Download Document

1 Following drugs directly activate the respiratory center EXCEPT:
A Bemegride
B Cоffein-benzoatе natrium
C Aethimizolum
D Cytitonum*
E Libexin
2 The mechanism of Cytiton action is:
A Direct activation of the respiratory center
B The reflex mechanism*
C The mixed mechanism
D None of the above
E All of the above
3 Indicate the drug belonging to antitussives of narcotic type of action:
A Glaucini hydrochloridum
B Aethylmorphine hydrochloride*
C Tusuprex
D Libexine
E Adrenallini hydrochloridum
4 Tick out the drug belonging to non-narcotic antitussives:
A Codeini phosphas
B Aethylmorphini hydrochloridum
C Tusuprex*
D Isadrinum
E Euphyllinum
5 Indicate the expectorant with the reflex mechanism:
A Natrii benzoas
B Derivatives of Ipecacucnha and Thermopsis*
C Codeini phosphas
D Aethylmorphini hydrochloridum
E Trypsini crystallisatum
6 Tick the antitussive agent with a peripheral effect:
A Codeini phosphas
B Libexin*
C Codeini phosphas
D Aethylmorphini hydrochloridum
E Glaucini hydrochloridum
7 All of these drugs contain free sulfhydryl groups EXCEPT:
A Trypsini crystallisatum*
B Acetylcysteinum
C Bromhexinum
D Ambroxolum
E Mucaltinum
8 Which of the following drugs is proteolytic enzyme?
A Trypsini crystallisatum*
B Codeini phosphas
C Acetylcysteinum
D Bromhexinum
E Ambroxolum
9 All of the following drugs destroy disulfide bonds of proteoglycans, which causes
depolymerization and reduction of viscosity of sputum, EXCEPT:
A Acetylcysteinum
B Desoxyribonuclease*
C Ambroxolum
D Bromhexinum
E All of the above
10 Which of these groups of drugs is used for asthma treatment?
A Methylxanthines
B M-cholinoblocking agents
C Beta2 – stimulants
D All of above*
E None of the above
11 Tick the drug belonging to non-selective beta2-adrenomimetics:
A Isadrine*
B Salbutamol
C Fenoterol
D Terbutalinum
E Euphyllinum
12 Select the side-effect characteristic for non-selective beta2-adrenomimetics:
A Depression of the breathing center
B Tachycardia*
C Peripheral vasoconstriction
D Dry mouth
E Hyperacidity
13 Pick out the bronchodilator drug related to xanthine:
A Atropini sulfas
B Orciprenalini sulfas
C Adrenalini hydrochloridum
D Theophyllinum*
E Ipratropim bromide
14 Pick out the bronchodilator drug belonging to sympathomimetics:
A Ephedrine*
B Atropini sulfas
C Orciprenalini sulfas
D Adrenalini hydrochloridum
E Salbutamolum
15 The mechanism of methylxanthines action is:
A Inhibition of the enzyme phosphodiesterase*
B Beta2 -adrenoreceptor stimulation
C Inhibition of the production of inflammatory cytokines
D Inhibition of M-cholinoreceptors
E Irritate receptors of stomach mucosa
16 Which of the following M-cholinoblocking agents is used especially as an antiasthmatic?
A Atropine sulfas
B Ipratropium bromide*
C Adrenaline hydrochloridum
D Salbutamol
E Ephedrine
17 Indicate the side effect of Theophylline:
A Bradycardia
B Increased myocardial demands for oxygen*
C Depression of respiratory center
D Elevation of the arterial blood pressure
E All of the above
18 All of the following drugs are inhaled glucocorticoids EXCEPT:
A Triamcinolone
B Beclometazone
C Prednisolone
D Ipratropium bromide*
E Dexamethasone
19 All of the following groups of drugs are for thrombosis treatment EXCEPT:
A Anticoagulant drugs
B Antifibrinolitic drugs*
C Fibrinolitic drugs
D Antiplatelet drugs
E All of the above
20 Pick out the drug belonging to anticoagulants of direct action:
A Aspirin
B Heparin*
C Neodicumarinum
D Syncumar
E Phenylinum
21 Which of the following drugs has low-molecular weight?
A Heparin
B Fraxiparinum*
C Aspirin
D Vikasolum
E Fibrinogen
22 Indicate the drug belonging to antagonists of heparin:
A Aspirin
B Fraxiparin
C Protamine sulfate*
D Vikasolum
E Fibrinogen
23 Which of the following drugs belongs to Coumarin derivatives?
A Heparin
B Vikasolum
C Fibrinogen
D Aspirin
E Warfarin*
24 All of these drugs are antiplatelet agents EXCEPT:
A Aspirin
B Urokinase*
C Ticlopidine
D Clopidogrel
E Adrenalini hydrochloridum
25 Compared to ranitidine, cimetidine:
A is more effective in healing duodenal ulcers
B is less selective for H2 receptors
C produces a lower rate of recurrence of ulcers after cessation of treatment
D is a more potent inhibitor of the hepatic P-450 system *
E has little tendency to produce antiandrogenic effects
26 In the treatment of gastric and duodenal ulcers:
A effective initial therapy may utilize antacids, sucralfate, or famotidine*
B recurrence of ulcers happens in less than 10% of patients upon cessation of
therapy with H2 antagonists
C omeprazole should be reserved for maintenance therapy after 8 weeks of
treatment with ranitidine
D cimetidine is the drug of choice in older patients with impaired renal function
E the use of ranitidine should not exceed 8 weeks in order to avoid colonization
of the stomach by bacteria
27 All of the following statements about misoprostol are true except:
A inhibits acid secretion by parietal cells
B when given to patients taking NSAIDs, tends to replace endogenous PGE2
C causes a significant incidence of abdominal pain and diarrhea
D is more effective than famotidine in healing gastric ulcers *
E can induce contraction of the uterus
28 Which of the following statements about omeprazole is the least valid?
A is indicated for the therapy of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
B has a duration of action that far outlasts its lifetime in plasma
C formation of active drug requires low pH
D causes a greater inhibition of gastric acid secretion than does ranitidine
E heals ulcers more slowly than cimetidine does *
29 Cisapride:
A inhibits the actions of dopamine in the G.I. tract
B can cause hyperprolactinemia
C promotes gastric emptying by stimulating 5HT4 receptors in the myenteric
plexus and other intramural ganglia *
D can be used to treat esophageal reflux in part because it reduces gastric acidity
as effectively as does cimetidine
E produces little or no increase in motility of the colon
30 Antacids that are used in the treatment of duodenal ulcers:
A are less efficacious than ranitidine in promoting healing of ulcers
B are usually mixtures of Al(OH)3 and Mg(OH)2 which neutralize H+ *
C are effective in part because they suppress gastric acid secretion
D are more apt to cause constipation as the dosage is raised
E have important bacteriocidal effects on Helicobacter pylori
31 Methylcellulose, diphenoxylate, bismuth subcitrate, bisacodyl, MgSO4:
A
B
C
D
E
Organic stool softener; promotes colonic motility *
Poorly absorbed; used for rapid effect before bowel surgery
Poorly absorbed opioid; slows transit of intestinal contents
Promotes healing of peptic ulcers
Promotes secretion of H2O into the colon; chronic use can produce "cathartic
colon"
32 Bismuth subcitrate, bisacodyl, MgSO4, methylcellulose, diphenoxylate:
A Organic stool softener; promotes colonic motility
B Poorly absorbed; used for rapid effect before bowel surgery
C Poorly absorbed opioid; slows transit of intestinal contents
D Promotes healing of peptic ulcers *
E Promotes secretion of H2O into the colon; chronic use can produce "cathartic
colon"
33 Choose the substance that inhibits histamine induced gastric acid secretion:
A PGI2 *
B Pyrilamine
C Diphenhydramine
D Meclizine
E Astemizole
34 Infections with Helicobacter pylori:
A can be suppressed by ranitidine but not by antacids
B can be eradicated with omeprazole and tetracycline
C can be exacerbated by treatment with misoprostil because the drug stimulates
bowel function
D cause the great majority of duodenal ulcers *
E can be suppressed by sucralfate
35 Which of the following diuretic agents would be the least apt to cause
hypokalemic alkalosis?
A Hydrochlorothiazide
B triamterene *
C furosemide
D chlorthalidone
E bumetanide
36 Both sucrafate and bismuth subcitrate:
A eradicate Helicobacter pylori infections in the stomach
B form a protective barrier on ulcer craters*
C have significant acid neutralizing capacity
D have significant H2blocking actions
E can produce Al3+ toxicity in renally impaired patients
37 The mechanism by which thiazides induce hypokalemic alkalosis includes all of
the following steps except:
A increased delivery of Na to the late distal/cortical collecting duct
B increased intraluminal secretion of K by the principal cells
C inhibition of the NaCl cotransporter in the early distal tubule
D decreased concentration of Ca in the lumen of the cortical collecting duct
E reduced proximal reabsorption of HCO3 *
38 Toxicities associated with the loop diuretics include all of the following EXCEPT:
A Hypokalemia
B severe hyponatremia *
C hyperglycemia
D hypomagnesaemia
E hyperuricemia
39 Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are not used to:
A treat glaucoma
B reduce the likelihood of renal stones *
C treat metabolic alkalosis
D promote the excretion of uric acid
E alkalinize the urine
40 Furosemide:
A reaches its site of action primarily by tubular secretion *
B produces alkalosis primarily by reducing secretion of H+ in the distal tubule
C inhibits Na+ reabsorption in the proximal tubule
D reduces excretion of Ca2+ and Mg2+
E reduces renin secretion
41 Side effect associated with spironolactone but not with thiazide diuretics:
A hypokalemia
B increased renin release
C gynecomastia *
D hyperuricemia
E hyperglycemia
42 Mannitol:
A is useful in the treatment of patients with congestive heart failure
B reaches its site of action largely by tubular secretion
C competes for tubular reabsorption of glucose
D can protect against accumulation of nephrotoxic substances *
E has no effect on the excretion of Na+
43 All of the following increase urinary excretion of Cl- except:
A acetazolamide *
B furosemide
C mannitol
D ethacrynic acid
E amiloride
44 Which of the following statements is true for both furosemide and
hydrochlorothiazide?
A promotes excretion of uric acid
B acutely decreases HCO3- excretion and can produce alkalosis with chronic
administration*
C promotes excretion of Ca2+
D reduces the osmotic gradient in the renal medulla
E reaches its site of action mostly by glomerular filtration
45 Which one of the following processes occurs in the loop of Henle?
A Thiazide diuretics inhibit Na+ reabsorption via ENaC (the electrogenic Na +
channel in the late distal tubule and cortical collecting duct)
B Tubular (luminal) fluid becomes isotonic to plasma by the end of the TAL.
C NH4+ is secreted in the net sense into the lumen.
D The lumen is electrically positive with respect to the interstitial fluid. *
E Mg2+ is reabsorbed via an ATP powered pump in the tight junction
46 All of the following statements about metoclopramide are true EXCEPT:
A can produce hyperprolactinemia
B often produces constipation *
C increases tone of the lower esophageal sphincter
D attenuates nausea produced by cancer chemotherapeutic agents
E actions on gastric motility are reduced by atropine
47 A 23-year-old graduate student goes on a cruise to the Bahamas. She considers
taking a drug for sea-sickness as she is prone to developing motion sickness.
Which compound and time of administration would be most effective?
A Transdermal scopolamine taken during the voyage
B Fexofenadine taken 4 hours prior to sailing
C Transdermal scopolamine taken 4 hours prior to sailing*
D Cauterizing taken 1 hour prior to sailing
E Metoclopramide taken during the voyage
48 Which of the following antiemetic drugs possesses clinically significant
dopaminergic antagonist activity, but is not used as an antipsychotic agent?
A Ondansetron
B Promethazine
C Chlorpromazine
D Metoclopramide *
E Dimenhydrinate
49 Indicate the drug belonging to fibrinoliytic inhibitors:
A Aminocapronic acid*
B Ticlopidine
C Streptokinase
D Vitamin K
E Cytitonum
50 Aminocapronic acid is a drug of choice for treatment of:
A Acute myocardial infarction
B Bleeding from fibrinolytic therapy*
C Heart failure
D Multiple pulmonary emboli
E Sotalol
51 This drug is a Class IA antiarrhythmic drug:
A Sotalol
B Propranolol
C Verapamil
D Quinidine*
E Ketaminum
52 This drug is used in treating supraventricular tachycardias:
A Digoxin*
B Dobutaminum
C Amrinone
D Dopamine
E Ticlopidine
53 Select an endocrine drug which isan amino acid derivative:
A Insulin
B Hydrocortisone
C Calcitonin
D Thyroxine*
E Dobutaminum
54 Select an endocrine drug which is a peptide derivative:
A Oxytocin*
B Prednisolone
C Progesterone
D Ketotifen
E Cromolyn sodium
55 Select an endocrine drug which isa steroidal derivative:
A Mercazolylum
B Insulin
C Levothyroxine
D Hydrocortisone*
E Calcitonin
56 Serious side effects of glucocorticoids include the following, EXCEPT:
A Acute peptic ulcers
B Cushing’s syndrome (rounding, puffiness, fat deposition and plethora alter the
appearance of the face – moon faces)
C Salicylism (vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing, and vertigo)*
D Hypomania or acute psychosis
E Hyperglycemia
57 Serious side effects of glucocorticoids include the following:
A Adrenal suppression
B Insomnia, behavioral changes (primarily hypomania)
C Rounding, puffiness, fat deposition and plethora alter the appearance of the
face – moon faces
D All of the above*
E None of the above
58 Which of the following property combinations is peculiar to the majority of
NSAIDs?
A Antihistaminic, antipyretic, analgesic
B Immunodepressive, anti-inflammatory, analgesic
C Antipyretic, analgesic, anti-inflammatory*
D Anti-inflammatory, immunodepressive, antihistaminic
E All of the above
59 Which of the following are not treated with Prednisone?
A Cushing's disease
B Testicular cancer*
C Lympthomas
D Chronic leukemias
E All of the above
60 Which of the following are NOT treated with Dexamethasone?
A Inflammation
B Asthma
C Addison's disease
D Wilson's disease*
E All of the above
61 Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Heparin?
A Protamine sulfas*
B N-acetylcysteine
C Glucagon
D Methylene blue
E All of the above
62 Which of the following are NOT treated with Hydrochlorothiazide?
A CHF
B Hypercalciuria
C Nephritis*
D Edema
E Hypertension
63 Which of the following are NOT treated with Nifedipine?
A Angina
B Arrhythmias
C Fluid retention*
D Hypertension
E All of the above
64 Which of the following is NOT a side effect of the Diuretics (Loop diuretics)?
A Alkalosis
B Nausea*
C Hypotension
D Potassium deficits
E All of the above
65 Which of the following is NOT a side effect of the Vasodilator (Nifedipine)?
A Nausea
B Flush appearanc
C Vertigo
D Sexual dysfunction*
E All of the above
66 Which of the following is not a side effect of the Ace Inhibitor (Captopril)?
A Rash
B Angioedema
C Cough
D Congestion*
E All of the above
67 Caffeine is
A Analeptic and antidepressant
B Analeptic and psychomotor stimulant*
C Antidepressant and psychomotor stimulant
D Antidepressant and nootropic
E Analeptic and nootropic
68 Complications, arising up at codeine application as an antitussive mean
A Dryness in the mouth cavity
B Tachycardia
C Tachypnoe
D Artery pressure increase
E Constipation, medicinal dependence*
69 Cordiaminum is used at
A Hypertensive disease
B Bronchial asthma
C Collapse*
D Bronchitis
E Gastritis
70 Indicate the peculiarility of Furosemide action:
A Slow effect development
B Fast effect development*
C The duration of action (10-14 days)
D Low diuretic activity
E It doesn’t influence K concentration in the blood
71 Mast cell stabilizers are most effective in treating bronchoconstriction associated
with:
A Emphysema
B Exposure to cold
C Allergens*
D Infection
E Tachycardia
72 A patient with rheumatoid arthritis who had been treated with indometacin has got
signs of gastropathy. What activity of the drug can this complication be connected
with?
A Anticyclooxygenase*
B Antikinine
C Antiserotonin
D Antihistamine
E Locally irritating