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AP Psychology Final Exam: Modules 1-25
MULTIPLE CHOICE – PLEASE BUBBLE IN THE BEST RESPONSE ON THE SCANTRON SHEET
1. In the definition of psychology presented in your text, the term behavior refers to:
a. mental processes
b. observable actions or responses
c. thinking
d. behaviors performed only by human beings
2. People smile because they are happy. This statement best illustrates the ____ goal of psychology.
a. describe
b. analyze
c. explain
d. summarize
3. Karen believes that her boyfriend is afraid of making commitments because of an unconscious hatred for
his mother. Her belief is closest to which psychological perspective?
a. humanistic
b. psychoanalytic
c. cross-cultural
d. cognitive
4. Which of the following relationships best illustrates introspection?
a. females to males
b. trees to leaves
c. letters to words
d. cars to airplanes
5. The father of modern psychology is considered to be:
a. Sigmund Freud
b. George Sanchez
c. William James
d. B.F. Skinner
6. Gestalt psychologists study how sensations are:
a. experienced by the sensory organs
b. assembled into meaningful perceptual experiences
c. observed and recorded
d. composed of smaller elements
7. Functionalism focused on:
a. having subjects look inward and report on the workings of their minds
b. the fact that perception was more than the sum of its parts
c. how the mind helped the organism to adapt to its surroundings
d. the objective, scientific analysis of observable behaviors
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8. The research area of psychology most likely to study stereotypes, group behavior, and aggression is:
a. social psychology
b. psychometrics
c. clinical psychology
d. developmental psychology
9. The four goals of psychology are to describe, explain, predict, and:
a. test
b. interact
c. observe
d. control
10. Ritalin is to ____ as aspirin is to ____.
a. stimulant; depressant
b. attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder; headache
c. depression; headache
d. analgesic; amphetamine
11. Ollie is having a bad day. He’s not feeling very good about himself. He also notices that people are
treating him differently. Friends who are usually very considerate are acting rude and impatient toward
Ollie. Is his low self-esteem affecting how he interacts with people? Or are his friends influencing how
Ollie feels about himself? These questions are a classic example of:
a. a self-fulfilling prophecy
b. a confound
c. a fundamental attribution error
d. cognitive dissonance
12. As the price of gas increases, we tend to drive less. This is an example of a ____ correlation.
a. positive
b. negative
c. perfect
d. zero
13. Which of the following correlation coefficients represents a situation in which an increase in one
variable is associated with an increase in the other variable?
a. .45
b. .61
c. .00
d. +.45
14. If a researcher wants to study a behavior in a controlled environment, the researcher should utilize a(n):
a. laboratory experiment
b. testimonial
c. naturalistic study
d. case study
15. Alfredo is conducting an experiment on the effects of exercise on concentration. The independent
variable is ____ and the dependent variable is ____.
a. subjects; control group
b. experimental group; concentration
c. exercise; concentration
d. concentration; exercise
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16. If each subject in a sample population has an equal chance of being selected, it is called:
a. a control group
b. random selection
c. an experimental group
d. measurement error
17. Experimental group is to treatment as control group is to:
a. subject
b. random selection
c. manipulate
d. placebo
18. A(n) ____ is a strong belief about future behavior that can affect the behavior so that the belief appears
to have predicted it.
a. self-fulfilling prophecy
b. confounded experience
c. introspection
d. testimonial
19. Your grandmother’s cure for your upset stomach is to rub vinegar on your ear lobes; it works much of
the time, but has no real medical effect. Psychologists would probably say that this is an example of a:
a. double blind effect
b. biased effect
c. placebo effect
d. confounding effect
20. The two groups of cells in your brain are:
a. glial cells and astrocytes
b. neurons and axons
c. genes and peripheral cells
d. neurons and glial cells
21. The functions of neurons include:
a. transmitting and receiving electrical messages
b. providing support for glial cells
c. insulating axons
d. opening sodium gates in glial cells
22. Which of the following areas is most likely to be able to grow new neurons in the adult brain?
a. Broca’s area
b. hippocampus
c. hypothalamus
d. medulla
23. The mind is to brain as:
a. running is to walking
b. glial cells is to neurons
c. right is to left
d. mental activities is to physical structure
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24. Dendrite is to ____ as axon is to ____.
a. PNS; receive
b. CNS; transmit
c. fast; slow
d. receive; transmit
25. The nerves that make up the body, except the brain and spinal cord, make up the:
a. peripheral nervous system
b. central nervous system
c. primary nervous system
d. secondary nervous system
26. What accounts for the action potential moving down the axon at a constant speed?
a. all-or-none law
b. paced resistance principle
c. snowball effect
d. neuronal push rule
27. Afferent is to efferent as ____ is to ____.
a. sensory; motor
b. motor; sensory
c. sensory; spinal
d. spinal; neuron
28. Concepts such as evolution and survival of the fittest are most associated with:
a. Roger Sperry
b. Charles Darwin
c. Sigmund Freud
d. B. F. Skinner
29. fMRI is to ____ as MRI is to ____.
a. structure; function
b. function; structure
c. organization; function
d. x-ray; gamma ray
30. The somatic nervous system:
a. consists of nerves connected to either sensory receptors or to muscles
b. regulates heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, and digestion
c. controls the fight or flight response
d. is in a constant state of homeostasis
31. The three main divisions of the human brain are:
a. forebrain, midbrain, cerebrain
b. topbrain, midbrain, hindbrain
c. forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain
d. neobrain, lateralbrain, medialbrain
32. The thin layer of cells that cover the surface of the forebrain is called the:
a. cortex
b. myelin sheath
c. cerebellum
d. thalamus
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33. Nerves on the ____ cross over and control the movements on the ____ side of the body.
a. left hemisphere; right
b. left occipital lobe; right
c. right occipital lobe; right
d. left hemisphere; left
34. The hippocampus is involved with:
a. receiving sensory information
b. putting memories into permanent storage
c. regulating sexual behavior
d. controlling the secretion of hormones
35. Joan has a medical problem called diabetes that is caused by a lack of insulin. What gland in the
endocrine system is responsible for Joan’s condition?
a. gonads
b. endorphin
c. thyroid
d. pancreas
36. Which word best describes transduction?
a. stabilizes
b. creates
c. changes
d. reduces
37. In order for you to see, your eye must change ____ beams of light waves into ____ beams of light
waves.
a. narrow; broad
b. broad; narrow
c. invisible; visible
d. narrow; visible
38. The point of exit for impulses on their way from the eye to the brain is called the:
a. fovea
b. blind spot
c. retina
d. optic chiasm
39. The height of a sound wave is called ____ and the speed of the sound wave is called ____.
a. frequency; decibel
b. volume; frequency
c. altitude; amplitude
d. amplitude; frequency
40. The auditory receptors are called:
a. hair cells
b. rods
c. ossicles
d. cones
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41. Which of the following best describes how the brain judges the direction of sounds?
a. by calculating the amount of bend in hair cells
b. by calculating the difference in time it takes sound to reach both ears
c. by calculating the speed of fluid movement in the cochlea
d. by calculating the speed that it takes sound to reach the auditory association areas
42. How many basic tastes can people respond to?
a. three
b. five
c. seven
d. nine
43. Humans have an innate preference for ____ taste and avoidance of ____ taste.
a. sweet and umami; salty
b. floral and salty; bitter
c. floral; umami
d. sweet and salty; bitter
44. Free nerve endings:
a. can transmit information about temperature and pain
b. respond when hairs on the skin are bent or pulled up
c. are the only receptors to respond to vibration
d. have a protective structure surrounding them
45. Who initially discovered the idea of the absolute threshold?
a. Fechner
b. Weber
c. Gestalt
d. Pavlov
46. Sensation is to ____ as perception is to ____.
a. monocular; binocular
b. meaningless; meaningful
c. similarity; simplicity
d. JND; Weber’s Law
47. The rules of organization such as figure-ground and closure were developed by the ____ to describe how
we perceive.
a. Structuralists
b. Freudians
c. Gestalt psychologists
d. Behavioral psychologists
48. The Ponzo illusion illustrates that in some illusions:
a. monocular cues are very misleading
b. previous experience with corners of rooms leads us to make incorrect judgments
c. distance cues can distort size cues
d. eye convergence is susceptible to misapplication
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49. The perceptual rule that we tend to favor smooth or continuous paths when interpreting a series of points
or lines is called:
a. shortest distance
b. continuity
c. closure
d. simplicity
50. The depth cue of light and shadow make brightly-lit objects appear ____.
a. closer
b. farther away
c. larger
d. smaller
51. An illusion is:
a. the perception of an object which is not really there
b. a reminder that perception is a passive process
c. a distorted perception of reality
d. the result of a biological deficit in sensory organs
52. Every night, we cycle into REM about:
a. 1-2 times
b. 3-4 times
c. 5-6 times
d. 7-8 times
53. As we fall deeper into sleep, our brain waves tend to:
a. remain unaltered
b. slow down
c. flatten out
d. speed up
54. Elaine is talking in her sleep. In what stage of sleep is she most likely?
a. Stage 1
b. REM sleep
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4
55. Why may you get really crabby when you don’t get enough sleep?
a. increased glycogen in the brain
b. increased serotonin in the brain
c. increased activity in the brain’s emotion centers
d. increased endorphins in the brain, in particular the limbic system
56. If George’s hypothalamus is damaged and he shows severe disruption in his circadian rhythms, what
specific part of his hypothalamus is malfunctioning?
a. lateral hypothalamus
b. ventrolateral preoptic nucleus
c. pons
d. reticular formation
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57. Freud’s interpretation of dreams was based on the assumption that:
a. dream content was a continuation of the events in our daily lives
b. dream content reflected what worried us in our waking state
c. the content of dreams had to be considered symbolic
d. dreams were similar to the hallucinations experienced by schizophrenics
58. Which of the following areas of the brain has increased activity during REM?
a. pons
b. auditory cortex
c. prefrontal lobe
d. limbic system
59. In severe cases of sleep apnea, the preferred treatment is:
a. cognitive behavioral therapy
b. wear a mask that blows air into the nose to keep the air passages open
c. one of the nonbenzodiazepines like Lunesta
d. to actually treat insomnia which is the cause of sleep apnea
60. The theory of hypnosis which states that the hypnotized individual is disconnected from reality is called:
a. altered state theory
b. sociocognitive theory
c. hypnotic analgesia theory
d. stimulus control theory
61. Once the individual has developed a behavioral pattern of drug abuse and an overwhelming desire to get
and use the drug, then we say that the individual has developed a(n):
a. withdrawal symptom
b. tolerance
c. addiction
d. psychological dependence
62. Which of the following types of psychoactive drugs increase activity of the nervous system, resulting in
heightened alertness, arousal, and euphoria?
a. hallucinogens
b. opiates
c. stimulants
d. marijuana
63. The body is capable of producing its own opiate-like chemicals in the form of:
a. endorphins
b. dopamine
c. thoraxine
d. adrenaline
64. Slowed reactions, slurred speech, and decreased skill performance are associated with abuse of:
a. nicotine
b. methamphetamine
c. alcohol
d. Ecstasy
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65. The gateway effect refers to:
a. the use of marijuana leading to use of harder drugs
b. the effects of marijuana on critical thinking
c. the medicinal uses of marijuana
d. THC’s effect on the reticular formation
66. The brains own opiates are called:
a. barbiturates
b. endorphins
c. tranquilizers
d. Seconal
67. If a person continues to take a drug to prevent withdrawal symptoms, the person is experiencing:
a. tolerance
b. addiction
c. dependence
d. withdrawal
68. Classical conditioning was discovered by:
a. B. F. Skinner
b. Ivan Pavlov
c. Edward Thorndike
d. Albert Bandura
69. The Law of Effect is important in:
a. classical conditioning
b. operant conditioning
c. cognitive learning
d. latent learning
70. Operant conditioning differs from classical conditioning in placing the emphasis on:
a. consequences that follow some behavior
b. pairing a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned response
c. waiting until the subject accidentally performs the right behavior
d. allowing subjects to watch others perform some behavior
71. Pavlov is to Bandura as ____ is to ____.
a. cognitive learning; classical conditioning
b. cognitive learning; operant conditioning
c. classical conditioning; cognitive learning
d. observational learning; operant conditioning
72. An unconditioned stimulus:
a. automatically triggers a physiological reflex
b. requires conscious effort
c. is paired with a conditioned response
d. is acquired through practice
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73. If you’ve been classically conditioned to be afraid of German shepherd dogs, but not afraid of poodles,
this illustrates:
a. generalization
b. extinction
c. discrimination
d. spontaneous recovery
74. Taste-aversion learning occurs when particular stimuli like the taste or smell of food are associated with
a(n):
a. conditioned stimulus
b. conditioned response
c. unpleasant response
d. relaxation response
75. Place the three memory processes in their correct order with regard to the flow of memory.
a. retrieval, storage, encoding
b. encoding, retrieval, storage
c. storage, encoding, retrieval
d. encoding, storage, retrieval
76. The main problem with repressed memories of childhood abuse is that:
a. very few people can remember that far back
b. we now know that the “unconscious” does not exist
c. therapists may unwittingly help patients form memories which seem to explain their key
problems
d. so far, all the claimed cases of abuse in childhood have been proven to be lies
77. Out of change at the pay phone, you frantically repeat the 10-digit number you just got from Information
over and over again. That’s called:
a. chunking
b. maintenance rehearsal
c. memory span stretching
d. duration enhancement
78. The capacity for working memory seems to be about:
a. three items
b. seven items
c. ten items
d. fifteen items
79. The idea of repressed memory is based upon the theory of:
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Albert Bandura
c. George Miller
d. B. F. Skinner
80. Information in short-term memory is forgotten because of:
a. interference
b. maintenance
c. chunking
d. encoding
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81. If you combine separate items of information into large units and then remember these larger units rather
than individual items, you are using:
a. attention
b. rehearsal
c. procedural memory
d. chunking
82. We can retrieve ____ memory, but not ____ memory.
a. semantic; procedural
b. semantic; episodic
c. procedural; semantic
d. episodic; semantic
83. Information stored in long-term memory:
a. is relatively permanent
b. decays after several days
c. is limited to about seven items at any given moment
d. requires rehearsal to prevent decay
84. Difficult material, which is an example of ____ information, is encoded ____ into long-term memory.
a. semantic; with effort
b. semantic; automatically
c. episodic; with effort
d. episodic; automatically
85. Effective studying is an example of:
a. automatic encoding
b. effortful encoding
c. maintenance rehearsal
d. chunking
86. The recency effect works because subjects:
a. still have the last items available in short-term memory
b. cannot transfer information into sensory memory
c. do not have enough long-term memory for all of the items
d. rehearsed the last items storing them in long-term memory
87. “I never forget a face.” If that is really true, then the individual is referred to as a(n):
a. savant
b. memoirist
c. mnemonists
d. super-recognizer
88. The word that best describes encoding is:
a. output
b. input
c. recall
d. reorder
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89. Remembering is getting information out of storage. The term ____ refers to the same process.
a. encoding
b. retrieval
c. storage
d. recording
90. Recognition involves:
a. retrieving previously learned information with no cues present
b. encoding new information to replace previously learned information
c. using available cues to identify information that has been previously learned
d. looking at an image and retaining a detailed visual image for several minutes
91. According to network theory, memory is organized by:
a. nodes, associations, and hierarchies of information
b. most important to least important information
c. chronological order, according to when information was acquired
d. “programs” of information, similar to a TV “network”
92. As you are remembering your first day of high school, you are searching:
a. in a random way
b. in a linear way from most recent to most past personal information
c. groups of nodes that are connected by personal associations
d. network hierarchies
93. The two primary reasons why our memory is limited in early life are:
a. limited visual system and limited language skills
b. limited language skills and not having a sense of self
c. limited motor skills and language skills
d. limited visual system development and underdeveloped auditory cortex
94. If memory loss follows a blow or damage to the brain, the person is said to suffer from:
a. amnesia
b. Korsakoff’s syndrome
c. Wernicke’s aphasia
d. interference
95. Proactive interference is to ____ as retroactive interference is to ____.
a. primary; secondary
b. encode; retrieval
c. forward; backward
d. backward; forward
96. “What’s that thing called? Oh, I know it! What is it? Come on, this is ridiculous.” This experience is
often called the:
a. tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon
b. competing responses style
c. amnesia
d. memory-cognitive hesitation syndrome
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97. Our short-term memory abilities are a function of activity in the:
a. hippocampus
b. amygdala
c. cortex
d. occipital lobe
98. A technique for creating visual associations between memorized places and items to be memorized is
called:
a. eidetic imagery
b. the method of loci
c. the peg theory
d. proactive rehearsal
99. What is the mnemonic called that used associations between number-word rhymes and the items to be
memorized?
a. selective encoding
b. chunking method
c. peg method
d. method of loci
100.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The wording of a question:
is usually ignored when people are trying to think of the answer to the question
is rarely remembered after a question has been answered
can influence the reporting of eyewitness testimony
can only cause a witness to be more confident in his or her answer
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101.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Who consistently overestimates their IQs?
professors
college students
females
males
102.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What historical figure is most closely associated to the two-factor theory of intelligence?
Clarence Thomas
Charles Spearman
Alfred Binet
Lewis Terman
103.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The two-factor theory divides intelligence into:
verbal skills and math skills
spatial abilities and movement abilities
general intelligence and specific abilities
insight about the self and insight about others
104.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The most generally agreed upon aspects of intelligence are:
creativity, verbal ability, memory
social competence, memory, mathematical ability
problem-solving skills, motivation, memory
general intelligence, specific factors
105.
a.
b.
c.
d.
General intelligence, or g, correlates positively with:
math skills
athletic success
social skills
academic performance
106.
a.
b.
c.
d.
An advantage of the multiple intelligence approach is that it:
can reduce intelligence to a single score
uses standard measuring techniques to assess the different types of intelligence
identified all possible types of intelligence
recognizes people with different types of intelligence
107.
The triarchic theory focuses on the three aspects of intelligence. Which of the following is not
among the three as presented in the textbook?
a. analytical
b. problem solving
c. affective
d. practical
108.
Which of the following is a disadvantage to the triarchic approach?
a. it does not give people credit for being intelligent in multiple ways
b. it ignores the influence that problem-solving skills have on overall intelligence
c. only a few tests are available to measure the various ways that people think
d. there is no consideration of analytical thinking
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109.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Who developed the world’s first standardized intelligence test?
Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon
Francis Galton and B. F. Skinner
Howard Gardner
Clarence Thomas
110.
The intelligence quotient (IQ) score is computed by dividing a child’s ____ by the child’s ____
and multiplying by 100.
a. number of correct answers; number of incorrect answers
b. number of correct answers; total number of questions asked
c. mental age; chronological age
d. chronological age; mental age
111.
The term ____ refers to mental processes that we use to be creative, to form concepts, and to
problem solve.
a. information processing
b. thinking
c. cognitive
d. behavioral
112.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Concepts are crucial to effective thinking because without concepts we would:
not know the rules for logical thought
forget most of what we learn
be overwhelmed by apparently unrelated pieces of information
lose our motivation to think
113.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following is a problem of the exemplar theory of forming concepts?
allows us to better store information in memory
allows us to identify things without relearning
exceptions never occur
listing all the defining properties of a concept is very difficult
114.
a.
b.
c.
d.
An average bird has feathers, bill, and wings. This is consistent with the:
set theory
heuristic theory
exemplar theory
prototype theory
115.
“Which job offer should I take? Do I go to New York, Cincinnati, Minneapolis, Chicago, or
Dallas? I need to collect some information about each city with regard to health care, recreation, crime,
and housing.” This person is in what state of problem solving?
a. preparation state
b. initial state
c. operations state
d. goal state
116.
You must calculate your income tax. You carefully follow the instructions to ultimately
determine the amount. The instructions act as a(n):
a. representative heuristic
b. artificial rule
c. algorithm
d. availability heuristic
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117.
a.
b.
c.
d.
If you were not able to solve the nine-dot problem, it probably was because of:
functional fixedness
lack of insight
using poor analogies
failure to establish subgoals
118.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which is not an approach to measuring creativity?
linguistic
case study
psychometric
cognitive
119.
“There is only one right answer to this exercise,” the professor says as the class is reviewing a
problem. What type of thinking is the professor describing?
a. divergent thinking
b. convergent thinking
c. heuristics
d. brainstorming
120.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A method of study that examines a creative person in great depth is called a(n):
insight study
biography
case study
sociopsychological study
121.
A psychological or physiological factor that causes humans to act in a specific way at a particular
time is called:
a. motivation
b. energy
c. instinct
d. drive
122.
“I have lots of motivation to do something. I want to do something with my life, but I’m not sure
what.” This person shows ____ but lacks ____.
a. intensity towards a goal; direction
b. goal-directed behavior; drive reduction
c. energized behavior; direction
d. instinct; incentive
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123.
The young man named Victor whose story is described in the introduction of Module Fifteen is
an exception to the rule. He achieved in school despite:
a. coming from a single-parent family
b. a poor academic record in elementary school
c. negative peer pressure not to succeed in school
d. being a former gang member
124.
Early in the 20th century, most psychologists believed that motivation was explained by:
a. will power
b. instincts
c. environmental incentives
d. beliefs and expectations
125.
Animals have been found to have innate biological forces that predispose them to behave in a
fixed way in the presence of specific environmental conditions. These forces are called:
a. fixed action patterns
b. incentive mechanisms
c. extrinsic motivators
d. self-actualization needs
126.
To be achieving, competent and to gain approval and recognition from others is to reach the ____
level of Maslow’s hierarchy.
a. incentive
b. esteem
c. self-actualization
d. intrinsic
127.
Maslow defined self-actualization as:
a. affiliation with others
b. achievement, competency, gaining approval, and recognition
c. fulfillment of one’s unique potential
d. the perception of one’s own body
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128.
According to Maslow, we satisfy our needs:
a. in a somewhat random order
b. with the overall goal of increasing our self-esteem
c. in a certain order based on a set hierarchy
d. only when we feel competent in doing so
129.
Social needs are acquired through:
a. heredity
b. homeostatic mechanisms
c. peripheral cues
d. learning and experience
130.
Carla works hard to get As on her report card because it is personally rewarding. Her behavior is
being influenced by:
a. fixed action patterns
b. intrinsic motivation
c. extrinsic motivation
d. drive-reduction theory
131.
An emotion is a feeling made up of:
a. anger, fear, or happiness
b. having a subjective feeling and objectively learned behavioral responses
c. appraising a stimulus, having a subjective feeling, physiological responses, and overt
behavior
d. facial expressions which convey social signals and social needs and physiological
responses
132.
As you get ready for the professor to pass back your graded test you experience the emotion of
anxiety. Using the definition of emotion presented in your textbook, which one of the following is
incorrect?
a. overt behavior--anxiety
b. overt behavior--tapping your pencil
c. physiological response--heart rate is rapid
d. appraising the stimulus--if you do poorly on this exam you won’t make the Dean’s Honor
List
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133.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Theories of emotions tend to fit into three categories. What are the names of the categories?
peripheral theories, cognitive appraisal theories, and affective neuroscience
central theories, social learning theories, and Freudian theory
peripheral theories, central theories, and humanistic theories
behavioral theories, cognitive appraisal theories, and peripheral theories
134.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Peripheral is to ____ as cognitive appraisal is to ____.
learning; innate
brain; emotion
side; interpretation
physiological; interpretation
135.
a.
b.
c.
d.
According to the James-Lange theory, experiencing emotion starts with:
changes in facial muscles
a show of observable behavior
the brain interpreting stimulus
physiological changes
136.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The facial feedback theory emphasizes the ____ component of emotion.
behavioral
physiological
cognitive
active
137.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Charles Darwin was the originator of the explanation of emotion currently known as:
James-Lange theory
cognitive theory
facial feedback theory
behavioral theory
138.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The primary cause of emotions according to the cognitive appraisal theory is:
the extent of change in facial muscles and skin
how the brain interprets physiological changes
how we interpret a situation
our degree of physiological arousal
139.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which part of the brain is especially active when viewing facial expressions of fear?
hippocampus
amygdala
thalamus
visual cortex
140.
“I remember when a dog chased me up a tree. I was scared.” What brain part was responsible for
storing that memory of that fear?
a. amygdala
b. thalamus
c. Wernicke’s area
d. hippocampus
141.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A psychiatric disorder characterized by a child’s lack of emotional attachment to others is called:
insecure attachment
difficult temperament
early childhood schizophrenia
reactive attachment disorder
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142.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Nature is to nurture as ____ is to ____.
culture; society
genetics; environment
environment; genetics
biology; physics
143.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Prodigies demonstrate the interaction between:
developmental psychology and music
biology and genetics
art and social science
genetic and learned influences
144.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The period that lasts nine months, extending from conception to birth is called the ____ period.
prenatal
embryonic
germinal
fetal
145.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Identical twins result from:
the release and fertilization of two ova
the release of more than 23 strands of chromosomes
a single ovum that splits into two parts after fertilization
an extra 21st chromosome produced by the father’s sperm
146.
Down syndrome and similar genetic abnormalities can be identified during prenatal development
through:
a. amniocentesis
b. ovulation
c. the Lamaze method
d. the proximodistal procedure
147.
When 1-year-old Terrace is in new surroundings, he will explore freely if his mother watches
him. If she leaves the room he begins to cry, but when she returns he smiles and stops fussing. Terrace
would be considered a(n) ____ infant.
a. securely attached
b. insecurely attached
c. unattached
d. disturbed
148.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What behavior can a newborn perform that triggers care and sympathy from the parent?
eye contact
first words
crying
smiling
149.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Within 1 year after birth, children will show signs of all of the following except:
sadness
anger
guilt
shyness
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150.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Should a parent be concerned if their 10-month-old is not crawling?
No—development norms represent average ages and not absolute ages
No—development norms have been shown to be false
Yes—the norms represent absolute ages
No—maturation typically does not influence motor skills
151.
Freud’s psychodynamic approach to personality emphasizes which of the following?
a. conscious thoughts, unconscious forces, and unconscious motivation
b. cognitive appraisals of one’s environment
c. the measurement of traits and their stability
d. self-actualization and personal freedom
152.
Freud believed that a person’s wishes, thoughts, and desires that one cannot voluntarily access
were represented by:
a. unconscious forces
b. conscious forces
c. manifest content
d. reality content
153.
Freud’s theory of personality has been criticized on a number of grounds, including:
a. it is too limited in scope
b. its emphasis on psychological and social influences
c. difficulty in testing Freudian concepts
d. its ability to interpret behavior
154.
Your friend argues that negative characteristics associated with women, such as passivity, are due
not to biology, but to child-parent social interactions. Which theorist does your friend agree with?
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Karen Horney
c. Erik Erikson
d. Carl Jung
155.
Carl Jung and Alfred Adler were critical of Freud’s:
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a. emphasis on unconscious processes
b. reluctance to recognize the role of biological drives
c. use of hypnosis
d. emphasis on sexuality
156.
When a little girl experiences the Electra complex, which of the following results in her turning
against her mother and developing sexual desires for her father?
a. sublimation
b. rationalization
c. penis envy
d. the collective unconscious
157.
During the Oedipus complex, the little boy feels hatred and jealously toward:
a. his older brother(s)
b. his sister(s)
c. his mother
d. his father
158.
Cal is a carefree and generous person. His home is often a mess and his files at his office are very
disorganized. From Freud’s perspective, it is possible that Cal is fixated at the ____ stage.
a. oral
b. phallic
c. anal
d. latency
159.
Which of the following is the correct order of developmental stages according to the
psychodynamic theory?
a. anal, latency, genital, phallic
b. oral, phallic, genital, latency, self-actualization
c. phallic, anal, latency, belongingness, oral
d. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital
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160.
Which of the following is an example of displacement?
a. a man is angry with his wife, so he yells at his employee
b. a man denies that he is angry with his wife
c. a man is angry with his wife, but says that she is the one who is angry
d. a man makes up excuses for why he is angry with his wife
161.
Defense mechanisms are Freudian processes designed to reduce:
a. the latent content of dreams
b. the ego
c. anxiety
d. self-actualization
162.
Freud assumed that the ____ was totally unconscious, and that the largest part of the ____ was
conscious.
a. ego; superego
b. ego; id
c. id; ego
d. superego; id
163.
“People are basically good and their personality is shaped by an inborn tendency to reach their
greatest potential.” What kind of theorist would be most likely to make that statement?
a. social cognitive
b. trait
c. humanistic
d. analytical
164.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What words are most descriptive of the social cognitive approach?
id, ego, superego
freedom, Electra complex, OCEAN
trait, self-efficacy, unconscious motivation
cognitive-personal factors, behaviors, environmental factors
165.
Bandura would say that a person’s emotional makeup and their biological and genetic influences
comprise:
a. personal factors
b. trait factors
c. intelligence
d. cognitive factors
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166.
Social cognitive theory was originally known as ____ and was changed to reflect the importance
of ____ factors.
a. trait theory; social
b. social learning theory; cognitive
c. psychoanalysis; psychological
d. trait theory; cognitive
167.
You are writing a paper for a class. As you start writing you notice that you keep on evaluating
your work. You keep deleting what you’ve just written and decide to take a different approach in your
paper. Your ____ allows you to monitor your writing.
a. self-analysis
b. purposeful behavior
c. locus of control
d. observational learning
168.
Using personality characteristics that are relatively stable and enduring to explain behavior is
called:
a. the trait approach
b. the cognitive-social approach
c. the psychodynamic approach
d. the transactional approach
169.
a.
b.
c.
d.
One major difference between trait theory and social cognitive theory is that trait theory:
describes rather than explains behavior
deals more directly with the subconscious
has had little research attention
relies less on words and more on concepts
170.
Which of the following is not one of the five groups of traits in the five-factor model used to
describe personality?
a. neuroticism
b. intelligence
c. extroversion
d. agreeableness
171.
Jeremy is very outgoing. He enjoys taking risks and being involved in any social activities. He
prefers to be with people and dislikes jobs where he has to work alone. Jeremy would be classified as
a(n):
a. neurotic
b. introvert
c. extrovert
d. antagonist
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172.
Your behavior is the result of an interaction between your traits and the effects of being in a
specific situation. This is called:
a. behavioral biasing
b. situational behavioral interaction
c. trait-environment duo
d. person-situation interaction
173.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Your initial, subjective evaluation of a situation is called:
metacognition
personal evaluation
primary appraisal
hardiness
174.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Freud claimed that anxiety stemmed from:
things we learn about negative experiences
unconscious conflicts that arise between id and superego with the ego in the middle
discrepancies between the way the world is and the way we want it to be
the subconscious belief that good things cannot last forever but bad things can
175.
a.
b.
c.
d.
An increase in fear and heart rate, trembling, sweating, and dread characterize a(n):
panic attack
galvanic skin response
increase in parasympathetic activity
Type A person
176.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which type of appraisal elicits positive emotions, such as exhilaration?
a challenge appraisal
a fight appraisal
an arousal appraisal
a threat appraisal
177.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Stress occurs when we:
interpret a situation as threatening but do not have the resources to handle it
have a secondary appraisal that conflicts with a primary appraisal of a situation
realize that our coping resources are socially-based
feel our heart beating rapidly and sense our faces turning red
178.
Imagine that you have been caught cheating on a test, and you feel your hands trembling. Which
appraisal are you most likely to make?
a. a harm/loss appraisal
b. a resistance appraisal
c. a challenge appraisal
d. an alarm appraisal
179.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What effect do harm/loss and threat appraisals have that challenge appraisals do not?
an increase in the activity of the parasympathetic division
lower physiological arousal
a triggering of physiological arousal
higher levels of negative emotion
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180.
a.
b.
c.
d.
____ are small, irritating, and frustrating events faced in daily life.
Hang-ups
Major life events
Avoiders
Hassles
181.
We experience ____ when we try to reach some goal, but our efforts are blocked because of
personal, social, or environmental limitations.
a. frustration
b. anxiety
c. burnout
d. avoidance
182.
Having feelings of doing poorly, physically wearing out, or becoming emotionally exhausted
because of stress at work is called:
a. frustration
b. burnout
c. conflict
d. stress
183.
“The wind was very strong, and it destroyed everything that I own. I never want to experience
another tornado again. It’s left me with sleeping problems, a feeling of helplessness and fear.” This
narrative best describes:
a. burnout
b. posttraumatic stress disorder
c. depression
d. delayed stress reaction disorder
184.
A person who often expresses negative emotions, is aggressively competitive, and is easily
frustrated, would be exhibiting:
a. hardiness
b. an external locus of control
c. Type B behavior
d. Type A behavior
185.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A prolonged and disturbed emotional state is known as a(n):
agoraphobia
mood disorder
somatization disorder
conversion disorder
186.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What disorder consists of fluctuations between episodes of depression and mania?
histrionic personality disorder
major depression
dysthymia
bipolar I disorder
187.
The most common forms of mood disorders are:
a. bipolar I disorder, schizophrenic disorder, minor depressive disorder
b. seasonal affective disorder, minor depressive disorder, postpartum depression
c. major depressive disorder, minor depressive disorder, bipolar I disorder
d. major depressive disorder, bipolar I disorder, dysthymic disorder
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188.
A psychologist is seeing a client who always talks fast, seems to have incredible energy, makes
grandiose plans that would be impossible to carry out, and seems to “bounce off the walls.” If this person
never shows signs of depression, he is likely to be suffering from:
a. bipolar I disorder
b. somatoform disorder
c. mania
d. hysteria
189.
a.
b.
c.
d.
One commonly used drug treatment for bipolar depression is:
Valium
tricyclic therapy
MAO
lithium
190.
After being rejected by all the medical schools she applied to, Melanie developed a sad and
dejected mood. She had difficulty sleeping, ate much less than normal, no longer took interest in the
hobbies and activities that once gave her pleasure, and felt that she was worthless. Melanie would be
diagnosed as suffering from:
a. bipolar I disorder
b. depression
c. mania
d. dissociative disorder
191.
Derek has complained that he is “down in the dumps.” Which of the following is Derek most
likely to suffer from?
a. dysthymic disorder
b. major depressive disorder
c. bipolar I disorder
d. somatization disorder
192.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ray is moderately depressed. Based on the research, his best choice of treatment is:
either psychotherapy or SSRI drugs since both are equally effective
psychotherapy
SSRI drugs
lithium
193.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following statements lends support to the biological theory of depression?
the evidence regarding fraternal twins and occurrence of depression
Beck’s cognitive theory of depression
excessive secretion of dopamine during stress
the level of the neurotransmitter serotonin is lower in depressed clients
194.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The area of the brain that appears to play a role in depression is the:
Broca’s area
anterior cingulate cortex
corpus callosum
prefrontal cortex
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195.
What kind of personality is more vulnerable to depression when a person loses a close
relationship or friendship?
a. socially dependent personality
b. achievement personality
c. borderline personality
d. ego personality
196.
a.
b.
c.
d.
One side effect of ECT is:
loss of personality
loss of emotional responses
an inability to learn new material
memory loss
197.
If a person has an intense interest in order, achievement, perfectionism, and having control, then
that individual might have:
a. schizophrenia
b. dependent personality disorder
c. obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
d. schizotypal personality disorder
198.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Antidepressants increase levels of:
tricyclics
hormones
benzodiazepines
neurotransmitters
199.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The primary disorder that is treated by ECT is:
bipolar I disorder
social phobia
substance abuse
major depression
200.
“I distrust other people. I think they are up to something bad.” Which of the following personality
disorders is this person most likely to have?
a. antisocial personality disorder
b. paranoid personality disorder
c. schizotypal personality disorder
d. histrionic personality disorder
201.
In studies examining the brains of individuals with borderline personality disorder, the results
indicate that the brain area known as the _____ is overactive.
a. hypothalamus
b. amygdala
c. hippocampus
d. thalamus
202.
On the surface, Chuck is a charming, intelligent, good looking individual. Yet he constantly lies,
has no sense of responsibility, is reckless, feels no guilt when his actions harm others, and never learns
from his mistakes. If Chuck’s behavior is considered abnormal, he would most likely be diagnosed as
having a(n):
a. antisocial personality
b. narcissistic personality
c. dissociative disorder
d. schizoid disorder
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203.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Schizophrenia is characterized by:
a fear of public places
alternating periods of mania and depression
symptoms that interfere with personal or social functioning
feelings of pain which have no physical cause
204.
A person who believes that strangers are plotting to kidnap him is suffering from what form of
schizophrenia?
a. catatonic
b. disorganized
c. paranoid
d. melancholic
205.
Harold suffers from schizophrenia and has hallucinations and delusions. Harold does not have
any intellectual impairment. Harold could be described as having:
a. Type I schizophrenia
b. Type II schizophrenia
c. Type III schizophrenia
d. unipolar schizophrenia
206.
A ____ refers to an identifiable gene or number of genes or a specific segment of a chromosome
that is directly linked to some trait or disease.
a. diathesis marker
b. predisposition
c. genetic marker
d. genetic landmark
207.
Which of the following structures of the brain may be abnormally larger in people suffering from
schizophrenia?
a. hypothalamus
b. medulla
c. thalamus
d. ventricles
208.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The diathesis-stress theory of schizophrenia says that some people have a(n):
overactive dopamine neurotransmitter system
genetic predisposition that interacts with life stressors to cause the disease
atypical neuroleptic tendency in their brains
overactive diathesis in the prefrontal cortex
209.
William has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. His doctor wishes to reduce both the positive
and negative symptoms that William displays. What type of drug should be prescribed for William?
a. Thorazine
b. haloperidol
c. Lithium
d. an atypical neuroleptic drug
210.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Mrs. Hernandez will miss her favorite class of ALL time, and possibly cry…
True
False
If you put false we are no longer my fav
I mean it!!!
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