Download Core Chemistry Term 3 Final Exam 2007-08 S2

Core Chemistry Term 1 Final Exam
Name: __________________________
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. The state of matter in which a material has neither a definite shape nor a definite volume is the _____
state.
a. gaseous
c. elemental
b. liquid
d. solid
2. Under ordinary conditions of temperature and pressure, the particles in a gas are
a. closely packed.
c. held in fixed positions.
b. very far from each other.
d. unevenly distributed.
3. A physical change occurs when a
a. peach spoils.
b. copper bowl tarnishes.
c. bracelet turns your wrist green.
d. glue gun melts a glue stick.
4. Baking soda and vinegar release a gas when mixed. This is an example of a
a. Endothermic reaction.
c. Physical change.
b. Exothermic reaction.
d. Chemical change.
5. Matter includes all of the following except
a. air.
c. smoke.
b. light.
d. water vapor.
6. A measure of the quantity of matter is
a. density.
b. weight.
c. volume.
d. mass.
7. A true statement about mass is that
a. mass is often measured with a spring scale.
b. mass is expressed in pounds.
c. as the force of Earth’s gravity on an object increases, the object’s mass increases.
d. mass remains constant regards of the effect of gravity
8. Quantitative observations are recorded using
a. numerical information.
c. non-numerical information.
b. a control.
d. a system.
9. In a valid experiment, you must have a control and
a. qualitative data
c. graph
b. mass
d. variable
10. All of the following are examples of units except
a. weight.
c. gram.
b. kilometer.
d. teaspoon.
11. Which of the following is not an SI base unit for volume?
a. cm3
c. L
b. cL
d. mL
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Core Chemistry Term 1 Final Exam
Name: __________________________
12. The abbreviation that represents a volume unit is
a. mL.
c. mm.
b. mg.
d. cm.
13. The SI base unit for time is the
a. day.
b. hour.
c. minute.
d. second.
14. 1m = _______________mm
a. 100.
b. 1000.
c. 0.001
d. 10.
15. 4 cL = __________L
a. 0.04
b. 0.004
c. 4000
d. 400
16. What would be the correct measure for the line below using this ruler?
0cm
10cm
20cm
a. 18.05 cm
b. 28.0 cm
30cm
40cm
c. 28 cm
d. 18 cm
17. What is the volume of the liquid in the diagram of the graduated cylinder to the right?
a. 33 mL
c. 31.3 mL
b. 30 mL
d. 32.5 mL
18. The only pure substance listed below is
a. cookie dough.
b. Sodium Chloride (NaCl) in water
c. Gold (Au)
d. Sand in water.
19. Which of the following is a chemical property?
a. flammability
c. density
b. texture
d. mass
20. To calculate the density of an object,
a. multiply its mass and its volume.
b. divide its mass by its volume.
c. divide its volume by its mass.
d. divide its mass by its area.
21. What is the density of 37.72 g of matter whose volume is 6.80 cm3?
a. 0.18 g/cm3
c. 30.92 g/cm3
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b. 5.55 g/cm
d. 256.4 g/cm3
22. The law of conservation of mass follows from the concept that
a. In chemical reactions, atoms are combined, separated, or rearranged.
b. atoms of different elements have different properties.
c. matter is composed of atoms.
d. atoms can be destroyed in chemical reactions.
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Core Chemistry Term 1 Final Exam
Name: __________________________
23. The homogeneous mixture in the illustration above is in container
a. a.
c. c.
b. b.
d. d.
24. Poor precision in scientific measurement may arise from
a. the standard being too strict.
b. human error.
c. limitations of the measuring instrument.
d. both human error and the limitations of the measuring instrument.
25. Precision pertains to all of the following except
a. reproducibility of measurements.
b. agreement among numerical values.
c. sameness of measurements.
d. closeness of a measurement to an accepted value.
26. Four darts strike near the center of the target. Whoever threw the darts is
a. accurate.
c. both accurate and precise.
b. precise.
d. neither accurate nor precise.
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Core Chemistry Term 1 Final Exam
Name: __________________________
27. Which part of the illustration above shows the particles in a heterogeneous mixture?
a. a
c. c
b. b
d. d
28. You measure the height of the desk to be 0.80 meters. The accepted value is 0.82 meters. The percent
error of the measurement can be determined from the equation:
a) 0.82 m - 0.80 m
b)
0.80 m - 0.82 m
x 100
0.82 m
c)
0.82 m
x 100
0.80 m
d)
0.80 m
x 100
0.82 m
29. All of the following are physical properties of a metal except
a) luster (shiny)
b) low density
c) c) flammable in air
d) able to hammer into thin sheets
30. All of the following would be considered physical properties of water except it
a) reacts violently with sodium metal
b) has a density of 1.0 g/mL
c) is colorless
d) has a freezing point of 0oC
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Core Chemistry Term 1 Final Exam
Name: __________________________
31. A subatomic particle that has about the same mass as a proton, but with no electrical charge, is called
a(n)
a. nucleus.
c. electron.
b. neutron.
d. isotope.
32. The subatomic particle that has a positive charge is called a(n)
a. proton.
c. neutron.
b. electron.
d. nuclide.
33. The nucleus of most atoms is composed of
a. tightly packed protons.
b. tightly packed neutrons.
c. tightly packed protons and neutrons.
d. loosely connected protons and electrons.
34. An aluminum isotope consists of 13 protons, 13 electrons, and 14 neutrons. Its mass number is
a. 13.
c. 27.
b. 14.
d. 40.
35. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have different
a. principal chemical properties.
c. numbers of protons.
b. masses.
d. numbers of electrons.
36. Isotopes of an element contain different numbers of
a. electrons.
c. neutrons.
b. protons.
d. nuclides.
37. If electrons in an atom have the lowest possible energies, the electrons are in their
a. ground states.
c. excited states.
b. inert states.
d. radiation-emitting states.
38. Most of the volume of an atom is occupied by the
a. nucleus.
c. electron cloud.
b. nuclides.
d. protons.
39. The letter designations for the first four sublevels, with the number of electrons that can be
accommodated in each sublevel are
a. s: 1, p: 3, d: 10, and f: 14.
c. s: 2, p: 6, d: 10, and f: 14.
b. s: 1, p: 3, d: 5, and f: 7.
d. s: 1, p: 2, d: 3, and f: 4.
40. The number of orbitals (boxes) for the d sublevel is
a. 1.
c. 5.
b. 3.
d. 7.
41. The statement that an electron occupies the lowest available energy orbital is
a. The Pauli exclusion principle
c. Hund’s rule
b. the Aufbau principle.
d. The orbital rule
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Core Chemistry Term 1 Final Exam
Name: __________________________
42. Which of the following rules requires that each of the p orbitals at a particular energy level receive one
electron before any of them can have two electrons?
a. The Pauli exclusion principle
c. Hund’s rule
b. The Aufbau principle
d. the orbital rule
43. Which of the following rules requires that paired electrons must have opposite spin.
a. the Pauli exclusion principle.
c. Hund’s rule
b. The Aufbau principle
d. The orbital rule
44. Which is the ground-state electron configuration for Cr?
a. [Ar] 4s23d4
c. [Ar] 4s33d3
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b. [Ar] 4s 3d
d. [Ar] 4s43d2
45. The carbon-12 atom is assigned a relative mass of exactly
a. 1 amu.
c. 12 amu.
b. 6 amu.
d. 100 amu.
46. The periodic law states that
a. no two electrons with the same spin can be found in the same place in an atom.
b. the physical and chemical properties of the elements are functions of their atomic numbers.
c. electrons exhibit properties of both particles and waves.
d. the chemical properties of elements can be grouped according to periodicity, but physical
properties cannot.
47. Elements in a group or column in the periodic table can be expected to have similar
a. atomic masses.
c. numbers of neutrons.
b. atomic numbers.
d. properties.
48. The atomic number of sodium, the first element in Period 3, is 11. The atomic number of the second
element in this period is
a. 3.
c. 12.
b. 10.
d. 18.
49. An element that has an electron configuration of [He]2s22p3 is in Period _____ of the periodic table.
a. 1
c. 3
b. 2
d. 4
50. An element that has an electron configuration of [Ne]3s23p3 is in Group _____ of the periodic table.
a. 2
c. 6
b. 3
d. 15
51. To which group of the periodic table do lithium and potassium belong?
a. alkali metals
c. halogens
b. transition metals
d. noble gases
52. To which group of the periodic table do fluorine and chlorine belong?
a. alkaline-earth metals
c. halogens
b. transition elements
d. actinides
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Core Chemistry Term 1 Final Exam
Name: __________________________
53. The outer electron configuration of an alkali metal has
a. 1 electron in the s orbital (s1 )
c. 1 electron in the p orbital. (p1 )
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b. 2 electrons in the s orbital(s )
d. 2 electrons in the p orbital. (p2 )
54. The elements in Group 7 are known by what name?
a. halogens
c. alkaline-earth metals
b. alkali metals
d. noble gases
55. Where are the Transition elements found on the periodic table?
a. S block
c. D block
b. P block
d. F block
56. A metal is called malleable if it
a. has a shiny appearance.
b. can be hammered into sheets.
c. can be squeezed out into a wire.
d. exists naturally as an element.
57. Which of the following is/are physical method(s) used to separate a mixtures
a. Distillation
c. Use of a magnet
b. Filtration
d. All of the above
58. Going down a group in the periodic table, electron affinity
a. increase.
c. decrease.
b. remain the same.
d. vary unpredictably.
59. Which is the best reason that the atomic radius generally increases with atomic number in each group of
elements?
a. The nuclear charge increases.
c. The number of energy levels
increases.
b. The number of neutrons increases.
d. A new octet forms.
60. For the alkaline-earth metals, atoms with the smallest radii have the
a. largest atomic numbers.
c. most mass.
b. greatest volumes.
d. highest ionization energies.
61. Electron affinity tends to
a. decrease across a period and decrease down a group.
b. increase across a period and increase down a group.
c. decrease across a period and increase down a group.
d. increase across a period and decrease down a group.
62. Atomic radius measures the
a. size of an atom
b. ability to attract an atom
c. amount of energy needed to remove an electron
d. ability to attract an electron
63. Electron affinity is
a. size of an atom
b. ability to attract an atom
c. amount of energy needed to remove an electron
d. ability to attract an electron
64. Ionization energy is
a. size of an atom
b. ability to attract an atom
c. amount of energy needed to remove an electron
d. ability to attract an electron
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Core Chemistry Term 1 Final Exam
Name: __________________________
Use the diagram below to answer the questions
C
D
E
B
A
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
Using the diagram above, which area contains elements that have eight (8) valence electrons?
Using the diagram above, indicate which area is the transition metals.
Using the diagram above, which area of the periodic table would the halogen family be found?
Using the diagram above, which area of the periodic table would the alkaline earth metal family be found?
Using the diagram above, which area of the periodic table would have seven valence electrons?
Using the diagram above, which area of the periodic table would be the alkali metals?
71. The correct formula of sodium sulfate is
a. NaSO3
b. NaS
c. NaSO4
d. Na2SO4
e. Na(SO4)2
72. The formula for calcium phosphate is
a. CaPO4
b. Ca3(PO4)2
c. Ca2(PO4)3
d. Ca3P2
e. Ca3(PO3)2
d. Cu2F
e. Cu3F3
73. Which is the correct formula for copper(II) fluoride?
a. CuF3
b. CuF2
c. Cu2F3
74. What is the formula for the binary compound formed by potassium and nitrogen?
a. KN
b. K2N
c. NK2
d. K3N
e. NK3
75. What is the formula for the ionic compound formed by magnesium and iodine?
a. MgI
b. Mg2I
c. MgI2
d. MgI3
e. Mg3I
76. What is the formula for the ionic compound formed by calcium ions and nitrate ions?
a. Ca3N2
b. Ca(NO3)2
c. Ca2NO3
d. Ca2NO2
e. CaNO3
77. Which of the following pairs of elements would be most likely to form an ionic compound?
a. P and Br
b. Cu and K
c. C and O
d. Zn and O
e. Al and Rb
78. The correct name for Ba(OH)2 is
a. barium hydrogen oxide
b. boron hydroxide
c. barium hydrate
d. beryllium hydroxide
e. barium hydroxide
79. The correct name for NH4NO3 is
a. ammonium nitrate
b. ammonium nitrogen trioxide
c. ammonia nitrogen oxide
d. hydrogen nitrate
e. hydrogen nitrogen oxide
80. The correct name for CuCl2 is
a. copper chloride
b. copper (I) chloride
c. monocopper dichloride
d. copper dichloride
e. copper (II) chloride
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Core Chemistry Term 1 Final Exam
81. The correct name for K2O is
a. potassium oxide
b. monopotassium oxide
82. The correct name of N2O5 is
a. nitrogen oxide
b. dinitrogen monoxide
Name: __________________________
c. potassium dioxide
d. dipotassium monoxide
c. nitrogen pentoxide
d. nitrogen (II) oxide (V)
83. Carbon dioxide, CO2 has a(n)
a. polyatomic ion
b. ionic bond
84. How many Hydrogen atoms are in
a. 2
b. 8
e. potassium (II) oxide
e. dinitrogen pentoxide
c. metallic bond
d. covalent bond
_4_Ca(OH)2 ?
c. 4
d.1
85. This type of bond occurs between a metal and a nonmetal when a complete transfer of electrons from
one atom to the other takes place.
a. ionic bonds
c. nonpolar covalent bonds
b. covalent bonds
d. metallic bonds
86. Covalent bonds involve
a. sharing of protons amongst two nonmetals
b. sharing of protons amongst two nonmetals
c. sharing of electrons amongst two metals
d. sharing of electrons amongst two nonmetals
87. This type of bond occurs between two nonmetals when there is an equal sharing of electrons.
a. ionic bonds
c. nonpolar covalent bonds
b. covalent bonds
d. metallic bonds
88. Which of the following is an example of a polyatomic ion?
a. Cl-1
c. NaCl
b. Na+1
d. (SO3)-2
89. A chemical reaction is a process in which
a. reactants change into products.
b. substances with new chemical and physical properties are formed.
c. the law of conservation of mass applies.
d. all of the above.
90. What is the number that appears in front of a compound in a chemical reaction?
a. subscript
c. ratio
b. superscript
d. coefficient
91. Which equation is NOT balanced correctly?
a. 2 H2 + O2 2 H2O
c. H2 + H2 + O2  H2O + H2O
b. 4 H2 + 2 O2 4 H2O
d. 2 H2 + O2 H2O
92. The correct representation of hydrogen gas is
a. H
b. 2 H
c. H2
d. OH
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Core Chemistry Term 1 Final Exam
Name: __________________________
93. In what kind of reaction do two or more substances combine to form a new compound?
a. decomposition reaction
c. double-replacement reaction
b. ionic reaction
d. synthesis reaction
94. The equation AX  A + X is the general (variable) equation for a
a. synthesis reaction
c. combustion reaction
b. decomposition reaction
d. single-replacement reaction
95. In what kind of reaction does one element replace a similar element in a compound?
a. single-replacement reaction
c. decomposition reaction
b. double-replacement reaction
d. ionic reaction
96. In what kind of reaction do the ions of two compounds exchange places to form two new compounds?
a. synthesis reaction
c. decomposition reaction
b. double-replacement reaction
d. combustion reaction
97. This only single-displacement reaction among the following chemical equations is:
a. NaCl + AgNO3 - AgCl + NaNO3
c. Pb + Hg2SO4  PbSO4 + 2Hg
b. 2 H2O2  2 H2O + O2
d. 2 NH3  N2 + 3H2
98. Predict the products of the following double displacement reaction AgNO3 + NaCl 
a. Ag + NaNO3
c. AgCl + NaNO3
b. AgNa + NO3Cl
d. AgNO3NaCl
99. Identify the synthesis reaction below:
a. 8 Fe + S8  8 FeS
b. Fe + H2S  FeS + H2
100. In the reaction: Al + O2 
a. AlO
b. Al3O2
c. 2 NH3  N2 + 3 H2
d. Cl2 + 2 NaBr  2NaCl + Br2
__________ , the product is
c. O2Al
d. Al2O3
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