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CCC HOH FUK TONG COLLEGE Mock Examination 2011–2012 Physics Paper 1 Secondary:6 Date:01/03/ 2012 Time allowed:2.5 hours (8:15am – 10:45am) Marks:120 Name:____________________________ Class:S.6E Number:_____ GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 1. There are TWO sections, A and B, in this Paper. Section A consists of multiple-choice questions in this question book, while Section B contains conventional questions printed separately in Question-Answer Book B. You are advised to finish Section A in about 60 minutes. 2. Answers to Section A should be marked on the Multiple-choice Answer Sheet while answers to Section B should be written in the spaces provided on Question-Answer Book B. The Answer Sheet for Section A and the Question-Answer Book for Section B must be handed in separately at the end of the examination. SECTION A (MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS) INSTRUCTIONS FOR SECTION A 1. Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet carefully. Insert the information required in the spaces provided. 2. When told to open this book, you should check that all the questions are there. Look for the words ‘END OF SECTION A’ after the last question. 3. All questions carry equal marks. 4. ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS. You should use an HB pencil to mark all your answers on the Answer Sheet. Wrong marks must be completely erased. 5. You should mark only ONE answer for each question. If you mark more than one answer, you will receive NO MARKS for that question. 6. No marks will be deducted for wrong answers. 1 There are 36 questions. Questions marked with “*” involve knowledge of the extension component. The last two pages of this question paper contain a list of data, formulae and relationships which you may find useful. 1 A solid substance at 20 C is heated by a 200-W heater. The mass of the substance is 2 kg. The figure below shows the variation of the temperature T of the substance with time t. Assume no energy is lost to the environment. T / C 100 80 60 40 20 0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 t / min Which of the following statements is/are correct? 2 (1) The boiling point of the substance is 80 C. (2) The specific heat capacity of the substance in the liquid state is 1500 J kg1 C1. (3) The specific latent heat of fusion of the substance is 2.4 105 J kg1. A (1) only B (2) only C (1) and (3) only D (2) and (3) only Which of the following statements about evaporation are correct? (1) A liquid releases energy to the environment for evaporation to take place. (2) Evaporation produces a cooling effect. (3) During evaporation, the internal energy of the remaining liquid decreases. A (1) and (2) only B (1) and (3) only C (2) and (3) only D (1), (2) and (3) 2 *3 Two samples of neon gas in containers X and Y are characterized by the following information. container Number of neon molecules volume of neon gas temperature of neon gas in K X N V T Y 2N 3V 1.5T If the pressure of the neon gas in container X is P, what is the pressure of the gas in container Y? *4 5 A 0.5 P B P C 1.5 P D 2P Which of the following is/are the assumption(s) of the kinetic model of an ideal gas? (1) The size of each molecule in the ideal gas is negligible. (2) The mass of each molecule in the ideal gas is negligible. (3) All molecules have the same amount of kinetic energy. A (1) only B (3) only C (1) and (2) only D (1) and (3) only A car travelling at a speed of 50 km h1 crashes into a wall and stops after 0.8 s. What is the average deceleration during the impact? *6 A 17.4 m s2 B 40 m s2 C 62.5 m s2 D 225 m s2 A ball is projected horizontally from a table and reaches the ground after a certain time. 3 The ball is then projected horizontally from the same position at a higher speed. Which of the following statements about the ball is incorrect? 7 A It reaches the ground at a position further away. B It reaches the ground after a longer period of time. C It reaches the ground at a higher speed than in the first projection. D The acceleration of the ball in the air is the same as that in the first projection. A man drove his car on a road and applied the brake to come to a stop. On another occasion, he drove at a higher speed along the same road and stopped his car similarly. He recorded the two driving experiences as shown below. Occasion Initial speed stopping distance I 25 m s-1 5m II 50 m s-1 Xm If all other forces may be neglected, what is X? 8 A 10 m B 20 m C 30 m D 40 m Bill walks along a straight pavement. The figure below shows his velocitytime graph. v / m s1 1.5 1 0.5 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 t / min 14 16 0.5 1 1.5 When does Bill return to the starting position? A At t = 8 min B At t = 12 min 4 9 C At t = 15 min D At t = 16 min Ball X is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 10 m s 1 from the ground at t = 0. Ball Y is thrown vertically upwards with the same initial velocity from the same position at t = 0.5 s. When will the two balls meet in air? 10 A At t = 0.77 s B At t = 1.02 s C At t = 1.27 s D At t = 1.52 s Three blocks X, Y and Z connected by light inextensible threads are placed on a smooth horizontal surface. A stone is placed on the top of Y. A force, F, is applied to X to pull the whole system to the right with constant acceleration. If the stone is taken away from Y and the force F remains the same, how would the tensions T1 and T2 in the connecting threads change? 11 Tension T1 Tension T2 A increase increase B increase decrease C decrease increase D decrease decrease Block X is initially at rest on a rough table. Block Y is connected to block X by an inextensible string over a pulley as shown below. The masses of blocks X and Y are 3 kg and 2 kg respectively. X Y 5 Block Y is then released and block X starts to move towards the right. The friction acting on block X is 4 N. What is the total kinetic energy of the system after block X has moved by 50 cm? *12 A 7.81 J B 9.81 J C 22.5 J D 24.5 J A small body of mass 0.05 kg is swinging in a vertical circle at the end of a string of length 2.0 m. 2.0 m 0.05 kg If the speed of the small body at the lowest point in the circular path is 2.0 m s-1, what is the tension in the string? 13 A 0.39 N B 0.49 N C 0.59 N D 0.69 N A block of mass 2 kg is initially at rest on a horizontal smooth surface. A horizontal force F is applied to the block. The variation of F with time t is shown in the graph below. F/N 8 F 2 kg 0 3 t/s 6 What is the work done by the force on the block from t = 0 to 3 s? *14 A 12 J B 36 J C 72 J D 144 J An object is initially at rest. Suddenly it explodes into three fragments of masses 2 kg, 8 kg and 10 kg. The 8-kg and 10-kg fragments fly away with speeds 4 m s1 and 6 m s1 respectively, at an angle of 60 to each other. What is the speed of the 2-kg fragment? 15 A 34 m s1 B 39.8 m s1 C 40.4 m s1 D 46 m s1 In which of the following arrangements of mirrors, light is returned in opposite direction from which it came? 16 A (1) and (2) only B (1) and (3) only C (2) and (3) only D (1), (2) and (3) A light ray in medium Y travels towards an interface. Part of the light ray emerges to medium X while the remaining part is reflected back to medium Y. It is known that . medium X medium Y 7 Which of the following deductions is/are correct? (1) The refractive index of medium X is smaller than that of Y. (2) Total internal reflection occurs. (3) If a light ray in medium X travels into medium Y, it will split into two rays after passing the interface. *17 A (1) only B (2) only C (3) only D (1) and (3) only John views an object of height 1 m through a lens. He can observe an image of height 25 cm. If the object is 2 m away from the lens, which of the following can the lens be? 18 A A convex lens of focal length 40 m B A concave lens of focal length 40 cm C A convex lens of focal length 67 m D A concave lens of focal length 67 cm A wave of amplitude 6 cm travels 2 wavelengths in 4 s. Which of the following statements about the wave is correct? 19 A The frequency of the wave is 0.25 Hz. B A particle on the wave travels a distance of 24 cm in 1 s. C The wave speed is 0.5 cm s1. D The average speed of a particle on the wave is 12 cm s1 in 1 period. In a pond, a train of water wave is travelling towards a shallow region. Before entering the shallow region, the wavelength and the period of the wave are and T respectively. X is a point on the water surface in the shallow region and is 2 away from the wave at time t = 0. travelling direction X 2 shallow region Which of the following is a possible displacementtime graph of X in the next 3T? 8 A displacement T B 3T time t displacement C T 2T 3T time t T 2T 3T time t T 2T 3T time t displacement D 20 2T displacement In the following figure, one end of a string is fixed to a vibrator and the other end is fixed to a wall. As the vibrator is turned on, a stationary wave is formed on the string. string vibrator wall Now, the length of the string, as well as the distance between the vibrator and the wall, is reduced by half. If the frequency of the vibrator remains unchanged, what will happen to the string? A A stationary wave of half loop is formed on the string. 9 *21 B A stationary wave of 1 loop is formed on the string. C A stationary wave of 2 loops is formed on the string. D No stationary wave is formed on the string. A beam of monochromatic green light passes through a double-slit and the following interference pattern is formed on a screen. Which of the following methods can increase the number of fringes on the screen? 22 23 (1) Change the monochromatic green light to monochromatic red light. (2) Increase the width of each slit. (3) Reduce the distance between the double-slit and the screen. A (1) only B (3) only C (1) and (2) only D (2) and (3) only When air temperature is increased, which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Velocity of sound in air increases. (2) Wavelength of the same note travelling in air increases. (3) Frequency of the note increases. A (1) only B (1) and (2) only C (2) and (3) only D (1), (2) and (3) direction of travel of the incident pulses free end 10 The figure above shows the incident pulse on a string. The pulse approaches the free end and is reflected. Take upward displacement as positive. Which of the following s-t graphs best describes the motion of point A? A B C D (For Q2425). The iron in the figure is designed to operate at 220 V. It has 3 heating elements X, Y and Z. The resistances of X, Y and Z are 40 , 10 and 10 respectively. X Y Z C to 220 V mains supply fuse 24 25 Which of the following is a suitable fuse value for the iron? A 5A B 8A C 13 A D 26 A What is the power dissipated by the iron if it is connected to the 110 V instead of the 220 V mains supply in the setting as shown? A 202 W B 303 W C 807 W D 1210 W 11 26 In the following circuit, the battery has an internal resistance of 1 . 12 V 4 6 8 2 V What is the reading of the voltmeter? *27 A 2V B 2.4 V C 3V D 8V P, Q, R and S are four particles carrying charges of the same magnitude. They are fixed at the four corners of a square. Z is the centre of the square. Position X is equidistant from P and Q while position Y is equidistant from R and S. P S Z X Y Q R It is known that P attracts Q, S repels R and R repels P. Which of the following is/are correct? (1) The electric forces acted on Q by P, R and S are equal in magnitude. (2) The electric potential at Z is the highest along XY. (3) Among the four particles, the electric potential energy of Q is the lowest. A (1) only B (3) only C (1) and (2) only D (1) and (3) only 12 28 The diagram below shows a rechargeable cell. The specifications listed on it are 8.4 V and 170 mA h. Which of the following statements must be correct? (1) The capacity of the cell is 612 C. (2) The electrical potential energy gained by 8.4 coulombs of charge in going through the cell is 1 J. *29 (3) The internal resistance of the cell is 49.4 A (1) only B (1) and (2) only C (2) and (3) only D (1), (2) and (3) A straight conductor PQ is moving downwards at a steady speed of 0.5 m s1 between two magnets. The conductor has a resistance of 0.5 and is connected to a 3-mV battery. The magnets have pole faces of 0.2 m 0.1 m and the magnetic flux density between them is 3 mT. conductor P N S 0.2 m Q 0.1 m _ 3 mV 0 + What is the reading of the galvanometer when the conductor is moving between the magnets? A 5.4 103 A B 5.7 103 A C 6 103 A D 6.3 103 A 13 30 John holds a rubbed metal ruler with his bare hand and brings it near a piece of acetate strip. He finds that the piece of strip is attracted to the ruler. Which of the following statement(s) is/are possible explanations for the phenomenon? 31 32 (1) The metal ruler is charged after it is rubbed. (2) The piece of acetate strip is charged. (3) The metal ruler and the piece of acetate strip carry like charges. A (2) only B (3) only C (1) and (2) only D (1) and (3) only How is the resistivity of a metal wire affected if its length and its diameter are both doubled? A Halved B Doubled C Quadrupled D Unchanged Which of the following will make the lamp glow brighter? (1) Reduce the number of turns on the primary coil. (2) Replace the core by another one of larger cross-sectional area. (3) Remove the shaded section of the iron. A (2) only B (1) and (2) only C (2) and (3) only D (1), (2) and (3) 14 33 A radioactive source emitting radiation only is placed in front of a G-M tube as shown. connected to a scaler radioactive source G-M tube 15 cm If a paper is inserted between the radioactive source and the G-M tube, how will the count rate change? *34 A The count rate will not change. B The count rate will increase sharply. C The count rate will decrease sharply. D The count rate will decrease slightly. Uniform magnetic fields B1 and B2 exist in regions P and Q respectively. An electron travels through the two regions along the path as shown and reaches point X. Region P B1 X Region Q B2 Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) B2 is stronger than B1. (2) B1 points out of the paper. (3) B2 points into the paper. A (1) only B (2) only C (1) and (2) only D (1) and (3) only 15 35 A G-M counter is used to measure the activity of radioactive sources P and Q. The figure below shows their decay curves. counts per min P Q time Which of the following statements must be correct? (1) The half-life of P is longer than that of Q. (2) The count rates of P and Q are nearly the same after a long period of time because the initial count rates of them are the same. *36 (3) Source Q ionizes the nearby air more rapidly than source P. A (1) only B (2) only C (1) and (3) only D (1), (2) and (3) 144 56 Ba decays with a decay constant of 0.06 s1. For a given amount of undecayed 144 56 Ba nuclei, what percentage of them remain undecayed after one minute? A 0% B 2.73% C 36.6% D Cannot be determined END OF SECTION A 16 List of data, formulae and relationships Data R = 8.31 J mol1 K1 NA = 6.02 1023 mol1 g = 9.81 m s2 (close to the Earth) G = 6.67 1011 N m2 kg2 c = 3.00 108 m s1 e = 1.60 1019 C me = 9.11 1031 kg 0 = 8.85 1012 C2 N1 m2 0 = 4 107 H m1 u = 1.661 1027 kg (1 u is equivalent to 931 MeV) AU = 1.50 1011 m ly = 9.46 1015 m pc = 3.09 1016 m = 3.26 ly = 206 265 AU = 5.67 108 W m2 K4 h = 6.63 1034 J s molar gas constant Avogadro constant acceleration due to gravity universal gravitational constant speed of light in vacuum charge of electron electron rest mass permittivity of free space permeability of free space atomic mass unit astronomical unit light year parsec Stefan constant Planck constant Rectilinear motion Mathematics For uniformly accelerated motion: Equation of a straight line y = mx + c Arc length = r Surface area of cylinder = 2rh + 2r2 Volume of cylinder = r2h Surface area of sphere = 4r2 Volume of sphere 4 = πr 3 3 v = s = v2 = u + at 1 ut + at 2 2 u2 + 2as For small angles, sin tan (in radians) Astronomy and Space Science Energy and Use of Energy GMm r P = AT4 f v λ f0 c λ0 A(TH TC ) Q =k d t k U= d 1 P = Av 3 2 U = gravitational potential energy Stefan’s law Doppler effect Atomic World Medical Physics 1 m0 v max 2 = hf Einstein’s photoelectric equation 2 4 1 m e 13 .6 En = 2 2e 2 = 2 eV n 8h 0 n energy level equation for hydrogen atom h h = = de Broglie formula p mv = 1.22 λ d Rayleigh criterion (resolving power) 1.22 λ d 1 power = f L = 10 log rate of energy transfer by conduction thermal transmittance U-value maximum power by wind turbine Rayleigh criterion (resolving power) power of a lens I I0 intensity level (dB) Z = c acoustic impedance 2 I (Z Z1 ) = r = 2 intensity reflection coefficient I 0 (Z 2 Z1 ) 2 I = I0ex transmitted intensity through a medium 17 A1. E = mcT energy transfer during heating and cooling D1. F= A2. E = lm energy transfer during change of state D2. E= A3. pV = nRT equation of state for an ideal gas D3. A4. pV = 1 Nmc 2 3 kinetic theory equation A5. EK = 3RT 2N A molecular kinetic energy v p = t t Q1Q 2 4 π 0 r 2 Q Coulomb’s law 4π 0 r 2 electric field strength due to a point charge V= Q 4π 0 r electric potential due to a point charge D4. E= V d electric field between parallel plates (numerically) D5. I = nAvQ general current flow equation D6. R= force D7. R = R1 + R2 l resistance and resistivity A B1. F =m B2. moment = F d moment of a force D8. B3. EP = mgh gravitational potential energy D9. P = IV = I2R power in a circuit B4. EK = kinetic energy D10. F = BQv sin force on a moving charge in a magnetic field B5. P = Fv = mechanical power D11. F = BIl sin force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field B6. a= centripetal acceleration D12. V= B7. F= Newton’s law of gravitation D13. B= D14. B= fringe width in double-slit interference D15. =N D16. Vs N s Vp N p ratio of secondary voltage to primary voltage in a transformer E1. N = N0ekt law of radioactive decay E2. t1 = 1 mv 2 2 W t v2 = 2r r Gm1 m 2 r 2 λD a C1. y = C2. d sin = n diffraction grating equation C3. 1 1 1 = u v f equation for a single lens 1 1 1 = + R R1 R 2 2 BI nQt 0 I 2 πr 0 NI l t ln 2 k resistors in series resistors in parallel Hall voltage magnetic field due to a long straight wire magnetic field inside a long solenoid induced e.m.f. half-life and decay constant E3. A = kN activity and the number of undecayed nuclei E4. E = mc2 mass-energy relationship 18