Download 1st Nine Weeks Study Guide II

3rd 9 Weeks Study Guide
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. A species is a group of similar organisms that
a. can mate with each other and produce fertile offspring.
b. can live together on an island.
c. can migrate to an island from the mainland.
d. all have exactly the same traits.
____
2. A trait that helps an organism survive and reproduce is called a(n)
a. mutation.
b. selection.
c. adaptation.
d. variation.
____
3. Consumers that eat both plants and animals are called
a. omnivores.
b. herbivores.
c. carnivores.
d. scavengers.
____
4. Which of these consumers is a herbivore?
a. lion
b. deer
c. spider
d. snake
____
5. The many overlapping food chains in an ecosystem make up a(n)
a. food web.
b. niche.
c. energy pyramid.
d. feeding level.
____
6. In an energy pyramid, which level has the most available energy?
a. producer level
b. first-level consumer level
c. second-level consumer level
d. third-level consumer level
____
7. A group of land ecosystems with similar climates and organisms is called a(n)
a. energy pyramid.
b. climate.
c. biome.
d. food web.
____
8. Which biome is extremely cold and dry?
a. desert
b. tundra
c. grassland
d. mountains
____
9. Which biome receives less than 25 centimeters of rain per year?
a. desert
b. grassland
c. temperate rain forest
d. tropical rain forest
____ 10. What do producers release as a result of photosynthesis?
a. hydrogen
b. nitrogen
c. oxygen
d. carbon dioxide
____ 11. What area(s) are not part of any major biome?
a. tundras
b. deserts
c. grasslands
d. mountains and ice
____ 12. What did Gregor Mendel do to study different characteristics in his genetics experiments?
a. He studied only asexual plants.
b. He studied only tall and short pea plants.
c. He cross-pollinated plants.
d. He cross-pollinated both plants and animals.
____ 13. In Mendel’s experiments, what proportion of the plants in the F2 generation had a trait that had been absent in
the F1 generation?
a. none
b. one fourth
c. half
d. three fourths
____ 14. Scientists call an organism that has two different alleles for a trait a
a. hybrid.
b. trait.
c. purebred.
d. factor.
____ 15. What does the notation TT mean to geneticists?
a. two dominant alleles
b. heterozygous alleles
c. at least one dominant allele
d. one dominant and one recessive allele
____ 16. What does the notation Tt mean to geneticists?
a. two dominant alleles
b. two recessive alleles
c. homozygous alleles
d. one dominant allele and one recessive allele
____ 17. What is probability?
a. the actual results from a series of events
b. a number that describes how likely it is that an event will occur
c. the way the results of one event affect the next event
d. the number of times a coin lands heads up
____ 18. What does a Punnett square show?
a. all the possible outcomes of a genetic cross
b. only the dominant alleles in a genetic cross
c. only the recessive alleles in a genetic cross
d. all of Mendel’s discoveries about genetic crosses
____ 19. If a homozygous black guinea pig (BB) is crossed with a homozygous white guinea pig (bb), what is the
probability that an offspring will have black fur?
a. 25 percent
b. 50 percent
c. 75 percent
d. 100 percent
____ 20. An organism’s physical appearance is its
a. genotype.
b. phenotype.
c. codominance.
d. heterozygous.
____ 21. A purebred chicken with white feathers is crossed with a purebred chicken that has black feathers. Each of
their offspring has both black and white feathers. Why does this happen?
a. Both alleles for feather color are dominant.
b. Both alleles for feather color are recessive.
c. The alleles for feather color are neither dominant nor recessive.
d. Several alleles work together to determine the trait.
____ 22. Which term refers to physical characteristics that are studied in genetics?
a. traits
b. offspring
c. generations
d. hybrids
____ 23. The different forms of a gene are called
a. alleles.
b. factors.
c. masks.
d. traits.
____ 24. Where does protein synthesis take place?
a. in the ribosomes in the nucleus of the cell
b. on the ribosomes in the cytoplasm of the cell
c. in the chromosomes in the nucleus of the cell
d. on the chromosomes in the cytoplasm of the cell
____ 25. An organism’s genotype is its
a. genetic makeup.
b. feather color.
c. physical appearance.
d. stem height.
____ 26. Which of the following is a biotic factor in the prairie ecosystem?
a. water
b. sunlight
c. soil
d. grass
____ 27. The place where an organism lives and that provides the things the organism needs is called its
a. habitat.
b. population.
c. species.
d. community.
____ 28. The smallest unit of ecological organization is a single
a. population.
b. community.
c. organism.
d. ecosystem.
____ 29. Which of the following is an example of a population?
a. the cats and dogs in your neighborhood
b. the bushes and grass in a park
c. the rocks in a rock collection
d. the gray wolves in a forest
____ 30. An organism’s particular role in its habitat, or how it makes its living, is called its
a. carrying capacity.
b. ecosystem.
c. competition.
d. niche.
____ 31. The behaviors and physical characteristics of species that allow them to live successfully in their environment
are called
a. habitats.
b. limiting factors.
c. biotic factors.
d. adaptations.
____ 32. The struggle between organisms to survive in a habitat with limited resources is called
a. competition.
b. predation.
c. symbiosis.
d. parasitism.
____ 33. When a jellyfish paralyzes a tiny fish with its poisonous tentacles, the fish is the
a. predator.
b. prey.
c. host.
d. parasite.
____ 34. A close relationship between two species that benefits at least one of the species is called
a. natural selection.
b. symbiosis.
c. adaptation.
d. competition.
____ 35. All of the following are examples of limiting factors EXCEPT
a. food.
b. soil.
c. space.
d. weather conditions.
____ 36. An organism’s habitat must provide all of the following EXCEPT
a. food.
b. water.
c. predators.
d. shelter.
____ 37. The nonliving parts of an ecosystem are called
a. populations.
b. organisms.
c. biotic factors.
d. abiotic factors.
____ 38. To carry out photosynthesis, algae and plants use the abiotic factors sunlight, carbon dioxide, and
a. soil.
b. salt.
c. water.
d. bacteria.
____ 39. Which of the following describes an interaction in which one organism kills and eats another?
a. competition
b. symbiosis
c. predation
d. mutualism
____ 40. All the different populations that live together in an area make up a(n)
a. organism.
b. community.
c. species.
d. ecosystem.
____ 41. The study of how things interact with each other and with their environment is called
a. ecology.
b. photosynthesis.
c. community.
d. biotic studies.
____ 42. When a flea is living on a dog, the dog is the
a. parasite.
b. host.
c. predator.
d. prey.
____ 43. Mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism are the three types of
a. symbiotic relationships.
b. predation.
c. competition.
d. prey adaptations.
____ 44. A hawk building its nest on an arm of a saguaro cactus is an example of
a. commensalism.
b. mutualism.
c. parasitism.
d. predation.
____ 45. Why are viruses like parasites?
a. They harm the cells they enter.
b. They multiply.
c. They use their own energy to develop.
d. They make their own food.
____ 46. A virus’s proteins are important because they
a. contain genetic material.
b. make new virus particles.
c. provide energy for the virus.
d. help the virus attach to its host.
____ 47. Which shape describes some bacterial cells?
a. cube-shaped
b. bullet-shaped
c. spiral
d. robotlike
____ 48. Which of the following is found in the cytoplasm of bacterial cells?
a. cell membrane
b. nucleus
c. genetic material
d. flagella
____ 49. What process results in genetically different bacteria?
a. binary fission
b. respiration
c. conjugation
d. asexual reproduction
____ 50. How does a vaccine work?
a. It activates the body’s natural defenses.
b. It weakens the cell walls of bacteria, causing the cells to burst.
c. It treats the symptoms of an infection.
d. It attacks antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
____ 51. Viruses are considered to be nonliving because they
a. cannot multiply.
b. use energy to grow.
c. are smaller than bacteria.
d. do not show all the characteristics of life.
____ 52. The process of breaking down food to release its energy is called
a. conjugation.
b. respiration.
c. binary fission.
d. nutrition.
____ 53. What directly provides energy for a virus?
a. food
b. its host
c. the sun
d. a parasite
____ 54. A hidden virus
a. cannot attach to a host cell.
b. becomes part of the host cell’s genetic material.
c. immediately takes over the cell’s functions.
d. attaches to but does not enter the cell.
____ 55. Which of the following structures are always found in bacterial cells?
a. nuclei
b. ribosomes
c. flagella
d. coats
Short Answer
Use the diagram to answer each question.
56. Which trait—white flowers or purple flowers—is controlled by a dominant allele? Which is controlled by a
recessive allele? How do you know?
57. In which generation are the parents purebred? In which generation are they hybrids?
58. In the F1 generation, what is the genotype of the offspring? What is their phenotype?
59. In the F2 generation, what percent of the offspring have purple flowers? What is the genotype of the purpleflowered offspring?
60. In the F2 generation, what percent of the offspring have white flowers? What are the genotypes of the whiteflowered offspring?
61. Suppose one of the parents of the F2 generation had been ww instead of Ww. What percent of the offspring
would have purple flowers? What percent would have white flowers?
Use the diagram to answer each question.
62. Describe one of the prairie dog’s adaptations and how it helps the prairie dog to survive.
63. What level of ecological organization do all of the owls in a certain area represent?
64. Is the prairie soil a biotic factor or an abiotic factor? Explain your answer.
65. Describe three factors that could limit the growth of the prairie dog population.