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Biology Study Guide
First Trimester Exam on December 4
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1. Which of the following is NOT a goal of science?
a. to investigate and understand the natural world
b. to explain events in the natural world
c. to establish a collection of unchanging truths
d. to use derived explanations to make useful predictions
2. Scientists will never know for sure why dinosaurs became extinct. Therefore, scientists should
a. stop studying dinosaurs and study only living animals.
b. work to raise live dinosaurs to study.
c. continue to learn as much as they can about dinosaur extinction.
d. accept the current theory about dinosaur extinction as the best possible theory.
3. Science is best described as a
a. set of facts.
b. way of knowing.
c. collection of beliefs.
d. list of rules.
4. The work of scientists usually begins with
a. testing a hypothesis.
b. careful observations.
c. creating experiments.
d. drawing conclusions.
5. Information gathered from observing a plant grow 3 cm over a two-week period is called
a. inferences.
b. variables.
c. hypotheses.
d. data.
6. A hypothesis
a. is based on personal belief.
b. may be disproved by a single experiment.
c. does not have to be tested to be accepted as probably correct.
d. is a proven fact.
7. Why is creativity considered a scientific attitude?
a. Scientists need creativity to make good posters to explain their ideas.
b. Creativity helps scientists come up with different experiments.
c. Creative scientists imagine the results of experiments without doing them.
d. Scientists who are creative are better at handling and training animals.
8. After a scientist publishes a paper, someone else finds evidence that the paper’s hypothesis may not be
correct. The scientist is unhappy, but studies the new evidence anyway. The scientist is showing which
scientific attitude?
a. creativity
b. curiosity
c. open-mindedness
d. skepticism
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9. A scientist discovers an important breakthrough in cancer treatment. The scientist thinks the information
could save thousands of lives and immediately announces the results on national television, skipping peer
review. How might other scientists react to this news?
a. They will be skeptical because the report was not peer-reviewed.
b. They will quickly start to use the new treatment on their patients.
c. They will congratulate the scientist for the discovery.
d. They will denounce the work and call the scientist a fraud.
10. What does a reviewer do during peer-review?
a. Focus on mistakes in spelling.
b. Change data to support results.
c. Check for mistakes and bias.
d. Repeat the experiments in the article.
11. Suppose that a scientific idea is well-tested and can be used to make predictions in numerous new situations,
but cannot explain one particular event. This idea is a
a. hypothesis that is incorrect.
b. hypothesis that must be retested.
c. theory that should be discarded.
d. theory that may need revision.
12. How do scientific theories compare to hypotheses?
a. Theories are the same as hypotheses.
b. Theories unify a broad range of observations and hypotheses.
c. Hypotheses combine the ideas of several theories to explain events.
d. Hypotheses are the dominant view among scientists.
13. A well-tested explanation that explains a lot of observations is
a. a hypothesis.
b. an inference.
c. a theory.
d. a controlled experiment.
14. Which of the following is a question that can be answered by science?
a. What is beauty?
b. Is it ethical to do experiments on animals?
c. How does DNA influence a person’s health?
d. Do people watch too much television?
15. A personal preference or point of view is
a. a bias.
b. a theory.
c. a hypothesis.
d. an inference.
16. How does studying science help you be a better member of society?
a. Learning the biases of science will help you know what is right or wrong.
b. Understanding how science works will help you make better decisions.
c. Memorizing science facts will help you become more intelligent.
d. Knowing science will help you live without the aid of technology.
17. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of all living things?
a. growth and development
b. ability to move
c. response to the environment
d. ability to reproduce
____ 18. Cells in multicellular organisms have many different sizes and shapes. These differences in cells is called cell
specialization. Cell specialization allows cells to
a. reproduce.
b. perform different functions.
c. respond to their environment.
d. be less complex.
Figure 1–1
____ 19. Figure 1–1 illustrates which characteristic of living things?
a. Living things grow and develop
b. Living things are made up of cells.
c. Living things need material and energy.
d. Living things reproduce.
____ 20. Would a scientist who studies evolution also have to learn about other branches of biology? Why or why not?
a. Yes; the other branches of biology are more important.
b. Yes; the different branches of biology are interrelated.
c. No; the other branches of biology do not affect evolution.
d. No; each branch of biology is separate from the others.
____ 21. Focusing on which two central themes in biology would help a student understand why animals come in
different shapes and sizes?
a. cellular basis for life; homeostasis
b. structure and function; unity and diversity of life
c. matter and energy; homeostasis
d. science as a way of knowing; interdependence of nature
____ 22. What are the smallest objects that biologists study?
a. cells
b. body organs
c. molecules
d. organisms
____ 23. Biologists who work in the fields of genomics and molecular biology study
a. the biosphere
b. diseases
c. DNA
d. trees
____ 24. The basic unit of length in the metric system is the
a. gram.
b. liter.
c. yard.
d. meter.
____ 25. How many meters are in 2.4 km?
a. 240
b. 2,400
c. 24,000
d. 240,000
____ 26. Using a universal system of measurement is MOST important during which part of scientific methodology?
a. asking questions
b. forming a hypothesis
c. collecting data
d. drawing conclusions
____ 27. The three particles that make up atoms are
a. protons, neutrons, and isotopes.
b. neutrons, isotopes, and electrons.
c. positives, negatives, and neutrals.
d. protons, neutrons, and electrons.
____ 28. What are found in the space surrounding the nucleus of an atom?
a. protons
b. electrons
c. neutrons
d. ions
____ 29. Democritus believed that atoms
a. were composed of electrons.
b. were composed of protons.
c. did not exist.
d. could not be divided.
____ 30. If an atom contains 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons, its mass number is
a. 3.
b. 4.
c. 7.
d. 11.
____ 31. A chlorine atom that has 17 protons and 18 neutrons is called
a. chlorine-17.
b. chlorine-18.
c. chlorine-35.
d. chlorine-1.
____ 32. Which of the following statements about a compound is true?
a. The physical and chemical properties of a compound are usually very different from those
of the elements from which it is formed.
b. Only the physical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements
from which it is formed.
c. Only the chemical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements
from which it is formed.
d. The physical and chemical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the
elements from which it is formed.
____ 33. A covalent bond is formed as the result of
a. transferring electrons.
b. sharing electrons.
c. transferring protons.
d. sharing protons.
Figure 2–1
____ 34. Which property of water causes the curved surface shown in Figure 2–1?
a. pH
b. cohesion
c. adhesion
d. heat capacity
____ 35. In a water molecule, shared electrons spend more time around the oxygen atom than the hydrogen atoms. As
a result, the oxygen atom is
a. slightly negative.
b. very negative.
c. slightly positive.
d. very positive.
____ 36. A solution is a
a. combination of isotopes.
b. chemical reaction.
c. mixture in which the substances are evenly spread out.
d. mixture in which undissolved substances do not settle out.
____ 37. If you stir salt into boiling water, you produce a
a. mixture called a suspension.
b. mixture called a solution.
c. solution and suspension.
d. mixture only.
____ 38. If the pH of stomach acid and of oven cleaner were measured,
a. both would be below 7.
b. both would be above 7.
c. the pH of stomach acid would be above 7, but the pH of oven cleaner would be below 7.
d. the pH of stomach acid would be below 7, but the pH of oven cleaner would be above 7.
____ 39. A map of eastern North America, showing the pH of rainfall in the various states, indicates that the pH of rain
in New York State varies from 4.22 to 4.40. According to these figures, the most acidic rainfall in New York
State has a pH of
a. 4.22.
b. 4.30.
c. 4.35.
d. 4.40.
____ 40. A substance with a pH of 6 is called
a. an acid.
b. a base.
c. water.
d. a suspension.
____ 41. Solutions that have more OH– than H+ ions are
a. reactants.
b. acids.
c. bases.
d. enzymes.
____ 42. Carbon-12 is the most common isotope of carbon. It has 6 protons, 6 neutrons, and 6 electrons. Of its 6
electrons, 4 are valence electrons. How many covalent bonds can a carbon atom form?
a. 1
b. 4
c. 6
d. 12
____ 43. Which of the following is NOT a monomer?
a. a glucose molecule
b. an amino acid
c. a nucleotide
d. a protein
____ 44. Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?
a. store and transmit genetic information
b. help to fight disease
c. control the rate of reactions
d. move substances into or out of cells
____ 45. Which statement is true about macromolecules?
a. Simple sugars are made of polysaccharides.
b. Glycerol is made of fatty acids.
c. Proteins are made of amino acids.
d. Nucleotides are made of nucleic acids.
____ 46. When hydrogen and oxygen combine to form water, water is
a. a product.
b. a reactant.
c. an enzyme.
d. a catalyst.
____ 47. What is the process that changes one set of chemicals into another set of chemicals?
a. cohesion
b. hydrogen bonding
c. chemical reaction
d. dissolving
____ 48. If a reaction in one direction releases energy, the reaction in the opposite direction
a. also releases energy.
b. absorbs energy.
c. destroys energy.
d. cannot occur.
____ 49. Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the reaction pathway of a reaction that absorbs energy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
____ 50. Which of the following statements is true about catalysts?
a. Catalysts slow down the rate of chemical reactions.
b. All catalysts are enzymes.
c. Catalysts are used up during a chemical reaction.
d. Catalysts lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction.
____ 51. A substance that speeds up the rate of a chemical reaction is called
a. a catalyst.
b. a lipid.
c. a molecule.
d. an element.
____ 52. The branch of biology dealing with interactions among organisms and between organisms and their
environment is called
a. economy.
b. modeling.
c. recycling.
d. ecology.
____ 53. Which of the following descriptions about the organization of an ecosystem is correct?
a. Communities make up species, which make up populations.
b. Populations make up species, which make up communities.
c. Species make up communities, which make up populations.
d. Species make up populations, which make up communities.
____ 54. Which of the following is NOT a basic method used by ecologists to study the living world?
a. experimenting
b. animal training
c. modeling
d. observing
Figure 3–1
____ 55. The algae at the beginning of the food chain in Figure 3–1 are
a. primary consumers.
b. decomposers.
c. primary producers.
d. heterotrophs.
____ 56. How do most primary producers make their own food?
a. by using light energy to make carbohydrates
b. by using chemical energy to make carbohydrates
c. by changing water into carbon dioxide
d. by breaking down remains to make carbon dioxide
____ 57. Which of the following organisms does NOT require sunlight to live?
a. chemosynthetic bacteria
b. algae
c. trees
d. photosynthetic bacteria
____ 58. Corn planted in a field that has been previously planted with legumes and then plowed under is likely to be
a. less productive because legumes remove phosphorus from the soil.
b. more productive because bacteria living on the roots of legumes fix nitrogen in the soil.
c. more productive because nitrogen-fixing bacteria help to keep away pests.
d. less productive because the legumes have already taken all the nitrogen, carbon, and
phosphorus from the soil.
____ 59. The total amount of living tissue within a given trophic level is called the
a. organic mass.
b. trophic mass.
c. energy mass.
d. biomass.
____ 60. What is an ecological model of the relationships that form a network of complex feeding interactions among
organisms in a community from producers to decomposers?
a. food web
b. ecosystem
c. food chain
d. population
Figure 3–2
____ 61. What goes in Box 5 of the food web in Figure 3–2?
a. herbivores
b. scavengers
c. carnivores
d. decomposers
____ 62. What are the three kinds of ecological pyramids?
a. producer, consumer, and decomposer
b. energy, nutrient, and trophic
c. energy, biomass, and numbers
d. biotic, abiotic, and nutrient
____ 63. Only 10 percent of the energy stored in an organism can be passed on to the next trophic level. Of the
remaining energy, some is used for the organism’s life processes, and the rest is
a. used in reproduction.
b. stored as body tissue.
c. stored as fat.
d. eliminated as heat.
____ 64. A word that means the same thing as consumer is
a. producer.
b. autotroph.
c. heterotroph.
d. carbohydrate.
____ 65. Matter can recycle through the biosphere because
a. matter does not change into new compounds.
b. matter is assembled into chemical compounds.
c. biological systems do not use up matter, they transform it.
d. biological systems use only carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen.
____ 66. The repeated movement of water between Earth’s surface and the atmosphere is called
a. the water cycle.
b. the condensation cycle.
c. precipitation.
d. evaporation.
Figure 3–3
____ 67. What is happening to water at D in Figure 3–3?
a. Water is falling to the ground as precipitation.
b. Water is evaporating from the ocean.
c. Water is being taken up by plants through transpiration.
d. Water is seeping into the ground to become groundwater.
____ 68. Which part of Figure 3–3 shows transpiration?
a. A on the left
b. B on the left
c. A on the right
d. B on the right
____ 69. Carbon cycles through the biosphere in all of the following processes EXCEPT
a. photosynthesis.
b. transpiration.
c. burning of fossil fuels.
d. decomposition of plants and animals.
____ 70. Which part of the water cycle is a biological process?
a. transpiration
b. runoff
c. precipitation
d. condensation
____ 71. Nitrogen fixation is carried out primarily by
a. humans.
b. plants.
c. bacteria.
d. consumers.
____ 72. Which of the following has a direct role in the nitrogen cycle?
a. bacteria
b. legumes
c. decomposers
d. all of the above
____ 73. Organisms need nutrients in order to
a. utilize hydrogen and oxygen.
b. carry out essential life functions.
c. recycle chemical compounds.
d. carry out nitrogen fixation.
____ 74. The movements of energy and nutrients through living systems are different because
a. energy flows in one direction, and nutrients recycle.
b. energy is limited in the biosphere, and nutrients are always available.
c. nutrients flow in one direction, and energy recycles.
d. energy forms chemical compounds, and nutrients are lost as heat.
____ 75. Why can’t the producers in some ecosystems make an unlimited supply of organic material?
a. Temperatures are too hot for photosynthesis.
b. Too many carnivores eat the producers.
c. Energy needed to make organic material is lost as heat.
d. One or more nutrients are in short supply.
____ 76. Animals that get energy by eating the carcasses of other animals that have been killed by predators or have
died of natural causes are called
a. scavengers.
b. omnivores.
c. heterotrophs.
d. detritivores.
____ 77. Phosphorus is very important for living things because living organisms need phosphorus to
a. make carbohydrates.
b. form DNA and RNA.
c. perform transpiration.
d. cycle energy.
____ 78. Each of the following is an abiotic factor in the environment EXCEPT
a. plant life.
b. soil type.
c. rainfall.
d. temperature.
____ 79. Which is a biotic factor that affects the size of a population in a specific ecosystem?
a. average temperature of the ecosystem
b. type of soil in the ecosystem
c. number and kinds of predators in the ecosystem
d. concentration of oxygen in the ecosystem
____ 80. Which is an example of how biotic and abiotic factors interact?
a. Sunlight increases the temperature of pond water.
b. Water and soil mix together to make mud.
c. Tree roots split apart rocks in the ground.
d. Humidity in the air forms fog in a valley.
____ 81. What is at the base of all ecological pyramids?
a. consumers
b. decomposers
c. producers
d. scavengers
Figure 3–4
____ 82. Which of the following is a food chain in the food web shown in Figure 3–4?
a. tree, rabbit, hawk, snake
b. grass, grasshopper, snake, hawk
c. grass, caterpillar, robin, hawk
d. tree, deer, mountain lion, fox
____ 83. The average conditions of the atmosphere in a particular area are referred to as the area’s
a. weather.
b. latitude.
c. ecosystem.
d. climate.
____ 84. How does an area’s weather differ from the area’s climate?
a. Weather involves temperature and precipitation and climate involves only temperature.
b. An area’s weather depends on where it is located on Earth and the area’s climate does not.
c. An area’s weather does not change very much and an area’s climate changes many times.
d. Weather is the area’s day-to-day conditions and climate is the area’s average conditions.
____ 85. All of the following factors contribute to Earth’s climate EXCEPT
a. latitude.
b. longitude.
c. transport of heat by winds.
d. shape and elevation of landmasses.
____ 86. The greenhouse effect is
a. something that has only occurred for the last 50 years.
b. a natural phenomenon that maintains Earth’s temperature range.
c. the result of the differences in the angle of the sun’s rays.
d. an unnatural phenomenon that causes heat energy to be radiated back into the atmosphere.
____ 87. Earth has three main climate zones because of the differences in latitude and, thus,
a. amount of precipitation received.
b. distribution of sunlight.
c. ocean currents.
d. prevailing winds.
____ 88. The tendency for warm air to rise and cool air to sink results in
a. global wind patterns.
b. ocean upwelling.
c. the seasons.
d. regional precipitation.
____ 89. No two species can occupy the same niche in the same habitat at the same time
a. because of the interactions that shape the ecosystem.
b. unless the species require different abiotic factors.
c. because of the competitive exclusion principle.
d. unless the species require different biotic factors.
____ 90. An interaction in which an animal feeds on plants is called
a. carnivory.
b. herbivory.
c. predation.
d. symbiosis.
Figure 4–1
____ 91. What would happen if the population of the bird species shown in the ecosystem in Figure 4–1 were to
suddenly decrease?
a. The grass population would increase.
b. The fish population would increase.
c. The fish would occupy the birds’ niche.
d. The grass and fish would compete for resources.
____ 92. A wolf pack hunts, kills, and feeds on a moose. In this interaction, the wolves are
a. hosts.
b. prey.
c. mutualists.
d. predators.
____ 93. A symbiotic relationship in which one organism is harmed and the other benefits is
a. mutualism.
b. parasitism.
c. commensalism.
d. predation.
____ 94. Primary succession would most likely occur after
a. a forest fire.
b. a lava flow.
c. farm land is abandoned.
d. a severe storm.
____ 95. What is one difference between primary and secondary succession?
a. Primary succession is rapid and secondary succession is slow.
b. Secondary succession begins on soil and primary succession begins on newly exposed
surfaces.
c. Primary succession modifies the environment and secondary succession does not.
d. Secondary succession begins with lichens and primary succession begins with trees.
____ 96. Which of the following occurs during the ecological succession of an ecosystem?
a. An ecosystem reaches a final, unchanging stage.
b. Animals move out of the ecosystem until succession is complete.
c. Living organisms modify their environment a little at a time.
d. Parts of communities split off to form new communities.
____ 97. Which is a factor that could interrupt the progress of succession?
a. colonization of surfaces by lichens
b. different animals appearing at each stage
c. another natural disturbance
d. long-term fluctuations in climate
Figure 4–2
____ 98. Figure 4–2 shows succession in an ecosystem. What organisms are found in the climax community for this
ecosystem?
a. lichens and moss
b. trees and shrubs
c. weeds and grasses
d. volcanoes and soil
____ 99. A tropical rain forest may not return to its original climax community after which of the following
disturbances?
a. burning of a forest fire
b. clearing and farming
c. volcanic eruption
d. flooding after a hurricane
____ 100. Climate is a global factor that produces
a. Earth’s unique ocean and atmosphere.
b. the shape and elevation of landmasses.
c. a wide range of environmental conditions that shape communities.
d. solar energy within the atmosphere.
____ 101. Which biome is characterized by very low temperatures, little precipitation, and permafrost?
a. desert
b. temperate forest
c. tundra
d. tropical dry forest
____ 102. Which two biomes have the least precipitation?
a. tropical rain forest and temperate grassland
b. tropical savanna and tropical dry forest
c. tundra and desert
d. boreal forest and temperate woodland and shrubland
____ 103. Which animal would be found in the biome that has cold to moderate winters, warm summers, and fertile
soils; and is home to a variety of vegetation, such as coniferous trees, broadleaf deciduous trees, flowering
shrubs, and ferns?
a. whitetail deer
b. polar bear
c. iguana
d. caribou
____ 104. Which landforms are not classified into a major biome?
a. prairies
b. mountain ranges
c. coastlines
d. islands
____ 105. The North Pole and the South Poles are
a. classified as tundra biomes.
b. not home to any animals.
c. not classified into major biomes.
d. part of aquatic ecosystems.
____ 106. Aquatic organisms are affected by all of the following EXCEPT
a. depth and flow of the water.
b. temperature of the water.
c. distance from another body of water.
d. nutrients in the water.
____ 107. The nutrient availability of aquatic ecosystems is the
a. amount of nitrogen, oxygen, and other elements dissolved in the water.
b. number of other organisms present in the water.
c. amount of rainfall the water receives.
d. number of different animal species living in the water.
____ 108. Are you likely to find zooplankton in the aphotic, benthic zone of an ocean?
a. Yes. Zooplankton are chemosynthetic autotrophs.
b. Yes. Zooplankton can photosynthesize in the dark.
c. No. Zooplankton feed on phytoplankton and phytoplankton cannot photosynthesize in the
dark.
d. No. Zooplankton cannot chemosynthesize in the dark without the presence of oxygen in
the water.
____ 109. Which of the following is NOT a freshwater ecosystem?
a. a river
b. a lake
c. an estuary
d. a stream
____ 110. Which is one way a freshwater wetland differs from a lake or pond?
a. Water flows in a lake or pond but never flows in a wetland.
b. Wetlands are nesting areas for birds, but lakes and ponds are not.
c. Water does not always cover a wetland as it does a lake or pond.
d. Wetlands are salty, but lakes and ponds are fresh.
____ 111. A wetland that contains a mixture of fresh water and salt water is called
a. an estuary.
b. a stream.
c. a river.
d. a pond.
____ 112. Which of the following is a factor that makes estuaries unique?
a. They contain both phytoplankton and zooplankton.
b. They are very deep and dark but contain a lot of producers.
c. They are found in mountain ranges and are formed by melting snow.
d. They have a lot of biomass but not a large variety of species.
____ 113. The photic zone
a. extends to the bottom of the open ocean.
b. extends to a depth of about 200 meters.
c. is deep, cold, and permanently dark.
d. is where chemosynthetic bacteria are the producers.
____ 114. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the open ocean?
a. The open ocean has low levels of nutrients.
b. Organisms in the deep ocean are exposed to frigid temperatures and total darkness.
c. The open ocean begins at the low-tide mark and extends to the end of the continental shelf.
d. Most of the photosynthetic activity on Earth occurs in the open ocean within the photic
zone.
____ 115. Which organism lives where it is sometimes submerged and routinely exposed to air, heat, battering waves,
and strong currents?
a. barnacle
b. squid
c. dolphin
d. whale
____ 116. One of the main characteristics of a population is its
a. change over time.
b. geographic range.
c. dynamics.
d. habitat.
____ 117. There are 150 Saguaro cactus plants per square kilometer in a certain area of Arizona desert. To which
population characteristic does this information refer?
a. growth rate
b. geographic range
c. age structure
d. population density
____ 118. What does the range of a population tell you that density does not?
a. the number that live in an area
b. the areas inhabited by a population
c. the births per unit area
d. the deaths per unit area
____ 119. A small farming community in Texas covers 14 square kilometers. There are 420 individuals who live within
the town limits. What is the population density of this community?
a. 0.03 individuals per square kilometer
b. 53 individuals per square kilometer
c. 30 individuals per square kilometer
d. 10.24 individuals per square kilometer
____ 120. Which of the following tells you population density?
a. the number of births per year
b. the number of frogs in a pond
c. the number of deaths per year
d. the number of bacteria per square millimeter
____ 121. The movement of organisms into a range is called
a. immigration.
b. emigration.
c. population shift.
d. carrying capacity.
____ 122. Which of the following describes a population as its size decreases?
a. The birthrate and the death rate remain the same.
b. The death rate becomes lower than the birthrate.
c. The death rate stays the same and the birthrate increases.
d. The death rate becomes higher than the birthrate.
____ 123. If immigration and emigration numbers remain equal, which is the most important contributing factor to a
slowed growth rate?
a. increased birthrate
b. constant death rate
c. decreased birthrate
d. constant birthrate
____ 124. Which are two ways a population can decrease in size?
a. immigration and emigration
b. increased death rate and immigration
c. decreased birthrate and emigration
d. emigration and increased birthrate
Figure 5–1
____ 125. The graph in Figure 5–1 shows the growth of a bacterial population. Which of the following correctly
describes the growth curve?
a. logistic
b. limiting
c. demographic
d. exponential
____ 126. Suppose that a species of toads is introduced into a new environment in an attempt to reduce the population of
insects. The toad has no natural predators in the new environment. The toad population would most likely
a. increase exponentially.
b. increase logistically.
c. decrease rapidly and die out.
d. remain the same.
____ 127. Which of the following graphs is a graph showing exponential growth?
a.
b.
c.
d.
____ 128. During some kinds of population growth, the size of each generation of offspring is larger than the generation
before it. So, as the population gets larger, it grows more quickly. This situation is called
a. logistic growth.
b. growth density.
c. exponential growth.
d. multiple growth.
____ 129. Which factor might NOT contribute to an exponential growth rate in a given population?
a. lower death rates
b. higher birthrates
c. less competition
d. reduced resources
____ 130. The various growth phases through which most populations go are represented on
a. a logistic growth curve.
b. an exponential growth curve.
c. a normal curve.
d. a population curve.
____ 131. As resources in a population become less available, the population
a. declines rapidly.
b. increases slowly.
c. reaches carrying capacity.
d. enters a phase of exponential growth.
____ 132. In a logistic growth curve, exponential growth is the phase in which the population
a. reaches carrying capacity.
b. grows quickly.
c. growth begins to slow down.
d. growth stops.
____ 133. When the exponential phase of a logistic growth curve of a population ceases,
a. the size of the population drops.
b. the size of the population stays the same.
c. population growth begins to slow down.
d. population growth begins to speed up.
____ 134. How are Phase 1 and Phase 2 of logistic growth similar?
a. A population is increasing, moving toward its carrying capacity during both phases.
b. A population is at its carrying capacity during both phases.
c. The death rate is higher than the birth rate during both phases.
d. The emigration rate is higher than the immigration rate during both phases.
____ 135. If a population grows larger than the carrying capacity of the environment, the
a. death rate may rise.
b. birthrate may rise.
c. death rate must fall.
d. birthrate must fall.
Figure 5–2
____ 136. Using Figure 5–2, what is the most likely cause of the decrease in moose population immediately after 1995?
a. Poisonous plants killed off many moose.
b. Many moose reached old age and died.
c. Overcrowding caused competition in the moose population.
d. A decrease in predators caused competition in the moose population.
____ 137. Each of the following is a density-dependent limiting factor EXCEPT
a. competition.
b. temperature.
c. crowding.
d. disease.
____ 138. Which would be least likely to be affected by a density-dependent limiting factor?
a. a small, scattered population
b. a population with a high birthrate
c. a large, dense population
d. a population with a high immigration rate
____ 139. Which density-dependent factors other than the predator/prey relationship affected the populations of moose
and wolves on Isle Royale?
a. extreme temperatures for the moose and flooding for the wolves
b. parasitic wasps for the wolves and clear-cut forest for the moose
c. a hurricane followed by drought for both moose and wolves
d. food availability for the moose and disease for the wolf
____ 140. A disease resulting in the deaths of one third of a dense population of bats in a cave would be a
a. density-dependent limiting factor.
b. result of exponential growth.
c. density-independent limiting factor.
d. nutrient-limiting factor.
____ 141. Which of the following is a density-independent limiting factor?
a. earthquake
b. disease
c. emigration
d. parasitism
____ 142. Which of the following is a density-independent limiting factor?
a. a struggle for food, water, space, or sunlight
b. predator/prey relationships
c. the eruption of a volcano
d. parasitism and disease
____ 143. After a natural disaster such as a hurricane or a drought, a population
a. can thrive and increase.
b. can be mostly killed off.
c. will experience exponential growth.
d. will reach its carrying capacity.
Figure 5–3
____ 144. The graph in Figure 5–3 shows the changes in a mosquito population. What caused the changes seen in the
graph?
a. a reduction in resources
b. a increase in predation.
c. a density-independent limiting factor
d. a density-dependent limiting factor
____ 145. It is difficult to observe examples of completely density-independent limiting factors because densityindependent limiting factors
a. strike only dense populations.
b. often have a greater effect on denser populations.
c. usually do not have any effect on populations.
d. usually affect only a small part of a habitat.
____ 146. Demography is the scientific study of
a. parasitism and disease.
b. modernized countries.
c. human populations.
d. none of the above
____ 147. Demographic transition is change from high birthrates and high death rates to
a. exponential growth.
b. low birthrates and low death rates.
c. low birthrates and high death rates.
d. indefinite growth.
____ 148. The human population experienced exponential growth after
a. agriculture began.
b. plowing and irrigation began.
c. the bubonic plague began.
d. the Industrial Revolution began.
____ 149. The anticipated human population by the year 2050 is about
a. 7.8 billion.
b. 9 billion.
c. 9 trillion.
d. 78 billion.
____ 150. In Rwanda, there are more young children than teenagers, and more teenagers than adults. This age structure
indicates a population that
a. has stopped growing.
b. will double in 30 years.
c. has a steady growth rate.
d. will decrease in 30 years.
Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
____ 151. An important goal of a scientist is to use evidence to learn about the natural world.
_________________________
____ 152. Scientists usually believe ideas that are supported by evidence. _________________________
____ 153. “The bird has brown spots on its wings” is an example of an inference. _________________________
____ 154. For a hypothesis to have value, it must be testable. _________________________
____ 155. The scientific attitude of skepticism helps scientists come up with good experiments to test hypotheses.
_________________________
____ 156. Scientists who have strong moral beliefs about the subject that they study may show bias in the way they
interpret their data. _________________________
____ 157. Most plants and animals reproduce asexually. _________________________
____ 158. The smallest units in living things that are considered to be alive are organisms.
_________________________
____ 159. All forms of life are connected to each other in a biosphere, which means a “living planet.”
_________________________
____ 160. Paleontologists study dinosaurs and other ancient life. _________________________
____ 161. Biologists study life on all levels from molecules to the entire planet.
_________________________________
____ 162. The basic unit of matter is the molecule. _________________________
____ 163. A substance made up of only one kind of atom is an element. _________________________
____ 164. The isotope oxygen-18 has 18 protons. _________________________
____ 165. Scientists show the composition of compounds by a kind of shorthand known as a chemical formula.
____________________
____ 166. When atoms share six electrons, they are joined by a double bond. _________________________
____ 167. When sugar is dissolved in water, the sugar and water are chemically combined.
_________________________
____ 168. Buffers are weak acids or bases that can react with strong acids or bases to prevent sudden changes in pH.
_________________________
____ 169. The molecules of life are all carbon-based. _________________________
____ 170. Carbon-carbon bonds can be single, double, or triple ionic bonds. _________________________
____ 171. The chemical reaction of
and
is irreversible. _________________________
____ 172. Proteins that speed up the rate of reactions in living things are substrates. _________________________
____ 173. Ecologists use tools such as binoculars and microscopes to model changes in the environment.
_________________________
____ 174. Ecologists can make predictions using ecological models. _________________________
____ 175. Clouds are formed in the sky when water evaporates. _________________________
____ 176. Animals that feed on plants are called producers. _________________________
____ 177. The passage of energy from one organism to another according to a particular feeding sequence is called a
food chain. _________________________
____ 178. Only about 10 percent of the energy in a trophic level is available to organisms at the next trophic level.
_________________________
____ 179. Scientists classify the nitrogen, carbon, phosphorus, and water cycles as biogeochemical cycles.
_________________________
____ 180. Aquatic ecosystems can receive a large input of a limiting nutrient from the runoff from heavily fertilized
fields. _________________________
____ 181. A lake that is protected from receiving the runoff from a cultivated field is more likely to remain a healthy
ecosystem. _________________________
____ 182. Seawater, sand on a beach, pebbles in the sand, and broken seashells are all examples of abiotic factors at a
seashore. ___________________________
____ 183. An organism’s niche includes the way the organism gets what it needs to survive and reproduce.
_________________________
____ 184. If too many herbivores live in a community, the predator population will decrease rapidly.
_________________________
____ 185. A symbiotic relationship between organisms in which one species benefits and the other is neither helped nor
harmed is mutualism. ______________________________
____ 186. A series of more-or-less predictable changes that occur in a community over time is ecological succession.
_________________________
____ 187. The temperate forest biome is typically warmer and has more rainfall than the boreal forest biome.
_________________________
____ 188. The tropical rain forest is characterized by a wet season and a dry season. _________________________
____ 189. The depth of the water in an aquatic ecosystem determines the amount of oxygen that living things receive
there. ____________________
____ 190. Mangroves are salt-tolerant trees that are commonly found in the open ocean. _________________________
____ 191. The zones of the marine ecosystem are determined by distance from shore and depth.
_________________________
____ 192. The number of individuals per unit area is a population’s growth rate. _________________________
____ 193. When you graph a population’s exponential growth over time, you will have an S-shaped graph.
_________________________
____ 194. The exponential model of population growth accounts for the influence of carrying capacity.
_________________________
____ 195. One of the best-known mechanisms of population control is the parasite-host relationship.
_________________________
____ 196. Resource shortages triggered by increasing population size are density-independent limiting factors.
_________________________
____ 197. Some human activities, such as damming rivers, are density-independent limiting factors.
_________________________
____ 198. The human population grew slowly from the beginning of human existence, and then began to grow
exponentially during the second half of the twentieth century. _________________________
____ 199. The population of a country whose age structure has many more children than people over 40 years of age
will probably decrease rapidly in the future. _________________________
____ 200. An indication that a country has completed the demographic transition is a low birthrate and a low death rate.
_________________________
Completion
Complete each statement.
201. Scientists try to use explanations of the natural world to understand patterns and make
____________________ about natural events.
202. A person who asks a lot of questions about the natural world is showing the scientific attitude of
_________________________.
203. In science, a theory is a well-tested explanation that explains a lot of ____________________.
204. Charles Darwin’s ideas about change over time have been well tested by other scientists and is now
considered to be a ____________________.
205. The combination of chemical reactions through which an organism builds up or breaks down materials as it
carries out its life processes is called ____________________.
206. Inside all living things, chemical reactions happen that allow the organisms to grow and develop. Organisms
need to take in ____________________ to fuel these reactions.
207. The field of biology that works on rewriting and editing the genetic code is ____________________.
208. A revised version of the original ____________________ system is called SI, or the International System of
Units.
209. A mass of 3000 g is equal to ____________________ kg.
210. The subatomic particles that make up atoms are protons, neutrons, and ____________________.
211. Of the three subatomic particles, ___________ are most involved in forming chemical bonds.
212. The elements oxygen and hydrogen can combine explosively to form __________.
213. A chemical bond formed by the transfer of electrons is a(an) ____________________ bond.
214. Water’s ____________________ allows it to dissolve compounds such as table salt (NaCl).
215. The stomach produces a(an) ____________________ that lowers the pH and helps digest food.
216. The pH scale is a measurement system that indicates the concentration of ____________________ in
solution.
217. Complex carbohydrates are to monosaccharides as polymers are to ____________________.
218. The elements or compounds that come out of a chemical reaction are ____________________.
219. Chemical reactions that ____________________ energy will not occur without a source of energy.
220. The energy need to start a chemical reaction is called the ____________________.
221. The name of an enzyme usually ends in ____________________.
222. The study of interactions among organisms and between organisms and their physical surroundings is called
____________________.
Figure 3–5
223. In the water cycle shown in Figure 3–5, the process of _________________________ occurs between
transpiration and precipitation.
224. The water shown flowing over land in Figure 3–5 is called ____________________.
225. The use of radio tags, satellites, and microscopes are all techniques employed in the basic ecological research
method of ____________________.
226. Autotrophs capture energy from sunlight or ____________________ to produce food.
227. Plant-eating animals such as cows are called ____________________.
228. Organisms that break down organic matter and return it to the environment are called
____________________.
Figure 3–1
229. In Figure 3–1, small fishes, squid, and sharks are ____________________, but zooplankton are not.
230. Suppose extra nitrogen were added to the ecosystem in which the organisms in Figure 3–1 live. The
____________________ population would increase almost immediately.
231. Living organisms require nitrogen to make nitrogen-containing compounds, such as ____________________
and nucleic acids.
232. Human activities such as mining and the production and application of fertilizer are part of the
____________________ cycle.
233. Organisms within an ecosystem are ____________________ factors in that ecosystem.
234. Average year-after-year conditions are to climate as day-to-day atmospheric conditions are to
_________________.
235. Over time, some plants growing in an area are crowded out by other plants. The new plants use up water and
nutrients needed by the previous plants. The disappearance of the first plants is due to
______________________________.
236. Predator is to prey as herbivore is to ____________________.
237. Regrowth of grasses, ferns, wildflowers, and saplings after a forest fire is an example of _______________
succession.
238. Abandoned farmland in North America usually returns to its original ____________________.
239. Mild, moist air from the Pacific Ocean and giant redwood trees characterize the
______________________________.
240. Mountain ranges are not usually classified into biomes because conditions vary by ____________________.
241. The ____________________ of an aquatic habitat depends partly on its distance from the equator and partly
on its depth.
242. The water levels in estuaries change throughout the day because they are affected by ocean
____________________.
243. Asian elephants are found in India, Cambodia, Thailand, Vietnam, and Laos; this information describes the
____________________ of the Asian elephant population.
244. Emigration can cause a population to ____________________ in size.
245. Without any limiting factors, a population may grow ____________________.
246. The rise-and-fall cycle of a predator-prey relationship is a density-____________________ relationship.
247. Unusual weather and natural disasters are examples of density-____________________ limiting factors.
248. The change in growth rate that results from the change in birthrates and death rates is known as a
______________________________.
249. During early human history, the growth rate was low because the birthrate was high and the death rate was
____________________.
250. Scientists who study human populations and predict the growth rate of the world and of individual countries
study the science of ____________________.