Download physics 2008 - Spring Branch ISD

Name _______________________________
6th Grade
Date ____________________
Spring 2012 Final Review
Multiple Choice- Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. When an object's distance from another object is changing,
a. it is in motion.
b. it is speeding.
c. it has a high velocity.
d. it is not moving.
2. Kilometers, meters, and seconds are all
a. distances
b. reference points
c. units
d. velocities
3. If you know the distance an object has traveled in a certain amount of time, you can determine
a. the size of the object
b. the speed of the object
c. the location of the object
d. the mass of the object
4. Speed equals distance divided by
a. time
b. velocity
c. size
d. motion
5. If the speed of an object does NOT change, the object is traveling at a(n)
a. constant speed
b. average speed
c. increasing speed
d. decreasing speed
6. On a graph showing distance versus time, a horizontal line represents an object that is
a. moving at a constant speed
b. increasing its speed
c. decreasing its speed
d. not moving at all
7. When a force changes an object's motion, the force is
a. balanced
b. moving
c. net
d. unbalanced
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8. Speed =
a. Distance
Time
b. _Time__
Distance
c. Distance
Velocity
d. Velocity
Time
9. You are on a skateboard and notice that you travel from one sign to another in ten minutes. You know that
the signs are exactly two miles apart. What is your speed in mph (miles per hour)?
a .2 mph
b. 6 mph
c. 12 mph <-not .12
d. 14 mph
10. Force is measured in ______?
a. grams
b. Neutrons
c. Newtons
d. Speed
Use the following scenario to answer questions 11-12.
Joe Shmoe is moving into a new apartment in Angleton. He asks his friend, Goldie Fish, to
help him lift his tuba 10m up to his apartment. Goldie exerts 2.5 N of force. Joe exerts
twice as much force. It takes them 3 minutes to travel the 10m.
11. What is the force that Joe is exerting?
a. 2.5 N
b. 5 N
c. 7.5 N
d. None of the above
12. What is the net force of Goldie and Joe?
a. 5 N
b. 7.5 N
c. 10 N
d. 12.5 N
13. An object is considered to be in motion only if it changes position relative to:
a. another moving object
b. any point of reference
c. the sun
d. the ground
14. What causes an object to accelerate? (Think!)
a. an unbalanced force exerted on it
b. a change of direction
c. an increase in its speed
d. fear of being hit
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15. What is the speed a bicyclist must ride in order to finish a 15 kilometer race in three hours?
a. 5 km/hour
b. 10 km/hour
c. 30 km/hour
d. 45 km/hour
Use the information in the graph and your knowledge of science to answer questions 16 and 17.
16) According to the graph, John’s
speed between two and three
seconds was __
a.
b.
c.
d.
0 m/s
1 m/s
2 m/s
3 m/s
17) What is Mary’s speed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 m/s
2 m/s
3 m/s
35 cm/s
Matching. Match the description to the term by writing the correct letter by each selection.
C 18. is a push or pull.
A. Speed
E 19. are forces that move an object.
B. Balanced forces
A 20. is the distance and time an object moves.
C. Force
B 21. are forces that cancel each other out.
D. Friction
G 22. anything that you can change that might affect the outcome
E. Unbalanced Forces
D 23. is the force between objects that opposes motion.
G. Variable
24. Substances that provide energy as the result of a chemical change are called
a. Fertilizers
b. Reserves
c. Fuels
d. Refineries
25. Three major fossil fuels are coal, oil, and
a. Wood
b. Natural gas
c. Gasoline
d. Electricity
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26. Fossil fuels are energy-rich because they contain
a. Fossil fragments
b. Heat
c. Electricity
d. Hydrocarbons (carbons and hydrogen bonded together)
27.
28.
Coal is a solid fossil fuel formed from
a. The remains of animals
b. Rocks
c. Decayed plant remains
d. Hardened lava
The most plentiful fossil fuel in the United States is
a. Coal
b. Oil
c. Natural gas
d. Wood
29.
Factories where crude oil is separated into fuels and other products are called
a. Deposits
b. Reserves
c. Refineries
d. Incinerators
30.
Which fossil fuel produces the lowest levels of many air pollutants?
a. Coal
b. Oil
c. Petroleum
d. Natural gas
31.
Fossil fuels are considered nonrenewable resources because they
a. Burn so quickly
b. Are in such high demand
c. Take hundreds of millions of years to form
d. Pollute the air
32.
What is the result of using fossil fuels more rapidly than they are formed?
a. The reserves will eventually be used up.
b. The reserves will be refilled more quickly.
c. The reserves will not be affected.
d. The price of fossil fuels will fall.
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33.
Which of the following is an advantage of solar energy?
a. It will not run out for billions of years.
b. It is not available at night.
c. No backup energy sources are needed.
d. It must be collected from a huge area.
34.
What fuel forms only water as a by-product when it is burned?
a. Petroleum
b. Ethanol
c. Natural gas
d. Uranium
35.
Which of these is an example of a biomass fuel?
a. Oil
b. Natural gas
c. Wood
d. Coal
36.
The intense heat beneath Earth's surface can be a source of
a. Hydrogen power
b. Nuclear fusion
c. Geothermal energy
d. Solar energy
37.
The splitting of an atom's nucleus into two smaller nuclei is called
a. nuclear fusion.
b. nuclear fission
c. a chain reaction
d. a meltdown
38.
In a nuclear power plant, what is used to change water into steam?
a. the burning of natural gas
b. geothermal energy
c. captured solar energy
d. heat released from nuclear fission reactions
39.
In the future, cars may provide energy savings by
a. running on electricity.
b. being larger and heavier.
c. moving at much faster speeds.
d. using only unleaded gasoline.
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The map below shows the fictional island of Wenarbel.
Use the map the key provided to answer questions 40 – 41.
40.
Which area of the map would be the best location for hydroelectric energy?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
41.
The president of Wenarbel has heard about the benefits of wind energy and wants to build a
windmill farm on the island. Which area would you recommend for building the farm and
why?
a. Area A is best because there is a lot of open space to build the farm.
b. Area B is best because the trees will block some of the wind.
c. Area C is best because there are a couple of rivers nearby.
d. Area D is best because there are several large cities nearby.
42.
All of the following are ways to conserve energy at home except
a. Carpooling to work or school
b. Turning off the lights when you aren’t in the room
c. Using natural light instead of electric lights when possible
d. Keeping the air conditioning running on high in the summer to stay cool
43. Which of the following is a true statement about work?
a. it measures how quickly an object accelerates
b. it measures how much effort is applied over a certain distance
c. it measures the change in an objects rate of speed
d. it measures how much time it takes to move a massive object
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44. What does one Newton of force exerted over a distance of one meter equal?
a. one watt
b. one hertz
c. one volt
d. one joule
45. Simple machines make work easier by increasing what?
a. the distance which work is done
b. the force needed to do work
c. the time required to do work
d. the acceleration of a massive object
46. What is a lever?
a. any piece of metal that bends
b. any bar or a rod that is set up to tilt on a fulcrum
c. any bar that is used to lift a load
d. any bar that is attached to a pulley
47. Which device uses a lever?
a. a seesaw
b. a pair if scissors
c. a wheelbarrow
d. all of the above
48. What is the following point called?
a. the load
b. the effort
c. the fulcrum
d. the lever
49. Which of the following is a true statement?
a. It is easier to lift a heavy weight straight up than to slide it up a ramp
b. When you use a lot of force, the load becomes lighter
c. When you use the minimum amount of force, a load become heavier
d. When you increase the distance over which force is expended, you don’t have
to work as hard
50. Where on a bicycle might you find a pulley?
a. the gears
b. the handlebars
c. the seat
d. the tires
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51. What is the benefit of a simple machine?
a. it allows us to convert motion into electricity
b. it prevents us from making careless mistakes
c. it uses magnets to move objects
d. it allows us to move objects more easily
52.When work is done on an object,
a. the object does not move.
b. the object moves some distance as a result of a force.
c. no force is exerted on the object.
d. the force on the object is perpendicular to the motion.
53.Which of these is an example of work being done on an object?
a. holding a heavy piece of wood at a construction site
b. pushing against a boulder that doesn't budge
c. pushing a child on a swing that swings away from you
d. holding a door shut on a windy day so it doesn't blow open
54.In order to do work on an object, the force you exert must be
a. the maximum amount of force you are able to exert.
b. in the same direction as the object's motion.
c. in a direction opposite to Earth's gravitational force.
d. quick and deliberate.
55.Work equals force times
a. energy.
b. velocity.
c. distance.
d. mass.
56.If you exert a force of 20 newtons to push a desk 10 meters, how much work do you do on the desk?
a. 2 joules
b. 30 joules
c. 100 joules
d. 200 joules
57.The SI unit of work is the
a. meter.
b. pound.
c. joule.
d. newton.
58.Which of the following is NOT a way in which machines make work easier?
a. They change the amount of work that is done.
b. They change the amount of force that is exerted.
c. They change the distance over which a force is exerted.
d. They change the direction in which a force is exerted.
59.The force exerted by a machine is called the
a. input force.
b. output force.
c. effort force.
d. multiplying force.
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60.How can a hockey stick be considered a machine?
a. It multiplies force.
b. It multiplies distance.
c. It changes direction.
d. It reduces friction.
61.When you pull down on a rope to hoist a sail on a sailboat, you are using a machine that
a. multiplies force.
b. multiplies distance.
c. changes direction.
d. reduces friction.
62.If you exert a force of 20 newtons on a can opener, and the opener exerts a force of 60 newtons on a can, the
mechanical advantage of the can opener is
a. 3.
b. 20.
c. 60.
d. 1,200.
63.The mechanical advantage of a machine that changes only the direction of a force is
a. 1.
b. less than 1.
c. greater than 1.
d. zero.
64.Without friction, machines would
a. be less efficient.
b. produce greater output work than input work.
c. produce greater input work than output work.
d. produce output work that equals input work.
65.Under ideal conditions, a machine would have an efficiency of
a. 1 percent.
b. 10 percent.
c. 50 percent.
d. 100 percent.
66.To calculate the efficiency of a machine,
a. divide force by mass and multiply by 100 percent.
b. divide output work by input work and multiply by 100 percent.
c. multiply force by friction.
d. multiply friction by mass.
67.If a machine has an efficiency of 50 percent, how much of your work is wasted overcoming friction when
you use the machine?
a. all of it
b. none of it
c. one half
d. 10 percent
68.A ramp is an example of a simple machine called a(n)
a. inclined plane.
b. wedge.
c. lever.
d. pulley.
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69.A simple machine that might be thought of as an inclined plane that moves is a
a. lever.
b. wheel and axle.
c. wedge.
d. pulley.
70.Which of these machines could be considered an inclined plane wrapped around a cylinder?
a. lever
b. screw
c. wheel and axle
d. pulley
71.The fixed point that a lever pivots around is called the
a. axle.
b. pulley.
c. gear.
d. fulcrum.
72.When you raise or lower a flag on a flagpole, you are using a(n)
a. lever.
b. pulley.
c. wedge.
d. inclined plane.
73.The ideal mechanical advantage of an inclined plane is equal to the length of the incline divided by the
a. mass of the incline.
b. slope of the incline.
c. height of the incline.
d. angle of the incline.
74.The ideal mechanical advantage of a lever is equal to the distance from the fulcrum to the input force divided
by the
a. direction of the input force.
b. efficiency of the lever.
c. distance from the fulcrum to the output force.
d. distance from one end of the lever to the other.
75.The ideal mechanical advantage of a wheel and axle is equal to the
a. radius of the wheel divided by the radius of the axle.
b. radius of the axle divided by the radius of the wheel.
c. radius of the wheel divided by the length of the axle.
d. length of the axle divided by the radius of the wheel.
76.A machine that uses two or more simple machines is called a
a. combination machine.
b. compound machine.
c. mechanical machine.
d. mixed machine.
77.A device with toothed wheels that fit into one another is called a
a. system of gears.
b. wheel and axle.
c. pulley.
d. fulcrum.
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78.One example of a compound machine is a
a. seesaw.
b. ramp.
c. bicycle.
d. rake.
79.The bones in your body can function as
a. wedges.
b. levers.
c. pulleys.
d. inclined planes.
80.Which body parts act as the fulcrums of levers?
a. muscles
b. teeth
c. joints
d. tendons
81.Which body parts are shaped like wedges?
a. muscles
b. molars
c. incisors
d. bones in your legs
82.The model in which Earth is at the center of the system of planets is called the
a. solar system.
b. heliocentric system.
c. geocentric system.
d. Copernican system.
83.The heliocentric system gained support when Galileo observed that
a. one side of the moon always faces Earth.
b. the inner planets are smaller than most of the outer planets.
c. Venus goes through phases similar to those of Earth's moon.
d. the orbit of each planet is an ellipse.
84.The two factors that combine to keep the planets in orbit are
a. gravity and the sun.
b. orbital speed and mass.
c. mass and inertia.
d. gravity and inertia.
85.Each planet and its moons form a
a. solar system.
b. wandering star.
c. corona.
d. system.
86.What do all of the inner planets have in common?
a. They have the same period of revolution.
b. They have the same period of rotation.
c. They have the same diameter.
d. They are small and have rocky surfaces.
87.Earth is unique among the planets because of
a. its rocky surface.
b. its oceans.
c. its large size.
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d. the direction in which it rotates.
88.The atmospheres of the gas giant planets cannot escape into space because
a. the gases are too heavy.
b. the gases solidify at higher elevations.
c. the planets have very strong gravity.
d. although they are big, the planets have little mass.
89.What do the first four outer planets have in common?
a. They are much larger than Earth and do not have solid surfaces.
b. They are about the same size as Earth and do not have solid surfaces.
c. They are much larger than Earth and are solid.
d. They are about the same size as Earth and are solid.
90.Saturn's rings are made up mostly of
a. nitrogen and helium.
b. ice and water vapor.
c. volcanic dust particles.
d. chunks of ice and rock.
91.Which planet has four moons named Europa, Callisto, Ganymede, and Io?
a. Jupiter
b. Neptune
c. Saturn
d. Mars
92.Pluto is different from the other outer planets because it
a. is almost entirely made of gases.
b. is much larger than the others.
c. has the most moons.
d. is small and has a solid surface.
93.What shape are the orbits of comets seen from Earth?
a. long, narrow ellipses
b. circles
c. nearly circular ellipses
d. spherical
94.The asteroid belt is located between
a. Earth and Mars.
b. Mars and Jupiter.
c. Jupiter and Saturn.
d. Saturn and Uranus.
95.Meteoroids usually come from
a. debris from other planets.
b. solar winds.
c. beyond the solar system.
d. comets or asteroids.
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96.It's a basic law of physics that for every force, or action, there is
a. a decreased force, or reaction.
b. an equal force in the same direction.
c. an increased force, or reaction.
d. an equal and opposite force, or reaction.
97.Once in space, space-shuttle astronauts rely on computers to
a. supply oxygen needed to breathe.
b. protect them from the sun's radiation.
c. monitor conditions on the shuttle.
d. communicate with each other.
98. levels of classification:
Kingdom
Phylum
Class
Order
Family
Genus
Species
99. Which level contains the most organisms? The least? The most closely related?
Kingdom
Species
Species
100. prokaryote : living organism that has no nucleus
101. eukaryote :
organism that has a nucleus
102. What are the 6 kingdoms of living things?
Animal, Plant, Fungi, Protist, Archaebacteria, Eubacteria
103. What things must an organism have to be considered a living thing?
 Made of cells
 Use energy
 Grow and develop
 Reproduce
 Respond to surroundings
 Contain similar chemicals
104. The science of placing organisms into groups based on shared characteristics is called:
105.
a. Development
b. Biology
c. Taxonomy
d. DNA
A genus is divided into:
a. Species
b. Families
c. Classes
d. Phyla
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106.
When using binomial nomenclature, an organism is named using its:
a. Kingdom and phylum
b. Class and order
c. Family and genus
d. Genus and species
107. As we move through the biological hierarchy from the kingdom to species level, organisms
a. vary more and more.
b. are less and less related to each other.
c. become more similar in appearance.
d. always are members of the same order.
107.
108. The organism Quercus phellos is a member of the genus
a.
b.
Plantae.
phellos.
c.
d.
Quercus.
Protista.
109. Poison ivy is also known as Rhus toxicodendron. Its species identifier is
a.
poison.
c.
ivy.
b.
Rhus.
d.
toxicodendron.
108.
110. The scientific name of an organism
a.
b.
c.
d.
109.
varies according to the native language of scientists.
is the same for scientists all over the world.
may refer to more than one species.
may have more than one genus name.
111. Two organisms in the same class but different orders will
a. be in different kingdoms.
b. have the same genus name.
110.
c. be in the same phylum.
d. be members of the same species.
112. The correct order of the biological hierarchy from kingdom to species is
a.
b.
c.
d.
kingdom, class, family, order, phylum, genus, species.
kingdom, phylum, order, family, class, genus, species.
kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species.
kingdom, class, order, phylum, family, genus, species.
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113. Which taxonomic category shown in the figure contains the greatest number of different organisms?
Kingdom
114.
What is the scientific name of the animal in the figure?
Ursus arctos
115.
From the following list of common and scientific names determine which pair represents
the two most closely related plants. Explain your answer.
broad bean = Vicia faba
castor bean = Ricinus communis
kidney bean = Phaseolus vulgaris
potato bean = Apios americana
scarlet runner bean = Phaseolus coccineus
kidney bean = Phaseolus vulgaris and scarlet runner bean = Phaseolus coccineus, because they are
in the same Genus
116.
What does the scientific name of an organism tell you about that organism?
What Genus and Species it belongs to, along with all the traits that put it in each previous taxonomic
category.
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