Download STERNGRR 1. During strenuous exercise, body temperature

STERNGRR
1. During strenuous exercise, body temperature increases. The body responds to the increase in temperature by
sweating, which helps to reduce the body temperature. Which is demonstrated in this situation?
A. excretion
B. metabolism
C. homeostasis
D. synthesis
2. In humans, glucose is kept in balance in the bloodstream by insulin. Which concept does this best illustrate?
A. adaptation
B. homeostasis
C. metabolism
D. organization
3. Which process includes the other three?
A. excretion
B. nutrition
C. digestion
D. Metabolism
4. When a person exercises, his or her heart rate increases. This is an example of which characteristic of life?
A. growth
B. homeostasis
C. development
D. reproduction
5. What is the characteristic of life which enables cells to produce more individuals like themselves?
A. growth
B. development
C. responsiveness
D. reproduction
6.
What is a characteristic of all organisms?
A. They are composed of one or more cells.
C. They breathe oxygen.
B. They produce their own food.
D. They move from place to place.
7. The ability to grow in size is a characteristic of living organism. Although an icicle may grow in size over time,
it is considered nonliving because there is
A. An increase in matter, but no increase in the number of icicles
B. An interaction between the icicle and the environment
C. No way for the icicle to move away from the heat
D. No presence of cells
Chemistry
1.
Why would a distance runner consume carbohydrates instead of proteins before a race?
A. Carbohydrates provide insulation for heat
B. Carbohydrates provide structure for tissues
C. Carbohydrates provide genetic material for muscle cells
D. Carbohydrates provide energy for endurance
2. A runner is competing in a 10 km track meet and just before completing the race, the runner is nearly out of
breath and the energy needed to finish the race. Which cell structure is most affected by this lack of energy?
A. Nucleus
B. ribosomes
C. mitochondrion
D. plasma membrane
3. What are the subunits of DNA and their function?
A. nucleotides that store information
B. monosaccharides that provide quick energy for the cell
C. lipids that store energy and provide insulation
D. proteins that provide the building blocks for the structural components of organisms
4. Which type of molecule do whales use for energy storage and insulation?
A. DNA
B. glucose
C. fat
D. starch
5. RNA and DNA are which type of organic compound?
A. carbohydrate
B. lipid
C. nucleic acid
D. protein
6. A sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base form the building blocks of which organic compound?
A. carbohydrates
B. lipids
C. nucleic acids
D. proteins
7. Which most directly controls the rate at which food is broken down to release energy?
A. enzymes
B. hormones
C. nucleic acids
D. vitamins
8. What type of organic molecules are enzymes?
A. carbohydrates
B. lipids
C. nucleic acids
D. proteins
9. How do enzymes speed up biological chemical reactions?
A. Enzymes increase the energy required for a reaction to occur
B. Enzymes decrease the energy required for a reaction to occur
C. Enzymes have no affect on the energy required for a reaction to occur
D. Enzymes maintain the energy needed for a reaction to occur
10. Which is represented by Structure X in the diagram to the right?
A. substrate
B. product
C. enzyme
D. complex
11. Which statement describes enzymes?
A. Enzymes are proteins that are reusable in bacteria only.
B. Enzymes are lipids that keep chemical reactions from occurring.
C. Enzymes are proteins that can be destroyed at high temperatures.
D. Enzymes are lipids that break down proteins.
Cells
1. What will most likely be the result if all of the mitochondria are removed from a plant cell?
A. It will be unable to carry out respiration.
B. It will lose water through osmosis.
C. It will break down the ribosomes in the cell.
D. It will be unable to photosynthesize.
2. What process best explains how a nerve cell and a muscle cell can both develop from the same fertilized egg?
A. differentiation
B. natural selection
C. selective breeding
D. genetic engineering
3. This diagram shows a plant cell. Which structure is found in a plant cell but is
absent in an animal cell?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
4. Which best explains why muscle cells are different from blood cells?
A. A mutation occurs during the development of muscle cells but not in blood cells.
B. Different genes are activated in muscle cells than in blood cells.
C. Muscles cells experience different environmental influences than blood
cells.
D. Muscle cells are produced by the brain, but blood cells are produced by the heart.
5. How are prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells similar?
A. Both contain a nucleus.
C. Both contain membrane-bound organelles.
B. Both contain ribosomes.
D. Both contain cell walls.
6. What can be used to distinguish between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?
A. Only eukaryotic cells come from preexisting cells
B. Only prokaryotic cells are the smallest unit of living organisms
C. Only prokaryotic cells contain ribosomes
D. Only eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles
7. Nerve cells and bone cells are specialized cells that descend from the same single cell (fertilized egg). Which
statement best explains how each type of cell results in a different structure with a specialized function?
A. Nerve cells and bone cells begin with the same structure, however, bone cells harden over time
B. Nerve cells and bone cells receive different DNA that determines the structure and function that each
will perform
C. Nerve cells and bone cells receive the same DNA; however, only specific parts of the DNA are activated
in each cell
D. Nerve cells and bone cells receive the same DNA; however, bone cells receive more to make the
protective outer covering
Transport
1.
Which would be the best evidence that a cell is using active transport to move a substance across its cell
membrane?
A. Substances are moving rapidly across the cell membrane.
B. ATP is being rapidly consumed near the cellular membrane.
C. Substances are moving from high to low concentrations.
D. Substances are moving through channels in the cell membrane
2. The concentration of a certain molecule is greater inside the cell than outside the cell. If the cell needs more
of that molecule, what is the best process to move more of this molecule inside the cell?
A. Active transport
B. passive transport
C. diffusion
D. osmosis
3. If energy is needed to move materials into or out of a cell, what is most likely occurring?
A. active transport
B. passive transport
C. osmosis
D. diffusion
4. A freshwater plant is placed in a container of saltwater. What will most likely happen to the cells of the plant?
A. They will swell because water will move into them.
B. They will swell because salt will move into them.
C. They will shrink because water will move out of them.
D. They will shrink because salt will move out of them.
5. The diagram to the right shows the same type of molecule on side A and
side B. Over time, what is the likely result?
A. more molecules will be on Side B than Side A
B. more molecules will be on Side A than Side B
C. equal numbers of molecules will be on Side A and B
D. all of the molecules will move towards the membrane
6. A single-celled organism is placed in freshwater. The contractile vacuole pumps excess water out of the cell.
How does this action help the organism survive?
A. it helps organism maintain a stable internal environment
B. it helps the organism convert energy
C. it helps the organisms communicate with other cells
D. it helps the organism reproduce
Photosynthesis and Cell Respiration
1. How does the process of photosynthesis in plants provide energy for animals?
A. The water and carbon dioxide used in photosynthesis are converted into glucose and ATP for animals.
B. The glucose and ATP used in photosynthesis are converted into water and carbon dioxide for animals.
C. The glucose and carbon dioxide used in photosynthesis are converted into proteins for animals.
D. The oxygen and glucose produced through photosynthesis are converted into lipids for animals.
2. In which way are photosynthesis and cellular respiration different?
A. Cellular respiration stores ATP, while photosynthesis releases ATP.
B. Cellular respiration produces oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen.
C. Photosynthesis releases energy, while cellular respiration stores energy.
D. Photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide, while cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide.
3. Which is the most likely function of a group of cells that contains a high number of chloroplasts?
A. respiration
B. transpiration
C. fermentation
D. photosynthesis
4. There are factors that influence the rate of photosynthesis in plants. Which of the following factors would
most likely increase the rate of photosynthesis?
A. Decrease in carbon dioxide concentration
B. Increase in glucose concentration in the soil
C. Increase in carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere
D. Increase in oxygen concentration in the atmosphere
Aerobic & Anaerobic Respiration
1. How does the amount of energy resulting from fermentation compare with that of aerobic respiration?
A. Aerobic respiration results in less energy.
B. Aerobic respiration results in more energy.
C. Each process results in equal amounts of energy.
D. Each process results in variable amounts of energy.
2. Which statement best compares aerobic and anaerobic respiration?
A. Less ATP is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration.
B. More water is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration.
C. More oxygen is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration.
D. Less lactic acid is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration.
3. Which most accurately describes the difference in ATP production between aerobic respiration and anaerobic
respiration?
A. Aerobic respiration produces more ATP than anaerobic respiration.
B. Anaerobic respiration produces more ATP than aerobic respiration.
C. Only anaerobic respiration produces measurable amounts of ATP.
D. Anaerobic and aerobic respiration produce the same amount of ATP.
4. Which organism is most likely to use anaerobic respiration?
A. bird
B. moss
C. tree
D. yeast
5. The first test tube pictured to the right contains a sugar solution. The scientist shown is adding a solution that
contains a number of living yeast cells. Later, he notices the balloon on the test tube is inflated. Based on your
knowledge of bioenergetic reactions, which of the following is a valid conclusion that the scientist could draw from
his observations?
A. The yeast cells are using the sugar provided to produce O2 through the
process of aerobic respiration.
B. The yeast cells are using the water in the test tube to produce CO 2
through the process of photosynthesis.
C. The yeast cells are using oxygen provided to produce CO2 through the
process of anaerobic respiration.
D. The yeast cells are using the sugar provided to produce CO2 through the
process of anaerobic respiration.
DNA and Protein Synthesis
1.
How does DNA code for proteins in a cell?
A. By creating a new double helix structure
B. By using its phosphate and sugar molecules
C. By adding more hydrogen bonds to its structure
D. By arranging certain nitrogen bases of the cell in a particular order
2. Which factor most affects the order of amino acids in a protein?
A. the DNA located in the nucleus of the cell
B. the cell in which the protein is located
C. the amount of ATP available for the cell’s use
D. the area in a cell where proteins are produced
3. Which statement best describes the relationship that exists among proteins, DNA, and cells?
A. Proteins combine to produce cells, which produce DNA.
B. Proteins are made up of DNA, which determines the cells that are produced.
C. DNA is made up of proteins, which tell a cell how to function.
D. Cells contain DNA, which controls the production of proteins.
4. What are the subunits of DNA and their function?
A. nucleotides that store information
B. monosaccharides that provide quick energy for the cell
C. lipids that store energy and provide insulation
D. proteins that provide the building blocks for the structural components of organisms
5. If a strand of DNA is CTGCAT, what is the sequence of nucleotides in the complementary strand?
A. GACGTA
B. CTGCAT
C. AGTACG
D. GACGUA
6. Which of the following changes in DNA is likely to have the greatest effect on the resulting peptide?
A. in a strand of DNA, one C is changed to a T
B. a “G” is inserted at the beginning of a gene
C. a “G” is inserted at the end of a gene
D. in a strand of DNA, one T is changed to a C
7. A strand of DNA has these bases: AGC CAT GTA TAC
What is the complementary DNA strand?
A. ACG GAT CTA TAG
B. TCG GTA CAT ATG
C. TGC CTA GAT ATC
D. UCG CUA CAU AUG
8. How does the DNA code become a protein?
A. DNA  mRNA tRNA amino acid protein
B. DNA tRNA mRNA 
protein
C. DNA mRNA amino acid tRNA protein
D. DNA amino acid mRNA tRNA protein
9. This chart represents amino acids that are coded from
different combinations of mRNA codons. Which amino acid
sequence can be coded from the DNA sequence CAG TAG CGA?
A. Valine — Isoleucine — Glycine
B. Valine — Aspartic Acid — Alanine
C. Valine — Isoleucine — Alanine
D. Valine — Phenylalanine — Alanine
10. A strand of DNA with the sequence AAC AAG CCC
undergoes a mutation, and the first A is changed to a C. How will this mutation affect the amino acid sequence?
A. One amino acid will change.
B. Two amino acids will change.
C. All of the amino acids will change.
D. The amino acids will remain the same.
11. Which would most likely produce a mutation that is passed on to offspring?
A. Radiation changing the DNA sequence in skin cells
B. A gamete with an extra chromosome forming
C. Tobacco smoke altering the genes in lung cells
D. Exposure to chemicals altering nerve cell function
12. How would overexposure to X-rays affect most animal cells?
A. It would increase cell specialization in organs
B. It would change the sequence of DNA nucleotides in affected cells
C. It would produce new nucleotides for DNA molecules
D. It would cause an increase in red blood cell production
Mitosis vs Meiosis
1. Before mitosis begins, which happens before the nucleus starts dividing?
A. The cytoplasm separates.
B. The DNA replicates.
C. The sister chromatids separate.
D. The homologous chromosomes cross over.
2. What is the result when a single cell reproduces by mitosis?
A. two cells with genetic material identical to the parent cell
B. two cells with half the genetic material of the parent cell
C. four cells with half the genetic material of the parent cell
D. four cells with genetic material identical to the parent cell
3. During which phase of the cell cycle is the cell growing and preparing for cellular division?
A. cytokinesis
B. anaphase
C. prophase
D. interphase
4. A student observes a typical onion root tip where many of the cells have just successfully completed mitosis.
Which statement best explains what must have happened to result in cells that only have half as many
chromosomes as all of the other cells in the same section of the tip?
A. The parent cell completed mitosis after undergoing interphase.
B. The parent cell completed mitosis after undergoing cytokinesis.
C. The parent cell completed mitosis before undergoing cytokinesis.
D. The parent cell completed mitosis before undergoing interphase.
5. Cell cycle checkpoints are proteins that monitor and regulate the progress of the cell cycle in eukaryotic cells.
Which statement best describes what would most likely happen if a cell is permitted to progress to mitosis without
the preparation stage of interphase?
A. The new cells would have all of the organelles except the nucleus.
B. The new cells would have all of the organelles except the mitochondria.
C The number of chromosomes in the daughter cells would be the same as the number of chromosomes in
the parent cell.
D. The number of chromosomes in the daughter cells would be different from the number of chromosomes
in the parent cell.
6. Which process produces the most variation within a species?
A. asexual reproduction
B. sexual reproduction
C. mitosis
D. cloning
7. How are sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction different?
A. Sexual reproduction produces offspring identical to the parents, but asexual reproduction produces
offspring with traits from both parents.
B. Asexual reproduction produces offspring identical to the parents, but sexual reproduction produces
offspring with traits from both parents.
C. Sexual reproduction only occurs in multicellular organisms, but asexual reproduction only occurs in
unicellular organisms.
D. Asexual reproduction only occurs in multicellular organisms, but sexual reproduction only occurs in
unicellular organisms.
8. Which characteristic is present in offspring produced by sexual reproduction, but is missing in offspring
produced by asexual reproduction?
A. an identical copy of parent chromosomes
B. twice the number of parent chromosomes
C. only half the number of parent chromosomes
D. an independent assortment of parent chromosomes
9. Which process produces the most variation within a species?
A. competition
B. mutation
C. mutualism
D. predation
Asexual vs. Sexual
1. Why is meiosis important for sexual reproduction?
A. It allows the zygote formed from fertilization to have triple the chromosome number of the organism.
B. It allows gametes to have twice the original number of chromosomes of the organism.
C. It allows gametes to have half the original number of chromosomes of the organism.
D. It allows the zygote formed from fertilization to have half the original number of chromosomes of the
organism
2. Why is the process of meiosis important to sexual reproduction?
A. It provides genetic variation in offspring.
B. It doubles the number of chromosomes in offspring.
C. It reduces the number of alleles from parent to offspring.
D. It produces a hybrid of all genetic traits in offspring.
Inheritance and Punnett Squares
1. One of the parents of a child has phenylketonuria (PKU), which is caused by recessive alleles. The other parent
does not have the PKU alleles. What is the chance that the couple will have a child with phenylketonuria?
A. 0%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
2. Hitchhiker’s thumb (H) is dominant to no hitchhiker’s thumb (h). A woman who does not have hitchhiker’s thumb
marries a man who is heterozygous for hitchhiker’s thumb. What is the probable genotypic ratio of their children?
A. 0% Hh and 100% hh
B. 50% Hh and 50% hh
C. 75% Hh and 25% hh
D. 100% Hh and 0% hh
3. Why do identical twins become less alike as they grow older?
A. Because the environment plays a role in influencing individuals
B. Because the genetic makeup of the individuals changes
C. Because the individuals’ cells undergo mitosis
D. Because the number of recessive alleles exceeds the number of dominant alleles
4. Himalayan rabbits carry the C gene, which is required for the development of pigments in the fur, skin, and eyes.
Specifically, the C gene is maximally active from 15°C to 25°C (Figure 1) and inactive above 35°C (Figure 2). This
gene expression produces rabbits with a distinctive coat coloring. Why do the Himalayan rabbits exhibit different
colors of fur?
A. The environment determines whether the gene for fur pigmentation is expressed.
B. The genetic makeup of the rabbits change.
C. The rabbit’s color changed in order to attract a mate.
D. The rabbit’s cells undergo mitosis.
5. Which deals with the transmission of inherited traits from one generation to another?
A. anatomy
B. genetics
C. ecology
D. forensics
6. In a particular species of plants, when the soil pH is greater than 7, blue flowers are produced. However, when
the soil pH is less than 7, pink flowers are produced. Which statement best explains the color change in the plant?
A. Multiple alleles determine the color of the flowers.
B. The environment influences the expression of the gene for flower color
C. The change in flower color is a result of a mutation.
D. Polygenic inheritance produces the different flower colors.
7. The diagram to the right shows a diploid cell with two pairs of homologous chromosomes. Due
to independent assortment, what is the possible genetic make-up of gametes produced by this
organism?
A. SsTt
B. Ss, Tt
C. S, s, T, t
D. ST, St, sT, st
8. A student has cystic fibrosis, a genetic condition caused by the presence of a homozygous recessive gene.
What could be her parent’s genotypes for the cystic fibrosis trait?
A. Her father is homozygous dominant; her mother is homozygous recessive.
B. Her father is heterozygous; her mother is homozygous dominant.
C. Her father is homozygous dominant; her mother is homozygous dominant.
D. Her father is heterozygous; her mother is homozygous recessive.
9. In genetics research, what is the purpose of a test cross?
A. to determine the phenotypes of the parents
B. to determine the genotypes of the parents
C. to determine whether parents could mate
D. to determine how many offspring can be produced by two parents
Non-Mendelian Genetics
1. The inheritance of short wings in Drosophila fruit flies is an x-linked, recessive trait. Which would most likely
result if a short-winged female mates with a long-winged male?
A. All offspring will be short-winged.
B. All females will be long-winged, and all males will be short-winged.
C. All females will be short-winged, and all males will be long-winged.
D. Half of the males and females will be short-winged, and half will be long-winged.
2. A parent with Type A blood and a parent with Type O blood have a child. Which of the following is a possible
genotype of their offspring?
A. IAIA
B. IAIB
C. Ibi
D. ii
3. Which set of parents can most likely produce a child with type O blood?
A. one parent with type AB blood, and the other parent with type A blood
B. one parent with type AB blood, and the other parent with type O blood
C. one parent with heterozygous type A blood, and the other parent with type O blood
D. one parent with homozygous type A blood, and the
other parent with homozygous type B blood
4. This diagram shows a pedigree for a recessive genetic
disorder. What is the genotype of individual 6?
A. XHXH
B. XHXh
C. XHY
D. XhY
5. In snapdragons, the combined expression of both alleles for
flower color produces a new phenotype that is pink. This
illustrates incomplete dominance. What are the chances of getting white flower from a cross between two
heterozygous pink snapdragons?
A. 75%
B. 0%
C. 25%
D. 50%
5. Which term is correctly matched with the description?
A Co-dominance occurs when two traits blend together to form a new phenotype.
B. Human skin color is an example of polygenic traits.
C. Incomplete dominance occurs when both traits are seen in the phenotype.
D. Human blood type is not an example of multiple alleles.
7. Colorblindness is a sex-linked recessive trait. A mother with normal color-vision and a colorblind father have a
color-blind daughter. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. All of their daughters will be colorblind
B. The mother is a carrier of the colorblindness gene
C. All of their sons will have normal color vision
D. All of their sons will be colorblind.
Biotechnology
1 Which technique would most likely be used by forensic scientists?
A. gene cloning
B. gene therapy
C. DNA fingerprinting
D. karyotyping
2. Two people believe they are related. Which would be the best technique to determine if they are related?
A. testing blood types
B. comparing DNA
C. examining karyotypes
D. testing for genetic disorders
3. Which is one reason scientists produce transgenic organisms?
A. to create new species of organisms
B. to control microorganisms in the soil
C. to prevent habitats from being destroyed
D. to treat certain types of diseases
4. The diagram to the right shows DNA fingerprints from a daughter horse, the
mother horse, and four possible fathers. Which horse is most likely the father?
A. Horse 1
B. Horse 2
C. Horse 3
D. Horse 4
5. How is the process of gene therapy used to treat cystic fibrosis?
A. by replacing the abnormal gene with a copy of the normal gene
B. by removing a portion of the abnormal gene
C. by adding a nitrogen base to the beginning of the DNA sequence
D. by inducing a mutation
6. This diagram to the right shows the DNA fingerprints of a
baby and four couples. A hospital wants to identify the parents
of a baby. Based on the DNA fingerprints. Which couple are most
likely the parents of the baby?
A. Couple W
B. Couple Z
C. Couple Y
D. Couple X
7. Which is a step in the process of producing transgenic bacteria?
A. A plasmid is used to replace a faulty gene in a human cell.
B. A chain of bacterial amino acids is inserted into human DNA.
C. A human gene is inserted into a bacterial plasmid.
D. A mutation is produced in a bacterial cell.
Evolution
1. The use of pesticides on crops has been a common farming practice for decades. What has been the greatest
effect of natural selection through the use of pesticides on certain insect populations?
A. Natural selection has been altered because the insects and their predators are killed.
B. The rate of selection is increased because pesticides do not kill the insects that are naturally resistant to it.
C. The rate of selection has decreased because the pesticides kill only young insects.
D. The pesticides have altered natural selection by causing the insect DNA to spontaneously mutate.
2. A large population of cockroaches was sprayed with an insecticide. A few of the cockroaches survived and
produced a population of cockroaches that was resistant to this spray. What can best be inferred from this?
A. A species will adapt no matter what the environment.
B. The environment has no effect on the survival of an organism.
C. Insecticides cause mutations that are passed on to the next generation.
D. Individuals with favorable variations survive and reproduce.
3. In which populations does genetic drift most often occur?
A. small
B. large
C. marine
D. terrestrial
4. The differences in the above characteristics of flower species most
likely resulted from
A. adaptations in response to different environmental factors.
B. parasitism, which did not harm the host species.
C. defensive mutations allowing concealment of species.
D. mutualism between different plant species.
5. During extreme conditions like drought or high heat, frogs will dig a hole in the soil and bury themselves.
Sometimes frogs will shed a layer of skin, wrap it around themselves for more protection, and wait for rain. How
does this adaptation aid frogs?
A. This adaptation aids in the survival of frogs.
B. This adaptation attracts other frogs for mating.
C. This adaptation helps the frog find food.
D. This adaptation aids in the growth of frogs.
6. Darwin’s studies of finches on the Galapagos Islands suggest
that the finches' differences in beak structure were most directly
due to
A. acquired characteristics in the parent finches
B. mating behaviors of the different finch species
C. the size of the island where the finches live
D. adaptations of the finches to different environments
7. Species A and B share similarities in DNA sequences. What would
this suggest about their evolutionary relationship?
A. Species A developed before species B
B. Species A and B share a recent common ancestor.
C. Species A and B are unrelated.
D. Species B developed before Species A.
8. The males of a bird species do a “dance” and “sing a song” each spring. What is the main purpose of these
behaviors?
A. to scare off young birds
B. to imprint young birds
C. to clean their feathers
D. to attract female birds
9. To birds, the Monarch butterfly looks like the Viceroy butterfly. The
Monarch butterfly is distasteful to birds; however, the Viceroy butterfly
is not. Once a bird tastes a Monarch butterfly, it will not attempt to eat a
Viceroy butterfly. How is this adaptation an advantage to the Viceroy
butterfly?
A. This adaptation aids in the survival of the Viceroy butterfly.
B. This adaptation attracts other Viceroy butterflies for mating.
C. This adaptation helps the Viceroy butterfly find food.
D. This adaptation aids in the growth of the Viceroy butterfly.
10. During the Industrial Revolution, there were two variations of English Peppered Moths, those with light color
and those with dark color. The soot from the factories covered the trees. It was noted that the percentage of
dark-colored moths increased over time, while the percentage of light-colored moths decreased. What is the
likely explanation for this change?
A. The presence of a mutation changed the color of the English Peppered Moths.
B. The presence of the dark-colored variation increased the likelihood for survival of the English Peppered Moths.
C. The presence of the light-colored variation increased the likelihood for survival of the English Peppered Moths.
D. The presence of an acquired trait changed the color of the English Peppered Moths.
11. A researcher sprays a new pesticide on thousands of insects of the same species that live in a large field. A
few of the insects survive. What can be concluded by the researcher?
A. The species of insects will likely become resistant to the pesticide.
B. The ideal interval between the first and second applications of the pesticide should be increased.
C. The pesticide has no effect on the species
D. The concentration of the pesticide was too weak.
Classification
1. What is the difference between the full classification of organisms and their scientific names?
A. The full classification of organisms and their scientific names vary in different countries.
B. The scientific names of organisms include the order and family of the organisms, but the full
classification includes only the species name.
C. The full classification of organisms will include more categories of organisms than their scientific names.
D. The scientific names of organisms include a single nomenclature, but the full classification includes
various nomenclatures.
2. Which two species are the most closely related?
A. I and II
B. II and IV
C. I and V
D. V and VI
3. What is the best explanation for the continual changes in the classification system of organisms?
A. All organisms struggle for existence and become extinct
B. All organisms compete to be at the top of the food chain
C. Technological advances have allowed scientists to better compare organisms
D. More species have been discovered, but scientists have not analyzed all the data
4. Which two groups of organisms have the most genetic differences?
A. rotifers and nematodes
B. sponges and chordates
C. mollusks and annelids
D. echinoderms and chordates
5. Using the key provided, drawing III can be identified as which bird?
Use the Dichotomous key to identify the animal:
1.a. Larger than 40. cm ……………....….2
1.b. Not larger than 40. cm ................ 4
2.a. Hooked beak…………………….….... 3
2.b. Beak not hooked.....Phasianus colchicus
3.a. Feathers over eyes that look like ear……Bubo virginianus
3.b. No Feathers that look like ears...Haliaeetus leucocephalus
4.a. Head one solid color of feathers............ 5
4.b. Head not solid color of feathers...... Colinus virginianus
5.a. Bill flat....................... Anas platyrhynchos
5.b. Bill pointed ............... Archilochus colubris
Organisms
1.
The structure of the digestive tube in the grasshopper consists of many folds. The folds affect the efficiency
of food absorption by which of the following functions?
A. increasing surface area
B. reducing transpiration
C. increasing hormone secretion
D. reducing storage of sugar
2. What do both plants and animals use to regulate their bodies?
A. nerves only
B. hormones only
C. hormones and nerves
3. Which kingdoms have photosynthetic organisms?
A. fungi and plants
B. fungi and protists
C. protists and plants
D. auxins and cytokinins
D. plants and animals
4. Worms that live in soil absorb oxygen and excrete wastes through their skin. Which characteristic will best help
the worm carry out these functions?
A. large number of hearts
B. large diameter blood vessels
C. large mouth compared to body
D. large surface area compared to body volume
5. The fertilized eggs of most mammals follow a similar pattern of early development. Which sequence is the
typical pattern, beginning with the earliest stage?
A. fetus→embryo→zygote
B. fetus→zygote→embryo
C. zygote→fetus→embryo
D. zygote→embryo→fetus
6. According to the chart to the right, which plant is most likely a gymnosperm?
A. Plant 1
B. Plant 2
C. Plant 3
D. Plant 4
7. According to the chart to the right, which plant is most
likely an angiosperm?
A. Plant 1
B. Plant 2
C. Plant 3
D. Plant 4
8. How would the seeds in Figure 1 and 2 be classified? Use the diagram to
the right.
A. ferns
B. mosses
C. angiosperms
D. gymnosperms
9. Which of the following would be classified as a prokaryotic cell?
Ribosome
Cell
Cell
Cell
Cell
A
B
C
D
X
X
X
X
A. Cell A
Cell
Wall
X
Circular
DNA
X
X
X
Nucleus
X
X
X
B. Cell B
Cell
Membrane
X
X
X
X
C. Cell C
D. Cell D
Behavior
1. Which of the following is true of innate behavior?
A. requires practice to develop
C. may be influenced by reward
B. allows for adaptation and change
D. is genetically determined
2. Which statement about animal behavior is most accurate?
A. Innate behaviors can be changed as a result of individual experiences.
B. Innate behaviors are generally complex and require time to perfect.
C. A complex nervous system is necessary for learned behavior.
D. Learned behaviors are acquired as a result of individual experience.
3. Hibernation is a period of inactivity for animals experiencing conditions of extreme coldness. Hibernation serves
the same function as which activity practiced by animals in warm environmental conditions?
A. camouflage
B. estivation
C. migration
D. mimicry
4. At night, moths travel toward light. Which type of behavior does this describe?
A. habituation
B. imprinting
C. innate behavior
D. learned behavior
5. The males of a bird species do a “dance” and “sing a song” each spring. What is the main purpose of these
behaviors?
A. to scare off young birds
B. to imprint young birds
C. to clean their feathers
D. to attract female birds
Ecology
1. Two different populations of birds live in the same area and eat the same types of food. Which most likely
describes the relationship between these two populations of birds?
A. competition
B. mutualism
C. parasitism
D. predator-prey
2. The yucca plant releases a strong scent at night when the yucca moth is active. The yucca moth, attracted by
the scent, gathers pollen from the yucca flower. The yucca moth then deposits her eggs and the pollen on another
plant. This ensures that the plant will be cross-pollinated and that the yucca moth larvae have a steady food supply.
Which relationship does this best illustrate?
A. commensalism
B. mutualism
C. parasitism
D. predation
3. Classify the relationship between flowering plants and bees, where the plant provides the bee with food and the
bee spreads pollen for the plant.
A. commensalism
B. mutualism
C. parasitism
D. predation
4. A field ecologist wants to determine the interactions of various populations of organisms living in a large
grassland field. Which method is best for conducting this study?
A. Consulting with local farmers about the diversity of organisms in the field
B. Dividing the field in half, walking over it, counting organisms, and then doubling the numbers
C. Walking over the entire field, collecting the organisms, and then compiling a total
D. Observing the behaviors of different types of organisms several times during the year
5. Which sequence shows increasing ecological levels of
organization?
A. organism, population, community, ecosystem
B. ecosystem, population, organism, community
C. community, ecosystem, population, organism
D. population, organism, ecosystem, community
6. Which graph represents the maximum carrying capacity of a
bacterial colony?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
7.
What can be concluded from the graph to the left?
A. Human population grew at a constant rate over
the last 2,000 years.
B. Human population will begin to level off around
2010.
C. Human population reached its carrying capacity
around the year 1900.
D. Human population grew exponentially over the
past 200 years.
Nutrient Cycles
1. In the carbon cycle, atmospheric carbon dioxide is converted into organic material by which process?
A. cellular respiration
B. decomposition
C. photosynthesis
D. transpiration
2. Which will most likely happen if the
decomposers are removed from the carbon cycle?
A. The amount of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere will increase.
B. The amount of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere will decrease.
C. The amount of carbon dioxide used by
producers will increase.
D. The amount of carbon dioxide needed by
consumers will decrease.
3. What is the function of autotrophs in the carbon cycle?
A. to use oxygen to produce glucose
B. to take in excess water
C. to use carbon dioxide to produce glucose
D. to feed on herbivores
Human Impact
1. What will most likely happen if the human population continues to grow at current rates?
A. There will be fewer natural resources available for future generations.
B. There will be an increase in nitrogen levels in the atmosphere.
C. There will be a decrease in water pollution.
D. There will be an increase in the number of strong hurricanes.
2. A sea turtle has washed up on a remote section of a beach. This is known as a “stranding.” Stranding occurs when
a dead, sick or injured sea turtle washes up on the shoreline. Which statement best explains why “stranding” should
be reported immediately to local authorities?
A. The information can be very useful to biologists and managers trying to protect the species.
B. The information can be very useful to protect sea turtles from predators.
C. The information can be very useful to fishermen who try to catch fish that sea turtles eat.
D. The information can be very useful to tourists who may want to keep sea turtles as pets
3. The construction of a new coal-burning power plant would have the greatest impact on which environmental
issue?
A. depletion of the ozone
B. production of acid rain
C. release of radiation
D. increase in deforestation
4. Which environmental concern is most associated with burning fossil fuels?
A. global climate change
B. pollution of ocean waters
C. ozone layer destruction
D. decrease in levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide
5. Which environmental factor would cause the greatest decrease in the number of species of plants and animals
living in some of the lakes in the United States?
A. increase in dissolved oxygen levels
B. global warming
C. ozone destruction
D. acid rain
6. If worldwide deforestation is not regulated, what could most likely result?
A. Acid rain could lower the pH of rivers and lakes to dangerous levels for aquatic life.
B. CO2 levels in the atmosphere could increase and contribute to global warming problems.
C. Plants and animals could become better adapted to living in desert conditions.
D. Future generations of humans could have an excess of wood and paper products.
7. Which of the following has contributed most to the overall warming of the earth’s atmosphere?
A. the burning of fossil fuels
B. the depletion of the ozone
C. the occurrence of acid rain
D. the melting of the polar ice caps