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UNIT 1 Constitutional Underpinning
Forms of government based on how
power is divided and how many
people rule
5 theories of democracy
A unitary system of government is one in which
A. An executive, legislative, and judicial branch share
equal powers
B. Political officials are elected by the public in a
popular election
C. Legislative committees and federal agencies work
together to make and implement policy
D. More than one level of government oversees a
body of people
E. All power resides in a central government
The government in the South during the Civil War was
called a confederacy. A true confederacy differs from the
federalist system of the US in that it
a. grants more sovereignty to the individual states.
b. permits state governments to do only what the central
government allows.
c. is legally and politically independent of any other
government.
d. gives local units of government a specially protected
existence.
e. places states in a subservient position in matters of
interstate commerce.
According to the pluralist theory of democratic
government
A. small number of elites rule in their own self-interest
B. there are many strong groups influencing
government and each pulls the government in
numerous directions, creating gridlock
C. bureaucrats, who carry on the day-to-day workings
of the government, actually control public policy
D. interest groups compete in the public arena; as
result, bargaining and compromise is a necessity
E. government depends on consent of the governed
Those who support the bureaucratic theory of democracy
believe that
A. interest groups compete to promote their preferences
B. a small number of powerful corporate and military
leaders rule in their own self interest
C. democracy is based on choosing officials to run the
government
D. democracy is a hierarchical structure with appointed
officials holding the real power
E. government depends on the “consent of the governed”
Philosophers and their main ideas
Which political philosopher favored separate legislative,
executive, and judicial branches?
A. Thomas Hobbes
B. John Locke
C. Baron de Montesquieu
D. Jean Jacques Rousseau
E. James Madison
Social contract theory
The political theory proposed by John Locke, calling for a
nation to be developed as a voluntary agreement between
citizens and government, is known as
A. divine right theory
B. hyperpluralist theory
C. social contract theory
D. state theory
E. elite theory
How democracy was established
with key documents: magna carta,
petition of right, English bill of
rights, VA house of burgess,
mayflower compact, declaration of
independence
What is the first document that limited the power of the
British monarch?
A. Petition of Right
B. Second Treatise of Government
C. Magna Carta
D. English Bill of Rights
E. The Social Contract
Federalist papers (10, 39, 51)
In The Federalist No. 10, James Madison argued that
factions in a republic are
A. serious threat if republic is large
B. Natural but controllable by institutions
C. Not likely to occur if ppl are honest
D. Prevented by majority rule
E. Prevented by free elections
James Madison applied the term “faction” to
A. political parties and interest groups
B. negative members of Congress
C. splinter groups of the executive
D. political parties
E. states not willing to be a part of federal union
Which of the following is argued by James Madison in The
Federalist paper number 10?
a. A system of republican representation helps to limit the
excesses of factionalism.
b. Small republics are better able to ensure individual
liberty than are large republics.
c. The presence of a few large factions helps to protect the
rights of minorities.
d. Participatory democracy is the surest way to prevent
tyranny.
e. The elimination of the causes of factionalism the best
protection against tyranny.
Federalists v anti-federalists
The debates between Federalists and Anti-Federalists
were primarily about which of the following issues?
A. The right of the people to rebel
B. The existence of slavery
C. scope of power of central govt
D. need to establish a standard currency
E. representation of large and small states
Continental Congress
The Continental Congress
A. did not meet until after the American
Revolution
B. drafted the Articles of Confederation
C. drafted the U.S. Constitution
D. created a unitary government with
George Washington as the head of state
E. refused to support the American
Revolution
The greatest weakness of the Articles of Confederation
was that they established a government that was unable
to
A. Raise a militia
B. Be recognized by foreign governments
C. Pay off its war debts
D. Centralize its powers
E. Make decisions through a legislative process
Articles of Confederation –
provisions, weaknesses
Compared to the US Constitution, the Articles of
Confederation
A. based representation in Congress on population
B. created stronger national judiciary
C. reserved more power to the states
D.
E.
Constitutional Convention and the
plans for change (VA, NJ,
Connecticut/Great, 3/5)
allowed only national govt to coin money
allowed the Congress stronger authority over
interstate and foreign commerce
Shay’s Rebellion and other acts of violence in 1787-1788
demonstrated to many in the new nation that
A. farmers had too much power
B. the economic well-being of the country was still
tied to Great Britain
C. the nation had expanded too quickly
D. the govt of Massachusetts was ineffective
E. Articles of Confederation had to be revised to
create a stronger national government
Which of the following was adopted to resolve the issue of
representation in the House and Senate?
A. Three-Fifths Compromise
B. New Jersey Plan
C. Maryland Plan
D. Connecticut Compromise
E. Virginia Plan
Virginia and New Jersey Plans both provided for:
a.
A bicameral legislature
b. Separation of powers
c.
A strong executive branch
d. Abolition of slavery
e. Equal representation of states
The 3/5 compromise at the Constitutional Convention was
intended primarily to solve disputes between
A. Thomas Jefferson and Alexander Hamilton
B. Britain and the United States
C. East and West
D. North and South
E. Merchants and farmers
US Constitution
Popular sovereignty
According to the Preamble of the Constitution, the goals of
public policy for the United States include all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. protecting private property
B. establishing justice
C. providing for the common defense
D. promoting the general welfare
E. forming a more perfect union
Which of the following principles of the Constitution is
most directly grounded in John Locke’s concept of
“consent of the governed”?
(A) popular sovereignty
(B) separation of powers
(C) federalism
(D) judicial review
(E) limited government
Limited government
The framers’ distrust of the public when writing the
Constitution is best illustrated by the
A. Electoral College
B. Bill of Rights
C. Process of choosing federal judges
D. Creation of a bicameral legislature
E. Ability to amend the Constitution
Separation of powers
The Constitution places legislative power in Congress and
Executive power in the President. This is an example of
a. Federalism.
b. Checks and balances.
c. Constitutional interpretation.
d. Fundamental rights
e. Separation of powers
Checks and balances
Which is true under the system of checks and balances?
A. Supreme Court can overrule President’s proposals
B. Senate must ratify treaties negotiated by the
President before they become law
C. A bill becomes a law when House and Senate pass
it, and the Supreme Court declares it constitutional
D. Supreme Court can remove members of Congress,
and Congress can impeach the president
E. House of Representatives appoints justices to
Supreme Court and the Senate approves it.
Judicial review
Which of the following United States Supreme Court cases
established the principle of judicial review?
A. McCulloch v. Maryland
D. Gibbons v. Ogden
B. Baron v. Baltimore
E. US v Morrison
C. Marbury v. Madison
Federalism is a system of government which
A. Exec, legislative, & judicial branch share power
B. Officials are elected by public in popular election
C. Legislative committees and federal agencies work
together to make and implement policy
D. More than 1 level of govt oversees people
E. The president is chosen by an electoral college rather
than by popular election
Federalism
Which of the following is NOT true of federalism?
A. a state may not unreasonably discriminate against
a resident of another state
B. fed govt handles matters of national concern
C. states may extradite fugitives from another state
D. states must honor another state’s public acts,
laws, and records
E. the powers of the federal government are less
than the powers of the state governments
Articles of the Constitution
Where in the Constitution is the establishment of a federal
court system found?
A. Article I
D. Article II
B. Article III
E. Article IV
C. Article V
In the United States Constitution, where is the
congressional power of taxation found?
A. Article I
D. Article II
B. Article III
E. Article IV
C. Article V
Amendments
Which is one of the central concerns of the 1st
Amendments?
A. supremacy of national government over state
government
B. right of the citizens to bear arms
C. division of power among 3 branches of government
D. right of citizens to petition the government for
redress of grievances
E. protection of the rights of those accused of
committing a crime
The Constitution and its amendments expressly prohibit all
of the following EXCEPT
A. Slavery
B. Double jeopardy
C. Cruel and unusual punishment
D. Unreasonable searches and seizures
E. Sex discrimination in employment
The Twelfth Amendment deals with:
a.
Presidential disability
b. Election of the president and vice president
c.
Direct election of Senators
d. Inauguration of president and vice president
e. Limits on presidential terms of office
Formal method for amendments
Powers of Congress
Powers of the Executive branch
Original v appellate jurisdiction of
courts
Qualifications for Congress
Qualifications for President
Unit 2: Civil Rights and Liberties
Necessary and Proper Clause
In the United States, which of the following is a rule on
voting found in the Constitution or its amendments?
A. No person may be denied the right to vote merely
on lack of either state or federal citizenship
B. No person 18 years of age or older may be denied
the right to vote on account of age
C. No person may be denied the right to vote merely
because he or she has previously served a prison
sentence
D. A state may not establish a residency requirement
for voting
E. A state require may require a person to pay a poll
tax in order to register to vote
The Constitution states that all revenue bills must
originate in
A. The White House
B. The Congressional Budget office
C. The United States House of Representatives
D. The United States Senate
E. The Supreme Court
Which is NOT a presidential role authorized by the
Constitution?
A. To be commander in chief of the armed forces
B. To lead the political party of the president
C. To negotiate treaties with foreign nations
D. To be chief executive
E. To present the State of the Union address
Article II of the Constitution grants the president power to
do all of the following EXCEPT
A. Authorize troop movements during war
B. Establish post offices
C. Veto proposed legislation
D. Appeal to Congress and make legislative requests
in a state of the union address
E. Establish or discontinue relations with foreign
governments
The most important source of the Supreme Court’s
caseload is
A. Its original jurisdiction
B. Its appellate jurisdiction
C. Instruction from the solicitor general
D. The special master’s certification of cases for review
E. Congress’ certification of cases for review
What is the minimum age requirement for a member of
the United States Senate?
A.25 B. 25
C. 30 D. 21 E. no requirement
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. Representatives must be twenty years of age.
b. Senators must be thirty years of age.
c. Representatives must have been citizens of the United
States for seven years.
d. Senators must have been citizens of the United States
for nine years.
e. Representatives and senators must live in the state in
which they are elected.
Which of the following is not true concerning the
qualifications to be President?
A. Natural born citizen B. 35 years old C. Found in Article II
D. Resident for 14 years E. Found in Article I
The authority that Congress has under the “necessary and
proper clause” is called:
a.
Implied powers
b. Enumerated powers
c.
Reserved powers
d. Elastic clause
e. Supremacy clause
Commerce Clause (and cases)
Full Faith and Credit Clause
Privileges and Immunities Clause
Supremacy clause (and cases)
Free Exercise clause (and cases)
Establishment Clause (and cases)
Which of the following United States Supreme Court cases
solidified the Commerce clause?
A. McCulloch v. Maryland
B. Gibbons v. Ogden
C. Baron v. Baltimore
D. Gitlow v. NY
E. Marbury v. Madison
The Full Faith and Credit Clause of the Constitution is the
requirement that each state accept the public acts,
records, & judicial proceedings of other states, found in
the Constitution in
A. Article II
B. Article III
C. Article IV
D. Article V
E. Article VI
The privileges and immunities clause
A. Describes the perks of being president
B. Describes your rights during a trial
C. Prevents states from discriminating against citizens of
other states
D. Allows states to nullify federal law
E. Describes compensation for federal judges
Which of the following United States Supreme Court case
dealt with the Supremacy clause?
A. Baron v. Baltimore
B.
McCulloch v. Maryland
C. Gibbons v. Ogden
D.
Gitlow v. NY
E. Printz v. US
An important result of McCulloch v. Maryland (1819) was
to
A. establish supremacy of federal government over
states
B. place limits on the powers of Congress
C. establish the doctrine of judicial review
D. establish the doctrine of dual federalism
E. giver greater power to the states
The abridgment of citizen’s freedom to worship, or not
worship, as they please is prohibited by the
A. Due process clause
B. Establishment clause
C. Free exercise clause
D. Freedom of religion
E. Second amendment
In regard to the free exercise clause, the Supreme Court
has made each of the following rulings except
A. Polygamy may be justified for Mormons on religious
grounds
B. The Air Force can enforce its dress code even against
religiously based dress choices
C. Amish parents may take their kids out of school after
the eighth grade
D. People could become conscientious objectors to war on
religious grounds
E. Public schools cannot require Jehovah’s Witnesses to
stand during flag ceremonies
The supreme Courts three-part test for Establishment
Clause cases focused specifically on
A. Whether there is a secular purpose for an action
B. The effect of an act promotes or inhibits religion
C. Whether an actions fosters excessive government
entanglement with religion
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Eminent domain
Which of the following cases related to eminent domain?
A. Furman v Georgia
B. Gideon v Wainwright
C. Schenck v US
D. Kelo v New London
E. Reynolds v US
Exclusionary rule (and cases)
In the case of ___________, the Supreme Court ruled that
the protection against unreasonable search and seizure
applied to state governments, thus extended the
exclusionary rule to the states.
A. Miranda v Arizona
B. Gideon v Wainwright
C. Roth v US
D. US v New York
E. Mapp v Ohio
Due Process clause (and cases)
The Supreme Court case of Gideon v Wainwright
A. Prohibited government workers from issuing gag orders
B. Extended the right to counsel to everyone accused of a
felony
C. Ruled that illegally seized materials cannot be used in
court
D. Gave only those accused of capital crimes the right to
an attorney
E. Set guidelines for police questioning of suspects
Equal protection clause (and cases)
In Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka, the Supreme
Court established which of the following principles?
a)A school official can search a student for drugs
b)Everyone must go to school until the age of 16
c)Tuition for private schools cannot be tax deductible
d)Separation of students by race, even in equally good
schools, is unconstitutional
e)A moment of silent prayer at the beginning of the school
day is allowable under the 1st Amendment
Habeas Corpus
During the Civil War, President Lincoln suspended habeas
corpus so that
A. He could be elected for a third term
B. Citizens could be arrested for past acts that were made
illegal at that time
C. Confederate spies and prisoners of war could be held
without appearing before a judge
D. The Union could rewrite the Constitution
E. He could suspend Congress’ lawmaking power
Ex post facto laws
A. Make it illegal to utilize a “crime of passion” defense
after too much time has passed
B. Punish citizens for past actions, even if the act was. It
illegal at the time
C. Allow the government to sentence prisoners without a
trial
D. Give the President judicial powers
E. Prevent the government from taking your property
Ex Post Facto
Bill of attainder
Enumerated, Implied, and Inherent
powers
Article I Section 8 lists several __________powers of
Congress, such as the power to levy taxes.
A. Enumerated
B. Implied
C. Inherent
D. Executive
E. Limited
Which of the following is an implied power?
A. President appointing a Supreme Court justice
B. Senate approving presidential nominations
C. Congress declaring power
D. Congress creating a national bank
E. President vetoing a bill
Delegated, Reserved, and
Concurrent powers
Principle the Constitution gives states all powers neither
granted nor denied the states refers to
A. Reserved powers
B. Federal supremacy
C. Delegated Powers
D. Concurrent powers
E. Federalism
Which of the following is a power that is not shared by the
federal and state governments?
a.
the power to tax personal income
b. Power to establish courts
c.
Power to charter a national bank
d. Power to tax property
e. Power to borrow money
Define Federalism.
Types of Federalism (dual, dual
sovereignty, cooperative, new,
devolution, fiscal) --- know when
and why the changes happened
Which of the following powers does the Constitution
prohibit to the states but allow the national government?
A. taxation
D. police power
B. immigration
E. education
C. borrowing money
The terms “fiscal federalism” and “cooperative federalism”
refer to situations in which
A. The federal government completely dominates
state and local governments
B. States are forbidden activity that has not been
specifically approved by Supreme Court
C. The federal judiciary uses its power of judicial
review to ensure congressional dominance over
state legislatures
D. State/local income taxes are pooled by special
agreement & distributed based on individual need
E. Federal, state, and local governments work
together to complete a project, with the federal
government providing funding for the project.
The Republican effort to pass on to the states many
federal functions is known as
a. third-order devolution.
b. marble-cake federalism.
c. devolution.
d. neo-institutionalism.
e. fragmented federalism.
Cooperative Federalism can best be described by which of
the following statements?
A. Different levels of government are involved in
common policy areas
B. Government must have cooperation from the people
in order to make legislative decisions
C. Local levels of government can make decisions on
issues more efficiently than state and national
governments can
D. The federal government must make regulations that
can be applied across every state in the same way
E. Business and government can work together to more
effectively accomplish shared goals
The “marble cake” analogy is often used to describe
A. Popular sovereignty
D. dual federalism
B. cooperative federalism
E. divided government
C. segregation
Types of spending (grants-in-aid,
block grant, categorical grant,
mandate)
The Americans with Disabilities Act, which provides
protections for the disabled, is an example of
A. State supremacy
B. Categorical grant
C. Affirmative action
D. Dual federalism
E. A federal mandate
Giving state governments greater discretion in deciding
how to achieve the specific goals of welfare reform is an
example of
A. An unfunded mandate
B. Implied powers
C. Dual federalism
D. Devolution
E. Affirmative action
Which of the following is the best example of a categorical
grant?
A. Money given to states for very specific programs
B. Money given to individuals in form of tax rebates
C. Money given to states unconditionally
D. Money given to states to spend at their discretion
on transportation
E. Money given directly to private business for
economic development
To qualify for certain federal highway funds, states must
allow drivers to make a legal right-hand turn after
stopping at a red light. This requirement by federal
government is known as a
a. mandate.
b. quid pro quo order.
c. condition of aid.
d. pro bono requirement.
e. per curiam order.
When a locality is required by federal law to do something,
regardless of whether it receives federal funding for that
purpose, this duty is called a
a. condition of aid.
b. mandate.
c. string-attached edict.
d. court decision.
e. pontification.
US v Lopez, Printz v US, US v
Morrison
UNIT 2 – People and Agenda
Political participation – how can you
participate?
In U.S. v. Lopez (1995), the Supreme Court ruled that
Congress overstepped its power to regulate commerce by
prohibiting ________ in a school zone.
a. Guns
b. adult bookstores
c. cigarette sales
d. alcohol sales
e. dog races
The most common way that ordinary citizens participate in
politics is by
A. Participating in political protests
B. Writing letters to the editor of a local newspaper
C. Voting in elections
D. Contacting their elected representatives
E. Joining an interest group
A citizen who disapproves of proposed legislation can do
all of the following EXCEPT
A. propose new legislation against the current document
B. vote for a different candidate in the next election
C. participate in a protest
D. join a political interest group
E. call or write a letter to his/her senator or representative
Public policy
Public policy is a term that best refers to
A. the process by which one becomes a member of a party
B. the policies of the Republican Party
C. the process in which the people acquire their political
attitudes and values
D. the course of action taken by the government in
response to a problem or issue
E. the policies of the Democratic Party
Policy agenda
Political efficacy
A belief that your involvement in politics will have an
impact on the government is referred to as
a. political efficacy.
b. political ideology.
c. pragmatism.
d. public opinion.
e. realism.
Political socialization
Which of the following is the best definition of political
socialization?
A. indiv playing different political roles in society
B. indiv with diverse beliefs about public policy
C. individuals with diverse sets of values and beliefs
about public policy
D. individuals acquiring their differing beliefs and political
orientation
E. individuals defining their political society in relation to
their form of government
Motor Voter Act
In 1993, Congress attempted to facilitate voter registration
by linking it to processes related to
a. health insurance.
d. home mortgages.
b. student loans.
e. driver’s licenses.
c. car loans.
Which of the following is true of the Voting Rights Act of
1965?
A. It was unnecessary because the 15th Amendment
effectively guaranteed African Americans the right to
vote
B. It has never been applied to any group except
southern African Americans
C. It has been a major instrument for increasing the
number of African American and minority voters
D. It was declared unconstitutional by the United States
Supreme Court in Shaw v. Reno
E. It requires that minority officeholders be elected
Voting Rights Act
Who are we as Americans?
(demographics)
A coherent and consistent set of beliefs about what
policies government ought to pursue is referred to as
a. political efficacy.
d. public opinion.
b. pragmatism.
e. realism.
c. political ideology.
Where do we get our beliefs?
Most HS students share the same party identification as
a. their peers.
b. their teachers.
c. their parents.
d. their religious leaders.
e. regional elites.
Voting – typical voter
Which amendment states that “the right of citizens of the
United States to vote shall not be abridged by the United
States or by any state on account of race, color, or
previous condition of servitude”?
a. Twelfth Amendment
b. Seventeenth Amendment
c. Fifteenth Amendment
d. Twenty-fifth Amendment
e. None of the above
Types of voting: candidate voting,
issue/policy voting
The Twenty-sixth Amendment extended suffrage to
a. those aged eighteen to twenty.
b. blacks.
c. women.
d. residents of the District of Columbia.
e. felons who had received presidential pardons.
An example of issue voting would be
A. Voting for a candidate that is well-spoken
B. Voting in an election in which both candidates have
strong and opposing viewpoints on immigration
C. Voting for the political party your parents support
D. Refusing to vote because you believe that in our
government system your vote doesn't matter
E. Going to the polls to vote against a candidate you have
an issue with
Recall
This procedure, which is in effect in about one-third of the
states, permits voters to remove an elected official from
office.
a. Initiative
b. logrolling
c. Referendum
d. rollback
e. Recall
Referendum
An example of a referendum would be
A. Motor Voter Act
B. Georgia voters approving a SPLOST proposal
C. American citizens impeaching a corrupt official
D. Civil Right Act
E. Georgia voters directly elected their governor
Initiative
Which of the following could potentially be a part of an
initiative?
A. Bill originating in the way and means committee
B. Petition signed by citizens of a state
C. Executive order by the governor
D. Bill written by a Georgia congressman
E. Impeachment trial in the Senate
Baker v Carr /
This Supreme Court case established the principle of One
man, one vote:
A. Wesbury v. Sanders
B. Baker v. Carr
C. Crawford v. Marion County Election Board
D. Harper v. VA State Board of Elections
E. Marbury v. Madison
Wesberry v Sanders
Why don’t people vote?
Who does vote?
Types of opinion polls
When registered nonvoters are asked why they did not
vote, the most common response that they give refers to
a. family obligations.
b. scheduling conflicts or being “too busy.”
c. Negative nature of campaigns and so-called attack ads.
d. a sense that their vote would not matter.
e. a loss of faith in the American system of government.
Which of the following groups is most likely to vote in
elections?
A. People under the age of 21
B. People who strongly identify w/ political party
C. People without a college degree
D. Men with low-income jobs
E. Women who don’t feel the candidates are
trustworthy
If any given voter has a chance of being in a survey, the
sample is best described as a ________ sample.
a. random
d.
stratified quota
b. split
e.
two-stage
c. bifurcated
Exit polls are conducted
a. just after a voter registers to vote.
b. during the national conventions.
c. on election day at polling places.
d. after each presidential debate.
e. when voters change their party identification.
This type of poll is conducted constantly to gauge a
candidates increase and decrease in rating:
A. straw poll
D. gallup poll
B. exit poll
E. tracking poll
C. push poll
Why doesn’t the government always
listen to polls?
During the 1936 presidential election campaign, a poll
taken by the Literary Digest predicted that Al Landon
would defeat Franklin Roosevelt. The problem with this
poll was
A. those who responded to the poll were not a true
representation of the public
B. the manner in which the question was worded favoring
Landon
C. the poll was conducted only in certain states
D. names of those polled were drawn out of a hat
E. more men than women were asked the question
Ideologies –
Liberal
Conservative
Populist
Libertarian
The 2 camps in the ‘culture war’ are the orthodox and the
progressive view. Which of the following would NOT be an
orthodox view?
A. laws are unchanging and independent of individual
preferences
B morality is at least, or perhaps more important, than self
expression
C. rules must be evaluated in the light of the
circumstances of modern life
D. Possess strong views on drugs, sexual morality, and
crime
E. moral rules derive from the commands of God or the
laws of nature
A young, college educated person who believes that
environmental and social issues should be left to each
individuals responsibility would be considered:
A. conservative
D. Liberal
B. Centrist
E. Libertarian
C. Populist
An older, white, college educated individual who believes
that strict regulation in social issues is necessary, but that
a laissez faire attitude should be demonstrated in
economic affairs would be considered:
A. conservative
D. Liberal
B. Centrist
E. Libertarian
C. Populist