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AP Psychology Final Exam: Modules 1-25 MULTIPLE CHOICE – PLEASE BUBBLE IN THE BEST RESPONSE ON THE SCANTRON SHEET 1. In the definition of psychology presented in your text, the term behavior refers to: a. mental processes b. observable actions or responses c. thinking d. behaviors performed only by human beings 2. People smile because they are happy. This statement best illustrates the ____ goal of psychology. a. describe b. analyze c. explain d. summarize 3. Karen believes that her boyfriend is afraid of making commitments because of an unconscious hatred for his mother. Her belief is closest to which psychological perspective? a. humanistic b. psychoanalytic c. cross-cultural d. cognitive 4. Which of the following relationships best illustrates introspection? a. females to males b. trees to leaves c. letters to words d. cars to airplanes 5. The father of modern psychology is considered to be: a. Sigmund Freud b. George Sanchez c. William James d. B.F. Skinner 6. Gestalt psychologists study how sensations are: a. experienced by the sensory organs b. assembled into meaningful perceptual experiences c. observed and recorded d. composed of smaller elements 7. Functionalism focused on: a. having subjects look inward and report on the workings of their minds b. the fact that perception was more than the sum of its parts c. how the mind helped the organism to adapt to its surroundings d. the objective, scientific analysis of observable behaviors Hernandez Final 2011 1 8. The research area of psychology most likely to study stereotypes, group behavior, and aggression is: a. social psychology b. psychometrics c. clinical psychology d. developmental psychology 9. The four goals of psychology are to describe, explain, predict, and: a. test b. interact c. observe d. control 10. Ritalin is to ____ as aspirin is to ____. a. stimulant; depressant b. attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder; headache c. depression; headache d. analgesic; amphetamine 11. Ollie is having a bad day. He’s not feeling very good about himself. He also notices that people are treating him differently. Friends who are usually very considerate are acting rude and impatient toward Ollie. Is his low self-esteem affecting how he interacts with people? Or are his friends influencing how Ollie feels about himself? These questions are a classic example of: a. a self-fulfilling prophecy b. a confound c. a fundamental attribution error d. cognitive dissonance 12. As the price of gas increases, we tend to drive less. This is an example of a ____ correlation. a. positive b. negative c. perfect d. zero 13. Which of the following correlation coefficients represents a situation in which an increase in one variable is associated with an increase in the other variable? a. .45 b. .61 c. .00 d. +.45 14. If a researcher wants to study a behavior in a controlled environment, the researcher should utilize a(n): a. laboratory experiment b. testimonial c. naturalistic study d. case study 15. Alfredo is conducting an experiment on the effects of exercise on concentration. The independent variable is ____ and the dependent variable is ____. a. subjects; control group b. experimental group; concentration c. exercise; concentration d. concentration; exercise Hernandez Final 2011 2 16. If each subject in a sample population has an equal chance of being selected, it is called: a. a control group b. random selection c. an experimental group d. measurement error 17. Experimental group is to treatment as control group is to: a. subject b. random selection c. manipulate d. placebo 18. A(n) ____ is a strong belief about future behavior that can affect the behavior so that the belief appears to have predicted it. a. self-fulfilling prophecy b. confounded experience c. introspection d. testimonial 19. Your grandmother’s cure for your upset stomach is to rub vinegar on your ear lobes; it works much of the time, but has no real medical effect. Psychologists would probably say that this is an example of a: a. double blind effect b. biased effect c. placebo effect d. confounding effect 20. The two groups of cells in your brain are: a. glial cells and astrocytes b. neurons and axons c. genes and peripheral cells d. neurons and glial cells 21. The functions of neurons include: a. transmitting and receiving electrical messages b. providing support for glial cells c. insulating axons d. opening sodium gates in glial cells 22. Which of the following areas is most likely to be able to grow new neurons in the adult brain? a. Broca’s area b. hippocampus c. hypothalamus d. medulla 23. The mind is to brain as: a. running is to walking b. glial cells is to neurons c. right is to left d. mental activities is to physical structure Hernandez Final 2011 3 24. Dendrite is to ____ as axon is to ____. a. PNS; receive b. CNS; transmit c. fast; slow d. receive; transmit 25. The nerves that make up the body, except the brain and spinal cord, make up the: a. peripheral nervous system b. central nervous system c. primary nervous system d. secondary nervous system 26. What accounts for the action potential moving down the axon at a constant speed? a. all-or-none law b. paced resistance principle c. snowball effect d. neuronal push rule 27. Afferent is to efferent as ____ is to ____. a. sensory; motor b. motor; sensory c. sensory; spinal d. spinal; neuron 28. Concepts such as evolution and survival of the fittest are most associated with: a. Roger Sperry b. Charles Darwin c. Sigmund Freud d. B. F. Skinner 29. fMRI is to ____ as MRI is to ____. a. structure; function b. function; structure c. organization; function d. x-ray; gamma ray 30. The somatic nervous system: a. consists of nerves connected to either sensory receptors or to muscles b. regulates heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, and digestion c. controls the fight or flight response d. is in a constant state of homeostasis 31. The three main divisions of the human brain are: a. forebrain, midbrain, cerebrain b. topbrain, midbrain, hindbrain c. forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain d. neobrain, lateralbrain, medialbrain 32. The thin layer of cells that cover the surface of the forebrain is called the: a. cortex b. myelin sheath c. cerebellum d. thalamus Hernandez Final 2011 4 33. Nerves on the ____ cross over and control the movements on the ____ side of the body. a. left hemisphere; right b. left occipital lobe; right c. right occipital lobe; right d. left hemisphere; left 34. The hippocampus is involved with: a. receiving sensory information b. putting memories into permanent storage c. regulating sexual behavior d. controlling the secretion of hormones 35. Joan has a medical problem called diabetes that is caused by a lack of insulin. What gland in the endocrine system is responsible for Joan’s condition? a. gonads b. endorphin c. thyroid d. pancreas 36. Which word best describes transduction? a. stabilizes b. creates c. changes d. reduces 37. In order for you to see, your eye must change ____ beams of light waves into ____ beams of light waves. a. narrow; broad b. broad; narrow c. invisible; visible d. narrow; visible 38. The point of exit for impulses on their way from the eye to the brain is called the: a. fovea b. blind spot c. retina d. optic chiasm 39. The height of a sound wave is called ____ and the speed of the sound wave is called ____. a. frequency; decibel b. volume; frequency c. altitude; amplitude d. amplitude; frequency 40. The auditory receptors are called: a. hair cells b. rods c. ossicles d. cones Hernandez Final 2011 5 41. Which of the following best describes how the brain judges the direction of sounds? a. by calculating the amount of bend in hair cells b. by calculating the difference in time it takes sound to reach both ears c. by calculating the speed of fluid movement in the cochlea d. by calculating the speed that it takes sound to reach the auditory association areas 42. How many basic tastes can people respond to? a. three b. five c. seven d. nine 43. Humans have an innate preference for ____ taste and avoidance of ____ taste. a. sweet and umami; salty b. floral and salty; bitter c. floral; umami d. sweet and salty; bitter 44. Free nerve endings: a. can transmit information about temperature and pain b. respond when hairs on the skin are bent or pulled up c. are the only receptors to respond to vibration d. have a protective structure surrounding them 45. Who initially discovered the idea of the absolute threshold? a. Fechner b. Weber c. Gestalt d. Pavlov 46. Sensation is to ____ as perception is to ____. a. monocular; binocular b. meaningless; meaningful c. similarity; simplicity d. JND; Weber’s Law 47. The rules of organization such as figure-ground and closure were developed by the ____ to describe how we perceive. a. Structuralists b. Freudians c. Gestalt psychologists d. Behavioral psychologists 48. The Ponzo illusion illustrates that in some illusions: a. monocular cues are very misleading b. previous experience with corners of rooms leads us to make incorrect judgments c. distance cues can distort size cues d. eye convergence is susceptible to misapplication Hernandez Final 2011 6 49. The perceptual rule that we tend to favor smooth or continuous paths when interpreting a series of points or lines is called: a. shortest distance b. continuity c. closure d. simplicity 50. The depth cue of light and shadow make brightly-lit objects appear ____. a. closer b. farther away c. larger d. smaller 51. An illusion is: a. the perception of an object which is not really there b. a reminder that perception is a passive process c. a distorted perception of reality d. the result of a biological deficit in sensory organs 52. Every night, we cycle into REM about: a. 1-2 times b. 3-4 times c. 5-6 times d. 7-8 times 53. As we fall deeper into sleep, our brain waves tend to: a. remain unaltered b. slow down c. flatten out d. speed up 54. Elaine is talking in her sleep. In what stage of sleep is she most likely? a. Stage 1 b. REM sleep c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4 55. Why may you get really crabby when you don’t get enough sleep? a. increased glycogen in the brain b. increased serotonin in the brain c. increased activity in the brain’s emotion centers d. increased endorphins in the brain, in particular the limbic system 56. If George’s hypothalamus is damaged and he shows severe disruption in his circadian rhythms, what specific part of his hypothalamus is malfunctioning? a. lateral hypothalamus b. ventrolateral preoptic nucleus c. pons d. reticular formation Hernandez Final 2011 7 57. Freud’s interpretation of dreams was based on the assumption that: a. dream content was a continuation of the events in our daily lives b. dream content reflected what worried us in our waking state c. the content of dreams had to be considered symbolic d. dreams were similar to the hallucinations experienced by schizophrenics 58. Which of the following areas of the brain has increased activity during REM? a. pons b. auditory cortex c. prefrontal lobe d. limbic system 59. In severe cases of sleep apnea, the preferred treatment is: a. cognitive behavioral therapy b. wear a mask that blows air into the nose to keep the air passages open c. one of the nonbenzodiazepines like Lunesta d. to actually treat insomnia which is the cause of sleep apnea 60. The theory of hypnosis which states that the hypnotized individual is disconnected from reality is called: a. altered state theory b. sociocognitive theory c. hypnotic analgesia theory d. stimulus control theory 61. Once the individual has developed a behavioral pattern of drug abuse and an overwhelming desire to get and use the drug, then we say that the individual has developed a(n): a. withdrawal symptom b. tolerance c. addiction d. psychological dependence 62. Which of the following types of psychoactive drugs increase activity of the nervous system, resulting in heightened alertness, arousal, and euphoria? a. hallucinogens b. opiates c. stimulants d. marijuana 63. The body is capable of producing its own opiate-like chemicals in the form of: a. endorphins b. dopamine c. thoraxine d. adrenaline 64. Slowed reactions, slurred speech, and decreased skill performance are associated with abuse of: a. nicotine b. methamphetamine c. alcohol d. Ecstasy Hernandez Final 2011 8 65. The gateway effect refers to: a. the use of marijuana leading to use of harder drugs b. the effects of marijuana on critical thinking c. the medicinal uses of marijuana d. THC’s effect on the reticular formation 66. The brains own opiates are called: a. barbiturates b. endorphins c. tranquilizers d. Seconal 67. If a person continues to take a drug to prevent withdrawal symptoms, the person is experiencing: a. tolerance b. addiction c. dependence d. withdrawal 68. Classical conditioning was discovered by: a. B. F. Skinner b. Ivan Pavlov c. Edward Thorndike d. Albert Bandura 69. The Law of Effect is important in: a. classical conditioning b. operant conditioning c. cognitive learning d. latent learning 70. Operant conditioning differs from classical conditioning in placing the emphasis on: a. consequences that follow some behavior b. pairing a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned response c. waiting until the subject accidentally performs the right behavior d. allowing subjects to watch others perform some behavior 71. Pavlov is to Bandura as ____ is to ____. a. cognitive learning; classical conditioning b. cognitive learning; operant conditioning c. classical conditioning; cognitive learning d. observational learning; operant conditioning 72. An unconditioned stimulus: a. automatically triggers a physiological reflex b. requires conscious effort c. is paired with a conditioned response d. is acquired through practice Hernandez Final 2011 9 73. If you’ve been classically conditioned to be afraid of German shepherd dogs, but not afraid of poodles, this illustrates: a. generalization b. extinction c. discrimination d. spontaneous recovery 74. Taste-aversion learning occurs when particular stimuli like the taste or smell of food are associated with a(n): a. conditioned stimulus b. conditioned response c. unpleasant response d. relaxation response 75. Place the three memory processes in their correct order with regard to the flow of memory. a. retrieval, storage, encoding b. encoding, retrieval, storage c. storage, encoding, retrieval d. encoding, storage, retrieval 76. The main problem with repressed memories of childhood abuse is that: a. very few people can remember that far back b. we now know that the “unconscious” does not exist c. therapists may unwittingly help patients form memories which seem to explain their key problems d. so far, all the claimed cases of abuse in childhood have been proven to be lies 77. Out of change at the pay phone, you frantically repeat the 10-digit number you just got from Information over and over again. That’s called: a. chunking b. maintenance rehearsal c. memory span stretching d. duration enhancement 78. The capacity for working memory seems to be about: a. three items b. seven items c. ten items d. fifteen items 79. The idea of repressed memory is based upon the theory of: a. Sigmund Freud b. Albert Bandura c. George Miller d. B. F. Skinner 80. Information in short-term memory is forgotten because of: a. interference b. maintenance c. chunking d. encoding Hernandez Final 2011 10 81. If you combine separate items of information into large units and then remember these larger units rather than individual items, you are using: a. attention b. rehearsal c. procedural memory d. chunking 82. We can retrieve ____ memory, but not ____ memory. a. semantic; procedural b. semantic; episodic c. procedural; semantic d. episodic; semantic 83. Information stored in long-term memory: a. is relatively permanent b. decays after several days c. is limited to about seven items at any given moment d. requires rehearsal to prevent decay 84. Difficult material, which is an example of ____ information, is encoded ____ into long-term memory. a. semantic; with effort b. semantic; automatically c. episodic; with effort d. episodic; automatically 85. Effective studying is an example of: a. automatic encoding b. effortful encoding c. maintenance rehearsal d. chunking 86. The recency effect works because subjects: a. still have the last items available in short-term memory b. cannot transfer information into sensory memory c. do not have enough long-term memory for all of the items d. rehearsed the last items storing them in long-term memory 87. “I never forget a face.” If that is really true, then the individual is referred to as a(n): a. savant b. memoirist c. mnemonists d. super-recognizer 88. The word that best describes encoding is: a. output b. input c. recall d. reorder Hernandez Final 2011 11 89. Remembering is getting information out of storage. The term ____ refers to the same process. a. encoding b. retrieval c. storage d. recording 90. Recognition involves: a. retrieving previously learned information with no cues present b. encoding new information to replace previously learned information c. using available cues to identify information that has been previously learned d. looking at an image and retaining a detailed visual image for several minutes 91. According to network theory, memory is organized by: a. nodes, associations, and hierarchies of information b. most important to least important information c. chronological order, according to when information was acquired d. “programs” of information, similar to a TV “network” 92. As you are remembering your first day of high school, you are searching: a. in a random way b. in a linear way from most recent to most past personal information c. groups of nodes that are connected by personal associations d. network hierarchies 93. The two primary reasons why our memory is limited in early life are: a. limited visual system and limited language skills b. limited language skills and not having a sense of self c. limited motor skills and language skills d. limited visual system development and underdeveloped auditory cortex 94. If memory loss follows a blow or damage to the brain, the person is said to suffer from: a. amnesia b. Korsakoff’s syndrome c. Wernicke’s aphasia d. interference 95. Proactive interference is to ____ as retroactive interference is to ____. a. primary; secondary b. encode; retrieval c. forward; backward d. backward; forward 96. “What’s that thing called? Oh, I know it! What is it? Come on, this is ridiculous.” This experience is often called the: a. tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon b. competing responses style c. amnesia d. memory-cognitive hesitation syndrome Hernandez Final 2011 12 97. Our short-term memory abilities are a function of activity in the: a. hippocampus b. amygdala c. cortex d. occipital lobe 98. A technique for creating visual associations between memorized places and items to be memorized is called: a. eidetic imagery b. the method of loci c. the peg theory d. proactive rehearsal 99. What is the mnemonic called that used associations between number-word rhymes and the items to be memorized? a. selective encoding b. chunking method c. peg method d. method of loci 100. a. b. c. d. The wording of a question: is usually ignored when people are trying to think of the answer to the question is rarely remembered after a question has been answered can influence the reporting of eyewitness testimony can only cause a witness to be more confident in his or her answer Hernandez Final 2011 13 101. a. b. c. d. Who consistently overestimates their IQs? professors college students females males 102. a. b. c. d. What historical figure is most closely associated to the two-factor theory of intelligence? Clarence Thomas Charles Spearman Alfred Binet Lewis Terman 103. a. b. c. d. The two-factor theory divides intelligence into: verbal skills and math skills spatial abilities and movement abilities general intelligence and specific abilities insight about the self and insight about others 104. a. b. c. d. The most generally agreed upon aspects of intelligence are: creativity, verbal ability, memory social competence, memory, mathematical ability problem-solving skills, motivation, memory general intelligence, specific factors 105. a. b. c. d. General intelligence, or g, correlates positively with: math skills athletic success social skills academic performance 106. a. b. c. d. An advantage of the multiple intelligence approach is that it: can reduce intelligence to a single score uses standard measuring techniques to assess the different types of intelligence identified all possible types of intelligence recognizes people with different types of intelligence 107. The triarchic theory focuses on the three aspects of intelligence. Which of the following is not among the three as presented in the textbook? a. analytical b. problem solving c. affective d. practical 108. Which of the following is a disadvantage to the triarchic approach? a. it does not give people credit for being intelligent in multiple ways b. it ignores the influence that problem-solving skills have on overall intelligence c. only a few tests are available to measure the various ways that people think d. there is no consideration of analytical thinking Hernandez Final 2011 14 109. a. b. c. d. Who developed the world’s first standardized intelligence test? Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon Francis Galton and B. F. Skinner Howard Gardner Clarence Thomas 110. The intelligence quotient (IQ) score is computed by dividing a child’s ____ by the child’s ____ and multiplying by 100. a. number of correct answers; number of incorrect answers b. number of correct answers; total number of questions asked c. mental age; chronological age d. chronological age; mental age 111. The term ____ refers to mental processes that we use to be creative, to form concepts, and to problem solve. a. information processing b. thinking c. cognitive d. behavioral 112. a. b. c. d. Concepts are crucial to effective thinking because without concepts we would: not know the rules for logical thought forget most of what we learn be overwhelmed by apparently unrelated pieces of information lose our motivation to think 113. a. b. c. d. Which of the following is a problem of the exemplar theory of forming concepts? allows us to better store information in memory allows us to identify things without relearning exceptions never occur listing all the defining properties of a concept is very difficult 114. a. b. c. d. An average bird has feathers, bill, and wings. This is consistent with the: set theory heuristic theory exemplar theory prototype theory 115. “Which job offer should I take? Do I go to New York, Cincinnati, Minneapolis, Chicago, or Dallas? I need to collect some information about each city with regard to health care, recreation, crime, and housing.” This person is in what state of problem solving? a. preparation state b. initial state c. operations state d. goal state 116. You must calculate your income tax. You carefully follow the instructions to ultimately determine the amount. The instructions act as a(n): a. representative heuristic b. artificial rule c. algorithm d. availability heuristic Hernandez Final 2011 15 117. a. b. c. d. If you were not able to solve the nine-dot problem, it probably was because of: functional fixedness lack of insight using poor analogies failure to establish subgoals 118. a. b. c. d. Which is not an approach to measuring creativity? linguistic case study psychometric cognitive 119. “There is only one right answer to this exercise,” the professor says as the class is reviewing a problem. What type of thinking is the professor describing? a. divergent thinking b. convergent thinking c. heuristics d. brainstorming 120. a. b. c. d. A method of study that examines a creative person in great depth is called a(n): insight study biography case study sociopsychological study 121. A psychological or physiological factor that causes humans to act in a specific way at a particular time is called: a. motivation b. energy c. instinct d. drive 122. “I have lots of motivation to do something. I want to do something with my life, but I’m not sure what.” This person shows ____ but lacks ____. a. intensity towards a goal; direction b. goal-directed behavior; drive reduction c. energized behavior; direction d. instinct; incentive Hernandez Final 2011 16 123. The young man named Victor whose story is described in the introduction of Module Fifteen is an exception to the rule. He achieved in school despite: a. coming from a single-parent family b. a poor academic record in elementary school c. negative peer pressure not to succeed in school d. being a former gang member 124. Early in the 20th century, most psychologists believed that motivation was explained by: a. will power b. instincts c. environmental incentives d. beliefs and expectations 125. Animals have been found to have innate biological forces that predispose them to behave in a fixed way in the presence of specific environmental conditions. These forces are called: a. fixed action patterns b. incentive mechanisms c. extrinsic motivators d. self-actualization needs 126. To be achieving, competent and to gain approval and recognition from others is to reach the ____ level of Maslow’s hierarchy. a. incentive b. esteem c. self-actualization d. intrinsic 127. Maslow defined self-actualization as: a. affiliation with others b. achievement, competency, gaining approval, and recognition c. fulfillment of one’s unique potential d. the perception of one’s own body Hernandez Final 2011 17 128. According to Maslow, we satisfy our needs: a. in a somewhat random order b. with the overall goal of increasing our self-esteem c. in a certain order based on a set hierarchy d. only when we feel competent in doing so 129. Social needs are acquired through: a. heredity b. homeostatic mechanisms c. peripheral cues d. learning and experience 130. Carla works hard to get As on her report card because it is personally rewarding. Her behavior is being influenced by: a. fixed action patterns b. intrinsic motivation c. extrinsic motivation d. drive-reduction theory 131. An emotion is a feeling made up of: a. anger, fear, or happiness b. having a subjective feeling and objectively learned behavioral responses c. appraising a stimulus, having a subjective feeling, physiological responses, and overt behavior d. facial expressions which convey social signals and social needs and physiological responses 132. As you get ready for the professor to pass back your graded test you experience the emotion of anxiety. Using the definition of emotion presented in your textbook, which one of the following is incorrect? a. overt behavior--anxiety b. overt behavior--tapping your pencil c. physiological response--heart rate is rapid d. appraising the stimulus--if you do poorly on this exam you won’t make the Dean’s Honor List Hernandez Final 2011 18 133. a. b. c. d. Theories of emotions tend to fit into three categories. What are the names of the categories? peripheral theories, cognitive appraisal theories, and affective neuroscience central theories, social learning theories, and Freudian theory peripheral theories, central theories, and humanistic theories behavioral theories, cognitive appraisal theories, and peripheral theories 134. a. b. c. d. Peripheral is to ____ as cognitive appraisal is to ____. learning; innate brain; emotion side; interpretation physiological; interpretation 135. a. b. c. d. According to the James-Lange theory, experiencing emotion starts with: changes in facial muscles a show of observable behavior the brain interpreting stimulus physiological changes 136. a. b. c. d. The facial feedback theory emphasizes the ____ component of emotion. behavioral physiological cognitive active 137. a. b. c. d. Charles Darwin was the originator of the explanation of emotion currently known as: James-Lange theory cognitive theory facial feedback theory behavioral theory 138. a. b. c. d. The primary cause of emotions according to the cognitive appraisal theory is: the extent of change in facial muscles and skin how the brain interprets physiological changes how we interpret a situation our degree of physiological arousal 139. a. b. c. d. Which part of the brain is especially active when viewing facial expressions of fear? hippocampus amygdala thalamus visual cortex 140. “I remember when a dog chased me up a tree. I was scared.” What brain part was responsible for storing that memory of that fear? a. amygdala b. thalamus c. Wernicke’s area d. hippocampus 141. a. b. c. d. A psychiatric disorder characterized by a child’s lack of emotional attachment to others is called: insecure attachment difficult temperament early childhood schizophrenia reactive attachment disorder Hernandez Final 2011 19 142. a. b. c. d. Nature is to nurture as ____ is to ____. culture; society genetics; environment environment; genetics biology; physics 143. a. b. c. d. Prodigies demonstrate the interaction between: developmental psychology and music biology and genetics art and social science genetic and learned influences 144. a. b. c. d. The period that lasts nine months, extending from conception to birth is called the ____ period. prenatal embryonic germinal fetal 145. a. b. c. d. Identical twins result from: the release and fertilization of two ova the release of more than 23 strands of chromosomes a single ovum that splits into two parts after fertilization an extra 21st chromosome produced by the father’s sperm 146. Down syndrome and similar genetic abnormalities can be identified during prenatal development through: a. amniocentesis b. ovulation c. the Lamaze method d. the proximodistal procedure 147. When 1-year-old Terrace is in new surroundings, he will explore freely if his mother watches him. If she leaves the room he begins to cry, but when she returns he smiles and stops fussing. Terrace would be considered a(n) ____ infant. a. securely attached b. insecurely attached c. unattached d. disturbed 148. a. b. c. d. What behavior can a newborn perform that triggers care and sympathy from the parent? eye contact first words crying smiling 149. a. b. c. d. Within 1 year after birth, children will show signs of all of the following except: sadness anger guilt shyness Hernandez Final 2011 20 150. a. b. c. d. Should a parent be concerned if their 10-month-old is not crawling? No—development norms represent average ages and not absolute ages No—development norms have been shown to be false Yes—the norms represent absolute ages No—maturation typically does not influence motor skills 151. Freud’s psychodynamic approach to personality emphasizes which of the following? a. conscious thoughts, unconscious forces, and unconscious motivation b. cognitive appraisals of one’s environment c. the measurement of traits and their stability d. self-actualization and personal freedom 152. Freud believed that a person’s wishes, thoughts, and desires that one cannot voluntarily access were represented by: a. unconscious forces b. conscious forces c. manifest content d. reality content 153. Freud’s theory of personality has been criticized on a number of grounds, including: a. it is too limited in scope b. its emphasis on psychological and social influences c. difficulty in testing Freudian concepts d. its ability to interpret behavior 154. Your friend argues that negative characteristics associated with women, such as passivity, are due not to biology, but to child-parent social interactions. Which theorist does your friend agree with? a. Sigmund Freud b. Karen Horney c. Erik Erikson d. Carl Jung 155. Carl Jung and Alfred Adler were critical of Freud’s: Hernandez Final 2011 21 a. emphasis on unconscious processes b. reluctance to recognize the role of biological drives c. use of hypnosis d. emphasis on sexuality 156. When a little girl experiences the Electra complex, which of the following results in her turning against her mother and developing sexual desires for her father? a. sublimation b. rationalization c. penis envy d. the collective unconscious 157. During the Oedipus complex, the little boy feels hatred and jealously toward: a. his older brother(s) b. his sister(s) c. his mother d. his father 158. Cal is a carefree and generous person. His home is often a mess and his files at his office are very disorganized. From Freud’s perspective, it is possible that Cal is fixated at the ____ stage. a. oral b. phallic c. anal d. latency 159. Which of the following is the correct order of developmental stages according to the psychodynamic theory? a. anal, latency, genital, phallic b. oral, phallic, genital, latency, self-actualization c. phallic, anal, latency, belongingness, oral d. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital Hernandez Final 2011 22 160. Which of the following is an example of displacement? a. a man is angry with his wife, so he yells at his employee b. a man denies that he is angry with his wife c. a man is angry with his wife, but says that she is the one who is angry d. a man makes up excuses for why he is angry with his wife 161. Defense mechanisms are Freudian processes designed to reduce: a. the latent content of dreams b. the ego c. anxiety d. self-actualization 162. Freud assumed that the ____ was totally unconscious, and that the largest part of the ____ was conscious. a. ego; superego b. ego; id c. id; ego d. superego; id 163. “People are basically good and their personality is shaped by an inborn tendency to reach their greatest potential.” What kind of theorist would be most likely to make that statement? a. social cognitive b. trait c. humanistic d. analytical 164. a. b. c. d. What words are most descriptive of the social cognitive approach? id, ego, superego freedom, Electra complex, OCEAN trait, self-efficacy, unconscious motivation cognitive-personal factors, behaviors, environmental factors 165. Bandura would say that a person’s emotional makeup and their biological and genetic influences comprise: a. personal factors b. trait factors c. intelligence d. cognitive factors Hernandez Final 2011 23 166. Social cognitive theory was originally known as ____ and was changed to reflect the importance of ____ factors. a. trait theory; social b. social learning theory; cognitive c. psychoanalysis; psychological d. trait theory; cognitive 167. You are writing a paper for a class. As you start writing you notice that you keep on evaluating your work. You keep deleting what you’ve just written and decide to take a different approach in your paper. Your ____ allows you to monitor your writing. a. self-analysis b. purposeful behavior c. locus of control d. observational learning 168. Using personality characteristics that are relatively stable and enduring to explain behavior is called: a. the trait approach b. the cognitive-social approach c. the psychodynamic approach d. the transactional approach 169. a. b. c. d. One major difference between trait theory and social cognitive theory is that trait theory: describes rather than explains behavior deals more directly with the subconscious has had little research attention relies less on words and more on concepts 170. Which of the following is not one of the five groups of traits in the five-factor model used to describe personality? a. neuroticism b. intelligence c. extroversion d. agreeableness 171. Jeremy is very outgoing. He enjoys taking risks and being involved in any social activities. He prefers to be with people and dislikes jobs where he has to work alone. Jeremy would be classified as a(n): a. neurotic b. introvert c. extrovert d. antagonist Hernandez Final 2011 24 172. Your behavior is the result of an interaction between your traits and the effects of being in a specific situation. This is called: a. behavioral biasing b. situational behavioral interaction c. trait-environment duo d. person-situation interaction 173. a. b. c. d. Your initial, subjective evaluation of a situation is called: metacognition personal evaluation primary appraisal hardiness 174. a. b. c. d. Freud claimed that anxiety stemmed from: things we learn about negative experiences unconscious conflicts that arise between id and superego with the ego in the middle discrepancies between the way the world is and the way we want it to be the subconscious belief that good things cannot last forever but bad things can 175. a. b. c. d. An increase in fear and heart rate, trembling, sweating, and dread characterize a(n): panic attack galvanic skin response increase in parasympathetic activity Type A person 176. a. b. c. d. Which type of appraisal elicits positive emotions, such as exhilaration? a challenge appraisal a fight appraisal an arousal appraisal a threat appraisal 177. a. b. c. d. Stress occurs when we: interpret a situation as threatening but do not have the resources to handle it have a secondary appraisal that conflicts with a primary appraisal of a situation realize that our coping resources are socially-based feel our heart beating rapidly and sense our faces turning red 178. Imagine that you have been caught cheating on a test, and you feel your hands trembling. Which appraisal are you most likely to make? a. a harm/loss appraisal b. a resistance appraisal c. a challenge appraisal d. an alarm appraisal 179. a. b. c. d. What effect do harm/loss and threat appraisals have that challenge appraisals do not? an increase in the activity of the parasympathetic division lower physiological arousal a triggering of physiological arousal higher levels of negative emotion Hernandez Final 2011 25 180. a. b. c. d. ____ are small, irritating, and frustrating events faced in daily life. Hang-ups Major life events Avoiders Hassles 181. We experience ____ when we try to reach some goal, but our efforts are blocked because of personal, social, or environmental limitations. a. frustration b. anxiety c. burnout d. avoidance 182. Having feelings of doing poorly, physically wearing out, or becoming emotionally exhausted because of stress at work is called: a. frustration b. burnout c. conflict d. stress 183. “The wind was very strong, and it destroyed everything that I own. I never want to experience another tornado again. It’s left me with sleeping problems, a feeling of helplessness and fear.” This narrative best describes: a. burnout b. posttraumatic stress disorder c. depression d. delayed stress reaction disorder 184. A person who often expresses negative emotions, is aggressively competitive, and is easily frustrated, would be exhibiting: a. hardiness b. an external locus of control c. Type B behavior d. Type A behavior 185. a. b. c. d. A prolonged and disturbed emotional state is known as a(n): agoraphobia mood disorder somatization disorder conversion disorder 186. a. b. c. d. What disorder consists of fluctuations between episodes of depression and mania? histrionic personality disorder major depression dysthymia bipolar I disorder 187. The most common forms of mood disorders are: a. bipolar I disorder, schizophrenic disorder, minor depressive disorder b. seasonal affective disorder, minor depressive disorder, postpartum depression c. major depressive disorder, minor depressive disorder, bipolar I disorder d. major depressive disorder, bipolar I disorder, dysthymic disorder Hernandez Final 2011 26 188. A psychologist is seeing a client who always talks fast, seems to have incredible energy, makes grandiose plans that would be impossible to carry out, and seems to “bounce off the walls.” If this person never shows signs of depression, he is likely to be suffering from: a. bipolar I disorder b. somatoform disorder c. mania d. hysteria 189. a. b. c. d. One commonly used drug treatment for bipolar depression is: Valium tricyclic therapy MAO lithium 190. After being rejected by all the medical schools she applied to, Melanie developed a sad and dejected mood. She had difficulty sleeping, ate much less than normal, no longer took interest in the hobbies and activities that once gave her pleasure, and felt that she was worthless. Melanie would be diagnosed as suffering from: a. bipolar I disorder b. depression c. mania d. dissociative disorder 191. Derek has complained that he is “down in the dumps.” Which of the following is Derek most likely to suffer from? a. dysthymic disorder b. major depressive disorder c. bipolar I disorder d. somatization disorder 192. a. b. c. d. Ray is moderately depressed. Based on the research, his best choice of treatment is: either psychotherapy or SSRI drugs since both are equally effective psychotherapy SSRI drugs lithium 193. a. b. c. d. Which of the following statements lends support to the biological theory of depression? the evidence regarding fraternal twins and occurrence of depression Beck’s cognitive theory of depression excessive secretion of dopamine during stress the level of the neurotransmitter serotonin is lower in depressed clients 194. a. b. c. d. The area of the brain that appears to play a role in depression is the: Broca’s area anterior cingulate cortex corpus callosum prefrontal cortex Hernandez Final 2011 27 195. What kind of personality is more vulnerable to depression when a person loses a close relationship or friendship? a. socially dependent personality b. achievement personality c. borderline personality d. ego personality 196. a. b. c. d. One side effect of ECT is: loss of personality loss of emotional responses an inability to learn new material memory loss 197. If a person has an intense interest in order, achievement, perfectionism, and having control, then that individual might have: a. schizophrenia b. dependent personality disorder c. obsessive-compulsive personality disorder d. schizotypal personality disorder 198. a. b. c. d. Antidepressants increase levels of: tricyclics hormones benzodiazepines neurotransmitters 199. a. b. c. d. The primary disorder that is treated by ECT is: bipolar I disorder social phobia substance abuse major depression 200. “I distrust other people. I think they are up to something bad.” Which of the following personality disorders is this person most likely to have? a. antisocial personality disorder b. paranoid personality disorder c. schizotypal personality disorder d. histrionic personality disorder 201. In studies examining the brains of individuals with borderline personality disorder, the results indicate that the brain area known as the _____ is overactive. a. hypothalamus b. amygdala c. hippocampus d. thalamus 202. On the surface, Chuck is a charming, intelligent, good looking individual. Yet he constantly lies, has no sense of responsibility, is reckless, feels no guilt when his actions harm others, and never learns from his mistakes. If Chuck’s behavior is considered abnormal, he would most likely be diagnosed as having a(n): a. antisocial personality b. narcissistic personality c. dissociative disorder d. schizoid disorder Hernandez Final 2011 28 203. a. b. c. d. Schizophrenia is characterized by: a fear of public places alternating periods of mania and depression symptoms that interfere with personal or social functioning feelings of pain which have no physical cause 204. A person who believes that strangers are plotting to kidnap him is suffering from what form of schizophrenia? a. catatonic b. disorganized c. paranoid d. melancholic 205. Harold suffers from schizophrenia and has hallucinations and delusions. Harold does not have any intellectual impairment. Harold could be described as having: a. Type I schizophrenia b. Type II schizophrenia c. Type III schizophrenia d. unipolar schizophrenia 206. A ____ refers to an identifiable gene or number of genes or a specific segment of a chromosome that is directly linked to some trait or disease. a. diathesis marker b. predisposition c. genetic marker d. genetic landmark 207. Which of the following structures of the brain may be abnormally larger in people suffering from schizophrenia? a. hypothalamus b. medulla c. thalamus d. ventricles 208. a. b. c. d. The diathesis-stress theory of schizophrenia says that some people have a(n): overactive dopamine neurotransmitter system genetic predisposition that interacts with life stressors to cause the disease atypical neuroleptic tendency in their brains overactive diathesis in the prefrontal cortex 209. William has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. His doctor wishes to reduce both the positive and negative symptoms that William displays. What type of drug should be prescribed for William? a. Thorazine b. haloperidol c. Lithium d. an atypical neuroleptic drug 210. a. b. c. d. Mrs. Hernandez will miss her favorite class of ALL time, and possibly cry… True False If you put false we are no longer my fav I mean it!!! Hernandez Final 2011 29