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1 Following drugs directly activate the respiratory center EXCEPT: A Bemegride B Cоffein-benzoatе natrium C Aethimizolum D Cytitonum* E Libexin 2 The mechanism of Cytiton action is: A Direct activation of the respiratory center B The reflex mechanism* C The mixed mechanism D None of the above E All of the above 3 Indicate the drug belonging to antitussives of narcotic type of action: A Glaucini hydrochloridum B Aethylmorphine hydrochloride* C Tusuprex D Libexine E Adrenallini hydrochloridum 4 Tick out the drug belonging to non-narcotic antitussives: A Codeini phosphas B Aethylmorphini hydrochloridum C Tusuprex* D Isadrinum E Euphyllinum 5 Indicate the expectorant with the reflex mechanism: A Natrii benzoas B Derivatives of Ipecacucnha and Thermopsis* C Codeini phosphas D Aethylmorphini hydrochloridum E Trypsini crystallisatum 6 Tick the antitussive agent with a peripheral effect: A Codeini phosphas B Libexin* C Codeini phosphas D Aethylmorphini hydrochloridum E Glaucini hydrochloridum 7 All of these drugs contain free sulfhydryl groups EXCEPT: A Trypsini crystallisatum* B Acetylcysteinum C Bromhexinum D Ambroxolum E Mucaltinum 8 Which of the following drugs is proteolytic enzyme? A Trypsini crystallisatum* B Codeini phosphas C Acetylcysteinum D Bromhexinum E Ambroxolum 9 All of the following drugs destroy disulfide bonds of proteoglycans, which causes depolymerization and reduction of viscosity of sputum, EXCEPT: A Acetylcysteinum B Desoxyribonuclease* C Ambroxolum D Bromhexinum E All of the above 10 Which of these groups of drugs is used for asthma treatment? A Methylxanthines B M-cholinoblocking agents C Beta2 – stimulants D All of above* E None of the above 11 Tick the drug belonging to non-selective beta2-adrenomimetics: A Isadrine* B Salbutamol C Fenoterol D Terbutalinum E Euphyllinum 12 Select the side-effect characteristic for non-selective beta2-adrenomimetics: A Depression of the breathing center B Tachycardia* C Peripheral vasoconstriction D Dry mouth E Hyperacidity 13 Pick out the bronchodilator drug related to xanthine: A Atropini sulfas B Orciprenalini sulfas C Adrenalini hydrochloridum D Theophyllinum* E Ipratropim bromide 14 Pick out the bronchodilator drug belonging to sympathomimetics: A Ephedrine* B Atropini sulfas C Orciprenalini sulfas D Adrenalini hydrochloridum E Salbutamolum 15 The mechanism of methylxanthines action is: A Inhibition of the enzyme phosphodiesterase* B Beta2 -adrenoreceptor stimulation C Inhibition of the production of inflammatory cytokines D Inhibition of M-cholinoreceptors E Irritate receptors of stomach mucosa 16 Which of the following M-cholinoblocking agents is used especially as an antiasthmatic? A Atropine sulfas B Ipratropium bromide* C Adrenaline hydrochloridum D Salbutamol E Ephedrine 17 Indicate the side effect of Theophylline: A Bradycardia B Increased myocardial demands for oxygen* C Depression of respiratory center D Elevation of the arterial blood pressure E All of the above 18 All of the following drugs are inhaled glucocorticoids EXCEPT: A Triamcinolone B Beclometazone C Prednisolone D Ipratropium bromide* E Dexamethasone 19 All of the following groups of drugs are for thrombosis treatment EXCEPT: A Anticoagulant drugs B Antifibrinolitic drugs* C Fibrinolitic drugs D Antiplatelet drugs E All of the above 20 Pick out the drug belonging to anticoagulants of direct action: A Aspirin B Heparin* C Neodicumarinum D Syncumar E Phenylinum 21 Which of the following drugs has low-molecular weight? A Heparin B Fraxiparinum* C Aspirin D Vikasolum E Fibrinogen 22 Indicate the drug belonging to antagonists of heparin: A Aspirin B Fraxiparin C Protamine sulfate* D Vikasolum E Fibrinogen 23 Which of the following drugs belongs to Coumarin derivatives? A Heparin B Vikasolum C Fibrinogen D Aspirin E Warfarin* 24 All of these drugs are antiplatelet agents EXCEPT: A Aspirin B Urokinase* C Ticlopidine D Clopidogrel E Adrenalini hydrochloridum 25 Compared to ranitidine, cimetidine: A is more effective in healing duodenal ulcers B is less selective for H2 receptors C produces a lower rate of recurrence of ulcers after cessation of treatment D is a more potent inhibitor of the hepatic P-450 system * E has little tendency to produce antiandrogenic effects 26 In the treatment of gastric and duodenal ulcers: A effective initial therapy may utilize antacids, sucralfate, or famotidine* B recurrence of ulcers happens in less than 10% of patients upon cessation of therapy with H2 antagonists C omeprazole should be reserved for maintenance therapy after 8 weeks of treatment with ranitidine D cimetidine is the drug of choice in older patients with impaired renal function E the use of ranitidine should not exceed 8 weeks in order to avoid colonization of the stomach by bacteria 27 All of the following statements about misoprostol are true except: A inhibits acid secretion by parietal cells B when given to patients taking NSAIDs, tends to replace endogenous PGE2 C causes a significant incidence of abdominal pain and diarrhea D is more effective than famotidine in healing gastric ulcers * E can induce contraction of the uterus 28 Which of the following statements about omeprazole is the least valid? A is indicated for the therapy of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome B has a duration of action that far outlasts its lifetime in plasma C formation of active drug requires low pH D causes a greater inhibition of gastric acid secretion than does ranitidine E heals ulcers more slowly than cimetidine does * 29 Cisapride: A inhibits the actions of dopamine in the G.I. tract B can cause hyperprolactinemia C promotes gastric emptying by stimulating 5HT4 receptors in the myenteric plexus and other intramural ganglia * D can be used to treat esophageal reflux in part because it reduces gastric acidity as effectively as does cimetidine E produces little or no increase in motility of the colon 30 Antacids that are used in the treatment of duodenal ulcers: A are less efficacious than ranitidine in promoting healing of ulcers B are usually mixtures of Al(OH)3 and Mg(OH)2 which neutralize H+ * C are effective in part because they suppress gastric acid secretion D are more apt to cause constipation as the dosage is raised E have important bacteriocidal effects on Helicobacter pylori 31 Methylcellulose, diphenoxylate, bismuth subcitrate, bisacodyl, MgSO4: A B C D E Organic stool softener; promotes colonic motility * Poorly absorbed; used for rapid effect before bowel surgery Poorly absorbed opioid; slows transit of intestinal contents Promotes healing of peptic ulcers Promotes secretion of H2O into the colon; chronic use can produce "cathartic colon" 32 Bismuth subcitrate, bisacodyl, MgSO4, methylcellulose, diphenoxylate: A Organic stool softener; promotes colonic motility B Poorly absorbed; used for rapid effect before bowel surgery C Poorly absorbed opioid; slows transit of intestinal contents D Promotes healing of peptic ulcers * E Promotes secretion of H2O into the colon; chronic use can produce "cathartic colon" 33 Choose the substance that inhibits histamine induced gastric acid secretion: A PGI2 * B Pyrilamine C Diphenhydramine D Meclizine E Astemizole 34 Infections with Helicobacter pylori: A can be suppressed by ranitidine but not by antacids B can be eradicated with omeprazole and tetracycline C can be exacerbated by treatment with misoprostil because the drug stimulates bowel function D cause the great majority of duodenal ulcers * E can be suppressed by sucralfate 35 Which of the following diuretic agents would be the least apt to cause hypokalemic alkalosis? A Hydrochlorothiazide B triamterene * C furosemide D chlorthalidone E bumetanide 36 Both sucrafate and bismuth subcitrate: A eradicate Helicobacter pylori infections in the stomach B form a protective barrier on ulcer craters* C have significant acid neutralizing capacity D have significant H2blocking actions E can produce Al3+ toxicity in renally impaired patients 37 The mechanism by which thiazides induce hypokalemic alkalosis includes all of the following steps except: A increased delivery of Na to the late distal/cortical collecting duct B increased intraluminal secretion of K by the principal cells C inhibition of the NaCl cotransporter in the early distal tubule D decreased concentration of Ca in the lumen of the cortical collecting duct E reduced proximal reabsorption of HCO3 * 38 Toxicities associated with the loop diuretics include all of the following EXCEPT: A Hypokalemia B severe hyponatremia * C hyperglycemia D hypomagnesaemia E hyperuricemia 39 Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are not used to: A treat glaucoma B reduce the likelihood of renal stones * C treat metabolic alkalosis D promote the excretion of uric acid E alkalinize the urine 40 Furosemide: A reaches its site of action primarily by tubular secretion * B produces alkalosis primarily by reducing secretion of H+ in the distal tubule C inhibits Na+ reabsorption in the proximal tubule D reduces excretion of Ca2+ and Mg2+ E reduces renin secretion 41 Side effect associated with spironolactone but not with thiazide diuretics: A hypokalemia B increased renin release C gynecomastia * D hyperuricemia E hyperglycemia 42 Mannitol: A is useful in the treatment of patients with congestive heart failure B reaches its site of action largely by tubular secretion C competes for tubular reabsorption of glucose D can protect against accumulation of nephrotoxic substances * E has no effect on the excretion of Na+ 43 All of the following increase urinary excretion of Cl- except: A acetazolamide * B furosemide C mannitol D ethacrynic acid E amiloride 44 Which of the following statements is true for both furosemide and hydrochlorothiazide? A promotes excretion of uric acid B acutely decreases HCO3- excretion and can produce alkalosis with chronic administration* C promotes excretion of Ca2+ D reduces the osmotic gradient in the renal medulla E reaches its site of action mostly by glomerular filtration 45 Which one of the following processes occurs in the loop of Henle? A Thiazide diuretics inhibit Na+ reabsorption via ENaC (the electrogenic Na + channel in the late distal tubule and cortical collecting duct) B Tubular (luminal) fluid becomes isotonic to plasma by the end of the TAL. C NH4+ is secreted in the net sense into the lumen. D The lumen is electrically positive with respect to the interstitial fluid. * E Mg2+ is reabsorbed via an ATP powered pump in the tight junction 46 All of the following statements about metoclopramide are true EXCEPT: A can produce hyperprolactinemia B often produces constipation * C increases tone of the lower esophageal sphincter D attenuates nausea produced by cancer chemotherapeutic agents E actions on gastric motility are reduced by atropine 47 A 23-year-old graduate student goes on a cruise to the Bahamas. She considers taking a drug for sea-sickness as she is prone to developing motion sickness. Which compound and time of administration would be most effective? A Transdermal scopolamine taken during the voyage B Fexofenadine taken 4 hours prior to sailing C Transdermal scopolamine taken 4 hours prior to sailing* D Cauterizing taken 1 hour prior to sailing E Metoclopramide taken during the voyage 48 Which of the following antiemetic drugs possesses clinically significant dopaminergic antagonist activity, but is not used as an antipsychotic agent? A Ondansetron B Promethazine C Chlorpromazine D Metoclopramide * E Dimenhydrinate 49 Indicate the drug belonging to fibrinoliytic inhibitors: A Aminocapronic acid* B Ticlopidine C Streptokinase D Vitamin K E Cytitonum 50 Aminocapronic acid is a drug of choice for treatment of: A Acute myocardial infarction B Bleeding from fibrinolytic therapy* C Heart failure D Multiple pulmonary emboli E Sotalol 51 This drug is a Class IA antiarrhythmic drug: A Sotalol B Propranolol C Verapamil D Quinidine* E Ketaminum 52 This drug is used in treating supraventricular tachycardias: A Digoxin* B Dobutaminum C Amrinone D Dopamine E Ticlopidine 53 Select an endocrine drug which isan amino acid derivative: A Insulin B Hydrocortisone C Calcitonin D Thyroxine* E Dobutaminum 54 Select an endocrine drug which is a peptide derivative: A Oxytocin* B Prednisolone C Progesterone D Ketotifen E Cromolyn sodium 55 Select an endocrine drug which isa steroidal derivative: A Mercazolylum B Insulin C Levothyroxine D Hydrocortisone* E Calcitonin 56 Serious side effects of glucocorticoids include the following, EXCEPT: A Acute peptic ulcers B Cushing’s syndrome (rounding, puffiness, fat deposition and plethora alter the appearance of the face – moon faces) C Salicylism (vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing, and vertigo)* D Hypomania or acute psychosis E Hyperglycemia 57 Serious side effects of glucocorticoids include the following: A Adrenal suppression B Insomnia, behavioral changes (primarily hypomania) C Rounding, puffiness, fat deposition and plethora alter the appearance of the face – moon faces D All of the above* E None of the above 58 Which of the following property combinations is peculiar to the majority of NSAIDs? A Antihistaminic, antipyretic, analgesic B Immunodepressive, anti-inflammatory, analgesic C Antipyretic, analgesic, anti-inflammatory* D Anti-inflammatory, immunodepressive, antihistaminic E All of the above 59 Which of the following are not treated with Prednisone? A Cushing's disease B Testicular cancer* C Lympthomas D Chronic leukemias E All of the above 60 Which of the following are NOT treated with Dexamethasone? A Inflammation B Asthma C Addison's disease D Wilson's disease* E All of the above 61 Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Heparin? A Protamine sulfas* B N-acetylcysteine C Glucagon D Methylene blue E All of the above 62 Which of the following are NOT treated with Hydrochlorothiazide? A CHF B Hypercalciuria C Nephritis* D Edema E Hypertension 63 Which of the following are NOT treated with Nifedipine? A Angina B Arrhythmias C Fluid retention* D Hypertension E All of the above 64 Which of the following is NOT a side effect of the Diuretics (Loop diuretics)? A Alkalosis B Nausea* C Hypotension D Potassium deficits E All of the above 65 Which of the following is NOT a side effect of the Vasodilator (Nifedipine)? A Nausea B Flush appearanc C Vertigo D Sexual dysfunction* E All of the above 66 Which of the following is not a side effect of the Ace Inhibitor (Captopril)? A Rash B Angioedema C Cough D Congestion* E All of the above 67 Caffeine is A Analeptic and antidepressant B Analeptic and psychomotor stimulant* C Antidepressant and psychomotor stimulant D Antidepressant and nootropic E Analeptic and nootropic 68 Complications, arising up at codeine application as an antitussive mean A Dryness in the mouth cavity B Tachycardia C Tachypnoe D Artery pressure increase E Constipation, medicinal dependence* 69 Cordiaminum is used at A Hypertensive disease B Bronchial asthma C Collapse* D Bronchitis E Gastritis 70 Indicate the peculiarility of Furosemide action: A Slow effect development B Fast effect development* C The duration of action (10-14 days) D Low diuretic activity E It doesn’t influence K concentration in the blood 71 Mast cell stabilizers are most effective in treating bronchoconstriction associated with: A Emphysema B Exposure to cold C Allergens* D Infection E Tachycardia 72 A patient with rheumatoid arthritis who had been treated with indometacin has got signs of gastropathy. What activity of the drug can this complication be connected with? A Anticyclooxygenase* B Antikinine C Antiserotonin D Antihistamine E Locally irritating