
cerebrospinal fluid in 45 year
patient with suspicion on
inflammation of the brain’s
meninges. Diagnostic puncture
was done between the arches of
lumbar vertebrae (L3-L4). What
ligament must needle penetrate?
1. Ligamentum flava
2. Ligamentum iliolumbalis
3. Ligamentum longitudinale
anterior
4. Ligamentum intertransversus
5. Ligamentum longitudinale
posterior
3. A victim has the compression
break of the lumbar vertebra.
Lordosis was multiplied sharply.
What ligament is injured in such
case?
1. Ligamentum longitudinale
anterior
2. Ligamentum flava
3. Ligamentum iliolumbalis
4. Ligamentum intertransversus
5. Ligamentum longitudinale
posterior
4. On the X –ray photo there are
damages of bodies of two lumbar
vertebrae. What anatomical
structure which connects the
bodies of vertebrae was hurt?
1. Intervertebral discus
2. Ligamentum longitudinale
posterior
3. Ligamentum intertransversaria
4. Ligamentum longitudinale
anterior
5. Ligamentum sacrococcygea
5. The X-ray examination shows a
changing in the intervertebral disk
of the thoracic part of the
vertebral column. In what type of
the connection pathological
changes are present?
1. Synchondrosis
2. Syndesmosis
3. Synostosis
4. Symphisis
6. The X-ray examination shows a
hernia of the intervertebral disk of
the thoracic part of the spine.
What articulations have
pathological process?
1. Synchondrosis
2. Symphisis
3. Syndesmosis.
7. What type of connection a
doctor must do during applying of
a bandage to support the lower
jaw for a patient with fracture of
the lower jaw?
1. Combined
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2. Complex
3. Simple
4. Complicated
8. Dentist doctor puts his thumbs
on the masticatory surfaces of the
lower molars of patient, takes the
lower edge of the mandibule by
second fingers and strongly pulls it
down. What trauma does doctor
treat?
1. Dislocation of the lower jaw
2. Fracture of the foundation of the
lower jaw
3. Fracture of the body of the lower
jaw
4. Arthrosis of the
temporomandibular joint
9. A patient has the displacement
of the acromial end of the clavicle.
During pressure clavicle moves
downward. What ligaments are
injured?
1. Lig. coracoclaviculare,
lig.coracoacromiale
2. Lig. costoclaviculare, lig.
sternoclaviculare posterior
3. Lig. coracohumerale, lig.
sternoclaviculare anterior
10. As a result of falling down
from the high place a patient has
got a trauma. The muscles of the
shoulder girdle are tensed, the
clavicular acromial end protrudes
sharply, the head of the humerus
is under clavicle. What diagnosis
can be put?
1. Dislocation of the shoulder joint
2. Dislocation of the
acromioclavicular joint
3. Dislocation of the sternoclavicular
joint
4. Fracture of the humeral bone
5. Fracture of the scapula
11. At a victim in the crash there is
posttraumatic dislocation of the
shoulder joint. What ligament is
injured?
1. Lig. coracohumerale
2. Lig. acromioclaviculare
3. Lig. sternoclaviculare
4. Lig. transversus
5. Tendon of the long head of m.
biceps brachii
12. A 10 years boy has a fracture
of bones of the forearm. A child
can’t do supination and
pronantion of the forearm. In
what joints such movements can
be?
1. Art. radioulnaris proximalis, art.
radioulnaris distalis
2. Art. radioulnaris proximalis, art.
cubiti.
3. Art. radioulnaris proximalis, art.
radiocarpea.
Synchondrosis
13. After trauma patient has
rupture of the pubic symphysis .
What type of the articulation has
suffered?
1. Hemiartrosis
2. 4 longitudinal, 1 transverse.
3. Syndesmosis
4. Synchondrosis.
14. After trauma in the pelvis
region X- ray examination of the
patient showed the necrosis of the
femoral head. Which ligament
containing artery was destroyed?
1. Lig.capitis femoris
2. Lig.iliofemorale
3. Lig.pubofemorale
4. Lig.ishiofemorale.
15. A patient has fracture of the
femoral neck. There is abnormal
85
position of the femoral head. What
structure is damaged?
1. Zona orbicularis
2. N.femoralis
3. A.obturatoria.
16. A footballer fell down on the
knee joint and injured leg. Which
structures are injured most
probably?
1. Menisci of the knee joint
2. Neck of the femur
3. Ligaments of the knee joint
17. A skier fell down on the right
bended knee with pronation of the
leg. He was hospitalized with acute
pain. The mechanism of this
trauma is characteristic at a defeat
of:
1. Meniscus lateralis
2. Meniscus medialis
3. Lig.transversum genus
4. Lig.cruciatum anterius.
18. After trauma of the knee joint
few synovial bursae of this joint
were hurt. How many synovial
bursae surround knee joint?
1. 7.
2. 6.
3. 5.
4. 8.
19. After trauma a man complains
of pathological movements in knee
joint – anteroposterior dislocation
of the leg relative to thigh (so
called “compartment” symptom).
What ligaments of the knee joint
are injured?
1. Ligg.cruciatum
2. Lig.popliteum arcuatum
3. Membrana interosseum
4. Lig.collaterale
20. Footballer complains of pain in
right knee joint. During
examination doctor detects
dislocation of lateral meniscus.
What ligament was injured?
1. Lig.transversum genus
2. Lig.popliteum obliquumn
3. Lig.popliteum arcuatum
4. Lig.patellae
21. A victim has fracture in region
of inner surface of left ankle joint.
What structure is destroyed?
1. Malleolus medialis
2. Fibula
3. Talus
4. Malleolus lateralis.
22. After trauma of the foot, a
patient was operated
(disarticulation in Chopar’s joint)
The “key” of this joint is:
1. Lig.bifurcatum
2. Lig.talocalcaneum interosseum
3. Lig.cuneocuboideum interosseum
4. Ligg.plantaria.
23. The patient with diabetes
mellitus (sugar disease) had
gangrene of the foot. The doctor
carried out operation in the region
of “ Chopar’s” joint. What
ligament must doctor cut?
1. Lig.bifurcatum
2. Lig.cuneocuboideum dorsale
3. Lig.talocalcaneum laterale
4. Lig.talocalcaneum interosseum
24. What anatomic feature of
newborn contributes in formation
of head’s bruise at labor trauma?
1. Presence of fontanelles
2. Mobility of bones which form the
vault of skull
3. Weak development of fatty layer
of the head’s skin
25. The patient has intra-articular
fracture of the femur′s neck with
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30. A diagnosis “flat foot” was put
to 5 years boy. Few longitudinal
arches of his foot were not normal.
How many arches are on the foot?
1. 5 longitudinal, 1 transverse.
2. 4 longitudinal, 1 transverse
3 .6 longitudinal, 2 transverse.
31. After trauma of the man’s
elbow joint X-ray photo shows the
destruction of the capitulum
humeri. What part of the elbow
joint is formed by the capitulum
humeri?
1. Articulation humeroradialis.
2. Articulatio humeroulnaris.
3. Articulatio radioulnaris
32. Under laminectomy (removing
of vertebral arch) surgeon has to
remove ligaments connecting
arches. Which ones?
1. Yellow ligament.
2. Posterior longitudinal ligament.
3. Interspinous ligaments.
4. Anterior longitudinal ligament.
5. Intertransverse ligaments.
33. For reposition of dislocation of
a mandible it is necessary to move
it from superior to inferior. What
anatomic formation causes such
action?
1. Articular tubercle of temporal
bone.
2. Condyloid process of mandible.
3. Mandibular fossa of temporal
bone.
4. Notch of mandible.
5. Coronoid process of mandible.
34. The child is about 2 years old.
Mother has addressed to the
pediatrist with the complaint to
revealing of soft area on the
anterior part of the skull-cap.
the asymmetry of its head. What
structure is broken?
1. Lig. capitis femoris
2. Lig. Iliofemorale
3. N. femoralis
4. N. obturatorius
5. A. obturatoria
26. An old woman was hospitalized
with acute pain, edema in the right
hip joint; the movements in the
joint are limited. Which bone or
part of it was broken?
1. The neck of the thigh
2. The body of the thigh bone
3. Pubic bone
4. Condyle of the thigh
5. Ischial bone
27. During the operation of the hip
joint one ligament, which caused
bleeding was cut. What is it?
1. Lig. capitis femoris.
2. Lig. iliofemoralis
3. lig. pubofemoralis
4. Lig.ischiofemoralis.
28. A 45-years man fell on the
right knee and felt the acute pain
in the joint. On examination:
severe edema on the anterior
surface of the knee joint.
Crunching sounds are heard while
moving the joint. Which bone is
destroyed?
1. Knee-cap
2. Neck of the thigh bone
3. Head of the thigh bone
4. Left epicondyle of the thigh
5. Right epicondyle of the thigh
29. A doctor carries out operation
of the Lisfranc’s joint. This joint is
formed by the aggregation of the:
1. Tarsometatarsal joints.
2. Intermetatarsal joints.
3. Metatarsophalangeal joints.
87
What fontanelle was not closed by
this time?
1. Anterior (frontal) fontanelle
2. Posterior (occipital) fontanelle
3. Anterior and posterior fontanelle
4. Anterio-lateral (clinoid) fontanelle
5. Posterio-lateral (mastoid)
fontanelle
35. After falling at the child the
anterior fontanelle has been
injured. What kind of connection
of skull bones was broken?
1. Syndesmosis
2. Synchondrosis
3. Synostosis
4. Hemiarthrosis
36. At a patient there is bilateral
dislocation of temporomandibular
joint. What the basic ligaments of
a joint will be damaged?
1. Lateral ligaments.
2. Pterygomandibular ligament.
3. Stylomandibular ligament.
4. Intraarticular ligaments.
37. As a result of pathologic labor
separation of pubic bones was
diagnosed. . What type of bone
connection was damaged ?
1. Symphysis.
2. Syndesmosis.
3. Synchondrosis.
4. Synostosis.
5. Diarthrosis.
38. On operation the fracture of a
femur within a joint cavity with
blood is found out. What ligament
of a hip joint is damaged?
1. Ligament of femoral head .
2. Transverse.
3. Pubofemoral.
4. Iliofemoral.
5. Ischiofemoral.
39. X ray examination revealed
fracture of bone placed within
quadriceps femoris muscle tendon.
What kind of bone is it?
1. Sesamoid.
2. Flat.
3. Tubular.
4. Pneumatic.
5. Mixed.
40. Examination of a 6-month-old
child revealed a delay in closure of
the occipital fontanelle. When
should it normally close?
1. Until 3 months.
2. Until the end of the first year of
life.
3. Before the child is born.
4. Until the end of the second year of
life.
5. Until 6 months.
41. It is necessary to take the
cerebrospinal fluid from a patient
with suspected inflammation of
brains maninges. Diagnostic
puncture was performed between
the arches of the lumbar
vertebrae. During the puncture
the needle went through the
following ligament:
1. Yellow (flava)
2. Iliolumbar
3. Anterior longitudinal
4. Posterior longitudinal
5. Intertransverse
42. A victim of a road accident has
an abruption of a part of
mandibular angle, displacement of
fragment backwards and upwards.
What ligament is responsible for
this displacement?
1. Stylomandibular
2. Intraarticular
3. Lateral
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4. Sphenomandibular
5. Pterygomandibular
43. During the operation on the
hip joint of a 5-years-old child her
ligament was damaged which
caused bleeding. What ligament
was damaged?
1. Ligament of the femoral head
2. Iliofemoral ligament
3. Pubofemoral ligament
4. Ischiofemoral ligament
44. A 6-year-old child fell on the
cutting object and traumatized
soft tissues between tibia and
fibula. What kind of bone
connection was injured?
1. Membrane
2. Suture
3. Ligament
4. Fontanel
5. Gomphosis
45. A boxer who got a punch in the
region of temporomandibular
joint has a traumatic dislocation of
the mandible. Displacement of
what articular surfaces will
overstep the limits of physiological
norm?
1. Head of mandible and mandibular
fossa
2. Coronoid process and pterygoid
fossa
3. Coronoid process and
submandibular fossa
4. Head of mandible and
submandibular fossa
5. Neck of mandible and
submandibular fossa
MYOLOGY
2. M. rhomboideus major
3. M. levator scapulae
4. M. trapezius
5. M. subscapularis
3. The split on the posterior
surface of the humerus was
diagnosed. There were symptoms
of the affection of the radial nerve
in the region of the humeromuscular canal. Which of the
following structures form the walls
of this canal?
1. Posterior surface of the humerus
and m. triceps brachii.
2. Anterior surface of the humerus
and m. biceps brachii.
3. Anterior surface of the humerus
and m. coracobrachialis.
4. Anterior surface of the humerus
and m. brachialis.
1. A patient was admitted with
complaints of pain in the left half
of the neck, which increases
during movements of the head.
The declination of the head to the
left side with the face turned to the
right side gives pain. The action of
which muscle is disturbed?
1. Left sternocleidomastoid muscle.
2. Right sternocleidomastoid muscle.
3. Right platisma muscle.
4. Left platisma muscle.
5. Long muscle of the neck.
2. Young man feels a pain in the
back during active tightening on
the horizontal bar. Objectively:
pain while moving of upper
extremity, limited pronation and
adduction functions. Strained of
what muscle is present?
1. M. latissimus dorsi
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5. Posterior surface of the humerus
and m. anconeus.
4. A patient had a foreign object in
his respiratory tract.
Tracheostomy was formed in the
region of the neck, which is
bounded by the superior belly of
the omohyoid muscle, by the
sternocleidomastoid muscle and by
the middle line of the neck. How is
this triangle called?
1. Omotracheale.
2. Caroticum.
3. Submandibulare.
4. Omotrapezoideum.
5. Omoclaviculare.
5. A tennis player had the
inflammation of the tendon of one
of the muscle of the shoulder
girdle which is caused by the
friction of this tendon with the
acromion of the scapula. Name
this muscle.
1. M. supraspinatus
2. M. subscapularis.
3. M. infraspinatus.
4. M. teres major.
5. M. deltoideus.
6. The lateral part of the face of 18
years patient was traumatized
after the fight. During
examination a doctor determined
that the skin is traumatized, the
branch of the lower jaw is broken.
Only one muscle is not injured (it
does not raise a lower jaw). What
is this muscle?
1. Lateral pterygoid muscle.
2. Anterior bundles of the temporal
muscle.
3. Middle bundles of the temporal
muscle.
4. Medial pterygoid muscle.
7. After trauma a patient does not
move the lower jaw to the front
and to the right. What muscle is
injured?
1. Left lateral pterygoid m.
2. Left masseter m.
3. Right temporal m.
4. Left temporal m.
8. A patient complains of a pain in
the region of the left part of the
neck which increases during
movements of the head.
Movements are not trouble for the
patient: a slope of the face to the
left with turning of the head to the
right. What muscle is injured in
this case?
1. M. sternocleidomastoideus
sinistra.
2. M. sternocleidomastoideus dextra.
3. M. platisma dextra.
4. M. platisma sinistra.
5. M. longus colli.
9. A patient cannot extend elbow
joint. What muscle is hurt?
1. Triceps m.
2. Biceps m.
3. Brachial m.
4. Coracobrachial m.
5. Brachioradial m.
10. After trauma a sick man can’t
move by the shoulder to the back.
Which muscles are hurt?
1. M. deltoideus.
2. M. infraspinatus.
3. M. levator scapule.
4. M. teres major.
5. M. subscapularis.
11. A weak place of the anterior
abdominal wall is an umbilical
ring. Which elements of a
structure of the anterior
abdominal wall are absent here?
90
1. Aponeurosis.
2. Superficial fascia.
3. Own fascia.
4. Internal fascia.
5. Peritoneum.
12. During trauma in the region of
the processus coronoideus of the
lower jaw a sick man does not
move the jaw backwards from
foreward position. Which muscle
is injured?
1. M. temporalis.
2. M. masseter.
3. M. pterygoideus lateralis.
4. M. pterygoideus medialis.
5. M. levator anguli oris.
13. During examination of a
patient the function of a closing of
eye-slit breaks. Which muscle is
injured?
1. M. orbicularis oculi.
2. M. procerus.
3. M. orbicularis oris.
4. M. corrugator supercilii.
5. M. depressor supercilii.
14. A 52 years man has hernial
protrusion on the lower part of the
anterior abdominal wall. Through
which anatomical formation the
hernia protrusion was formed
more probably?
1. Canalis inguinalis.
2. Anulus femoralis.
3. Anulus umbilicalis.
4. Linea alba.
5. Lig. inguinalis.
15. A 42 years old sick man came
to the hospital with a cut wound of
the low part of the front surface of
the arm. He does not bend the
forearm. Which muscles are hurt?
1. M. brachialis, m. biceps brachii.
2. M. biceps brachii, m. anconeus.
3. M. coracobrachialis, m.
supraspinatus.
4. M. deltoideus, m. infraspinatus.
5. M. deltoideus, m. biceps brachii.
16. After a trauma of the lateral
surface of the head, the condylar
and coronoid processes of the
lower jaw were fractured. Actions
of which muscles are hurt?
1. Lateral pterygoid, temporal.
2. Masseter, temporal.
3. Medial pterygoid, lateral
pterygoid.
4. Buccal, temporal.
17. In an injury the middle part of
the biceps muscle of the arm was
ruptured. Which actions of the
upper limb are disordered?
1. Flexion in shoulder joint, flexion
in elbow joint.
2. Flexion in shoulder joint,
extension in elbow joint.
3. Extension in shoulder joint,
supination of forearm.
4. Pronation of forearm.
18. After an intramuscular
injection abscess in the patient's
gluteus maximus muscle was
formed. What actions of the hip
joint will be limited?
1. Extension, lateral rotation.
2. Extension, flexion.
3. Adduction.
4. Abduction.
5. Pronation.
19. After trauma in a car accident
a patient can’t flex the leg in the
knee joint. Actions of what
muscles are suffered?
1. Semimembranous m.,
semitendinous m.,biceps femoris
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2. Semimembranous m.,
semitendinous m., quadriceps
femoris m.
3. Semitendinous m., sartorius m.,
posterior tibial m.
20. During operation of the
woman’s inguinal hernia, the
surgeon unintentionally cut part of
the fixing apparatus of the uterus.
Which of the mentioned ligaments
was damaged during this
operation?
1. Round lig.
2. Ovarian proper lig.
3. Broad lig.
4. Cardinal lig.
21. A 18 years old patient after
having an angina turned to the
doctor with complaint of the
worsening of her condition.
During examination pharyngeal
abscess was detected. Which
interfascial space should the
surgeon penetrate during the
section of abscess?
1. Retrovisceral.
2. Previsceral.
3. Interapponeurotic suprathoracal.
4. Submandibular.
5. Pretracheal.
22. For performed operation on
the thigh’s vessels, the surgeon
should find the femoral triangle.
The triangle is formed by:
1. Inguinal lig. adductor longus
muscle, sartorius muscle.
2. Lacunar lig. sartorius muscle,
adductor brevis muscle.
3. Gracilis muscle, adductor longus
muscle,inguinal lig.
23. A trauma caused a defect in
the innervation of the thigh's
muscles. Patient cannot adduct the
femur. Which muscles are
suffering?
1. Adductor brevis muscle, adductor
longus muscle, gracilis muscle,
adductor magnus muscle, pectineus
muscle.
2. Adductor brevis muscle, quadrate
muscle of thigh, quadriceps muscle
of thigh.
3. Adductor brevis muscle,
semitendinous and semimembranous
muscles.
4. Adductor brevis muscle, sartorius
muscle, tensor muscle of fascia lata.
24. A 42-years old man wounded
the lower part of the frontal
surface of the arm. He can’t flex
the forearm. Which muscles are
probably damaged?
1. Brachial muscle of arm, biceps
muscle of arm.
2. Triceps muscle of arm, anconeus
muscle.
3. Coracobrachial muscle,
brachioradial muscle.
4. Pronator teres muscle, palmaris
longus muscle.
5. Flexor digitirum superficialis and
flexor digitorum profundus muscles.
25. A 45-years old man damaged
the posterior region of the left
elbow joint. It is difficult to extend
the forearm now. Which muscles
are probably damaged?
1. Triceps m., anconeus m.
3. Triceps m., brachioradial m.
4. Brachioradial m., biceps m.
5. Coracobrachial m.
26. During training a 17-years girl
has stretched muscles of the right
upper limb. She cannot abduct the
arm.Which muscles can be
damaged?
92
1. Deltoid and supraspinatus
muscles.
2. Brachial and teres major muscles.
3. Brachial and rhomboid muscles.
4. Subscapular and coracobrachial
muscles.
5. Teres major and minor muscles.
27. Glass fell on the dorsal surface
of the foot, causing a deep cutting
injury. Tendons of which muscles
were probably suffered in this
case?
1. Short and long extensor muscles
of toes, short and long extensor
muscles of great toe.
2. Short and long flexor muscles of
great toe.
3. Adductor hallucis, posterior tibial
muscle.
4. Long flexor muscle of toes,
adductor longus muscle.
28. During a tennis game,
sportsman twisted the foot,
causing the fracture of the lateral
malleolus. Tendons of which
muscles were suffered at the
trauma?
1. Long fibular m., short fibular m.
2. Semimembranous, gastrocnemius,
biceps m.m.
3. Semitendinous, anterior tibial
m.m.
4. Posterior tibial m., long flexion
muscle of toes.
5. Anterior tibial m., long extension
muscles of toes.
29. A 45-years man was wounded
in the front-medial side of the
chest along the anterior axillary
line. Which muscles are subjected
to surgical treatment?
1. Major pectoral m., minor pectoral
m., anterior serrate m.
2. Transversus thoracis m.,
innermost intercostal m.m.
3. Posterior serrate m., major
pectoral m., minor pectoral m.
4. Pectoral m.m., serrate m.m.
5. Internal intercostal and subcostal
m.m.
30. During examination of the
patient with damage of the lumbar
region, the restriction in straighten
of his back is detected. Which
muscle isprobably damaged?
1. Erector spinae m.
2. Latissimus dorsi m.
3. Major rhomboid m.
4. Serratus posterior inferior m.
5. Longest m.
31. After a long period of exposure
to cold, actions of some muscles of
the patient’s back were affected,
causing the impossibility of the
bending of the head and neck
backward. Which muscles have
probably suffered?
1. Splenius m.m. of the head and
neck.
2. Major and minor rhomboid m.m.
3. Sternocleidomastiod m.
4. Levator muscle of scapula.
5. Long m.m. of head and neck.
32. The diaphragm of the oral
cavity was damaged by a sharp
object. Which muscles have
probably suffered?
1. Geniohyoid m., mylohyoid m.
2. Tensor muscle of palate velum.
3. Palatoglossal m.
4. Palatopharyngeal m.
33. It is necessary to press
artery for temporary stopping of
the intensive bleeding in the region
of the head. This triangle is located
on the neck and bounded by the
93
1. Superficial layer of wide fascia of
thigh, femoral vein, deep layer of
wide fascia of thigh.
2. Inguinal ligament, femoral vein.
3. Superficial layer of wide fascia of
thigh, femoral artery.
37. The girth of right thigh of a 35years woman is much lesser than
the girth of left one. The right knee
reflex is absent. Which muscle is
probably atrophied?
1. Quadriceps.
2. Triceps.
3. Iliopsoas.
4. Obturatorius.
5. Sartorius.
38. A 42-years man suffering from
a straight inguinal hernia was
operated. Through which
anatomical formation did the
hernia appear?
1. Medial inguinal fossa.
2. Lateral inguinal fossa.
3. Supravesical fossa.
4. Femoral triangle.
5. Saphenous opening.
39. A 50-years patient complains
of impossibility of the adduction
and abduction of the fingers in the
metacarpophalangeal joints. The
actions of which muscles are
probably disturbed?
1. Interosseous mm.
2. Lumbrical mm.
3. Deep flexor of fingers.
4. Superficial flexor of fingers.
5. Extensor of fingers.
40. Patient cannot adduct and
abduct fingers towards and away
from the III finger. Which muscles
of hand are damaged?
1. Interosseus palmar mm.,
interosseus dorsal m.m.
sternocleidomastoid muscle, the
posterior belly of the digastric
muscle, and the superior belly of
omohyoid muscle. Name this
triangle:
1. Carotid.
2. Submandibular.
3. Omotracheal.
4. Omoclavicular.
5. Omotrapezoid.
34. A patient was admitted with
complaints of a pain in the
epigastric region. These
complaints are connected with the
possibility of hernia formation.
Name the weak places of the
anterior abdominal wall in the
epigastric region where the hernia
can be formed if there is
increasing of the intra-abdominal
pressure:
1. Alba (white) line.
2. Inguinal canal.
3. Umbilical region.
4. Femoral canal.
5. Adductor canal.
35. The declination of the head
with the face turned to the
opposite side was observed. The
action of which muscle was
probably disturbed?
1. Sternocleidomastoid m.
2. Trapezius m.
3. Mylohyoid m.
4. Anterior and posterior scalenus
m.m.
5. Sternothyroid m.
36. A 56-years woman complains
of a pain in the left inguinal
region. During examination,
femoral hernia was diagnosed.
Which of the following structures
form the walls of femoral canal?
94
2. Interosseus palmar mm., lumbrical
m.m.
3. Interosseus palmar mm.,
hypothenar m.m.
4. Lumbrical mm., interosseus dorsal
m.m., thenar m.m.
41. A 45-years man applied to the
trauma unit because of shoulder
trauma. Objectively: flexibility,
adduction and pronation function
of the shoulder are absent. What
muscle was injured?
1. Subscapular muscle and
teres major muscle
2. Supraspinous muscle and
infraspinous muscle
3. Teres minor muscle and
teres major muscle
42. A 7-years child can’t abduct
the shoulder, raise it to the
horizontal level. He can raise the
hand to the face only with its
dorsal side, abduct the shoulder
(with help of supraspinous muscle)
– “bugler” arm. Active action of
what muscle is absent?
1. Deltoid
2. Teres major
3. Infraspinous
4. Teres minor
5. Pectoral major
43. A sick man with neuritis of the
femoral nerve has disturbance of
the flexion of the thigh and
extension of the leg in knee joint.
What muscle is damaged?
1. M. quadriceps femoris
2. M. biceps femoris
3. M. semitendinosus
4. M. semimembranosus
44. The patient with affection of
the ulnar nerve cannot adduct II,
V fingers to the middle line. Which
muscles of hand are damaged?
1. M.m. interossei palmares
2. M.m. interossei dorsales
3. M.m. lumbricales
4. M. palmaris brevis
45. A man with the cut wound of
the anterior abdominal was
admitted to the hospital. The
objective data: cut wound of the
anterior wall of the rectus
abdominis muscle’s sheath above
navel. What aponeuroses form this
wall?
1. Aponeurosis of the external
oblique abdominis m. and half of the
lamina of the aponeurosis of the
internal oblique abdominis m.
2. Aponeuroses of the external and
internal oblique abdominis muscles.
3.Aponeuroses of the external
oblique and transversus abdominis
mm.
46. A man with the cut wound of
the anterior abdominal wall was
admitted to the hospital. The
objective data: cut wound of the
anterior wall of the rectus
abdominis muscle’s sheath 5cm
below navel. What aponeuroses
form this wall?
1. Aponeuroses of the external and
internal oblique and transversus
abdominis mm.
2. Aponeuroses of the external and
internal oblique abdominis mm.
3. Aponeuroses of the internal
oblique and transversus abdominis
muscles.
47. A 45-years man applied to the
trauma unit because of domestic
shoulder trauma. Objectively:
95
abduction of the shoulder is
absent. What muscle was injured?
1. Supraspinatus muscle
2. Infraspinatus muscle
3. Teres major muscle
4. Subscapular muscle
5. Teres minor muscle
48. A 7-years boy can't pronate the
forearm. Active action of what
muscle is absent?
1. Square pronator m.
2. Round pronator m.
3. Brachioradial m.
4. Supinator m.
49. A 45-years man with back
injury applied to the trauma unit.
The objective data: movements of
the scapula are limited. What
muscles can be damaged?
1. Trapezius, rhomboid mm.
2. Levator scapulae, splenius mm
3. Seratus posterior superior m.
4. Supraspinatus, deltoid mm.
50. A 45-years man with arm
injury came to the trauma unit.
The objective data are: the
pronation and adduction of the
arm are absent. What muscle is
damaged?
1. Subscapular m.
2. Infraspinatus m.
3. Supraspinatus m.
4. Teres minor m.
51. A physician examined a patient
and found inguinal hernia.
Through what anatomic formation
does hernia pass under the skin?
1. Anulus inguinalis superficialis.
2. Hiatus saphenous.
3. Canalis adductorius.
4. Anulus inguinalis profundus.
52. A 55-years patient was
hospitalized in result of the
trauma of the medial group of
femoral muscles. What kind of
movements is the patient unable to
do?
1. Adduction of femur
2. Suppination of femur
3. Flexion of femur
4. Abduction of femur
5. Extension of femur
53. A man with cut wound of his
right sole was admitted to the
hospital. The patient has limited
elevation of the lateral foot edge
and limited dorsal flexion of the
foot. What muscle is injured?
1. Long extensor muscle of toes
2. Anterior tibial m.
3. Triceps muscle of crus
4. Long peroneal m.
5. Short peroneal m.
54. A patient with neuritis of
femoral nerve has disturbed
flexion of thigh as well as
disturbed leg extension in the knee
joint. What muscle is disturbed?
1. Quadriceps muscle of thigh
2. Semimembranous muscle
3. Triceps muscle of thigh
4. Semitendinous muscle
5. Biceps muscle of thigh
55. As a result of an accident a
patient has intense pain and
oedema of the anterior leg surface;
dorsal flexion of foot is hindered.
Action of which leg’s muscle is
most likely to be disturbed?
1. M. tibialis anterior
2. M. flexor hallucis longus
3. M. flexor digitorum longus
4. M. peroneus longus
56. A 35-years man with a trauma
of his left hand was admitted to
the traumatology department.
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Objectively: cut wound of palmar
surface of left hand; proximal and
middle phalanxes of II-V fingers
don't bend. What muscles are
damaged?
1. Superficial flexor of the fingers
2. Deep flexor of the fingers.
3. Dorsal interosseous muscles
4. Lumbrical muscles
57. A patient with a knife wound
in the left lumbar part was
delivered to the emergency
hospital. In course of operation a
surgeon found that internal organs
were not damaged but the knife
injured one of the muscles of the
pelvic girdle. What muscle is it?
1. Greater psoas muscle
2. Abdominal internal oblique
muscle
3. Erector muscle of spine
4. Iliac muscle
58. A man with an injury of the
superficial dorsal area of his neck
was admitted to the hospital. What
muscle occupies this area?
1. M. trapezius
2. M. scalenus anterior
3. M. rhomboideus minor
4. M. latissimus dorsi
59. A patient has a deep cut wound
on the posterior surface of his
upper arm in its middle third.
What muscle is damaged?
1. Triceps muscle of arm
2. Anconeus muscle
3. Biceps muscle of arm
4. Brachial muscle
5. Coracohrachial muscle
60. While performing an inguinal
canal operation of mail body on
account of hernia a surgeon
damaged the canal's contents.
What exactly was damaged?
1. Funiculus spermaticus
2. Lig. teres uteri
3. Lig. inguinale
4. Ureter.
61. A 38-years patient came to a
traumatology centre and
complained about an injury of his
right hand. Objectively: the
patient has a cut wound in the
region of the thenar eminence on
the right hand; distal phalanx of I
finger cannot be flexed. What
muscle was injured?
1. Long flexor muscle of the thumb
2. Short flexor muscle of the thumb
3. Abductor muscle of the thumb
4. Opponens muscle of the thumb
5. Short abductor muscle of the
thumb
62. After trauma a patient lost
ability of elbow extension. What
muscle is damaged?
1. M. triceps brachii
2. M. subscapularis
3. M. levator scapulae
4. M. infraspinatus
5. M. teres major
63. A patient was admitted to the
surgical department with inguinal
hernia. During the operation the
surgeon performs plastic surgery
on posterior wall of inguinal canal.
What structure forms this wall?
1. Transverse fascia
2. Peritoneum
3. Loose inferior edge of transverse
abdominal muscle
4. Inguinal ligament
5. Aponeurosis of abdominal
external obligue muscle
97
64. A patient has difficulties with
hand movement. Examination
revealed inflammation of common
synovial sheath of flexor muscles.
It is know from the patient’s
anamnesis that he got a stab
wound of finger a week ago.
Which finger was most probably
damaged?
1. Little finger.
2. Middle finger.
3. Ring’s finger.
4. Index.
5. Thumb.
65. While performing operation
for inguinal hernia (in female) a
surgeon damaged the inguinal
canal’s contents. What exactly was
damaged?
1. Lig. teres uteri
2. Lig.inguinale
3. Funiculus spermaticus
4. Urarchus
66. A boy has fallen down from a
tree. Now he finds it difficult to
abduct his arm into horizontal
position. Which muscle is most
likely to be injured?
1. M. deltoideus.
2. M. coracobrachialis.
3. M. anconeus.
4. M. triceps brachii.
5. M. supinator.
67. A doctor asked a patient to
breath out fully after taking a
normal breath. What muscles
contract during such exhalation?
1. Diaphragm.
2. Pectoral muscles.
3. External intercostal muscle.
4. Trapezius muscle.
5. Abdominal muscles.
68. When processing a molar tooth
with a dental cutter the dentist has
by accident deeply wounded the
patient’s cheek and damaged not
only the mucosa but also a muscle.
Which muscle was hurt?
1. Buccal muscle
2. Greater zygomatic muscle
3. Masticatory muscle
4. Orbicular muscle of the mouth
5. Mylohyoid muscle
69. A patient presents with
disfunction of shin muscles. He
cannot raise his body by standing
on tiptoe. Which muscle is
affected?
1. M. triceps surae
2. M. tibialis posterior
3. M. extensor digitorum longus
4. M. flexor digitorum longus
5. M. tibialis anterior
70. During manipulations aimed at
treatment of mandible dislocation
a physician should pay particular
attention to a muscle that pulls a
capsule and interarticular disc of
temporomandibular articulation
exteriorly. What muscle is it?
1. M. pterygoideus lateralis
2. M. masseter
3. M. pterygoideus medialis
4. M. temporalis
5. M. mylogyoideus
71. 38-year-old patient came to a
traumatology centre and
complained about an injury of his
right hand. Objectively: the
patient has a cut wound in the
region of the thenar eminence on
the right hand; distal phalanx of
the 1 finger cannot be flexed.
What muscle was injured?
1. Long flexor muscle of thumb
98
2. Short flexor muscle of the thumb
3. Short abductor muscle of thumb
4. Opposer muscle of thumb
5. Abductor muscle of thumb
72. A 45-year-old man with
domestic apper arm injury came
to the trauma unit. The objective
date are: there are no extension,
adduction or pronation functions
of the arm. What muscle’s damage
caused this condition?
1. Teres major
2. Subscapular
3. Teres minor
4. Subspinous
5. Supraspinous
73. A 5 year old child suffers from
the neck deformity. Clinical
examination revealed such
symptoms: apparent flexion of the
head to the left, his face is turned
right, passive movements of the
head to the right are restricted.
What muscle’s development was
disturbed in this case?
1. Sternocleidomastoid
2. Trapezius
3. Splenius muscle of the head
4. Sternosublingual
5. Long muscle of the head
74. A patient displays abnormal
retrodeviation of his lower jaw as
a result of trauma in the region of
mandibular coronal process. What
muscle is most likely to be
damaged?
1. M. temporalis
2. M.masseter
3. M. pterygoideus lateralis
4. M. pterygoideus medialis
5. M. levator anguli oris
75. A patient has difficulties with
hand movement. Examination
revealed inflammation of common
synovial sheath of flexor muscles.
It is known from the patient’s
anamnesis that he got a stab
wound of finger a week ago.
Which finger was most probably
damaged?
1. Digitus minimus
2. Polles
3. Digitus medius
4. Index
5. Digitus anularis
76. A patient complained about
being unable to adduct and abduct
fingers in the
metacarpophalangeal articulations
towards and away from the 3rd
finger. What muscle’s function is
impaired?
1. Interosseous muscles
2. Lumbrical muscles
3. Breviflexors of fingers
4. Long flexors of fingers
5. Extensors
77. Usually the intravenous
injection is done into median
cubital vein because it is slightly
movable due to fixation by the soft
tissues. What structure fixes it in
the cubital fossa?
1. Aponeurosis of biceps muscle
2. Tendon of the triceps muscle
3. Brachial muscle
4. Brachioradial muscle
5. Anconeus muscle
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
99
forms one wall of this bursa. What
is it?
1. Posterior.
2. Anterior.
3. Lateral.
4. Superior.
5. Inferior.
6. The patient had the trauma of
the abdomen. During operation
the damage of the posterior wall of
the stomach was revealed.
Through which foramen the
doctor can examine the posterior
wall of the stomach?
1. Epiploic.
2. Hepatic.
3. Pancreatic.
4. Abdominaal.
5. Mesenteric.
7. The patient has inflammation of
the sublingual papilla. What
salivary glands will have difficult
salivation in this case?
1. Sublingual and submandibular.
2. Sublingual and parotid.
3. Parotid and submandibular.
4. Parotid and palate.
5. Sublingual and buccal.
8. An aggregations of the
lymphatic nodules called Peyer’s
patches are revealed in the mucous
coat of the intestine. Which part of
the intestine is it?
1. Ileum.
2. Jejunum.
3. Caecum.
4. Duodenum.
5. Rectum.
9. During operation of the stone in
the bile duct, the doctor must find
the common bile duct. Between
two layers of which ligament is this
duct located?
1. Hepatoduodenal
2. Hepatogastric.
3. Hepatorenal.
4. Round ligament of the liver.
5. Venous ligament.
10. Resection of part of the
pancreas was conducted. How is
1. A 18-years patient after having
an angina turned to the doctor
with complaint of the worsening of
her condition. During examination
pharyngeal abscess was detected.
Which interfascial space should
the surgeon penetrate during the
section of abscess?
1. Retrovisceral.
2. Previsceral.
3. Interapponeurotic suprasternal.
4. Submandibular.
5. Pretracheal.
2. The part of the intestine with
the appendices epiploicae was
revealed in the hernia’s sac
during the operation owing to the
strangulation of hernia. What part
of the intestine was strangulated?
1. Transverse colon.
2. Duodenum.
3. Jejunum.
4. Ileum.
5. Caecum.
3. During X-ray examination of
the 8 years child the foreign body
was discovered in the oesophagus
on the level of the tenth thoracic
vertebra. In what constriction of
the oesophagus the foreign body
comes to a stop?
1. Diaphragmatic constriction.
2. Pharyngeal constriction.
3. Bronchial constriction.
4. Aortic constriction.
5. Abdominal constriction.
4. During surgical intervention of
the small intestine longitudinal
fold on the mucous coat was
found. Which part of the small
intestine has such fold?
1. Descending part of the duodenum.
2. Horizontal part of the duodenum.
3. Ascending part of the duodenum.
4. Beginning of the jejunum.
5. Last part of the ileum.
5. During operation of the
phlegmona of the pancreas pus
was revealed in the omental bursa.
It is known that the pancreas
100
15. A patient has the perforation
of the back wall of the stomach by
the ulcer. Through what formation
of the peritoneum the doctor can
touch this wall of the stomach?
1. Epiploic opening.
2. Falciform ligament of the liver.
3. Lesser omentum.
4. Coronary ligament of the liver.
5. Greater omentum.
16. A patient was admitted to the
hospital with perforation of the
back wall of the stomach by the
ulcer. What part of the peritoneal
cavity must be examined?
1. Omental bursa.
2. Hepatic bursa.
3. Pregastric bursa.
4. Left lateral canal.
5. Right mesenteric sinus.
17. After operation of the small
intestine the patient has an abscess
which passed into the right
mesenteric sinus. Where the
purulent discharge can pass from
this sinus?
1. Be left in this sinus.
2. Pass into the pelvic cavity.
3. Pass into the retrocaecal recess.
4. Pass into the right lateral canal.
5. Pass into the intersigmoid recess.
18. A patient had a yellow color of
his skin, which complications set in
the mechanical icterus. During
examination a stone in the
common bile duct was detected.
What bile ducts form the common
bile duct?
1. Ductus hepaticus communis and
ductus cysticus.
2. Ductus hepaticus dexter and
sinister.
3. Ductus hepaticus dexter and
ductus cysticus.
4. Ductus hepaticus sinister and
ductus cysticus.
5. Ductus hepaticus communis and
ductus choledochus.
19. Patient had tumor of the
pancreas and mechanical icterus.
Which duct was squeezed?
1. Ductus choledochus.
pancreas located according to the
peritoneum?
1. Extraperitonealy.
2. Mesoperitonealy.
3. Intraperitonealy.
4. Intramural.
11. A patient had destruction of
the vermiform process and abscess
located under diaphragm. In what
formation of the peritoneal cavity
is abscess located?
1. Hepatic bursa.
2. Pregastric bursa.
3. Omental bursa.
4. Right lateral canal.
5. Left lateral canal.
12. A 65-years patient had tumor
of the oesophagus. During X-ray
examination the tumor was
revealed on the level of the
boundary between pharynx and
oesophagus. On the level of which
cervical vertebra is this tumor
located?
1. VI.
2. V.
3. IV.
4. III.
5. II.
13. A 50-years patient has
inflammation of the gall bladder.
The greater duodenal papilla must
be examined in this case. In what
part of the duodenum will doctor
find this papilla?
1. Descending.
2. Ascending.
3. Horizontal.
4. Superior.
5. Duodenal bulb.
14. During the resection of the gall
bladder the stones can pass
through the cystic duct to another
bill duct. Which duct must be
examined by doctor?
1. Ductus choledochus.
2. Ductus hepatic communis.
3. Ductus hepatic dexter.
4. Ductus hepatic sinister.
5. Ductuli biliferi.
101
2. Ductus cysticus.
3. Ductus hepaticus communic.
4. Ductus hepaticus dexter.
5. Ductus hepaticus sinister.
20. During operation of the
abdominal cavity it is necessary to
find the beginning of the root of
the mesentery. Where is this place
located?
1. On the left side of the duodenojejunal flexura.
2. On the level of the right flexura of
the colon.
3. On the level of the left flexura of
the colon.
4. On the level of the sigmoid colon.
5. In the right mesenteric sinus.
21. A patient complained of the
pain in the right lateral region of
the abdominal cavity. During
examination the compact,
immovable tumor was revealed. In
which part of the digestive tract is
presence of the tumor possible?
1. Colon ascendens.
2. Colon transversum.
3. Colon descendens.
4. Colon sigmoideum.
22. The tumor of the stomach
located closer to the entrance of
the oesophagus into the stomach
was revealed. In which part of the
stomach is this tumor located?
1. Pars cardiaca.
2. Pars pylorica.
3. Fundus.
4. Fornix.
5. Corpus ventruculi.
23. During examination of the
cavity of the mouth the doctor saw
a small ulcer on the left anterior
palate arch. Into which muscle,
located inside this arch, can
inflammation pass?
1. M. palatoglossus.
2. M. styloglossus.
3. M. palatopharyngeus.
4. M. genioglossus.
5. M. hyoglossus.
24. A patient has a tumor of the
last part of the small intestine.
Where is this tumor located?
1. Ileum
2. Jejunum.
3. Caecum.
4. Colon sigmoideum.
5. Duodenum.
25. A patient has a tumor of the
initial part of the large intestine.
Where is this tumor located?
1. Caecum.
2. Colon ascendens.
3. Colon sigmoideum.
4. Rectum.
5. Colon descendens.
26. A patient has a tumor of the
greater duodenal papilla. In which
part of the duodenum is this tumor
located?
1. Descending part.
2. Superior part.
3. Horisontal part.
4. Ascending part.
5. Ampulla.
27. The tumor of the anal canal
was diagnosed. How is this part of
the rectum covered by
peritoneum?
1. Extraperitoneal position.
2. Intraperitoneal position.
3. Mesoperitoneal position.
4. Retroperitonial position.
28. During the operation a surgeon
found the bowel with the fat
protrusions, bands and
protrusions. What is this?
1. Colon
2. Rectum
3. Duodenum
4. Jejunum
5. Ileum
29. During examination of a
patient a doctor found the polyp in
the distal part of the large
intestine. Determine the
localization of this polyp.
1. Rectum
2. Caecum
3. Colon descendens
4. Colon sigmoideum
102
5. Colon transversum
30. A patient has the trauma of the
cheek. Duct of what salivary gland
can be damaged?
1. Parotid
2. Buccal
3. Submandibular
4. Sublingual
5. Palatel
31. At a result of a serious trauma
of the facial part of the skull food
passes to the nasal part of the
pharynx. What muscle is
damaged?
1. M. levator veli palatine
2. M. palatoparyngeus
3. M. stylopharyngeus
4. M. genioglossus
5. M. palatoglossus
32. A 35- years patient complains
to pain and oedema in the region
of the bottom of the oral cavity.
During examination a doctor
found the inflammation in the
region of the leading duct of the
submandibular salivary gland.
Where does this duct open?
1. Caruncula sublingualis
2. Vestibulum oris
3. Foramen caecum linguae
4. Plica fimbriata
5. Recesus gingivalis
33. One of the organ of the mouth,
located between two folds of the
mucous membrane, has many
lymph follicules. What’s name of
this organ?
1. Palate tonsil
2. Sublingual gland
3. Parotid gland
4. Tongue
5. Submandibular gland
34. During X-ray examination a
patient was in a vertical position.
A doctor found a presence of air in
the stomach. Where is this air in
the stomach located?
1. Fundus.
2. Body
3. Pylorus
4. Lesser curvature
5. Cardiac part
35. A patient has appendicitis. The
appendix occupies retrocaecal
position. With inflammation of
which organs a doctor must carry
out a differential diagnosis?
1. Kidneys
2. Stomach
3. Liver
4. Ovary
5. Rectum
36. During appendectomy a doctor
wants to find the ileocaecal angle.
To which external peculiarity a
doctor must pay attention to find
it?
1. Bands of the colon
2. Frenulum of the ileocaecal valve
3. Right flexura of the colon
4. Left flexura of the colon
37. A 18 years old patient had
inflammation of the nasopharynx,
he complained to the murmur and
painful feelings at the ear. A
doctor diagnosed: «acute
respiratory disease, otitis». What
opening the infection penetrated
and got to the tympanic cavity?
1. Pharyngeal orifice of the auditory
tube
2. Tympanic orifice of the auditory
tube
3. Choanae
4. Fauces
5. Orifice of the larynx
38. A 45-years old patient was
admitted to the surgical
department with complaints of
abrupt sharp pain in the epigastric
region. After examination it was
diagnosed: perforated ulcer of the
posterior wall of the stomach.
Where did content of the stomach
flow out while perforation?
1. To the omental bursa
2. To the left mesenteric sinus
3. To right mesenteric sinus
4. To the liver bursa
5. To the proventriculus suc
39. Obturative jaundice developed
in a 60-years patient because of
malignant tumour of the greater
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duodenal papilla. Lumen of what
anatomical structure is squeezed
with the tumour?
1. Hepatopancreatic ampulla
2. Right hepatic duct
3. Left hepatic duct
4. Common hepatic duct
5. Cystic duct
40. A man with internal abdominal
right side injury and suspicion of
liver rupture was admitted to the
hospital. In what peritonial
formation will blood accumulate?
1. Bursa omentalis
2. Recessus intersigmoideus
3. Recessus duodenalis inferior
41. A man with internal abdominal
right side injury and suspicion of
liver rupture was admitted to the
surgical department. In what
peritonial structure will blood
accumulate?
1. Bursa omentalis
2. Fossa ischio-analis
3. Recessus duodenalis inferior
4. Excavatio rectovesicalis
5. Recessus intersigmoideus
42. A 27-years man has purulent
inflammation of the gall bladder.
Into what region of the peritoneal
cavity will the pus fall, if gall
bladder is in its typical position?
1. Into the hepatic bursa.
2. Into the pregastric bursa.
3. Into the superior duodenal recess.
4. Into the omental bursa.
43. During the endoscopy the
inflammation of a major papilla of
the duodenum and the
disturbances of bile secretion were
found. In which part of duodenum
were the problems found?
1. Descending part
2. Bulb
3. Ascending part
4. Upper horizontal part
5. Lower horizontal part
44. Children often have heavy
nasal breathing resulting from
excessive development of lymphoid
tissue of the pharyngeal mucous
on the lateral wall of the
nasopharynx rmembrane. Growth
of what tonsils may cause this
effect?
1. Tonsilla tubaria
2. Tonsilla palatina
3. Tonsilla pharyngea
4. Tonsilla lingualis
5. All above mentioned tonsils
45. A patient with a stab wound of
the anterior stomach wall is in
surgical care. What formation of
abdominal cavity is formed by the
anterior wall of the stomach?
1. Pregastric bursa
2. Right mesenteric sinus
3. Hepatic bursa
4. Left mesenteric sinus
5. Omental bursa
46. In case of a penetrating wound
of the anterior abdominal wall the
wound tract went above the lesser
curvature of stomach. What
peritoneum formation is most
likely to be injured?
1. Ligamentum hepatogastricum
2. Ligamentum hepatorenale
3. Ligamentum triangulare sinistrum
4. Ligamentum gastrocolicum
5. Ligamentum hepatoduoduodenale
47. A patient was admitted to the
surgical department with
suspected inflammation of
Meckel`s diverticulum. What part
of bowels should be examined in
order to discover the diverticulum
in course of an operation?
1. Ileum
2. Jejunmum
3. Colon ascendens
4. Duodenum
5. Caecum
48. An injured person was
delivered to the hospital with a
penetrating wound in the left
lateral region of abdomen. What
part of the large intestine is most
likely damaged?
1. Colon descendens
2. Colon transverses
3. Colon ascendens
4. Rectum
5. Caecum
49. While examining of the oral
cavity a dentist revealed
inflammation of papillae on the
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border of the median and
posterior third of the back of
tongue. What are these papillae?
1. Papillae vallatae.
2. Papillae filiformes
3. Papillae conicae
4. Papillae fungiformes
50. A patient complains about
impaired evacuation function of
stomach (longtime retention of
food in stomach). Examination
revealed a tumour of initial part of
duodenum. Specify localization of
the tumour:
1. Pars superior
2. Pars ascendens
3. Flexura duodeni inferior
4. Pars inferior
5. Pars descendens
51. Examination of a patient
revealed hypertrophy and
inflammation of lymphoid tissue,
oedema of mucous membrane
between palatine arches (acute
tonsillitis). What tonsil is situated
in this area?
1. Tonsilla palatina
2. Tonsilla tubaria
3. Tonsilla pharyngealis
4. Tonsilla lingualis
52. A patient complained about
pain in the tongue root.
Examination shown redden root of
the tongue and inflammation of
lymphoid tissues inside it. What
lymphoid tissues located in the
tongue root?
1. Tonsilla lingualis.
2. Tonsilla palatine.
3. Tonsilla pharyngea.
4. Tonsilla tubaria.
53. A 5 years boy had heavy nasal
breathing, increasing of the
temperature,painful feelings in the
nasal and oral parts of the
pharynx. Inflamation of the tonsils
of the lymphoepitelial pharyngeal
ring was diagnosed. What tonsils
form this ring?
1. All tonsills located ih the nasoand oropharynx.
2. Tonsillae pharyngea and lingualis
3. Tonsillae palatine and tubaria.
54. A patient has high temperature
and pain in the nasopharynx.
During examination the
inflammation of the mucous
covering upper and posterior walls
of the nasopharynx was revealed.
Name the tonsil located between
these walls of the pharynx?
1. Tonsilla pharyngea.
2. Tonsilla tubaria.
3. Tonsilla palatine.
4. Tonsilla lingualis.
55. A patient has inflammation of
the tonsils of the Pirogov’s
lymphoepitelial ring. How many
tonsils form this ring?
1. 6
2. 4
3. 5
4. 7
56. During examination of a
child’s mouth the dentist had
found eruption of the inferior first
molars. How old is the child?
1. 6-7 years
2. 5-6 years.
3. 8-9 years.
4. 10-11 years.
57. A child 9 months was
hospitalized in clinic. He hadn’t
any tooth. What are the terms of
eruption of the first teeth ?
1. 6-7 months.
2. 5-6 months.
3. 7-8 months.
4. 10 months.
58. During the first feeding of
newborn, milk began to flow into
nasal cavity. What anomaly or
abnormally had a newborn get?
1. Cleft palate.
2. Cleft lip.
3. Atrezy of esophagus.
4. Atrezy of anal canal.
59. The child 10 years old
complains about difficulty of the
nasal breathing. It is determine at
an inspection, that reason is
hypertrophy of the lymphoid
tissues. Overgrowth of what
structure is it?
1. Pharyngeal tonsil
2. Retropharyngeal lymph node.
3. Mental lymph node
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4. Lingual tonsil
60. A patient complained about
ear noise ad pain sensations.
Objectively: the patient has acute
respiratory disease, rhinitis. The
infection penetrated into the
tympanic cavity through the
following opening of the pharynx:
1. Pharyngeal opening of auditory
tube
2. Tympanic opening of auditory
tube
3. Choanae
4. Fauces
5. Aperture of larynx
61. A patient had his tooth
extracted. The lingual surface of
this tooth was smaller than the
buccal one. Masticatory surface
has oval form. Deep transverse
sulcus separates buccal and lingual
tubercles. The root is strongly
compressed in medio-distal
direction and has longitudinal
sulci on its aproximal surfaces, it is
bifurcated. What tooth was
extracted?
1. First upper premolar
2. Upper canine
3. Lower canine
4. First lower premolar
5. Second upper premolar
62. A surgeon should reach the
omental bursa to perform an
operation on abdominal cavity.
How can he reach this part of
peritoneal cavity without affecting
the integtiry of lesser omentum?
1. Through the epiploic foramen
2. Through the right paracolic sulcus
3. Through the left paracolic sinus
4. Through the right mesenteric sinus
5. Through the left mesenteric sinus
63. A patient has an injury in right
lateral area of the abdomen. What
part of large intestine is most
likely injured?
1. Ascending colon
2. Transverse colon
3. Descending colon
4. Sigmoid
5. Rectum
64. During the examination of
patient’s oral cavity a dentist
noticed a slight overbite of
mandibular teeth by maxillary
incisors. What occlusion belongs
such position of teeth to?
1. Orthognathic occlusion
2. Prognahism
3. Biprognatic occlusion
4. Orthogenic occlusion
5. Closed occlusion
65. Children often have labored
nasal breathing which is caused by
overdevelopment of lymphoid
tissue of the pharyngeal mucous
membrane. This phenomenon may
cause enlargement of the following
tonsils:
1. Tonsilla pharyngea
2. Tonsilla palatina
3. Tonslla lingualis
4. Tonsilla tubaria
5. All above-mentioned
66. While oral cavity examination
the dentist revealed the formation
of the first molar on the lower jaw
of a child. How old is this child?
1. 6-7 years old
2. 4-5 years old
3. 8-9 years old
4. 10-11 years old
5. 12-13 years old
67. During the examination of
patient’s oral cavity a dentist
found a carious cavity on the
crown surface of the second
premolar tooth that was turned to
the first molar tooth. Name the
damaged crown surface:
1. Facies medialis
2. Facies vestibularis
3. Facies lingualis
4. Facies distalis
5. Facies occlusalis
68. A mother consulted the doctor
about her one year old child, who
has got teeth come out. How many
teeth should the child of such age
have?
1. 8
2. 10
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3. 7
4. 12
5. 6
69. Examination of a patient with
impaired blood coagulation
revealed thrombosis of a branch of
inrefior mesenteric artery. What
bowel segment is damaged?
1. Colon sigmoideum
2. Ileum
3. Caecum
4. Colon transversum
5. Colon ascendens
70. For the direct injection of
medicaments into the liver
surgeons use the round ligament of
liver. This manipulation involves
bougie (lumen dilatation of the
following structure:
1. Obliterated V. umbilicalis
2. A. umbilicalis
3. Ductus venosus
4. V. porta
5. A. hapatica propria
71. A patient complains about
impaired evacuatory function of
stomach ( long-term retention of
food in stomach) Examination
revealed a tumor of initial part of
duodenum. Specify localization of
the tumor:
1. Pars superior
2. Pars inferior
3. Pars descendens
4. Pars ascendens
5. Flexura duodeni inferior
72. A female patient with a tumor
of pancreas has developed
mechanic jaundice resulting from
compression of a bile-excreting
duct. Which duct is compressed?
1. Ductus choledochus
2. Ductus cysticus
3. Ductus hepaticus communis
4. Ductus hepaticus dexter
5. Ductus hepaticus sinister
73. A 53-year-old female patient
was diagnosed with liver rupture
resulting from a blunt abdominal
injury. The escaped blood will be
assembled in the following
anatomic form
1. Omental bursa
2. Rectouterine pouch
3. Vesicouterine pouch
4. Right mesenteric sinus
5. Left mesenteric sinus
74. Children often have heavy
nasal breathing resulting from
excessive development of lymphoid
tissue of pharyngeal mucous
membrane. What tonsils growth
may cause this effect?
1. Tonsilla pharyngea
2. Tonsilla palatina
3. Tonsilla lingualis
4. Tonsilla tubaria
5. All above mentioned tonsils
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
1. During the examination of the
nasal cavity of a hospitalized
patient accumulation of pus in the
inferior nasal passage was
detected. Into which of mentioned
formations may the inflammatory
process proceed?
1. Nasolacrimal canal.
2. Highmore sinus.
3. Frontal sinus.
4. Sphenoid sinus.
5. Ethmoid sinus.
2. A woman, who works on
chemical factory, complains of
disturbance of smell. What
anatomic structure was damaged?
1. Regio olfactoria
2. Tractus olfactorius
3. Bulbus olfactorius
4. Trigonum olfactotium.
3. Child inspired button. Where is
it likely to be?
1. In the right main bronchus
2. In the trachea
107
3. In the pharynx
4. In the left main bronchus
5. In the larynx
4. The patient had pneumonia. Xray examination confirmed the
presence of serous liquid in the
pleural cavity above right cupola
of the diaphragm. In which of the
pleural recess the accumulation of
the serous liquid can be more
often?
1. Costodiaphragmatic.
2. Costomediastinal.
3. Mediastinophrenic.
4. Vertebromediastinal.
5. Costovertebral.
5. A lobectomy of the superior lobe
of the right lung was performed.
Which segments were injured?
1. Apical, posterior, anterior.
2. Lateral, medial, superior.
3. Medial basal, lateral basal
4. Posterior basal, superior and
inferior lingular.
5. Posterior apical.
6. A patient has pneumonia. A
doctor found that the lower border
of the right lung is located on the
level of the IX rib on the middle
axillar line. Where is a normal
lower border of the right lung on
the middle axillar line located?
1. VIII rib
2. VII rib
3. VI rib
4. IX rib
5. X rib
7. A 35 -years patient complains to
intense cold in the head and an
absence of olfaction about one
week. During examination a
doctor found very much pus
covered the mucous tissue and
blockaded the olfactory receptors.
Where are these receptors
located?
1. Concha nasalis superior
2. Concha nasalis medialis
3. Concha nasalis inferior
4. Common nasal passage
8. A foreign body about 1,5 cm in
diameter is detected in the
respiratory tract of 3 years child.
Where is a foreign body may
located?
1. In a right main bronchus
2. In a left main bronchus
3. In a right segmental bronchus
4. In a lobular bronchus
5. In a left segmental bronchus
9. A follicular angina became
complicated by acute otitis
(inflammation of the middle ear).
Which anatomical preconditions
exist for this?
1. Eustachian tube
2. Pirogov’s ring
3. Fallopian tube
4. Presence of recessus piriformis
10. X-ray examination of the 67years patient shows the tumor of
the middle lobe of the right lung.
Which segments this lobe has?
1. Medial, lateral.
2. Superior lingular, inferior lingular.
3. Anterior, lateral and posterior
basal.
4. Apical, posterior, anterior.
5. Apical-posterior, anterior,
posterior.
11. A 50-years patient had cancer
of the lung. Lobectomy of the
superior lobe of the right lung was
performed. How many segments
were removed?
1. Three.
2. Four.
3. Five.
4. Two.
12. A patient had right side lobar
pneumonia of the medial and
lateral segments. To which lobe of
the lung are they related?
1. Middle.
2. Superior.
3. Superior and middle.
4. Inferior.
5. Inferior and middle.
13. A 53-years patient was
admitted to the hospital with
complaints of the cough up
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4. Upper lobe.
5. Lobulus of the lung.
17. Why the doctor must make
upper tracheostomy for the child?
Owing to the lower position of the:
1. Isthmus of the thyroid gland.
2. Lobes of the thyroid gland.
3. Larynx.
4. Trachea.
18. During operation of a lung a
doctor removed a clot of blood
from the horizontal fissure. Where
is this fissure located?
1. Between the upper and middle
lobes of the right lung
2. Between the upper and lower
lobes of the right lung
3. Between the lower and middle
lobes of the right lung
4. Between the upper and middle
lobes of the left lung
5. Between the upper and lower
lobes of the left lung
19. After trauma of the chest the
patient had pain in the breastbone, which increased in the time
of the tapping, and oedema of the
neck and thoracic cage. The
organs of which mediastinum are
struck?
1. Anterior.
2. Middle.
3. Posterior.
4. Superior.
5. Inferior.
20. The dilatation of the true
glottis of a patient is impossible.
Which muscles are damaged?
1. M. cricoarythenoideus posterior
2. M. cricoarythenoideus lateralis
3. M. cricothyreoideus
4. M. thyreoarythenoideus
5. M. vocalis
21. A patient has exsudative
pleurisy. A doctor wants to remove
liquid from the pleural cavity. On
which level he must make the
puncture?
1. IX intercostal space
2. III intercostal space
3. II intercostal space
phlegm, temperature, pain in the
left part of the thoracic cage. The
agent of the tuberculosis was
revealed in the phlegm. X-ray
examination showed the
pathological process in one
segment of the superior lobe of the
left lung. Call the name of the
segment in the superior lobe of the
left lung.
1. Segm. lingulare inferius.
2. Segm. mediale.
3. Segm. laterale.
4. Segm. basale posterius.
5. Segm. basale laterale.
14. A patient, complaining of
sudden cough and asthmatic fit,
was admitted to hospital. X-ray
examination of the respiratory
tract discovered a foreign body in
bifurcatio tracheae . On what level
is foreign body located?
1. TH4-Th5.
2. C8-Th2.
3. Th1-Th2.
4. C7-Th1.
5. Th6-Th8.
15. A 45-years patient was
admitted to the hospital with the
complaints of the high
temperature, the pain during
respiration, asthmatic fits and
cough. After examination the
diagnosis of pleurisy was given.
The puncture of the pleural cavity
was needed. In which of the
pleural recess would be the
greatest accumulation of the
serous liquid?
1. Costodiaphragmatic sinus.
2. Mediastinophrenic sinus.
3. Costomediastinal sinus.
4. Under the cupula of the peura.
5. Under the root of the lung.
16. One part of the lung, which is
ventilated by the bronchus of the
third order, was removed during
operation. What part of the lung
was removed?
1. Segment of the lung.
2. Middle lobe.
3. Lower lobe.
109
4. X intercostal space
5. VI intercostal space
22. A patient has a tumour in the
region of the apex of the right
lung. Which segments are in the
upper lobe of the right lung?
1. Apical segment, posterior
segment, anterior segment
2. Apico-posterior segment, anterior
segment
3. Superior and inferior lingular
segments
4. Superior and inferior lingular
segments, apical segment
5. Posterior segment, anterior
segment
23. During pleural puncture in
VIII intercostal space between the
middle axillar line and scapular
line a surgeon put a needle inside
very deep. What structure did a
doctor traumatized?
1. Lower lobe of the lung
2. Middle lobe of the lung
3. Upper lobe of the lung
4. Root of the lung
5. Pulmonary ligament
24. During bronchoscopy a doctor
must know the place of the
bifurcation of the trachea. Where
is bifurcation located?
1. V thoracic vertebra
2. VII cervical vertebra
3. VII thoracic vertebra
4. IX thoracic vertebra
25. A 5-years child was admitted
to the hospital with diagnosis:
inflammation of the middle ear.
Disease started with the
inflammation of the nasopharynx.
Through what canal of the
temporal bone did the infection get
into the tympanic cavity?
1. Musculotubal canal
2. Tympanic canaliculus tympanicus
3. Carotid canal
4. Canaliculus chordal tympani
5. Canaliculus caroticotympanici
26. Child inspired button. Where
is it likely to be?
1. In the right main bronchus
2. In the trachea
3. In the gullet
4. In the larynx
5. In the left main bronchus
27. A 44-years woman was
admitted to the therapeutic
department with the right-side
pleurisies. The examination
confirmed the presence of liquid in
the pleural cavity. What sinus of
the pleura will have the biggest
accumulation of the serous fluid?
1. Right costodiaphragmatic
2. Right mediastinodiaphragmatic
3. Left cost o mediastina
4. Left mediastinodiaphragmatic
5. Right cost mediastinal
28. An 18-years patient applied
with the complaints of bleeding
trauma in the vestibule of his nose.
On examination: the mechanical
injure of the mucous layer of the
vestibule of the nasal cavity
without continuation into nasal
cavity proper. What is the
boundary between the vestibule
and nasal cavity proper?
1. Nasal limen
2. Nasal roller
3. Nasal septa
4. Choanes
5. Nostrils
29. In course of an operation
surgeon removed a part of a lung
that was ventilated by a tertiary
bronchus accompanied by
branches of pulmonary artery and
other vessels. What part of a lung
was removed?
1. Bronchopulmonary segment
2. Inferior lobe
3. Superior lobe
4. Pulmonary lobule
5. Middle lobe
30. A 35 years patient applied with
complaints of the rhinitis and loss
smelling senses for a week.
Objectively: nasal cavity contains
a lot of mucous that covers mucous
membrane and blocks olfactory
receptors. In what part of nasal
cavity are these receptors
situated?
1. Superior nasal meatus
2. Common nasal meatus
110
3. Vestibule of nose
4. Median nasal meatus
5. Inferior nasal meatus
31. A button closed the space of
the right inferior lobar bronchus.
What segments of the right lung
won’t be supplied with air?
1. Apical, posterior basal, medial
basal, anterior basal, lateral basal
2. Superior and inferior lingual,
apical, posterior, anterior.
3. Apical and median basal,
medial and lateral
32. A patient underwent
lobectomy of the right middle lobe
of a lung. What segments of the
lung were affected?
1. Lateral and medial
2. Apical, anterior
3. Basal medial and anterior
4. Basal posterior and lateral
5. Apical posterior and anterior
33. Chronic rhinitis was
complicated by inflammation of
frontal sinus. Through what nasal
meatus did the infection get into
this sinus?
1. Middle
2. Inferior
3. Common
4. Superior
5. Nasopharyngeal
34. A patient complains of
headache, heavy breathing. X-ray
examination confirmed the
diagnosis – frontitis. What nasal
meatus may contain purulent
discharge?
1. Middle
2. Inferior
3. Common
4. Superior
5. Above the superior nasal concha
35. In the speciment of one of the
parts of respiratory system a
tubular organ was found. It has
low epithelium, well developed
muscular tunic, glands and
cartilage are absent. Name this
organ:
1. Respiratory bronchioli
2. Trachea
3. Terminal bronchioli
4. Main bronchioli
5. Segmetal bronchioli
36. A patient has an exudative
pleurisy. At what level should the
pleural puncture along the
posterior axillary line be taken?
1. IX intercostal space
2. VIII intercostal space
3. VII intercostal space
4. XI intercostal space
5. VI intercostal space
37. A three year old child was
admitted to the hospital with a
foreign body in bronchus. What
bronchus contains most likely a
foreign body?
1. Right principal
2. Left principal
3. Right segmantal
4. Left segmantal
5. Lobular
38. A 35 year old patient applied to
a doctor with complains about
having intense rhinitis and loss of
sense of smell for a week.
Objectively: nasal cavity contains
a lot of mucus that covers mucous
membrane and blocks olfactory
receptors. In what part of nasal
cavity are these receptors located?
1. Superior nasal meatus
2. Median nasal meatus
3. Inferior nasal meatus
4. Common nasal meatus
5. Vestibule of nose
UROGENITAL SYSTEM
the fixing apparatus of the uterus.
Which of the mentioned ligaments
1. During operation of the
woman’s inguinal hernia, the
surgeon unintentionally cut part of
111
was damaged during this
operation?
1. Round lig.
2. Ovarian proper lig.
3. Broad lig.
4. Cardinal lig.
5. Infundibulopelvic lig.
2. A patient has appendicitis. The
appendix occupies retrocaecal
recess. With inflammation of
which organs a doctor must carry
out a differential diagnosis?
1. Kidneys
2. Stomach
3. Liver
4. Ovary
5. Rectum
3. Ovarian tumor was diagnosed in
the woman. What ligament should
be cut by the surgeon to disconnect
the ovary and the uterus?
1. The proper ovarian ligament
2. Suspensory ligament of ovary
3. Round ligament of uterus
4. Lateral umbilical ligament
5. Broad ligament of uterus
4. During examination of 6 –years
boy the hydrocele was diagnosed.
What coat of the testis forms
serous sac where the serous fluid
can be accumulated?
1. Tunica vaginalis testis.
2. Tunica albuginea testis.
3. Fascia spermatica external.
4. Fascia spermatica internal.
5. Tunica dartos.
5. During examination of 3 months
old child the absence of the right
testis in the scrotum was revealed.
This testis is in the anterior
abdominal wall above the
superficial inguinal ring. How is
this pathology called?
1. Monorchism.
2. Cryptorchism.
3. Anarchism.
4. Funicocele.
5. Varicocele.
6. The patient has suppression of
the urination. Doctor must
examine his prostate gland
through the rectum. What part of
the prostate gland can be palpable
in this case?
1. Posterior surface.
2. Anterior surface.
3. Base of the gland.
4. Apex of the gland.
5. Inferolateral surface.
7. Loss of the tonus of the muscles
of the female perineum results in
the prolapsus (descending) of the
uterus. Decreasing of the tonus of
which muscle is main in this
pathology?
1. Levator ani muscle.
2. Deep transverse perinea muscle.
3. External sphincter of the anus.
4. Internal sphincter of the anus.
5. Coccygeus muscle.
8. A stone left a kidney of a
patient. On what level of the
ureter the stone can come to stop?
1. On border line of the abdominal
and pelvic parts.
2. In the pelvis of the kidney.
3. In the middle of the abdominal
part.
4. 2 cm above the urinary bladder.
9. For surgical intervention in the
female pelvis the surgeon must tie
up the uterine artery. What of
following structures can be tied up
by chance together with it?
1. Ureter.
2. Uterine tube.
3. Round ligament of the uterus.
4. Internal iliac vein.
5. Urethra.
10. Tumor on the posterior wall of
the male’s urinary bladder is
diagnosed. Which organs can be
drawn into this pathology?
1. Rectum, seminal vesicles, ampulla
of the deferent duct.
2. Prostate gland.
3. Rectum, prostate gland.
4. Male urethra.
5. Cowper’s gland’s.
11. The inflammation of the testis
of the 40 year man with hydrocele
was diagnosed. The operation is
112
3. Between tunica dartos and
external spermatic fascia.
4. Between external spermatic fascia
and cremaster muscle.
5. Between internal spermatic fascia
and vaginal coat.
16. A patient had unpleasant sense
during urination and pus from the
urethra. In confirmation of the
diagnosis the bacteriological
analysis must be done. A doctor
took the mucus for microscopic
examination from the fossa
navicularis urethrae. Where is
fossa navicularis located?
1. Glans penis.
2. Cavernous body.
3. Prostatic gland.
4. Membranous part.
5. Bulbus urethrae.
17. A mother of the 2-years boy
turned to the doctor with
complaints of the increasing of the
size of the scrotum of her child.
During examination the hydrocele
was diagnosed. Which coat of the
testis contains serous fluid?
1. Vaginal.
2. Tunica dartos.
3. Tunica albuginea.
4. External spermatic fascia.
5. Internal spermatic fascia.
18. A patient had tumor of the
prostate gland. During operation
the doctor saw that the tumor gave
off metastasis into the urinary
bladder. Into which part of the
urinary bladder can metastasis
pass at first?
1. Neck.
2. Apex.
3. Fundus.
4. Body.
19. A 65-years patient had the
fibromioma (tumor) of the uterus.
In what layer of the uterine wall is
this tumor located?
1. Myometrium.
2. Endometrium.
3. Perimetrium.
4. Parametrium.
necessary. What coat of the testis
will be dissected last during
operation?
1. Parietal lamina of the vaginal coat.
2. Tunica dartos.
3. Internal spermatic fascia.
4. Cremaster muscle.
5. External spermatic fascia.
12. During operation for removing
of the uterus doctor must tie up
the uterine artery, which is located
in the depth of the broad ligament
of the uterus. The doctor must
keep in his mind that ureter is
closer to this artery. Where is
ureter located according to the
uterine artery?
1. Behind.
2. In front.
3. Above.
4. Below.
5. Laterally.
13. During the examination of the
newborn boy the absence of the
left testis in scrotum
(monorchidism) was found. In
what age the testis must be in the
scrotum?
1. On the birthday.
2. In 1 year old.
3. In 3 years old.
4. In 5 years old.
.14. During the examination of the
woman pus was suspected in the
rectouterine pouch. Through
which anatomical formation is
punction of this pouch carried out
for diagnostic purposes?
1. Posterior vaginal fornix.
2. Anterior vaginal fornix.
3. Ampulla of the rectum.
4. Diaphragm of the pelvis.
5. Anterior wall of the vagina.
15. A 40-years man had painful
tumor in the scrotum. The
hydrocele was diagnosed. Between
which coats of the testis the fluid
can accumulate?
1. Between parietal and visceral
lamina of the vaginal coat.
2. Between skin and tunica dartos.
113
5. Peritoneum.
20. A 70-years patient had
suppression of diuresis. During
examination the hypertrophy of
the organ which envelops the
proximal part of the urethra was
revealed. How is this organ called?
1. Prostate gland.
2. Bulbourethral gland.
3. Bulb of the penis.
4. Epididymis.
5. Seminal vesicles.
21. The inflammation of the
peritoneum in the true pelvis of
the small girl was diagnosed.
Through what anatomical
formation the infection could pass
into the true pelvis?
1. Ostium vaginae.
2. Ostium urethrae externum.
3. Ostium urethrae internum.
4. Ductuli glandulae vestibularis
major.
5. Canalis analis
22. The inflammation of the
subserous tissue around neck of
the uterus gave the pain for the
patient. The inflammation of what
part of the genital organs was
detected?
1. Parametrium.
2. Mesometrium.
3. Myometrium.
4. Endometrium.
5. Perimetrium.
23. One of the complication of the
epidemic parotidis is the affection
of the spermatic epithelium.
Which structures of the testes are
affected by this disease?
1. Tubuli seminiferi contorti.
2. Ductus epididimydis.
3. Rete testis.
4. Ductuli prostatici.
5. Ductuli efferentes testis
24. A woman was admitted to the
hospital with internal bleeding as a
result of the extra-uterine
pregnancy. Through what
anatomical formation can
puncture of abdominal cavity
carried out for diagnostic
purposes?
1. Posterior fornix of the vaginae.
2. Anterior fornix of the vaginae.
3. Neck of the uterus.
4. External os uteri.
5. Anterior wall of the vaginae.
25. It is necessary to remove urine
from the patient’s urinary bladder
by means of catheter. Which part
of man’s urethra can be damaged
while carelessly inserting the
catheter?
1. Pars membranacea.
2. Pars spongiosa.
3. Pares cavernosa.
4. Pars prostatica.
5. Pars bulbaris.
26. A 18-years old woman was
admitted to the hospital with
traumatic injury of the vaginal
wall in the urethra’s region.
Which column of the rugae was
damaged?
1. Front.
2. Back.
3. Right.
4. Left.
5. Upper.
27. As a result of inflammation of
the testis (orchitis) the man has the
affection of the semen. Which
structures of the testis are
affected?
1. Ductuli seminiferi contorti.
2. Rete testis.
3. Ductuli seminiferi recti.
4. Ductuli efferentes testis.
5. Ductus epididimidis.
28. During examination of the 47year woman the reflux (back
flowing of the urine) was
diagnosed. In what part of the
kidney are the smooth muscles for
prevention of the reflux located?
1. Calyx renalis minor.
2. Calyx renalis major.
3. Pelvis renalis.
4. Ductuli papillares.
5. Capsula glomeruli.
114
3. Right mesenteric sinus
4. Left mesenteric sinus
35. Which part of the urethral
canal can be damaged during
mechanical trauma of the penis?
1. Spongy
2. Cavernous
3. Prostatic
4. Bladder
5. Membranous
36. For making more exact
diagnosis to a sick woman a doctor
must do a puncture of Dougla’s
pouch (excavatio rectouterina).
Where a doctor must do a
puncture of the vaginal wall?
1. Back part of the vaginal vault
2. Front part of the vaginal vault
3. Front lateral part of the vaginal
vault
4. Left lateral part of the vaginal
vault
5. Front wall of the vagina
37. A sick-woman needs in the
catheterization of the urinary
bladder. Where is the external
opening of the urethral canal
located?
1. Between clitoris and opening of
the vagina
2. Lateral from the frenulum of the
clitoris
3. At the head of the clitoris
4. Between the opening of the vagina
and anal opening
38. A sick man has the increasing
of the prostatic gland. Which part
of the urethra is damaged?
1. Prostatic
2. Spongy
3. Cavernous
4. Membranous
39. During X-ray examination of a
19 years man a doctor found a
nephroptosis (descending of the
kidneys). Where are kidneys
located in normal position?
1. XI thorax and III lumbar vertebrae
2. IX-X thorax
3. IV-V lumbar
4. XII thorax and I lumbar
29. The cystoscopic examination
was prescribed for the 35-years
man. In this case doctor must
remember what is the border-line
between fixed and mobile parts of
the man’s urethra?
1. Lig. fundiforme penis.
2. Lig. suspensorium penis.
3. Pars prostatica urethrae.
4. Radix penis.
5. Fascia penis profunda.
30. A woman has the uterus with
an opened angle to the back.
Which position does this uterus
occupy?
1. Retroflexia
2. Anteflexia
3. Lateroposition
4. Retroversia
5. Anteversia
31. The ovary of a sick woman is
displaced to lower parts of a small
pelvis. Which ligament is
damaged?
1. Lig. suspensorium ovarii
2. Lig. teres uteri
3. Lig. ovarii proprium
32. A sick woman has an
inflammation of the fat around the
uterus. Call this formation.
1. Parametrium
2. Endometrium
3. Myometrium
4. Perimetrium
5. Peritendineum
33. A 17-years adolescent has no
testes in a scrotum. Both testes are
located in the region of the
inguinal canals. What is the name
of this anomaly?
1. Cryptorchism
2. Monorchism
3. Anorchism
4. Binochrism
5. Triorchism
34. A 28 years woman has extra uterine pregnancy. Where blood
can be accumulated in the
peritoneal cavity?
1. Excavatio rectouterina
2. Excavatio vesicouterina
115
5. IX-XII thorax
40. During childbirth woman’s
pubic symphisis was broken. What
organ can be traumatized?
1. Urinary bladder
2. Rectum
3. Ovaries
4. Uterine tube
5. Uterus
41. During examination a doctor
found in a 70 year man the tumour
of the right kidney. What organ is
located above the kidney?
1. Adrenal gland
2. Lien
3. Stomach
4. Pancreas
5. Gallbladder
42. X-ray examination exposed
that a right kidney of the patient is
located at the level IV-V lumbar
vertebrae. Is this normal position
or not?
1. Normal position – on the level of
XI thorax and III lumbar vertebrae
2. Normal position – on the level of
II-III lumbar vertebrae
3. Normal position – on the level of
III-I lumbar vertebrae
4. Normal position – on the level of
X-XI thorax vertebrae
5. Normal position – on the level of
IV-V lumbar vertebrae
43. A spermatic cord consists of all
parts except:
1. Ejaculator duct
2. Deferent duct
3. Arteries and veins of the testis
4. Nerves
5. Lymphatic vessels
44. In which part of the nephron is
primary urine formed?
1. Tuft (glomerulus)
2. Proximal convoluted tubule
3. Distal convoluted tubule
4. Henle’s loop
5. Straight tubule
45. Name the parts of the male
urethra:
1. Prostatic, membranous, spongy
2. Bladder, prostatic, spongy
3. Prostatic, cavernous
4. Bladder, membranous, spongy
5. Prostatic, spongy, cavernous
46. During operation in a 60 year
woman a doctor determined that
fibromioma grows between layers
of the lig. lata uteri near the
fundus of the uterus. Where is
fibromioma located?
1. In mesosalpinx
2. In mesometrium
3. In mesovarium
4. In parametrium
47. During examination of a 60
years patient a doctor found that
an orifice of one duct, passing the
semen, is closed. This duct opens
in the seminal colliculus in the
prostatic part of the male urethra.
What is this duct?
1. Ductus ejaculatorius
2. Ductus deferens
3. Ductus excretorius
4. Ductus epididymis
5. Glandulae bulbourethralis
48. A patient hospitalized on the
occasion of a renal colic. A doctor
found stone in the renal pelvis.
Where is a normal level of the
renal pelvis located?
1. II lumbar vertebrae
2. III lumbar vertebrae
3. XI thoracic vertebrae
4. IX thoracic vertebrae
5. I lumbar vertebrae
49. A patient had operation on the
occasion of a tumour of the ureter.
During operation a doctor found
that a tumour grew into
mesenterium of the intestine.
What part of the ureter is
damaged by the tumour?
1. Abdominal
2. Pelvic
3. Intramural
50. After the inflammation of a
peritoneum a sick man has an
inflammation of one coat of the
testis. What coat of the testis is
damaged?
1. Tunica vaginalis testis
116
2. Fascia cremasterica
3. Fascia spermatica interna
4. Fascia spermatica externa
5. M. cremaster
51. During examination of a 42
years man doctor found the
inflammation in the region of a
sinus of the epididymis. What coat
of the testis is damaged?
1. Tunica vaginalis testis
2. Fascia cremasterica
3. Fascia spermatica interna
4. Fascia spermatica externa
5. M. cremaster
52. During examination a doctor
found the tumour located between
two ejaculator ducts. What part of
the prostatic gland is damaged?
1. Isthmus
2. Lobus sinister
3. Lobus dexter
4. Lobus anterior
5. Lobus posterior
53. In consequence of a wound the
woman has damages of the front
part of the uterus. The position of
the uterus is anteversion. What
part of the uterus is damaged?
1. Fundus
2. Corpus
3. Isthmus
4. Portio vaginalis cervix uteri
5. Portio supravaginalis cervix uteri
54. During a careless manipulation
a sick woman received the damage
in the region of the deepest section
of the vaginal vault. What is this
section?
1. Back
2. Front
3. Right
4. Left
5. Lower
55. In a sick woman the doctor
found a tumour of the vagina
about 1 cm. It’s located in the
region of the excavatio
rectouterina. Where is a tumour
located?
1. Upper 1/3 part of the back wall
2. Upper wall
3. Front wall
4. Lower 1/3 part of the back wall
5. Middle 1/3 part of the back wall
56. After wound in a region of the
perineum a 53 year patient
complains to involuntary
urination. What muscle is
damaged?
1. M. sphincter urethrae
2. M. ischiocavernosus
3. M. bulbospongiosus
4. M. transversus perinei
superficialis
5. M. transversus perinea profundus
57. During examination of an
elderly patient a doctor
determined diagnosis-“floating
kidney” (nephroptosis). What
structural parts of the kidney
changed?
1. Corpus adiposum
2. Hilus renalis
3. Ureter
4. Sinus renalis
58. At the urology department a
doctor cannot bring catheter into
the urethra (only on a half of the
distance). What part of the
urethra can be narrow in this
case?
1. Spongy
2. Internal orifice
3. Cavernous
4. External orifice
5. Prostatic
59. A 65 years patient has
retention of urine. What organ is
damaged?
1. Prostatic gland
2. Seminal vesicles
3. Epididymus
4. Bulbourethral gland
60. Which organ of the abdominal
cavity a doctor can operate
without opening of the peritoneal
cavity?
1. Kidney
2. Liver
3. Intestine
4. Duodenum
117
61. During the examination of a
mucous coat of a urinary bladder
a doctor saw a section without
folds. What is the name of this
section?
1. Trigonum vesicae
2. Trigonum uretralis
3. Trigonum pubovesicalis
4. Trigonum ureteris
5. Area vesicalis posterior
62. A patient has urolithiasis.
During examination a doctor saw
the stone at the final portion of a
right ureter. What is a name of
this part of a ureter?
1. Pars intramuralis
2. Pars pelvina
3. Pars abdominalis
4. Pars renalis
5. Pars vesicalis
63. A mother complains on a
compact formation on the
posterior wall of the scrotum of
her 7 years son. A doctor soothed a
mother and explained to her that
this is a rudimental formation
connected with the development of
sexual male organs, it’s good
developed in boys. What is a name
of this formation?
1. Paradidymis
2. Ductuli aberrantes
3. Vesicular seminalis
4. Appendix epididymis
64. A doctor diagnosed-«Uterine
prolapse» (descent of the womb) in
the pelvis of a 32 years woman.
Which ligaments fix the uterus in
the normal position?
1. Lig. teres uteri, lig. cardinale
uterine,m.rectouterinus
2. Lig. cardinale, lig. lata uteri,
mesometrium
3. Lig. propria uteri, mesometrium,
lig. teres uteri
4. Lig. lata uteri, lig. teres uteri, lig.
propria uteri
5. Mesometrium, lig. lata uteri, lig.
propria uteri
65. A 60 years sick man needs to
remove urine by catheter. In
which place a doctor can break a
urinal canal during the
manipulation?
1. Pars membranacea
2. Ostium uretrae externum
3. Fossa navicularis
4. Pars spongiosa
5. Pars prostatica
66. Patient complains of frequent
and difficult urination.
Imperfection of what formation
can cause it?
1. Prostate
2. Bulbourethral glands
3. Seminal vesicles
4. Testes
67. During operation a doctor
must find a gate of the kidney.
What structures go out from the
gate of kidney?
1. V. renalis, ureter
2. A. renalis, ureter
3. A. renalis, nerves and lymph
vessels
4. A., v. renalis
5. Vessels of kidney and nerves
68. During operation a doctor
must find a gate of the kidney.
What structures come into the
gate of kidney?
1. A. renalis, nerves
2. A. renalis, ureter
3. A., v. renalis
4. Vessels of kidney and nerves
69. Ovarian tumour was diagnosed
in the woman. Surgery was
indicated. What ligament should
be cut by the surgeon to disconnect
the ovary and the uterus?
1. Own ligament of the ovary
2. Lateral umbilical ligament
3. Broad ligament of uterus
4. Suspensory ligament of ovary
5. Round ligament of uterus
70. During the complicated labour
the symphysis pubis ruptured.
What organ can be damaged the
most?
1. Urinary blader
2. Rectum
3. Uterus
4. Ovaria
5. Uterine tubes
118
1. Bladder floor.
2. Bladder isthmus.
3. Bladder body.
4. Bladder apex.
5. Bladder cervix.
76. A 28 year old woman has been
diagnosed
with
extrauterine
pregnancy complicated by the
fallopian tube rupture. The blood
is most likely to penetrate the
following peritoneal space:
1. Rectouterine.
2. Intersigmoid sinus.
3. Vesicouterine.
4. Left mesenteric sinus.
5. Right mesenteric sinus.
77. Examination of a 19-year-old
man revealed nephroptosis.
Normally the kidneys should be
located at the following vertebral
level:
1. XI thoracic and III lumbar
2. IX-X thoracic
3. IV-V lumbar
4. XII thoracic and I lumbar
5. IX-XII thoracic
78. A patient has urolithiasis that
was complicated by a renal
calculus passage. At what level of
ureter is it most likely to stop?
1. Between abdominal and pelvic
part
2. In pelvis
3. In the middle abdominal part
4.5 cm above flowing into urinary
bladder
5. 5 cm above pelvic part
79. A 58 year old woman has her
uterus and all appendages
completely removed. It resulted in
sroppage of urine excretion.
Cystoscopy results: bladder
doesn't contain any urine, urine
doesn't come also from ureteric
orifices. What part of urinary
excretion system was damaged
during the operation?
1. Ureter
2. Uretra
3. Vesica urinaria
4. Pelvis renalis
5. Ren
71. A 32-years patient has been
diagnosed with bartholinitis
(inflammation of Bartholin's
glands). In what part of the female
urogenital system are the
Bartholin's glands located?
1. In the labia majora
2. In the clitoris
3. In the uterus
4. In the vagina
5. In the labia minora
72. Inflammatory process of
modified subserous layer around
cervix of the uterus caused an
intensive pain syndrome. In what
region of genitals does the
pathological process take place?
1. Parametrium
2. Myometrium
3. Endometrium
4. Mesometriurn
5. Perimetrium
73. In course of a small pelvis
operation it became necessary to
ligate an ovarian artery. What
formation may be accidentally
ligated together with it?
1. Ureter
2. Round ligament of uterus
3. Urethra
4. Uterine tube
5. Internal iliac vein
74. The patient 23 years old
entered gynecological department
with complaints of the massive
edema of labia minora and
purulent excretion near their base
in a vestibule of a vagina nearer to
the posterior comissure. About
inflammation of what glands of
genital organs it is necessary to
think:
1. Large glands of vestibule
(Bartoliny’s).
2. Bulbouretral (Cowper’s).
3. Prostatic.
4. Small glands of vestibule.
75. During cytoscopy mucous
membrane of urinary bladder
normally makes folds except for a
single triangular area with smooth
mucosa. This triangle is located in
the following part of urinary
bladder:
119
4.5 cm above flowing into urinary
bladder
5. 5 cm above pelvic part
84. A 58 year old woman has her
uterus and all appendages
completely removed. It resulted in
sroppage of urine excretion.
Cystoscopy results: bladder
doesn't contain any urine, urine
doesn't come also from ureteric
orifices. What part of urinary
excretion system was damaged
during the operation?
1. Ureter
2. Uretra
3. Vesica urinaria
4. Pelvis renalis
5. Ren
85. A patient complains of having
urination disorder. He is
diagnosed the hypertrophy of
prostate gland. What part of gland
is damaged?
1. Median lobe
2. Left lobe
3. Right lobe
4. Base
5. Apex
86. A patient was diagnosed with
bartholinitis (inflammation of
greater vulvovaginal glands). In
which organ of urogenital system
are these glands localized?
1. Greater pudendal lips
2. Lesser pudendal lips
3. Clitoris
4. Vagina
5. Uterus
80. A patient complains of having
urination disorder. He is
diagnosed the hypertrophy of
prostate gland. What part of gland
is damaged?
1. Median lobe
2. Left lobe
3. Right lobe
4. Base
5. Apex
81. A patient was diagnosed with
bartholinitis (inflammation of
greater vulvovaginal glands). In
which organ of urogenital system
are these glands localized?
1. Greater pudendal lips
2. Lesser pudendal lips
3. Clitoris
4. Vagina
5. Uterus
82. Examination of a 19-year-old
man revealed nephroptosis.
Normally the kidneys should be
located at the following vertebral
level:
1. XI thoracic and III lumbar
2. IX-X thoracic
3. IV-V lumbar
4. XII thoracic and I lumbar
5. IX-XII thoracic
83. A patient has urolithiasis that
was complicated by a renal
calculus passage. At what level of
ureter is it most likely to stop?
1. Between abdominal and pelvic
part
2. In pelvis
3. In the middle abdominal part
HEART, FOETUS CIRCULATION, LYMPHATIC SYSTEM
3. Aorta and inferior vena cava
4. Pulmonary trunk and superior
vena cava
5. Aorta and superior vena cava
2. During the examination of a
patient the systolic murmur in V
intercostal space, 1 cm to the right
from left medioclavicular line was
1. During the foetal period of the
development in the vascular
system of the foetus large arterial
(Botalli) duct is present, it will
converted into lig. arteriosum
after birth. What anatomical
formations does this duct connect?
1. Pulmonary trunk and aorta
2. Right and left auricle
120
detected. What valve has
pathology in this case?
1. Mitral.
2. Aortic.
3. Valve of the inferior vena cava.
4. Valve of the pulmonary trunk.
5. Tricuspid.
3. X-ray examination of the organs
of the thoracic cavity showed the
incresing of the left contour size of
the heart. Modification of what
structure is it?
1. Left ventricle.
2. Left atrium.
3. Arc of the aorta.
4. Pulmonary trunk.
5. Right ventricle.
4. A 50-years patient, complaining
of the pain behind sternum and
asthmatic facts after physical
work, admitted to the hospital.
The pathological changes of the
posterior interventricular artery
were revealed by angiography.
Which part of the heart were
injured?
1. Posterior walls of the right and left
ventricles.
2. Left atrium.
3. Anterior walls of the right and left
ventricles.
4. Right atrium.
5. Right atrioventricular valve.
5. Myocardial infarction of the
anterior wall of the left ventricle
and of the ventricular septum,
which is accompanied by the
disturbance of the rhythmic work
of the heart, is diagnosed. What
parts of the conducting system of
the heart are destroyed?
1. Atrioventricular bundle.
2. Sinoatrial node.
3. Atrioventricular node.
4. Left crus of the atrioventricular
bundle.
5. Right crus of the atrioventricular
bundle.
6. During an auscultation of the
heart the doubling of the first
sound in the fifth intercostal space
along mammillary line was
determined. Pathology of which
valve of the heart did doctor
diagnose?
1. Bicuspid valve.
2. Tricuspid valve.
3. Aortic valve.
4. Valve of the pulmonary trunk.
5. Valve of the inferior cava vein.
7. During an auscultation of the
heart the doubling of the first
sound on the base of the xiphoid
process of the breast-bone
(sternum) was determined.
Pathology of which valve of the
heart did doctor diagnose?
1. Tricuspid.
2. Bicuspid.
3. Aortic valve.
4. Valve of the pulmonary trunk.
5. Valve of the inferior cava vein.
8. During an auscultation of the
heart the diastolic murmur in the
second intercostal space along
right sternal line was determined.
Pathology of which valve of the
heart did doctor diagnose?
1. Aortic valve.
2. Bicuspid valve.
3. Tricuspid valve.
4. Valve of the pulmonary trunk.
5. Valve of the inferior cava vein.
9. During an auscultation of the
heart the systolic murmur in the
second intercostal space along left
sternal line was determined.
Pathology of which valve of the
heart did doctor diagnose?
1. Valve of the pulmonary trunk.
2. Bicuspid valve.
3. Tricuspid valve.
4. Aortic valve.
5. Valve of the inferior cava vein.
10. During examination of the 65years patient, who suffers from
cardiac unrhythmic, the changes
of the function of the intracardiac
nervous plexuses are diagnosed.
How many intracardiac plexuses
the heart has according to
Vorobiev?
1. 6.
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2. 8.
3. 11.
4. 7.
5. 3.
11. Name the vessel, which carries
arterial blood from mother to
foetus:
1. V. umbilicalis.
2. A. umbilicalis.
3. Aorta.
4. Truncus pulmonalis.
5. V. cava superior.
12. During auscultation a
cardiologist found an apical
systolic murmur. What diagnosis a
doctor did determine?
1. Mitral valve incompetence
2. Aortic valve incompetence
3. Tricuspid valve incompetence
4. Pulmonary valve incompetence
5. Tricuspid valve stenosis
13. During examination a
cardiologist found that the apex
beat is located on 2.5 cm outside of
the medioclavicular line. What
part of the heart is abnormal?
1. Hypertrophy of the left ventricle
2. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle
3. Hypertrophy of the right auricle
4. Hypertrophy of the left auricle
5. Hypertrophy of the right and left
auricle
14. A sick man has expressive
pulse of carotid arteries: wavy
raisings of the skin along the
internal edge of the m. sternocleidomastoideus. A hurt of what
valve is this symptom?
1. Valva aortae
2. Valva tricuspidalis
3. Valva mitralis
4. Valva trunci pulmonalis
5. Valvula sinus coronarii
15. Cancer of the organ in the
thoracic cavity gives off metastases
which pass into the thoracic
lymphatic duct. What organ is it?
1. Oesophagus.
2. Lung.
3. Trachea.
4. Heart.
5. Thymus.
16. Where should be the catheter
inserted for evacuation of the
lymph from the thoracic lymph
duct?
1. To the left venous angle
2. To the inferior vena cava
3. To the left inguinal vein
4. To the superior vena cava
5. To the right venous angle
17. A patient with tuberculosis has
big tracheobronchial lymph nodes
which are located between the
arch of the aorta and bifurcation
of the trachea. It has led to
changing into a heart’s rhythm.
What nerves or nervous plexuses
can be pressed by nodes?
1. Plexus cardiacus profundus
2. N. vagus
3. Plexux cardiacus superficialis
4. Sympathetic nerves
5. Intraorganic cardiac plexus
18. The patient had inflammatory
purulent process of the skin
between first and second toes of
the foot. What lymph nodes will
react with pain and swelling?
1. Nodi limphatici inguinales
superficiales.
2. Nodi limphatici inguinales
profundi.
3. Nodi limphatici parietalis.
4. Nodi limphatici poplitei.
5. Nodi limphatici iliaci externi.
19. A patient has a malignisation
of thoracic part of oesophagus.
What lymphatic nodes are
regional for this organ?
1. Nodi lymphatici mediastinales
posteriores
2. Nodi lymphatici paratrachealis
3. Anulus lymphaticus cardiae
4. Nodi lymphatici pericardiales
laterales
5. Nodi lymphatici prevertebralis
20. A patient has pain, oedema and
reddening of his skin in the
anterosuperior area of his thigh
and his big toe. What lymph nodes
of his lower limb responded to the
inflammatory process?
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1. Superficial inguinal
2. Internal longitudinal
3. General longitudinal
4. Superficial longitudinal
5. Deep inguinal
21. While palpating mammary
gland of a patient a doctor
revealed an induration in form of
a node in the inferior medial
quadrant. Metastases may extend
to the following lymph nodes:
1. Anterior parasternal
2. Deep lateral cervical
3. Bronchopulmonary
4. Posterior mediastinal
5. Superior diaphragmatic
22. Preventive examination of a
patient revealed an enlarged
lymph node of metastatic origin on
the medial wall of the left axillary
fossa. Specify the most likely
localization of the primary
tumour:
1. Mammary gland
2. Lung
3. Stomach
4. Thyroid gland
5. Submandibular salivary gland
23. A 2-years child suffers from
pneumonia often. Medical
examination revealed unclosed
ductus arteriosus. What vessels
are communicated by this duct?
1. Aorta and pulmonary trunk
2. Aorta and pulmonary veins
3. Superior cava and aorta
4. Superior cava and pulmonary
trunk
5. Pulmonary trunk and pulmonary
veins
24. At a patient the malignant
tumor of the abdominal part of the
esophagus is diagnosed. What
lymph nodes are regional for this
part of the esophagus?
1. Anulus lymphaticus cardiae.
2. Nodi lymphatici paratracheales.
3. Nodi lymphatici pericardiales
laterales.
4. Nodi lymphatici mediastinales
posteriores.
25. At the patient furuncle is
exposed in an external auditory
canal. What lymph nodes can
react on an inflammatory process?
1. Nodi lymphatici parotidei.
2.
Nodi
lymphatici
retropharingeales.
3. Nodi lymphatici cervicales
superficiales.
4. Nodi lymphatici mandibulares.
26. The patient appealed to the
dentist with complaints about
long-term pain in area of the
anterior teeth of lower jaw. At
examination the doctor found out
the caries of lower right incisor.
An increasing in the sizes of group
lymphatic nodes was marked. To
what lymph nodes does lymph
outflow from lower incisors and
canines?
1. Submental.
2. Facial.
3. Submandibular.
4. Superficial neck.
5. Deep neck.
27. A patient long time suffered
from pain of lower jaw teeth. At
examination the doctor found out
carious cavities on the contact
surfaces of first and second lower
molar on the left. To what lymph
nodes do lymphatic vessels pass
from lower premolar and molar?
1. Submandibular.
2. Submental.
3. Facial.
4. Retropharyngeal.
28. At a patient 47 years old the
tumor of tongue tip is diagnosed.
To what regional lymph nodes are
the metastases possible?
1. Submental.
2. Mastoid.
3. Parotid.
4. Retropharyngeal.
29. At the patient 16 years old
there is furuncle in the right area
of nose wing. A process was
complicated by the increasing of
the lymph nodes. To what lymph
nodes does lymph outflow from
this area?
1. Nodi lymphatici submandibulares.
2. Nodi lymphatici occipitales.
3. Nodi lymphatici mastoidei.
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4. Nodi lymphatici parotidei.
30. Patient had a wound of skin on
lateral edge of the foot with an
inflammatory process. It is
suspicion of infection spread from
the wound along lymphatic vessels.
What lymph nodes must be
inspected first of all?
1. Superficial popliteal.
2. Deep popliteal.
3. Posterior tibial.
4. Anterior tibial.
5. Inguinal.
31. The patient came to the doctor
with complaints about the density
in the superior-lateral area of
right mammary gland. What
lymph nodes must the doctor
check up first of all, to make sure
of
non-spreading
of
this
pathological process?
1. Intercostal.
2. Axillary.
3. Parasternal.
4. Superior diaphragmatic.
5. Anterior mediastinal.
32. During operation on the
resection of the tumor of the
mammary gland, the surgeon
removed the lymph nodes of the
axillary fossa, where metastases
could spread. Thus there was
complication as an edema of upper
limb. In what lymph trunk was the
outflow of lymph disordered?
1. Subclavian.
2. Jugular.
3. Bronchomediastinal.
4. Intestinal.
33. A weightlifter has a disruption
of the thoracic lymphatic duct as a
result of lifting a weight Choose
the most likely site of injury:
1. In the region of aortic hiatus
2. In the region of lumbosacral
plexus
3. In the posterior mediastinum
4. In the region of venous angle
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
3. Pineal gland
4. Adrenal cortex
5. Hypophysis
4. A 30 years patient complains of
a strong thirst, dryness in a
mouth, which appeared after
strong nervous shock. At the
laboratory examination the
increasing of sugar is exposed in a
blood. Disfunction of what
endocrine gland this patient has?
1. Pancreas.
2. Thyroid.
3. Sexual.
4. Adrenal.
5. Epiphisis.
5. A woman, 39 years old, during 8
years can’t become pregnant. At
the examination of a patient
exophtalm, tremor of eyelids,
tachycardia (increasing of the
heart’s bittings) are found. Disease
of what endocrine gland is
accompanied with such
symptoms?
1. Why the doctor must make
upper tracheostomy for the child?
Owing to the lower position of the:
1. Isthmus of the thyroid gland.
2. Lobes of the thyroid gland.
3. Larynx.
4. Trachea.
2. During examination a doctor
found the tumour above the right
kidney in the body of 70 years
man. What organ is located above
this kidney?
1. Adrenal gland
2. Lien
3. Stomach
4. Pancreas
5. Gall bladder
3. A 2-years child experienced
convulsions because of lowering
calcium ions concentration in the
blood plasma. Function of what
structure is decreased?
1. Parathyroid glands
2. Thymus
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1. Thyroid.
2. Pancreas.
3. Sexual.
4. Adreanl.
5. Epiphysis.
6. A patient, 50 years old,
complains of increasing of the size
of ears, nose, hands.
Hyperfunction of what gland will
give these symptoms?
1. Hypophysis.
2. Sexual.
3. Thyroid.
4. Suprarenal.
5. Epiphisis.
7. A girl, 9 years old, has the
increasing of mammilary glands,
blood secretion from vagina,
increasing of the growth of hairs
on a body and around external
genital organs,changing in skin
color. Function of what endocrine
gland is broken?
1. Epiphisis cerebri
2. Hypophysis cerebri.
3. Gl. thyroidea.
4. Gl. suprarenalis.
5. Gl. parathyroidea.
8. In position on the back a 6month child gaspes. On the front
wall of trachea above jugular
notch of the sternum a tumor is
found. What organ can squeeze
the trachea?
1. Thymus.
2. Thyroid gland.
3. Parathyroid gland.
4. Lymphatic nodes.
9. At laboratory examination the
increase of the level of glucose is
marked in the blood of a patient.
Disfunction what endocrine gland
a patient has?
1. Pancreas.
2. Gl. suprarenalis
3. Gl. thyroidea.
4. Gl. parathyroidea.
5. Gl. pineale.
10. A patient has the muscular
convulsions. About hypofunction
of what endocrine gland it is
possible to think?
1. Parathyroid gland.
2. Epiphisis.
3. Sexual glands.
4. Adrenal glands.
11. X-ray examination of the bones
on the base of the skull finds out
the increasing of the Turkish
saddle. Tumour of what endocrine
gland can give such destruction of
the bone?
1. Hypophisis.
2. Thymus.
3. Epiphisis.
4. Thyroid.
5. Adrenal.
12. A patient has tremor of fingers,
muscular weakness, tachycardia,
sleeplessness, emaciation the good
appetite. Symptoms of disease of
which gland are these ones?
1. Thyroid.
2. Pancreas.
3. Adrenal.
4. Epiphisis.
13. A girl, 10 years old, has the
exposed signs of the premature
secondary sexual characters. The
decline of function of what
endocrine gland could give this
phenomen?
1. Epiphisis.
2. Thyroid.
3. Parathyroid.
4. Adrenal.
14. A patient has diabetes
insipidus. The activity of what
endocrine gland is abnormal?
1. Hypophisis.
2. Thyroid.
3. Sexual.
4. Adrenal.
5. Epiphisis.
15. A patient, complaining of
weight loss (10 kg during 2
months), pallpitation and
exophthalmos, came to a doctor.
For the hyperfunction of what
endocrine gland are these
complaints most typical?
125
1. Thyroid
2. Ovaria
3. Adrenal glands
4. Pancreas
5. Parathyroid glands
16. A 6-month child is suffocating
while lying on his back.The
palpation on the anterior wall of
trachea up to jugular notch of the
sternum revealed tumor-like mass,
stretching into the anterior
mediastinum. What organ can
squeeze trachea?
1. Thymus gland
2. Thyroid gland
3. Parathyroid glands
4. Parathyroid lymph nodes
17. At a boy of 13 years old the
signs of cretinism are exposed
(nanism, excalation of privy parts
and mental lag). What could serve
a reason of development of this
pathology?
1. Hypofunction of thyroid.
2. Hyperfunction of thyroid.
3. Hypofunction of parathyroid
glands.
4. Hypofunction of parathyroid
glands.
5. Hypofunction of posterior lobe of
hypophysis.
18. A man appealed to the doctor
with complaints about that female
sexual signs appeared at him.
About the tumor of what gland is
it possible to think?
1. Glandula pineale.
2. Insulae pancreaticae.
3. Glandula suprarenalis.
4. Glandula thyroidea.
5. Glandula parathyroidea.
19. To the child 2 years old with
the pneumonia X-ray of thorax
was performed out, on which
shade of thymus was found. At
what age process involution of this
gland starts?
1. After 14-15 years.
2. After 5-6 years.
3. Afterl 7-8 years.
4. After 10-11 years.
20. A mother appealed a doctor.
Her son during a summer grew on
18 cm. At the inspection of fellow
12 years: growth 180 cm, weight
68 kg. To disorder activity of what
endocrine gland is it related?
1. Hypophysis.
2. Epiphysis.
3. Thyroid.
4. Sexual.
21. A patient complains of a
frequent pulse and shaking of
finger tips. The exophthalm,
dryness of skin were objective.
Taking account information of
laboratory researches – Bazedov’s
disease was diagnosed. At the
hyperfunction of what gland does
it develop?
1. Thyroid.
2. Inferior parathyroid.
3. Suprarenal.
4. Superior parathyroid.
5. Hypophysis.
22. The patient of 31 years old
appealed to a doctor with
complaints about edema of
subcutaneous fat, apathy, decline
of ability to work, decline of
temperature of body. A mixedema
was diagnosed. The function of
what gland is disorder?
1. Thyroid.
2. Thymus.
3. Pancreas.
4. Parathyroid.
5. Suprarenal.
23. Gigantism developed at a man.
The function of what gland is
broken?
1. Hypophysis.
2. Thyroid.
3. Epiphysis.
4. Thymus.
5. Suprarenal.
24. A patient complains of an
increased physical and mental
126
weakness, adynamia. At
examination a hyperpigmentation
of skin and mucous were found.
What endocrine glands are
staggered?
1. Suprarenal.
2. Genital glands.
3. Hypophysis.
4. Insular islets of pancreas.
5. Thyroid gland.
25. On back position a six-month
child cannot breathe. By palpation
on an anterior wall of trachea to
jugular notch of sternum tumor,
going to anterior mediastinum, is
determined. What organ can press
a trachea?
1. Thymus gland.
2. Parathyroid glands.
3. Thyroid gland.
4. Paratracheal lymphatic nodes.
26. A patient with a disorder of
function of breathing is necessary
to perform a tracheotomy. At the
level of what cartilaginous rings of
trachea more frequent can be an
isthmus of thyroid gland?
1. II-III.
2. IV-V.
3. III-IV.
4. I-II.
27. While playing a child got a
punch in the sternal region. As a
result of the trauma an organ
located behind the manubrium
sterni was damaged. Name this
organ:
1. Thymus.
2. Larynx.
3. Thyroid gland.
4. Pericardium.
5. Heart.
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