Download Review (Prof. Greenberg)

Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
Name: _______________________________________ Date: ____________________________
___ 1. What type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe?
a) radio
b) online
c) off-line
d) direct
___ 2. Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT's scope of
practice is correct?
a) The EMS medical director can expand the EMT's scope of practice but cannot limit it without
state approval.
b) The EMS medical director can expand or limit an individual EMT's scope of practice without
state approval.
c) An EMT's scope of practice is exclusively regulated by the state EMS office, not the EMS
medical director.
d) An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and
state approval.
___ 3. According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission
from the medical director and the state EMS office in order to:
a) perform blood glucose monitoring.
c) use an automatic transport ventilator.
b) apply and interpret a pulse oximeter.
d) give aspirin to a patient with chest pain.
___ 4. The ____________ deals with the well-being of the EMT, career progression, and EMT
compensation.
a) human resources department
c) EMS administrator or chief
b) office of the medical director
d) local public health department
___ 5. The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically
regulated by the:
a) state office of EMS.
c) American Heart Association.
b) regional trauma center.
d) National Registry of EMTs.
___ 6. The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing
time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on:
a) EMS research.
c) the lead EMT's decision.
b) local protocols.
d) regional trauma guidelines.
___ 7. If an EMT candidate has been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor, he or she should:
a) wait at least 24 months before taking another state-approved EMT class.
b) send an official request to the National Registry of EMT (NREMT) to seek approval to take the
EMT exam.
c) recognize that any such conviction will disqualify him or her from EMT licensure.
d) contact the state EMS office and provide them with the required documentation.
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Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 8. EMRs such as fire fighters, law enforcement officers, and park rangers, are an integral part of the
EMS system because:
a) they are usually trained to assist paramedics with certain procedures.
b) the presence of a person trained to initiate basic life support (BLS) care cannot be ensured.
c) the average response time for the EMT crew is approximately 15 minutes.
d) they can initiate certain ALS procedures before EMS arrival.
___ 9. An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or
unpleasant is to:
a) continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
b) demand the patient to be quiet and cooperative during transport.
c) ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint.
d) reassure him or her that everything will be all right, even if it will not be.
___ 10. Continuing education in EMS serves to:
a) prove research and statistical findings in prehospital care.
b) maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills.
c) enforce mandatory attendance to agency-specific training.
d) provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system.
___ 11. Which of the following is the MOST effective strategy for managing stress?
a) Frequently reflect on troublesome calls.
c) Request overtime to increase your income.
b) Avoid friends and interests outside of EMS. d) Focus on delivering high-quality patient care.
___ 12. The compliance monitoring component of an infection control plan should:
a) ensure that employees understand what they should do and why it is important.
b) identify who to notify after an exposure and where treatment should be provided.
c) consist of a list of tasks that pose a risk for contact with blood or other body fluids.
d) address issues such as medical waste collection, storage, and ambulance disinfection.
___ 13. You and your partner respond to the residence of a 66-year-old male with shortness of breath. As
you are assessing the patient, his wife tells you that he was recently diagnosed with lung cancer. The
patient is verbally abusive and tells you that failure of the health care system caused his disease.
What stage of the grieving process is this patient's behavior consistent with?
a) denial
b) anger
c) bargaining
d) depression
___ 14. The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the health care setting can usually be traced to:
a) careless handling of sharps.
c) excessive blood splashing or splattering.
b) a lack of proper immunizations.
d) a noncompliance with standard precautions.
___ 15. If you are exposed to a patient's blood or other bodily fluid, your first action should be to:
a) report the incident to the infection control officer.
b) abandon patient care and seek medical attention.
c) transfer care of your patient to another EMS provider.
d) vigorously clean the area with soap and water.
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Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 16. What type of stress reaction occurs when an EMT is exposed to many insignificant stressors over a
period of several months or years?
a) acute stress reaction
c) posttraumatic stress reaction
b) cumulative stress reaction
d) critical incident stress reaction
___ 17. What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle?
a) Check for other patients.
c) Request another ambulance.
b) Ensure the vehicle is stable.
d) Contact medical control.
___ 18. Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via:
a) animals or insects.
b) smoke or dust.
c) direct contact.
d) inanimate objects.
___ 19. It is especially important for EMS personnel to develop nonadversarial relationships with their
coworkers because they:
a) are highly prone to stress and burnout.
c) must work together every third day.
b) depend on each other for their safety.
d) may have to bunk in the same room.
___ 20. You are assessing a woman who was thrown from her horse. She is located in a large field and you
can see that a thunderstorm is rapidly approaching. Suddenly, you feel your skin begin to tingle and
the hair on your arms stands on end. The ambulance is located about 30 yards away. You should:
a) crouch down in a position so that only your feet are touching the ground.
b) sit down, bend your knees, and hold your crossed arms close to your body.
c) quickly cover the patient with a blanket and then lie down flat on the ground.
d) immediately lie down on your side and draw your knees into your abdomen.
___ 21. The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the:
a) medical director.
b) state EMS office.
c) EMS supervisor.
d) local health district.
___ 22. When performing his or her duties, the EMT is generally expected to:
a) consistently exceed the standard of care.
c) function above his or her scope of practice.
b) contact medical control on every EMS call. d) exercise reasonable care and act prudently.
___ 23. You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is
severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is
unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should:
a) stop any active bleeding and advise dispatch to send a paramedic crew.
b) ventilate the patient for 5 minutes and then stop if there is no response.
c) request the fire department to extricate the patient so you can begin cardiopulmonary
resuscitation (CPR).
d) have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased.
___ 24. You have been tasked by your medical director to assist in the development of your EMS agency's
institutional standards. When developing these standards, it is important to:
a) require personnel to transport all patients to the closest hospital.
b) be reasonable and realistic to avoid overburdening your personnel.
c) demand that all personnel consistently exceed the standard of care.
d) expect personnel to function beyond their scope of practice if needed.
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Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 25. Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment?
a) A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.
b) An AEMT transfers patient care to a paramedic.
c) A physician assumes patient care from an EMT.
d) An EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency room nurse.
___ 26. In order for a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must:
a) be dated within the previous 24 months.
c) be updated a minimum of every 6 months.
b) clearly state the patient's medical problem.
d) be signed by the local justice of the peace.
___ 27. You respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious, has slow, shallow breathing, and
has a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be
resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient; however, they are unable to
locate it. You should:
a) begin treatment and contact medical control as needed.
b) honor the patient's wishes and withhold all treatment.
c) transport the patient without providing any treatment.
d) decide on further action once the DNR order is produced.
___ 28. When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest, and a valid living will or DNR
order cannot be located, you should:
a) begin resuscitation at once.
c) determine the patient's illness.
b) contact medical control first.
d) notify the coroner immediately.
___ 29. If an action or procedure that was performed on a patient is not recorded on the written report:
a) it was not performed in the eyes of the law. c) it cannot be used in establishing negligence.
b) it can be qualified by the EMT in charge.
d) it was performed haphazardly by the EMT.
___ 30. Where would you MOST likely find information regarding a patient's wishes to be an organ donor?
a) driver's license
b) insurance card
c) Social Security card
d) voter registration card
___ 31. You and your partner are dispatched to a residence for an “ill person.” When you arrive, you find
that the patient, a 44-year-old man, does not speak English. There are no relatives or bystanders
present who can act as an interpreter. You should:
a) give the patient oxygen, assess his vital signs, and transport him to the hospital in a position of
comfort.
b) speak to the patient with a moderately louder voice to facilitate his ability to understand what
you are saying.
c) use short, simple questions and point to specific parts of your body to try to determine the source
of the patient's complaint.
d) refrain from performing any assessment or treatment until you can contact someone who can
function as an interpreter.
___ 32. When you begin an oral report, you should state the patient's age, sex, and:
a) chief complaint.
c) past medical history.
b) any known allergies.
d) the emergency care given.
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Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 33. What type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several
frequencies?
a) scanner
b) duplex station
c) simplex station
d) mobile repeater
___ 34. Your EMS system uses a computerized PCR in which you fill in the information electronically and
then send it to the emergency department via a secure Internet server. The PCR has a comprehensive
series of drop-down boxes, which are used to identify your assessment findings and specify the
treatment that you provided; it also has a section for your narrative. When completing your PCR
after a call, you should:
a) defer the narrative only if the information in the drop-down boxes accurately reflects the
assessment and treatment that you performed.
b) complete a thorough and accurate narrative because drop-down boxes cannot provide all of the
information that needs to be documented.
c) enter all of the pertinent information of the electronic PCR, but then print it out and provide a
copy to the emergency department staff.
d) avoid documenting personally identifiable information, such as the patient's name, because the
PCR could be intercepted during transmission.
___ 35. When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by:
a) using coded medical language.
c) withholding medical history data.
b) not disclosing his or her name.
d) refraining from objective statements.
___ 36. Which of the following statements regarding standing orders is MOST correct?
a) Standing orders have less legal authority than orders given via radio.
b) Standing orders require you to contact medical control first.
c) Standing orders only highlight the care that you may provide.
d) Standing orders should be followed when physician contact is not possible.
___ 37. When obtaining patient care orders from a physician via a two-way radio, it is MOST important to
remember that:
a) his or her instructions are based on the information you provide.
b) the use of 10 codes is an effective method of communication.
c) all orders should be carried out immediately and without question.
d) the physician may or may not be located within your service area.
___ 38. You are dispatched to the residence of an Asian family for a child with a high fever. When you
assess the child, you note that he has numerous red marks on his back. The child's parents explain
that these marks represent coining—a traditional Asian healing practice in which hot coins are
rubbed on the back. You should:
a) advise the child's parents that this is a harmful practice and is considered a form of child abuse
in the United States.
b) acknowledge and respect this practice as a cultural belief, but advise the child's parents that it
has no healing power.
c) document this on your patient care report and advise the emergency department staff of what the
child's parents told you.
d) advise the emergency department physician that you feel as though the child was intentionally
abused by his parents.
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Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 39. During your assessment of a 20-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when
his headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should:
a) repeat your question because he probably did not hear you.
b) allow him time to think about the question and respond to it.
c) ask him if he frequently experiences severe headaches and nausea.
d) tell him that you cannot help him unless he answers your questions.
___ 40. All information recorded on the PCR must be:
a) typewritten or printed.
b) considered confidential.
___ 41. The carpal bones form the:
a) foot.
b) ankle.
c) hand.
c) a matter of public record.
d) reflective of your opinion.
d) wrist.
___ 42. The primary organ responsible for absorption of products of digestion is the:
a) pancreas.
b) gallbladder.
c) small intestine.
d) large intestine.
___ 43. The waste products of aerobic metabolism include:
a) ATP and glucose.
c) uric acid and nitrogen.
b) glucose and lactic acid.
d) carbon dioxide and water.
___ 44. Worn out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the:
a) liver.
b) spleen.
c) kidney.
d) pancreas.
___ 45. The kidneys and pancreas are called retroperitoneal organs because they:
a) are protected by the anterior rib cage.
c) sit in front of the liver, spleen, and stomach.
b) are located behind the abdominal cavity.
d) lie just anterior to the costovertebral angle.
___ 46. The amount of air that remains in the lungs simply to keep them open is called:
a) tidal volume.
c) inspiratory reserve volume.
b) residual volume.
d) expiratory reserve volume.
___ 47. Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is typically unique to infants and children?
a) seesaw respirations
c) unequal chest expansion
b) unequal breath sounds
d) irregular breathing pattern
___ 48. What is the function of the fallopian tubes?
a) connect both ovaries together
b) supply blood to the uterine lining
c) produce progesterone and estrogen
d) transport a mature egg to the uterus
___ 49. A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is:
a) heat.
b) oxygen.
c) nitrogen.
d) lactic acid.
___ 50. Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant (LUQ) of the
abdomen?
a) liver
b) stomach
c) cecum
d) spleen
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Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 51. When assessing an 80-year-old patient in shock, it is important to remember that:
a) it is common to see a more significant increase in heart rate than what would be expected in
younger adults.
b) age-related changes in the cardiovascular system may make the patient less able to compensate
for decreased perfusion.
c) the patient's cardiac output is able to increase by nearly 200% in response to the decrease in
perfusion.
d) in older adults, it is especially common to observe a significant decrease in heart rate in response
to shock.
___ 52. Age-related changes in the renal system result in:
a) a significant increase in filtration, which causes the excretion of large amounts of water from the
body.
b) a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when
needed.
c) the formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass of up to 20%.
d) dilation of the blood vessels that supply the nephrons, which allows the kidneys to maintain their
function.
___ 53. The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of:
a) 18 and 22 years.
b) 19 and 25 years.
c) 21 and 30 years.
d) 25 and 35 years.
___ 54. Infants are often referred to as “belly breathers” because:
a) their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally.
b) an infant's ribs are brittle and are less able to expand.
c) their intercostal muscles are not functional.
d) their diaphragm does not receive impulses from the brain.
___ 55. You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to
take care of this child, you must remember that:
a) small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times.
b) assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs.
c) the infant's proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction.
d) an infant's head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction.
___ 56. Which of the following describes the Moro reflex?
a) When something touches a neonate's cheek, he or she instinctively turns his or her head toward
the touch.
b) The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at
something after being startled.
c) An infant's heart rate decreases secondary to hypoxia because he or she depends heavily on the
heart rate to perfuse the body.
d) When the sole of the foot is stroked with a blunt object, the big toe lifts upward and the other
toes fan outward.
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Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 57. Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant?
a) places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up
b) knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance
c) responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently
d) walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions
___ 58. In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of the maximum amount of air:
a) remains unchanged because the lungs have become accustomed to years of breathing pollution.
b) decreases, resulting in widespread collapsing of the alveoli and impaired diffusion of gases.
c) increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of stagnant air that remains in the alveoli.
d) decreases, which increases diffusion in the lungs and causes an accumulation of carbon dioxide.
___ 59. Why does the incidence of diabetes mellitus increase with age?
a) decreased food intake, decreased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels
b) decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production
c) increased physical activity, increased food intake, and increased insulin production
d) decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels
___ 60. When communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that:
a) deafness and blindness are a normal part of the process of aging.
b) most older patients are confused due to a decrease in brain cells.
c) age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears.
d) the majority of older patients experience a loss of low-frequency hearing.
___ 61. Which of the following statements regarding an infant's vital signs is correct?
a) An infant's heart rate generally ranges between 70 and 110 beats/min.
b) An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's.
c) By 6 months of age, an infant's normal tidal volume is 2 to 4 mL/kg.
d) An infant's normal heart rate increases by 10 beats/min each month.
___ 62. An infant or small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because:
a) the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position.
b) he or she has a long neck, which makes the trachea prone to collapse.
c) the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible.
d) the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the throat.
___ 63. With increasing age, the heart must work harder to move the blood effectively because:
a) the blood vessels become stiff.
c) diastolic blood pressure decreases.
b) the arteries dilate significantly.
d) the blood thickens as a person ages.
___ 64. In preconventional reasoning, children:
a) make decisions based on their conscience.
b) look for approval from their peers and society.
c) act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want.
d) blame their actions on what they have observed in older children.
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Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 65. An infant or small toddler would MOST likely gain trust in an individual who:
a) provides an organized, routine environment.
b) maintains eye contact, even if the person is a stranger.
c) frequently changes the infant or toddler's regular routine.
d) does not tower over him or her and avoids painful procedures.
___ 66. Which of the following statements regarding age-related changes in the nervous system is correct?
a) Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of
neurons.
b) The metabolic rate in the brain increases with age, but the consumption of oxygen decreases
significantly.
c) Generally speaking, the brain increases in size by 10% to 20% by the time a person reaches 80
years of age.
d) Because of a decrease in the number of brain cells, a person's level of intelligence decreases with
age.
___ 67. Which of the following is an anatomic difference between children and adults?
a) The ribcage of an infant is less flexible than an adult's.
b) An infant's tongue is proportionately larger than an adult's.
c) The trachea of an infant is proportionately longer than an adult's.
d) An infant's head accounts for less body weight than an adult's.
___ 68. Breathing is often more labor intensive in older adults because the:
a) elasticity of the lungs decreases.
c) overall size of the airway decreases.
b) surface area of the alveoli increases.
d) diaphragm and intercostal muscles enlarge.
___ 69. At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children?
a) 6 to 8 months
b) 10 to 18 months
c) 18 to 24 months
d) 24 to 36 months
___ 70. The low normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is:
a) 60 mm Hg.
b) 70 mm Hg.
c) 80 mm Hg.
d) 90 mm Hg.
___ 71. When the shoulder girdle is aligned over the pelvis during lifting:
a) the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae.
b) the hands can be held further apart from the body.
c) the muscles of the back experience increased strain.
d) the risk of back injuries is significantly increased.
___ 72. When using a body drag to pull a patient who is on the ground, you should:
a) kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over.
b) extend your elbows as far beyond your anterior torso as possible.
c) bend your back laterally to maximize your amount of pulling power.
d) avoid situations involving strenuous effort lasting more than 5 minutes.
___ 73. An EMT may injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the:
a) back is bent forward at the hips.
c) shoulder is aligned over the pelvis.
b) hands are held close to the legs.
d) force is exerted straight down the spine.
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Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 74. The _________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused
central posterior section of the pelvic girdle.
a) coccyx
b) sacrum
c) thorax
d) ischium
___ 75. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a
suspected spinal injury?
a) long backboard
b) scoop stretcher
c) portable stretcher
d) wheeled stretcher
___ 76. Which of the following statements regarding the neonatal isolette is correct?
a) The isolette serves to keep the neonate warm and protects from excess handling.
b) A freestanding isolette should be used, not one that is secured to the stretcher.
c) The safest type of isolette is one that takes the place of the ambulance stretcher.
d) If an isolette is not available, the neonate can safely be transported on the stretcher.
___ 77. Which of the following situations would require an urgent patient move?
a) conscious patient with abrasions and a possibly fractured humerus
b) imminent risk of a fire or explosion in or near the patient's vehicle
c) semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock
d) stable patient who is blocking access to a critically injured patient
___ 78. When pulling a patient, you should extend your arms no more than ________ in front of your torso.
a) 5 to 10
b) 10 to 15
c) 15 to 20
d) 20 to 30
___ 79. The FIRST rule of safe lifting is to:
a) always lift with your palms facing down.
b) spread your legs approximately 20 apart.
c) keep your back in a slightly curved position.
d) keep your back in a straight, vertical position.
___ 80. What is the MOST appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to the
wheeled stretcher?
a) log roll
b) direct carry
c) extremity carry
d) draw sheet method
___ 81. During your assessment of a 6-month-old male with vomiting and diarrhea, you note that his
capillary refill time is approximately 4 seconds. From this information, you should conclude that his:
a) respiratory status is adequate.
c) peripheral circulation is decreased.
b) systolic blood pressure is normal.
d) skin temperature is abnormally cold.
___ 82. You respond to a call for a female pedestrian who has been struck by a car. As your partner
maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a primary assessment. She is unconscious,
has ineffective breathing, and has bloody secretions in her mouth. You should:
a) assist her breathing with a bag-mask device. c) assess the rate and quality of her pulse.
b) quickly insert an oropharyngeal airway.
d) immediately suction her oropharynx.
___ 83. When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should:
a) ensure that the patient can see you approaching him.
b) approach him from behind and ask him not to move.
c) stand behind him and immediately stabilize his head.
d) assess his mental status by having him move his head.
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Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 84. The “Golden Period” begins when an injury occurs and ends when:
a) the patient receives definitive care.
c) you depart the scene for the hospital.
b) the patient is admitted to the ICU.
d) you arrive at the emergency department.
___ 85. While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient's blood pressure is
140/94 mm Hg. The lower number represents the pressure from the:
a) atria relaxing.
b) atria contracting.
c) ventricles relaxing.
d) ventricles contracting.
___ 86. Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined
after:
a) a physician arrives at the scene.
c) all the patients have been triaged.
b) the number of patients is known.
d) area hospitals have been notified.
___ 87. Which of the following questions would you ask a patient to ascertain the “M” in the SAMPLE
history?
a) “Have you ever had any major surgeries?”
c) “How much Tylenol do you take each day?”
b) “How long have you had your chest pain?”
d) “When was the last time you ate a meal?”
___ 88. In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such
as the:
a) back of the neck.
b) forehead and face.
c) dorsum of the hand.
d) lips or oral
mucosa.
___ 89. A decrease in the blood pressure may indicate:
a) a loss of vascular tone.
b) arterial constriction.
c) increased blood volume.
d) forceful cardiac contraction.
___ 90. A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you
approach the patient, you note that he is conscious, is screaming in pain, and is attempting to control
the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should:
a) ensure that his airway is patent.
c) elevate his legs and keep him warm.
b) apply direct pressure to the wound.
d) administer 100% supplemental oxygen.
___ 91. An adult at rest should have a respiratory rate that ranges between:
a) 8 and 15 breaths/min.
c) 12 and 20 breaths/min.
b) 10 and 18 breaths/min.
d) 16 and 24 breaths/min.
___ 92. How does positive-pressure ventilation affect cardiac output?
a) There is no effect on cardiac output because positive-pressure ventilation is the act of normal
breathing.
b) It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which facilitates venous return to the heart and increases
cardiac output.
c) It causes pressure in the chest to decrease, which increases stroke volume and cardiac output.
d) It increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return to the heart and causes a
decrease in cardiac output.
___ 93. At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to:
a) 24%.
b) 35%.
c) 44%.
d) 52%.
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Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 94. Which of the following factors will cause a decreased minute volume in an adult?
a) shallow breathing
c) respirations of 20 breaths/min
b) increased tidal volume
d) slight decrease in respiratory rate
___ 95. A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted:
a) with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare.
b) into the larger nostril with the tip pointing away from the septum.
c) with the bevel pointing downward if inserted into the left nare.
d) into the smaller nostril with the tip following the roof of the nose.
___ 96. Which of the following statements regarding oxygenation and ventilation is correct?
a) In carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, ventilation is impaired because CO binds to oxygen very
quickly.
b) Oxygenation is the movement of air into and out of the lungs, whereas ventilation is the
exchange of gases.
c) In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, ventilation may continue despite
adequate oxygenation.
d) Oxygenation without adequate ventilation can occur in climbers who quickly ascend to an
altitude of lower atmospheric pressure.
___ 97. On which of the following patients would it be MOST appropriate to use the flow-restricted,
oxygen-powered ventilation device?
a) an 8-year-old female with respiratory failure
b) a 21-year-old male with traumatic cardiac arrest
c) a 38-year-old apneic female with blunt chest trauma
d) a 59-year-old male with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
___ 98. Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway?
a) larynx
b) pharynx
c) bronchus
d) oropharynx
___ 99. To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the:
a) corner of the mouth to the earlobe.
c) corner of the mouth to the superior ear.
center
of
the
mouth
to
the
posterior
ear.
b)
d) angle of the jaw to the center of the mouth.
___ 100. Which of the following patients would MOST likely require insertion of an oropharyngeal airway?
a) a 33-year-old semiconscious patient with reduced tidal volume
b) a 40-year-old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations
c) a 51-year-old confused patient with severely labored respirations
d) a 64-year-old conscious patient with rapid and deep respirations
___ 101. What medication form does oral glucose come in?
a) gel
b) liquid
c) suspension
d) fine powder
___ 102. Medications encased in a gelatin shell taken by mouth are called:
a) pills.
b) tablets.
c) caplets.
d) capsules.
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Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 103. You are treating a middle-aged man with chest discomfort. He has a history of three previous heart
attacks and takes nitroglycerin as needed for chest pain. You have standing orders to administer
aspirin to patients with suspected cardiac-related chest pain or discomfort. While your partner is
preparing to give oxygen to the patient, you should:
a) confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin, give him the appropriate dose of aspirin, and
document the time and dose given.
b) contact medical control, apprise him or her of the patient's chief complaint and vital signs, and
request permission to give him aspirin.
c) ensure that the patient's systolic blood pressure is at least 100 mm Hg since aspirin dilates the
blood vessels and can cause a drop in blood pressure.
d) assist the patient in taking one of his prescribed nitroglycerin, assess his vital signs, and give
him aspirin if he is still experiencing chest discomfort.
___ 104. An EMT may administer aspirin to a patient if:
a) the patient is currently experiencing hypotension.
b) authorization from medical control has been obtained.
c) transport time to the hospital is greater than 30 minutes.
d) the patient is believed to be experiencing an acute stroke.
___ 105. A 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began
about an hour ago. She is conscious and alert, but anxious. Her blood pressure is 144/84 mm Hg and
her heart rate is 110 beats/min. She took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before
your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. You should:
a) give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop
in her blood pressure, and transport.
b) assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact
medical control for further instructions.
c) transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third
dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin.
d) recall that geriatric patients often have slower absorption and elimination times, which may
necessitate modification of the dosing of certain drugs.
___ 106. Activated charcoal is frequently suspended in sorbitol, a complex sugar that:
a) significantly slows the process of digestion.
b) binds to any chemicals that are in the stomach.
c) facilitates movement through the digestive system.
d) disguises the unpleasant taste of the activated charcoal.
___ 107. Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it:
a) reduces the associated chest pain.
c) causes direct coronary vasodilation.
b) dissolves the coronary artery clot.
d) prevents the aggregation of platelets.
___ 108. A medication with antagonistic properties is one that:
a) stimulates receptor sites and allows other chemicals to attach to them.
b) enhances the effects of another medication when given in a higher dose.
c) blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals from attaching to them.
d) produces a cumulative effect when mixed with the same type of medication.
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Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 109. The __________ of a medication usually dictates the route by which it will be administered.
a) type
b) form
c) class
d) name
___ 110. The medical term for an extremely low blood glucose level is:
a) hypoglycemia.
b) hyperglycemia.
c) hypotension.
d) hypertension.
___ 111. You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the
patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after
receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she
refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to:
a) determine if she was injured when she fainted.
b) provide emotional support regarding her sister.
c) advise her that she needs to go to the hospital.
d) obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history.
___ 112. Shock is the result of:
a) hypoperfusion to the cells of the body.
b) the body's maintenance of homeostasis.
c) temporary dysfunction of a major organ.
d) widespread constriction of the blood vessels.
___ 113. You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. You have
addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition
with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you
should:
a) take his vital signs in 15 minutes.
c) reassess his condition in 5 minutes.
b) arrange for an ALS rendezvous.
d) repeat your secondary assessment.
___ 114. Temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope caused by a sudden nervous system reaction
MOST accurately describes:
a) vasovagal shock.
b) neurogenic shock.
c) psychogenic shock.
d) neurologic shock.
___ 115. When treating an 80-year-old patient who is in shock, it is important to remember that:
a) compensation from the respiratory system usually manifests with increased tidal volume.
b) the older patient's central nervous system usually reacts more briskly to compensate for shock.
c) medications older patients take for hypertension often cause an unusually fast heart rate.
d) changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting.
___ 116. Cardiogenic shock may result from all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) heart attack.
b) increased afterload.
c) increased preload.
d) poor contractility.
___ 117. You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a
chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard.
He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious
and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should:
a) immediately evaluate his airway.
c) assess the rate and quality of his pulse.
b) apply direct pressure to the wound.
d) administer 100% supplemental oxygen.
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Practice Exam
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Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 118. A 27-year-old male was stabbed in the chest during a disagreement at a poker game. As you
approach him, you see that a knife is impaled in his chest. Before you make physical contact with the
patient, it is MOST important to:
a) form a general impression.
c) follow standard precautions.
b) call for an ALS ambulance.
d) ask bystanders what happened.
___ 119. Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock?
a) pallor
b) dizziness
c) wheezing
d) hypotension
___ 120. A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement.
Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg. Her skin
is warm and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing:
a) septic shock.
b) pump failure.
c) a local infection.
d) decompensated shock.
___ 121. To ensure that you will deliver the appropriate number of chest compressions during one-rescuer
adult CPR, you should compress the patient's chest at a rate of least _______ per minute.
a) 80
b) 90
c) 100
d) 110
___ 122. Which of the following statements regarding ventricular fibrillation (V-fib) is MOST correct?
a) It is an uncommon dysrhythmia in patients with sudden cardiac arrest.
b) AEDs should not be used to defibrillate patients in V-fib.
c) The only indication for immediate defibrillation is V-fib.
d) Survival rates decrease by 7% to 10% for each minute that V-fib persists.
___ 123. The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant is:
a) one third the diameter of the chest or about 1½“.
b) one half to two thirds the diameter of the chest.
c) one half the diameter of the chest or about 1½.
d) two thirds the diameter of the chest or about 2.
___ 124. Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a
patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese?
a) back blows
b) finger sweeps
c) chest thrusts
d) abdominal thrusts
___ 125. Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves:
a) back slaps.
b) bag-mask ventilation.
c) abdominal thrusts.
d) blind finger sweeps.
___ 126. Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of:
a) severe blunt trauma.
c) an acute ischemic stroke.
b) a cardiac arrhythmia.
d) obstruction of the airway.
___ 127. The main benefit of using a mechanical piston or load-distributing band device for chest
compressions is:
a) the minimal training required to correctly operate the devices.
b) the elimination of rescuer fatigue that results from manual compressions.
c) the elimination of the need to place a firm, flat device under the patient.
d) its ability to be used with any patient, regardless of age, weight, or body size.
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Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
___ 128. CPR should be initiated when:
a) rigor mortis is obvious.
b) a valid living will is unavailable.
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
c) the carotid pulse is very weak.
d) signs of putrefaction are present.
___ 129. A 60-year-old male is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:
a) start CPR and transport immediately.
c) determine if he has a valid living will.
b) withhold CPR until he is defibrillated.
d) begin CPR until an AED is available.
___ 130. When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the ________ artery.
a) radial
b) carotid
c) temporal
d) brachial
___ 131. Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is
experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive
heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to:
a) perform a head-to-toe secondary assessment.
b) assess her oxygen saturation and blood pressure.
c) retrieve the stretcher and prepare for transport.
d) administer oxygen with the appropriate device.
___ 132. Early signs and symptoms of viral hepatitis include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) loss of appetite and a cough.
c) pain in the muscles and joints.
b) vomiting, fever, and fatigue.
d) jaundice and abdominal pain.
___ 133. Factors that increase the risk for developing methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
include:
a) prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
b) failure to be vaccinated against any strain of hepatitis.
c) a history of a respiratory illness within the past 6 to 8 weeks.
d) prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit.
___ 134. In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis:
a) is not a communicable disease.
c) is a far more transmittable disease.
typically
does
not
cause
yellow
skin.
b)
d) can be prevented with a vaccination.
___ 135. A 58-year-old man complains of chest discomfort and nausea. He is conscious and alert; his blood
pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, his pulse is 104 beats/min, and his respirations are 16 breaths/min. Your
partner has applied supplemental oxygen. Prior to assisting the patient with one of his prescribed
nitroglycerin tablets, you ask him if he takes medication to treat erectile dysfunction and he tells you
that he does. You should:
a) avoid giving him nitroglycerin and transport him at once.
b) ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it.
c) recall that erectile dysfunction drugs can cause hypertension if given with nitroglycerin.
d) administer his nitroglycerin and then reassess his blood pressure.
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Practice Exam
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Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 136. When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you
should:
a) limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.
b) perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient.
c) transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital.
d) have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away.
___ 137. In addition to obtaining a SAMPLE history and asking questions related to the chief complaint, what
else should you inquire about when assessing a patient with a potentially infectious disease?
a) recent travel
b) HIV status
c) sexual practices
d) drug allergies
___ 138. Which of the following statements regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is
correct?
a) Most cases of MRSA transmission occur following an accidental needlestick.
b) MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics.
c) The communicable period for MRSA is 10 days to 2 weeks after being infected.
d) Studies have shown that less than 1% of health care providers are MRSA carriers.
___ 139. A patient who was bitten by a mosquito and presents with signs and symptoms of illness should be
suspected of having:
a) avian flu.
b) hantavirus.
c) West Nile virus.
d) lyme disease.
___ 140. Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they:
a) cough.
b) vomit.
c) are bleeding.
d) have a fever.
___ 141. A 33-year-old female presents with lower abdominal quadrant pain. She is conscious and alert, but
in moderate pain. While your partner is asking her questions about her medical history, you take her
vital signs. When you assess her radial pulse, you are unable to locate it. You should:
a) assess the rate, regularity, and quality of her carotid pulse.
b) advise your partner that the patient's blood pressure is low.
c) immediately take her blood pressure to see if she is hypotensive.
d) conclude that she is perfusing adequately since she is conscious.
___ 142. In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient:
a) almost exclusively focuses on physical signs that indicate the patient is experiencing a problem.
b) is focused on the nature of illness, the patient's chief complaint, and his or her symptoms.
c) requires a thorough head-to-toe exam that involves a detailed assessment of all body systems.
d) is not as complex for the EMT because most patients typically present with classic symptoms.
___ 143. Typical chief complaints in patients with an infectious disease include:
a) fever, rash, nausea, and difficulty breathing. c) headache, low back pain, and arm numbness.
b) crushing chest pain, vomiting, and weakness. d) joint pain, muscle aches, and blurred vision.
___ 144. Which of the following conditions often requires transport to a hospital with specialized capabilities
that may not be available at the closest hospital?
a) seizures and infection
c) stroke and heart attack
b) cardiac arrest and shock
d) diabetes and migraines
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Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 145. The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is
typically made:
a) once the patient's baseline vital signs are known.
b) after the primary assessment has been completed.
c) upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment.
d) as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint.
___ 146. When caring for a patient who takes numerous medications, it is best to:
a) document the medications on your patient care report, but leave them at home so they do not get
misplaced.
b) take all of the patient's medications with you to the hospital and document them on your patient
care report.
c) send the patient's medications to the hospital with a family member or other person who will
safeguard them.
d) let the hospital staff retrieve the patient's medical records, which should show a list of his or her
current medications.
___ 147. An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:
a) the EMT's prediction of the type of illness a patient has based on how the call is dispatched.
b) your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness.
c) ruling out specific medical conditions based on the absence of certain signs and symptoms.
d) determining the underlying cause of a patient's medical condition based on signs and symptoms.
___ 148. Upon initial contact with a patient who appears to be unconscious, you should:
a) assess breathing depth and determine the respiratory rate.
b) squeeze the trapezius muscle to see if the patient responds.
c) attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient.
d) direct your partner to apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.
___ 149. Which of the following statements regarding the H1N1 virus is correct?
a) H1N1 has caused more deaths worldwide than all of the other strains of influenza combined.
b) Unlike other strains of the influenza virus, H1N1 is primarily transmitted via the fecal-oral
route.
c) It is only one type of influenza among the many other strains of influenza that exist and infect
humans.
d) H1N1, also known as the “swine flu,” is a newly discovered strain of influenza for which no
vaccine exists.
___ 150. The secondary assessment of a medical patient:
a) should routinely include a comprehensive examination from head to toe.
b) should be performed at the scene, especially if the patient is critically ill.
c) is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short.
d) is typically limited to a focused exam for patients who are unconscious.
___ 151. Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is MOST correct?
a) The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels.
b) Chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the hypoxic drive.
c) The hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy individuals.
d) 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with a hypoxic drive.
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Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 152. The respiratory distress that accompanies emphysema is caused by:
a) repeated exposure to cigarette smoke.
c) massive constriction of the bronchioles.
b) chronic stretching of the alveolar walls.
d) acute fluid accumulation in the alveoli.
___ 153. At the onset of an acute asthma attack, patients commonly experience difficulty breathing and:
a) audible stridor.
b) rales and rhonchi.
c) profound cyanosis.
d) expiratory
wheezing.
___ 154. In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?
a) alveoli
b) trachea
c) bronchi
d) capillaries
___ 155. Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as:
a) shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.
b) a complete cessation of respiratory effort.
c) a marked increase in the exhalation phase.
d) labored breathing with reduced tidal volume.
___ 156. When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal:
a) the brain stem inhibits respirations.
c) exhalation lasts longer than inhalation.
b) respirations increase in rate and depth.
d) respirations decrease in rate and depth.
___ 157. A 60-year-old male presents with acute respiratory distress. He is conscious and alert, has pink and
dry skin, and has respirations of 24 breaths/min with adequate depth. Which of the following
treatment modalities is MOST appropriate for this patient?
a) assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device and a head-to-toe exam
b) oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and a focused secondary assessment
c) positive-pressure ventilations and immediate transport to the closest hospital
d) oxygen via a nasal cannula, vital signs, and prompt transport to the hospital
___ 158. Weakening of the airway in patients with chronic bronchitis is the result of:
a) destruction of protective mechanisms that remove foreign particles.
b) loss of the lubricating substance that facilitates alveolar expansion.
c) airway irritation caused by a marked decrease in mucus production.
d) acute constriction of the bronchioles caused by an external irritant.
___ 159. Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing?
a) 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis
b) 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor
c) 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin
d) 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin
___ 160. Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) a narcotic overdose.
c) an overdose of aspirin.
b) a respiratory infection.
d) high blood glucose levels.
___ 161. Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include:
a) excess stress.
b) hyperglycemia.
c) family history.
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d) lack of exercise.
Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 162. The electrical stimulus that originates in the heart's primary pacemaker is controlled by impulses
from the brain that arrive by way of the:
a) parietal lobe.
c) somatic nervous system.
b) pons and medulla.
d) autonomic nervous system.
___ 163. The purpose of defibrillation is to:
a) stop the chaotic, disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells.
b) cause a rapid decrease in the heart rate of an unstable patient.
c) improve the chance of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) being successful in resuscitation.
d) prevent asystole from deteriorating into ventricular fibrillation.
___ 164. You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago.
He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care.
You should:
a) begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED without delay.
b) have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders.
c) perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup.
d) immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm.
___ 165. Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who:
a) have chronic hypertension.
c) have had a stroke in the past.
b) regularly take illegal drugs.
d) are older than 40 years of age.
___ 166. Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the:
a) right atrium.
b) right ventricle.
c) left atrium.
d) left ventricle.
___ 167. In contrast to monophasic defibrillation, biphasic defibrillation:
a) requires a lower energy setting.
c) begins with 300 joules and escalates.
b) delivers all shocks at 360 joules.
d) is only effective for ventricular tachycardia.
___ 168. Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by:
a) decreased pumping force of the heart muscle.
b) a profound increase in the patient's heart rate.
c) hypovolemia secondary to severe vomiting.
d) widespread dilation of the systemic vasculature.
___ 169. The EMT should use an AED on a child between 1 month and 8 years of age if:
a) he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse.
b) his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest.
c) pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available.
d) special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia.
___ 170. A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when:
a) all layers of the aorta suddenly contract.
b) a weakened area develops in the aortic wall.
c) the inner layers of the aorta become separated.
d) the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding.
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Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 171. Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the:
a) cerebrum.
b) cerebellum.
c) brain stem.
d) cerebral cortex.
___ 172. The anterior aspect of the cerebrum controls:
a) touch.
b) emotion.
c) movement.
d) vision.
___ 173. Status epilepticus is characterized by:
a) generalized seizures that last less than 5 minutes.
b) an absence seizure that is not preceded by an aura.
c) profound tachycardia and total muscle flaccidity.
d) prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness.
___ 174. Which of the following medications is NOT used to treat patients with a history of seizures?
a) phenytoin (Dilantin)
c) carbamazepine (Tegretol)
b) hydromorphone (Dilaudid)
d) phenobarbital
___ 175. When obtaining medical history information from the family of a suspected stroke patient, it is
MOST important to determine:
a) when the patient last appeared normal.
c) if the patient has been hospitalized before.
b) if there is a family history of a stroke.
d) the patient's overall medication compliance.
___ 176. The mental status of a patient who has experienced a typical seizure:
a) progressively worsens over a period of a few hours.
b) is easily differentiated from that of acute hypoglycemia.
c) is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes.
d) typically does not improve, even after several minutes.
___ 177. You are caring for a semiconscious man with left-sided paralysis. His airway is patent and his
respirations are 14 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. Treatment for this patient should
include:
a) oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, left lateral recumbent position, and transport.
b) assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device, right lateral recumbent position, and transport.
c) an oral airway, assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device, Fowler's position, and transport.
d) oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, supine position with legs elevated 6 to 12, and transport.
___ 178. The spinal cord exits the cranium through the:
a) foramen magnum.
b) vertebral foramen.
c) foramen lamina.
d) cauda equina.
___ 179. During the primary assessment of a semiconscious 70-year-old female, you should:
a) insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assist ventilations.
b) immediately determine the patient's blood glucose level.
c) ask family members if the patient has a history of stroke.
d) ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed.
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Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 180. You respond to a residence for a child who is having a seizure. Upon arrival at the scene, you enter
the residence and find the mother holding her child, a 2-year-old male. The child is conscious and
crying. According to the mother, the child had been running a high fever and then experienced a
seizure that lasted approximately 3 minutes. You should:
a) cover the child with wet towels and give oxygen via nasal cannula.
b) transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route.
c) advise the mother to take her child to the doctor the following day.
d) call medical control and request permission to give the child aspirin.
___ 181. A strangulated hernia is one that:
a) spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention.
b) can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs.
c) is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours.
d) loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.
___ 182. A 59-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of severe lower back pain. He is conscious and
alert, but very restless and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his
umbilicus. You should:
a) vigorously palpate the abdomen to establish pain severity.
b) administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport.
c) place the patient in a sitting position and transport at once.
d) request a paramedic unit to give the patient pain medication.
___ 183. When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should:
a) palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction beginning with the quadrant after the one the
patient indicates is painful.
b) ask the patient to point to the area of pain or tenderness and assess for rebound tenderness over
that specific area.
c) visually assess the painful area of the abdomen, but avoid palpation because this could worsen
his or her condition.
d) observe for abdominal guarding, which is characterized by sudden relaxation of the abdominal
muscles when palpated.
___ 184. In the presence of ileus, the only way the stomach can empty itself is by:
a) diarrhea.
b) vomiting.
c) muscular contraction.
d) spontaneous rupture.
___ 185. The MOST common and significant complication associated with an acute abdomen is:
a) peritonitis.
b) high fever.
c) severe pain.
d) internal bleeding.
___ 186. Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to:
a) lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.
b) sit in a semi-Fowler position with their knees slightly bent.
c) lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position.
d) sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles.
___ 187. Solid abdominal organs include the:
a) stomach and small intestine.
b) spleen, kidneys, and pancreas.
c) gallbladder and large intestine.
d) urinary bladder, colon, and ureters.
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Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 188. You respond to the residence of a 70-year-old male who complains of weakness and severe
shortness of breath. His wife tells you that he is a dialysis patient, but has missed his last two
treatments. After applying high-flow oxygen, you auscultate his lungs and hear diffuse rhonchi. The
patient is conscious, but appears confused. His blood pressure is 98/54 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 120
beats/min and irregular, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. You should:
a) leave him in a sitting position, keep him warm, and prepare for immediate transport.
b) place him in a supine position, elevate his lower extremities, and transport at once.
c) treat for shock and request a paramedic unit to respond to the scene and assist you.
d) perform a detailed secondary assessment and then transport him to a dialysis center.
___ 189. Peritonitis may result in shock because:
a) intra-abdominal hemorrhage is typically present.
b) fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues.
c) abdominal distention impairs cardiac contractions.
d) severe pain causes systemic dilation of the vasculature.
___ 190. The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by:
a) retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium.
b) eliminating toxic waste products from the body.
c) removing sodium, and thus water, from the body.
d) accommodating a large amount of blood volume.
___ 191. Elderly patients with abdominal problems may not exhibit the same pain response as younger
patients because of:
a) chronic dementia, which inhibits communication.
b) interactions of the numerous medications they take.
c) progressive deterioration of abdominal organ function.
d) age-related deterioration of their sensory systems.
___ 192. Functions of the liver include:
a) storage of bile, which is produced in the gallbladder.
b) production of substances necessary for blood clotting.
c) production of hormones that regulate blood sugar levels.
d) release of amylase, which breaks down starches into sugar.
___ 193. Pain that is localized to the lower back and/or lower abdominal quadrants is MOST suggestive of:
a) acute pancreatitis.
b) an aortic aneurysm.
c) a kidney infection.
d) acute
appendicitis.
___ 194. Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct?
a) The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver.
b) The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated.
c) The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.
d) An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs.
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___ 195. Which of the following is characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?
a) the passage of bright red blood in the stool or coughing up blood
b) symptom relief after taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
c) sharp pain that is typically located in both lower abdominal quadrants
d) burning or pain in the stomach that subsides immediately after eating
___ 196. Esophageal varices MOST commonly occur in patients who:
a) drink a lot of alcohol.
c) have a history of esophagitis.
b) have severe diabetes.
d) have weak immune systems.
___ 197. Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct?
a) Acute hypertension is a common adverse effect of dialysis.
b) Hemodialysis is effective but carries a high risk of peritonitis.
c) Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness.
d) The purpose of dialysis is to help the kidneys retain salt and water.
___ 198. Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder,
is called:
a) referred pain.
b) radiating pain.
c) visceral pain.
d) remote pain.
___ 199. You are transporting a 49-year-old male with “tearing” abdominal pain. You are approximately 30
miles away from the closest hospital. During your reassessment, you determine that the patient's
condition has deteriorated significantly. You should:
a) assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device.
b) immediately perform a rapid physical examination.
c) continue transporting and alert the receiving hospital.
d) consider requesting a rendezvous with an ALS unit.
___ 200. Erosion of the protective layer of the stomach or duodenum secondary to overactivity of digestive
juices results in:
a) ileus.
b) an ulcer.
c) appendicitis.
d) cholecystitis.
___ 201. To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose?
a) an unconscious 33-year-old male with cool, clammy skin
b) a conscious 37-year-old female with nausea and vomiting
c) a semiconscious 40-year-old female without a gag reflex
d) a confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor
___ 202. Assessment of a patient with hypoglycemia will MOST likely reveal:
a) sunken eyes.
b) hyperactivity.
c) warm, dry skin.
d) combativeness.
___ 203. Type 1 diabetes:
a) is typically treated with medications such as metformin (Glucophage).
b) is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body.
c) typically occurs in patients between 50 and 70 years of age.
d) is defined as a blood sugar level that is less than 120 mg/dL.
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___ 204. The normal blood glucose level, as measured by a glucometer, is between:
a) 60 and 80 mg/dL.
b) 80 and 120 mg/dL.
c) 130 and 150 mg/dL.
mg/dL.
d) 160 and 200
___ 205. Hemoglobin is:
a) the fluid portion of the blood that transports cells throughout the body.
b) essential for the formation of clots, such as when vessel damage occurs.
c) found within the red blood cells and is responsible for carrying oxygen.
d) a key component of the blood and is produced in response to an infection.
___ 206. Insulin functions in the body by:
a) producing new glucose as needed.
b) enabling glucose to enter the cells.
c) increasing circulating blood glucose.
d) metabolizing glucose to make energy.
___ 207. Patients with thrombophilia are at an increased risk for:
a) various cancers.
b) hemorrhagic stroke.
c) acute arterial rupture.
embolism.
d) pulmonary
___ 208. Proper procedure for administering oral glucose to a patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) assessing the patient's mental status.
c) checking the medication's expiration date.
b) ensuring the absence of a gag reflex.
d) requesting permission from medical control.
___ 209. Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct?
a) Most cells will function normally without glucose.
b) Blood glucose levels decrease in the absence of insulin.
c) The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen.
d) The brain requires insulin to allow glucose to enter the cells.
___ 210. Which of the following statements regarding diabetic coma is correct?
a) Diabetic coma can be prevented by taking smaller insulin doses.
b) Diabetic coma typically develops over a period of hours or days.
c) Patients with low blood glucose levels are prone to diabetic coma.
d) Diabetic coma rapidly progresses once hyperglycemia develops.
___ 211. Because the stinger of a honeybee remains in the wound following a sting:
a) the stinger can easily be removed with tweezers.
b) the body's immune system deactivates the venom.
c) the toxicity of the venom decreases within 10 minutes.
d) it can continue to inject venom for up to 20 minutes.
___ 212. Chemicals that are responsible for the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction to a bee sting
include:
a) the bee venom itself.
c) leukocytes and epinephrine.
b) adrenaline and histamines.
d) histamines and leukotrienes.
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___ 213. A 48-year-old male is found unconscious in the garden by his wife. When you arrive at the scene
and assess the man, you find that he is unresponsive, has severely labored breathing, and has hives
over his entire trunk. You should:
a) perform a detailed secondary assessment.
b) maintain his airway and assist his ventilations.
c) ask his wife if he has any known allergies.
d) apply the automated external defibrillator (AED) in the event that cardiac arrest occurs.
___ 214. Which of the following physiologic actions does epinephrine produce when given for an allergic
reaction?
a) bronchodilation and vasodilation
c) bronchoconstriction and vasoconstriction
b) vasoconstriction and bronchodilation
d) blocking of further histamine release
___ 215. Which of the following medications blocks the release of histamines?
a) albuterol (Ventolin)
c) acetaminophen (Tylenol)
b) epinephrine
d) diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
___ 216. You are assessing a young male who was stung on the leg by a scorpion. He is conscious and alert,
his breathing is regular and unlabored, and his blood pressure is 122/64 mm Hg. Assessment of his
leg reveals a wheal surrounded by an area of redness. He states that he had a “bad reaction” the last
time he was stung by a scorpion, and carries his own epinephrine auto-injector. You should:
a) apply high-flow oxygen, apply a chemical cold pack directly to the injection site, and transport
at once.
b) apply high-flow oxygen, obtain approval from medical control to assist him with his
epinephrine, and transport.
c) assess his ABCs and vital signs in 15 minutes and allow him to drive himself to the hospital if he
remains stable.
d) apply oxygen as needed, clean the area with soap and water or a mild antiseptic, and transport
him to the hospital.
___ 217. Most patients who die of anaphylaxis do so within the first __________ following exposure.
a) 5 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 60 minutes
d) 90 minutes
___ 218. A 37-year-old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an
epinephrine auto-injector and your protocols do not allow you to carry epinephrine on the
ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient?
a) Ask the patient if he has any diphenhydramine (Benadryl) tablets that you can administer.
b) Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept.
c) Remain at the scene with the patient and request a paramedic ambulance.
d) Quickly determine if there are any bystanders who may carry epinephrine.
___ 219. Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should:
a) properly dispose of the syringe.
c) reassess the patient's vital signs.
b) record the time and dose given.
d) notify medical control of your action.
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___ 220. You have administered one dose of epinephrine to a 40-year-old female to treat an allergic reaction
that she developed after being stung by a scorpion. Your reassessment reveals that she is still having
difficulty breathing, has a decreasing mental status, and has a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg. You
should:
a) monitor her en route to the hospital and call medical control if she worsens.
b) crush up an antihistamine tablet and place it in between her cheek and gum.
c) request permission from medical control to give another dose of epinephrine.
d) administer a nebulized bronchodilator to improve the status of her breathing.
___ 221. When using an auto-injector to give epinephrine, the primary injection site is the:
a) medial part of the buttocks.
c) lateral portion of the thigh.
b) lateral portion of the arm.
d) medial portion of the thigh.
___ 222. A 73-year-old man presents with a generalized rash, which he thinks may have been caused by an
antibiotic that he recently began taking. He has a history of coronary artery disease, hypertension,
and emphysema. He is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 144/94 mm Hg, and his pulse is 64
beats/min and regular. You auscultate his breath sounds and hear scattered wheezing, although he is
not experiencing respiratory distress. In addition to administering oxygen, you should:
a) contact medical control if needed, transport the patient, and monitor him for signs of
deterioration.
b) ask him if he has epinephrine and request approval from medical control to administer it to the
patient.
c) avoid the use of epinephrine because of his cardiac history, even if his symptoms become
severe.
d) begin transport and request to administer epinephrine if his systolic blood pressure falls below
110 mm Hg.
___ 223. The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called a(n):
a) allergen.
b) antibody.
c) histamine.
d) leukotriene.
___ 224. A 19-year-old female was stung multiple times on the legs by fire ants. She states that she is allergic
to fire ants, but does not carry her own epinephrine. The patient is conscious and alert and complains
of pain to the area of the bites. Her blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and
strong, and her respirations are 18 breaths/min and unlabored. You should:
a) position her legs well above the level of her heart.
b) administer oxygen and transport her to the hospital.
c) request a paramedic unit to administer epinephrine.
d) advise her to see her physician as soon as possible.
___ 225. The stinger from a honeybee should be:
a) left in place and covered.
b) scraped away from the skin.
c) squeezed with tweezers and removed.
d) irrigated with copious amounts of water.
___ 226. Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when:
a) wheezing and hypotension are present.
c) a paramedic is present at the scene.
b) the patient is anxious and tachycardic.
d) the reaction produces severe urticaria.
___ 227. Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway?
a) rales
b) stridor
c) rhonchi
d) wheezing
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___ 228. The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _________ following administration.
a) 30 seconds
b) 1 minute
c) 30 minutes
d) 1 hour
___ 229. Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction?
a) a 21-year-old female who inhaled pollen
c) a 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin
b) a 30-year-old male who was stung by a bee
d) a 50-year-old male who was exposed to latex
___ 230. The adult epinephrine auto-injector delivers ______ mg of epinephrine, and the pediatric
auto-injector delivers ______ mg.
a) 0.1, 0.01
b) 0.01, 0.1
c) 0.03, 0.3
d) 0.3, 0.15
___ 231. Most poisonings occur via the __________ route.
a) ingestion
b) injection
c) inhalation
d) absorption
___ 232. As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should:
a) be alert for personal hazards.
c) observe the scene for drug bottles.
b) look for drug paraphernalia.
d) quickly gain access to the patient.
___ 233. Which of the following drugs is NOT a sedative-hypnotic?
a) secobarbital (Seconal)
b) diazepam (Valium)
c) cocaine
(Rohypnol)
d) flunitrazepam
___ 234. Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested certain substances because it:
a) induces vomiting and empties the stomach.
b) binds to the substance and prevents absorption.
c) decreases absorption of poisons into the lungs.
d) is a direct antidote for many toxic substances.
___ 235. A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same
effect is experiencing a(n):
a) addiction.
b) dependence.
c) withdrawal.
d) tolerance.
___ 236. You respond to a college campus for a young male who is acting strangely. After law enforcement
has secured the scene, you enter the patient's dorm room and find him sitting on the edge of the bed;
he appears agitated. As you approach him, you note that he has dried blood around both nostrils. He
is breathing adequately, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is 200/110 mm Hg.
Treatment for this patient includes:
a) requesting a paramedic to administer naloxone (Narcan).
b) assisting his ventilations with a bag-mask device.
c) asking law enforcement to place handcuffs on the patient.
d) attempting to calm him and giving him oxygen if tolerated.
___ 237. You receive a call to a residence where a man found his wife unconscious on the couch. The patient
is unresponsive, her respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min, her breathing is shallow, her heart rate is 40
beats/min, and her pulse is weak. The husband hands you an empty bottle of hydrocodone (Vicodin),
which was refilled the day before. You should:
a) initiate ventilatory assistance.
c) perform a rapid head-to-toe exam.
b) contact the poison control center.
d) apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
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___ 238. Airborne substances are diluted with:
a) oxygen.
b) syrup of ipecac.
___ 239. Heroin is an example of a(n):
a) opioid.
b) hypnotic.
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
c) activated charcoal.
c) cholinergic.
d) an alkaline antidote.
d) sympathomimetic.
___ 240. Syrup of ipecac is no longer recommended to treat patients who have ingested a poisonous substance
because it:
a) has been linked to hypotension.
c) may result in aspiration of vomitus.
b) does not effectively induce vomiting.
d) has toxic effects on the myocardium.
___ 241. A 22-year-old male with a history of clinical depression called 9-1-1 and stated that he has attempted
to kill himself. Your unit and law enforcement officers arrive at the scene simultaneously. You find
the patient lying supine on the living room floor. He is unconscious and cyanotic. An empty bottle of
hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is found on an adjacent table. You should:
a) open the patient's airway and assess his respirations.
b) ask the police to handcuff the patient for safety purposes.
c) provide care after determining what Dilaudid is used for.
d) wait for the police to examine him before providing care.
___ 242. In addition to ensuring his or her own safety, the EMT's responsibility when caring for a patient with
a behavioral emergency is to:
a) diffuse and control the situation and safely transport the patient.
b) diagnose the patient's problem and provide definitive treatment.
c) transport the patient directly to a specialized psychiatric facility.
d) determine the underlying cause of the problem and offer advice.
___ 243. You are assessing a conscious 55-year-old male with a sudden change in behavior. Which of the
following clinical findings would be MOST suggestive of dysfunction of this patient's central
nervous system?
a) an irregular pulse
c) excessive tearing or crying
b) rapid eye movement
d) consistent eye contact
___ 244. The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is:
a) depression.
b) drug abuse.
c) advanced age.
d) a chronic illness.
___ 245. A technique used to gain insight into a patient's thinking, which involves repeating in question form
what the patient has said, is called:
a) active listening.
b) passive listening.
c) intuitive listening.
d) reflective listening.
___ 246. People at risk for suicide include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) married males older than 30 years.
b) those with a recent diagnosis of a serious illness.
c) children with parents addicted to alcohol.
d) substance abusers.
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___ 247. When assessing a patient who is displaying bizarre behavior, the EMT should:
a) consider that an acute medical illness may be causing the patient's behavior.
b) avoid asking questions about suicide because this may give the patient ideas.
c) check his or her blood glucose level only if he or she has a history of diabetes.
d) carefully document his or her perception of what is causing the patient's behavior.
___ 248. Which of the following conditions or factors would be the LEAST likely to result in a change in
behavior?
a) low blood glucose levels
c) exposure to excess heat or cold
b) antihypertensive medications
d) inadequate blood flow to the brain
___ 249. Organic brain syndrome is MOST accurately defined as:
a) bizarre behavior secondary to a chemical imbalance or disturbance in the brain.
b) a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function.
c) a disorder that cannot be traced to the abnormal structure or function of an organ.
d) a change in behavior or mental status secondary to inadequate cerebral blood flow.
___ 250. Which of the following statements regarding the physical examination of a patient with a behavioral
problem is correct?
a) It is only appropriate to perform a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem
if he or she is unconscious or is being physically restrained.
b) A physical examination for a behavioral problem may be difficult to perform but may provide
clues to the patient's state of mind and thought processes.
c) The physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem often yields crucial information
and should always be performed, even if the patient is violent.
d) Performing a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem will likely cause him
or her to become violent and should be avoided in the field.
___ 251. The onset of menstruation is called menarche and usually occurs in women who are:
a) between 12 and 14 years of age.
c) between 25 and 35 years of age.
b) between 11 and 16 years of age.
d) between 45 and 50 years of age.
___ 252. When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should:
a) ask the patient for a concise, detailed report of what happened to her.
b) allow law enforcement to take her statement before you begin treatment.
c) advise her that she will not be allowed to shower or change her clothes.
d) place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags.
___ 253. It is not uncommon for young females who experience their first menstrual period to:
a) have a falsely positive home pregnancy test result.
b) lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours.
c) experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted.
d) become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate suicide.
___ 254. Which of the following conditions does NOT typically present with vaginal discharge?
a) chlamydia
b) gonorrhea
c) genital herpes
d) PID
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___ 255. The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be:
a) limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries.
b) performed in the presence of at least two police officers.
c) as detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented.
d) deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician.
___ 256. In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall:
a) thins and begins to separate.
c) diverts blood flow to the vagina.
b) becomes engorged with blood.
d) sheds and is expelled externally.
___ 257. Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to PID if left untreated?
a) chlamydia
b) ovarian cysts
c) genital herpes
d) ectopic pregnancy
___ 258. A 26-year-old female presents with heavy vaginal bleeding. She is conscious, but restless. Her blood
pressure is 84/54 mm Hg, her pulse is 120 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22
breaths/min with adequate depth. She tells you that she inserted a tampon about 2 hours ago. You
should:
a) administer high-flow oxygen, ask her to remove the tampon, perform a detailed secondary
assessment, and transport promptly.
b) administer high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed assessment of her vaginal area for signs of
trauma, place her on her side, and transport.
c) administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her
lower extremities, and transport without delay.
d) assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device, place one sterile dressing into her vagina,
perform a rapid secondary assessment, and transport.
___ 259. In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such
as polyps or cancer:
a) may be relatively painless.
c) can be controlled in the field.
b) is typically not as severe.
d) often presents with acute pain.
___ 260. Law enforcement personnel request your assistance to assess a 31-year-old female who was sexually
assaulted. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient sitting on a curb outside her apartment.
She is conscious, alert, and crying. When you ask her what happened, she tells you that she does not
want to be treated or transported to the hospital. She further tells you that all she wants to do is clean
up. You should:
a) provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma.
b) advise her that she cannot clean herself up because this will destroy evidence.
c) ask her if there is anyone you can contact, such as a friend or relative.
d) perform a limited hands-on assessment to detect life-threatening injuries.
___ 261. Two of the MOST common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are:
a) falls and motor vehicle collisions.
c) gunshot wounds and vehicle ejections.
b) low-caliber gunshot wounds and falls.
d) motor vehicle collisions and stabbings.
___ 262. While assessing a young male who was struck in the chest with a steel pipe, you note that his pulse
is irregular. You should be MOST suspicious for:
a) underlying cardiac disease.
c) bruising of the heart muscle.
b) a lacerated coronary artery.
d) traumatic rupture of the aorta.
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___ 263. Force acting over a distance defines the concept of:
a) work.
b) latent energy.
c) kinetic energy.
d) potential energy.
___ 264. A 40-year-old unrestrained female impacted the steering wheel of her vehicle with her chest when
she hit a tree while traveling at 45 mph. She is conscious and alert, but is experiencing significant
chest pain and shortness of breath. Which of the following injuries did this patient likely NOT
experience?
a) head injury
b) cardiac contusion
c) pulmonary contusion
d) multiple rib fractures
___ 265. Air bags are designed to:
a) prevent a second collision inside the car.
b) be used with or without a shoulder harness.
c) decrease the severity of deceleration injuries.
d) prevent the driver from sustaining head trauma.
___ 266. Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during:
a) frontal collisions.
b) lateral collisions.
c) rollover collisions.
d) rear-end collisions.
___ 267. When assessing the interior of a crashed motor vehicle for damage, you are gathering information
regarding the:
a) index of suspicion.
b) mechanism of injury.
c) kinetic energy.
d) potential energy.
___ 268. Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy
trauma?
a) dismounted seats
c) intrusion into the vehicle
b) steering wheel deformity
d) deployment of the air bag
___ 269. If a person is standing near a building that explodes, which of the following injuries would he or she
MOST likely experience as a result of the pressure wave?
a) severe burns
b) fractured bones
c) stomach rupture
d) impaled objects
___ 270. During your assessment of a patient who experienced a blast injury, you note that he has a depressed
area to the front of his skull. This injury MOST likely occurred:
a) during the tertiary phase.
c) during the primary phase.
b) during the secondary phase.
d) as a direct result of the pressure wave.
___ 271. As red blood cells begin to clump together to form a clot, __________ reinforces the clumped red
blood cells.
a) fibrin
b) plasma
c) fibrinogen
d) plasminogen
___ 272. Early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include:
a) bruising only.
c) widespread ecchymosis.
b) pain and distention.
d) significant hypotension.
___ 273. An infant with a total blood volume of 800 mL would start showing signs of shock when as little as
______ of blood is lost.
a) 50 mL
b) 100 mL
c) 150 mL
d) 200 mL
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___ 274. A 39-year-old male accidentally cut his wrist while sharpening his hunting knife. He is conscious
and alert with adequate breathing, but is bleeding significantly from the wound. You should:
a) ensure the patient has a patent airway.
c) apply oxygen with a nonrebreathing mask.
b) control the bleeding with direct pressure.
d) apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound.
___ 275. Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than ______ of his or
her total blood volume.
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
___ 276. In which of the following situations would external bleeding be the MOST difficult to control?
a) femoral artery laceration and a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
b) jugular vein laceration and a systolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg
c) carotid artery laceration and a systolic blood pressure of 60 mm Hg
d) antecubital vein laceration and a blood pressure of 138/92 mm Hg
___ 277. A 39-year-old male sustained a large laceration to his leg during an accident with a chainsaw and is
experiencing signs and symptoms of shock. You should:
a) apply direct pressure to the wound.
c) follow appropriate standard precautions.
b) place the patient on 100% oxygen.
d) perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment.
___ 278. Following blunt trauma to the abdomen, a 21-year-old female complains of left upper quadrant
abdominal pain with referred pain to the left shoulder. Your assessment reveals that her abdomen is
distended and tender to palpation. On the basis of these findings, you should be MOST suspicious of
injury to the:
a) liver.
b) spleen.
c) pancreas.
d) gallbladder.
___ 279. In nontrauma patients, an early indicator of internal bleeding is:
a) a rapid, thready pulse.
c) dizziness upon standing.
b) rapid, shallow breathing.
d) a decreasing blood pressure.
___ 280. Hypoperfusion is another name for:
a) shock.
b) cyanosis.
c) hypoxemia.
d) cellular death.
___ 281. If direct pressure with a sterile dressing fails to immediately stop severe bleeding from an extremity,
you should apply:
a) additional sterile dressings.
c) a tourniquet proximal to the injury.
b) a splint and elevate the extremity.
d) digital pressure to a proximal artery.
___ 282. You arrive at the home of a 50-year-old female with severe epistaxis. As you are treating her, it is
MOST important to recall that:
a) the patient may be significantly hypertensive.
b) the patient is at risk for vomiting and aspiration.
c) a detailed exam is needed to determine the cause.
d) many medications interfere with blood clotting.
___ 283. What is the approximate blood volume of a 75-kg adult?
a) 5.25 L
b) 5.50 L
c) 6.25 L
d) 6.50 L
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___ 284. An organ or tissue may be better able to resist damage from hypoperfusion if the:
a) body's demand for oxygen is markedly increased.
b) body's temperature is considerably less than 98.6°F (37.0°C).
c) systolic arterial blood pressure is at least 60 mm Hg.
d) heart rate is maintained at more than 100 beats/min.
___ 285. During transport of a 40-year-old female with acute abdominal pain, you note that she has stopped
talking to you and has become extremely diaphoretic. You should:
a) assess the quality of her pulse.
c) begin assisting her ventilations.
b) repeat the primary assessment.
d) perform a secondary assessment.
___ 286. Which of the following splinting devices would be MOST appropriate to use for a patient who has
an open fracture of the forearm with external bleeding?
a) air splint
b) vacuum splint
c) sling and swathe
d) cardboard splint
___ 287. Hypovolemic shock occurs when:
a) the clotting ability of the blood is enhanced.
b) the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss.
c) the patient's systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg.
d) at least 10% of the patient's blood volume is lost.
___ 288. Whether you are using a commercial device or a stick and triangular bandage as a tourniquet, it is
important to remember that:
a) you should try to control the bleeding by applying pressure to a proximal arterial pressure point
first.
b) the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding may return if the
tourniquet is released.
c) bulky dressings should be securely applied over the tourniquet to further assist in controlling the
bleeding.
d) the tourniquet should be applied directly over a joint if possible because this provides better
bleeding control.
___ 289. Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for up to 2 hours?
a) brain
b) heart
c) kidneys
d) skeletal muscle
___ 290. Bleeding from the nose following head trauma:
a) is a sign of a skull fracture and should not be stopped.
b) should be controlled by packing the nostril with gauze.
c) should be assumed to be caused by a fractured septum.
d) is usually due to hypertension caused by the head injury.
___ 291. Burns to pediatric patients are generally considered more serious than burns to adults because:
a) pediatric patients are more prone to hyperthermia.
b) most burns in children are the result of child abuse.
c) pediatric patients have a proportionately larger volume of blood.
d) pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass.
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___ 292. When caring for a patient whose arm is covered with a dry chemical, you should:
a) deactivate the chemical with a 5% vinegar solution.
b) quickly irrigate the arm with large amounts of water.
c) use forceful streams of water to remove the chemical.
d) brush away the chemical before flushing with water.
___ 293. As you approach a young male who was involved in an industrial accident, you note that his eyes are
closed and that he is not moving. You can see several large contusions to his arms, a laceration to his
forehead with minimal bleeding, and a closed deformity to his right leg. You should:
a) open his airway and assess his breathing status.
b) perform an immediate head-to-toe assessment.
c) assess his pulse for rate, regularity, and quality.
d) apply high-flow oxygen and assess his injuries.
___ 294. You have applied a dressing and roller-gauze bandage to a laceration on the arm of a young female.
During transport, she begins to complain of numbness and tingling in her hand. You should:
a) remove the bandage and dressing and apply another one.
b) carefully manipulate her arm until the symptoms subside.
c) assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed.
d) remove the gauze bandage and replace it with an elastic one.
___ 295. A 33-year-old male sustained an abdominal evisceration to the left lower quadrant of his abdomen
after he was cut with a large knife. After appropriately managing his ABCs and assessing him for
other life-threatening injuries, how you should care for his wound?
a) Irrigate it with sterile water and cover it with a dry dressing.
b) Cover the exposed bowel and keep his legs in a straight position.
c) Carefully replace the exposed bowel into the abdomen and transport.
d) Cover it with moist, sterile gauze and secure with an occlusive dressing.
___ 296. Which of the following is of LEAST importance when initially assessing the severity of a burn?
a) area(s) burned
b) age of the patient
c) past medical history
d) known drug
allergies
___ 297. A construction worker fell approximately 30 and landed in a pile of steel rods. Your assessment
reveals that he is pulseless and apneic and has a 10 steel rod impaled in his left leg. You should:
a) control the bleeding, begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), stabilize the steel rod,
immobilize his spine, and transport immediately.
b) remove the steel rod, control the bleeding, apply an automated external defibrillator (AED),
begin CPR, and transport to a trauma center.
c) stabilize the steel rod, control the bleeding, begin CPR, and rapidly transport to a trauma center.
d) control the bleeding, carefully remove the steel rod, begin CPR, and transport as soon as
possible.
___ 298. A 5-year-old female pulled a pot of boiling water from the stove. She has superficial and
partial-thickness burns to her head and anterior trunk. What percentage of her body surface area has
been burned?
a) 18%
b) 27%
c) 30%
d) 36%
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___ 299. Functions of dressings and bandages include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) immobilization of the injury.
c) protection from further injury.
b) prevention of contamination.
d) control of external hemorrhage.
___ 300. Which of the following is a severe burn in a 65-year-old patient?
a) superficial burn to 30% of the BSA
b) full-thickness burn to 1% of the BSA
c) partial-thickness burn to 20% of the BSA
d) second-degree burn covering 10% of the BSA
___ 301. Significant trauma to the face should increase the EMT's index of suspicion for a(n):
a) airway obstruction.
b) displaced mandible.
c) basilar skull fracture.
d) spinal cord
injury.
___ 302. The conjunctiva are kept moist by fluid produced by the:
a) corneal duct.
b) posterior orbit.
c) optic chiasma.
d) lacrimal gland.
___ 303. A 40-year-old male was in his woodworking shop when he felt a sudden, sharp pain in his left eye.
Your assessment reveals a small splinter of wood embedded in his cornea. You should:
a) scrape the splinter away with moist, sterile gauze.
b) cover his right eye and flush the left eye with saline.
c) cover both of his eyes and transport to the hospital.
d) remove the object with a cotton-tipped applicator.
___ 304. A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend
broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot
see out of the injured eye. You should:
a) carefully examine her eye and remove any foreign objects if needed.
b) avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering the eye.
c) ask her to move the injured eye to assess the integrity of the optic nerve.
d) apply firm direct pressure to the injured eye and cover the opposite eye.
___ 305. The opening in the center of the iris, which allows light to move to the back of the eye, is called the:
a) pupil.
b) sclera.
c) cornea.
d) conjunctiva.
___ 306. A 50-year-old male was splashed in the eyes with radiator fluid when he was working on his car.
During your assessment, he tells you that he wears soft contact lenses. You should:
a) leave the contact lenses in place and flush his eyes with sterile water.
b) remove the contact lenses and cover his eyes with a dry, sterile dressing.
c) leave the contact lenses in place and cover both eyes with a dry dressing.
d) carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline.
___ 307. A 29-year-old male has an anterior nosebleed after he was accidentally elbowed in the nose. His is
conscious and alert with adequate breathing. The MOST appropriate care for this patient includes:
a) leaning him forward and pinching his nostrils together.
b) packing the nasopharynx with moist, sterile dressings.
c) applying a gauze pad in between his lower lip and gum.
d) placing him supine and pinching his nostrils together.
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___ 308. A 52-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her face when her truck collided
with another vehicle. She has obvious swelling to her face and several dislodged teeth. A visual
exam of her mouth reveals minimal bleeding. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of
130/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate tidal
volume. You should:
a) apply supplemental oxygen, immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction
as needed, and transport.
b) assist ventilations with a bag-mask device, immobilize her spine, suction her oropharynx for 30
seconds, and transport.
c) fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, tilt the backboard to the left
side, and transport.
d) apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, suction her airway as needed, disregard the dislodged
teeth, and transport.
___ 309. A 44-year-old male sustained a laceration to his left ear during a minor car accident. Your
assessment reveals minimal bleeding. Appropriate care for this injury includes:
a) applying a tight pressure dressing.
c) packing the ear with sterile gauze pads.
b) padding between the ear and the scalp.
d) covering the wound with a moist dressing.
___ 310. When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the EMT must:
a) closely assess the patient's airway.
c) wear gloves and facial protection.
b) consider the mechanism of injury.
d) manually stabilize the patient's head.
___ 311. The MOST important treatment for patients with a head injury, regardless of severity, is to:
a) immobilize the spine.
c) establish an adequate airway.
b) administer 100% oxygen.
d) transport to a trauma center.
___ 312. During your primary assessment of a semiconscious 30-year-old female with closed head trauma,
you note that she has slow, shallow breathing and a slow, bounding pulse. As your partner maintains
manual in-line stabilization of her head, you should:
a) perform a focused secondary assessment of the patient's head and neck.
b) instruct him to assist her ventilations while you perform a rapid assessment.
c) apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and obtain baseline vital signs.
d) immediately place her on a long backboard and prepare for rapid transport.
___ 313. You should be MOST suspicious that a patient has experienced a significant head injury if his or her
pulse is:
a) slow.
b) weak.
c) rapid.
d) irregular.
___ 314. When the parasympathetic nervous system is activated:
a) blood is shunted away from the digestive organs.
b) the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate.
c) hormones are released that prepare the body for stress.
d) heart rate and blood pressure increase.
___ 315. An indicator of an expanding intracranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is:
a) a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.
c) an acute increase in the patient's pulse rate.
b) a progressively lowering blood pressure.
d) acute unilateral paralysis following the
injury.
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___ 316. The MOST reliable sign of a head injury is:
a) a pulse that is rapid and thready.
b) a decreased level of consciousness.
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
c) an abnormally low blood pressure.
d) decreased sensation in the extremities.
___ 317. When assessing a conscious patient with an MOI that suggests spinal injury, you should:
a) determine if the strength in all extremities is equal.
b) rule out a spinal injury if the patient denies neck pain.
c) defer spinal immobilization if the patient is ambulatory.
d) ask the patient to move his or her head to assess for pain.
___ 318. When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let
go until:
a) an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied.
b) the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher.
c) the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization.
d) the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.
___ 319. The body's functions that occur without conscious effort are regulated by the _________ nervous
system.
a) sensory
b) somatic
c) autonomic
d) voluntary
___ 320. Which of the following statements regarding a basilar skull fracture is correct?
a) Bloody CSF commonly leaks from the nose.
b) In most cases, mastoid bruising occurs.
c) The absence of raccoon eyes or Battle's sign does not rule it out.
d) They are typically the result of local, low-energy trauma to the head.
___ 321. A rapid, irregular pulse following blunt trauma to the chest is MOST suggestive of a:
a) ruptured aorta.
c) pericardial tamponade.
b) myocardial contusion.
d) tension pneumothorax.
___ 322. A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in:
a) immediate cardiac arrest.
c) paralysis of the intercostal muscles.
b) paralysis of the diaphragm.
d) paralysis of all the respiratory muscles.
___ 323. Following blunt trauma to the chest, an 18-year-old female presents with respiratory distress,
reduced tidal volume, and cyanosis. Her blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and her pulse is 130
beats/min and thready. You should:
a) apply 100% oxygen and immediately transport.
b) place her supine and elevate her lower extremities.
c) perform a rapid head-to-toe physical assessment.
d) provide some form of positive-pressure ventilation.
___ 324. Signs and symptoms of a tension pneumothorax include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) profound cyanosis.
c) bulging intercostal muscles.
b) collapsed jugular veins.
d) unilaterally absent breath sounds.
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___ 325. In order to avoid exacerbating a patient's injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution
when providing positive-pressure ventilation to patients with a:
a) flail chest.
b) pneumothorax.
c) cardiac tamponade.
d) myocardial contusion.
___ 326. When a person is lying supine at the end of exhalation, the diaphragm:
a) contracts and flattens inferiorly.
c) is less prone to penetrating trauma.
b) may rise as high as the nipple line.
d) descends below the level of the navel.
___ 327. You arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The patient, a 50-year-old female, was
removed from her vehicle prior to your arrival. Bystanders who removed her state that she was not
wearing a seatbelt. The patient is unconscious, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals
bilaterally clear and equal breath sounds, a midline trachea, and collapsed jugular veins. You should
be MOST suspicious that this patient has experienced a:
a) massive hemothorax.
c) pericardial tamponade.
b) tension pneumothorax.
d) laceration of the aorta.
___ 328. You respond to a residence for a 40-year-old female who was assaulted by her husband; the scene
has been secured by law enforcement. Upon your arrival, you find the patient lying supine on the
floor in the kitchen. She is semiconscious with severely labored breathing. Further assessment
reveals a large bruise to the left anterior chest, jugular venous distention, and unilaterally absent
breath sounds. As your partner is supporting her ventilations, you should:
a) insert an oropharyngeal airway.
c) perform a focused secondary exam.
b) obtain a set of baseline vital signs.
d) immediately request ALS support.
___ 329. If a person's tidal volume decreases, but his or her respiratory rate remains unchanged:
a) minute volume will increase.
c) minute volume will remain unchanged.
b) minute volume will decrease.
d) excess carbon dioxide will be eliminated.
___ 330. The ________ nerves control the diaphragm.
a) vagus
b) costal
c) phrenic
d) intercostal
___ 331. A 20-year-old male was accidentally shot in the right upper abdominal quadrant with an arrow
during an archery contest. Prior to your arrival, the patient removed the arrow. Your assessment
reveals that he is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. The entrance wound is bleeding
minimally and appears to be superficial. You should:
a) transport only if signs of shock begin to develop.
b) carefully probe the wound to determine its depth.
c) assume that the arrow injured an internal organ.
d) clean the wound and apply a dry, sterile dressing.
___ 332. You are transporting a patient with blunt abdominal trauma. The patient is unstable and is
experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of shock. Your estimated time of arrival at the hospital is
less than 10 minutes. After treating the patient appropriately, you should:
a) closely monitor him and reassess him frequently.
b) perform a comprehensive secondary assessment.
c) begin documenting the call on the patient care form.
d) forgo the hospital radio report because of his condition.
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___ 333. A sign of kidney damage following blunt trauma is:
a) hematuria.
b) hemoptysis.
c) hematemesis.
d) hematochezia.
___ 334. The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury:
a) is always accompanied by hypotension.
c) should be assumed to be a sign of shock.
b) indicates a state of decompensated shock.
d) is most commonly caused by severe pain.
___ 335. When worn properly, a seatbelt should lie:
a) below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints.
b) across the abdominal wall at the level of the diaphragm and below the hip joints.
c) above the anterior posterior iliac spines of the pelvis and below the hip joints.
d) across the abdominal wall at the level of the umbilicus and against the hip joints.
___ 336. Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct?
a) Most eviscerations occur to the left upper quadrant.
b) The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.
c) The organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss.
d) Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration.
___ 337. Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles in an effort to ease pain is called:
a) flexing.
b) referring.
c) guarding.
d) withdrawing.
___ 338. A 66-year-old male presents with dark red rectal bleeding and abdominal pain. He is conscious and
alert; however, his skin is cool and clammy and his heart rate is elevated. Further assessment reveals
that his blood pressure is 112/60 mm Hg. Which of the following questions would be MOST
pertinent to ask him?
a) What does your blood pressure normally run?
b) Do you take any over-the-counter medications?
c) Has blood soaked through your undergarments?
d) Have you experienced recent abdominal trauma?
___ 339. You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who was kicked in the abdomen by her
boyfriend. While en route to the scene, you should ask the dispatcher if:
a) the patient is conscious.
c) there are other patients involved.
b) law enforcement is at the scene.
d) the severity of the injury is known.
___ 340. Following blunt abdominal trauma, a 30-year-old male complains of referred pain to the left
shoulder. This finding is called the:
a) Kehr sign.
b) Cullen sign.
c) Grey Turner sign.
d) Brudzinski sign.
___ 341. The MOST commonly fractured bone(s) in the body is the:
a) clavicle.
b) scapula.
c) radius and ulna.
d) midshaft femur.
___ 342. A “hip” fracture is actually a fracture of the:
a) pelvic girdle.
b) femoral shaft.
c) pubic symphysis.
___ 343. The pectoral girdle consists of the:
a) scapulae and clavicles.
b) clavicles and rib cage.
d) proximal femur.
c) sternum and scapulae.
d) acromion and clavicles.
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___ 344. The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is:
a) aggravation of the injury or worsened pain.
b) reduction in circulation distal to the injury site.
c) compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature.
d) delaying transport of a critically injured patient.
___ 345. The MOST common and significant complication associated with fractures or dislocations of the
knee is:
a) neurovascular compromise.
c) ligament and cartilage damage.
b) internal bleeding and shock.
d) total depletion of synovial fluid.
___ 346. Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike fibrous structures called:
a) fascia.
b) tendons.
c) cartilage.
d) ligaments.
___ 347. A(n) __________ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child's bone and may lead to bone
growth abnormalities.
a) greenstick
b) diaphyseal
c) epiphyseal
d) metaphyseal
___ 348. Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life?
a) an amputated extremity
c) nondisplaced long bone fractures
b) bilateral femur fractures
d) pelvic fracture with hypotension
___ 349. A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the:
a) radial head.
b) distal humerus.
c) proximal radius.
d) olecranon process.
___ 350. Crepitus and false motion are:
a) indicators of a severe sprain.
b) only seen with open fractures.
c) positive indicators of a fracture.
d) most common with dislocations.
___ 351. All of the following snakes are pit vipers, EXCEPT for the:
a) copperhead.
b) rattlesnake.
c) coral snake.
d) cottonmouth.
___ 352. Signs of late heatstroke include:
a) hot, moist skin.
b) nausea and vomiting.
behavior.
c) a weak, rapid pulse.
d) a change in
___ 353. Which of the following statements regarding lightning strikes is correct?
a) Lighting often results in a brief period of asystole that resolves spontaneously.
b) The tissue damage pathway caused by lightning usually occurs through the skin.
c) Victims who are struck by lightning often experience severe full-thickness burns.
d) Cervical spine fractures are the most common cause of lightning-related deaths.
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___ 354. You respond to a local lake where a diver complains of difficulty breathing that occurred
immediately after rapidly ascending from a depth of approximately 30. On assessment, you note
that he has cyanosis around his lips and has pink froth coming from his nose and mouth. You should:
a) suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, position him on his left side with his head
down, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility.
b) place him in a semi-sitting position, suction his mouth and nose, apply a continuous positive
airway pressure (CPAP) device, and transport to the closest emergency department.
c) suction his mouth and nose, keep him supine and elevate his legs to prevent air bubbles from
entering his brain, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport to a hyperbaric chamber.
d) position him supine with his head elevated 30°, suction his mouth and nose, hyperventilate him
with a bag-mask device, and contact medical control for further guidance.
___ 355. Compared to adults, infants and children are at higher risk for hypothermia for all of the following
reasons, EXCEPT:
a) a decreased ability to shiver.
c) a smaller amount of body fat.
b) a relatively small surface area.
d) a smaller overall muscle mass.
___ 356. Geriatric patients, newborns, and infants are especially prone to hyperthermia because they:
a) have relatively smaller heads.
c) exhibit poor thermoregulation.
b) have less body fat.
d) have smaller body surface areas.
___ 357. High air temperature reduces the body's ability to lose heat by:
a) radiation.
b) convection.
c) conduction.
d) evaporation.
___ 358. To assess a patient's general temperature, pull back on your glove and place the back of your hand
on his or her skin at the:
a) neck.
b) chest.
c) abdomen.
d) forehead.
___ 359. An air embolism associated with diving occurs when:
a) the diver hyperventilates prior to entering the water.
b) the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent.
c) the alveoli completely collapse due to high pressure.
d) high water pressure forces air into the mediastinum.
___ 360. When the body loses sweat, it also loses:
a) plasma.
b) nutrients.
c) erythrocytes.
d) electrolytes.
___ 361. After the fetus has descended into the pelvis at the end of the third trimester, many mothers
experience:
a) midback pain.
b) a bloated feeling.
c) an urge to push.
d) easier breathing.
___ 362. An infant is considered to be premature if it:
a) is born before 38 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 6 lb.
b) weighs less than 5.5 lb or is born before 37 weeks' gestation.
c) is born before 40 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 7 lb.
d) weighs less than 5 lb or is born before 36 weeks' gestation.
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___ 363. Which of the following statements regarding gestational diabetes is correct?
a) Gestational diabetes results in permanent diabetes mellitus after delivery.
b) The onset of gestational diabetes typically manifests with hypoglycemia.
c) In some cases, women with gestational diabetes require insulin injections.
d) Diet and exercise are typically ineffective in controlling gestational diabetes.
___ 364. Braxton-Hicks contractions are characterized by:
a) regular contractions of progressively increasing intensity.
b) alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions.
c) pink or red bloody show in conjunction with the contractions.
d) a rupture of the amniotic sac just before the contractions begin.
___ 365. Which of the following statements regarding a breech presentation is MOST correct?
a) A breech presentation occurs when the buttocks are the presenting part.
b) There is minimal risk of trauma to the infant with a breech presentation.
c) It is impossible to deliver a breech presentation in the prehospital setting.
d) Breech deliveries occur rapidly, so the EMT should deliver at the scene.
___ 366. Which of the following is an indication of imminent birth?
a) rupture of the amniotic sac
c) irregular contractions lasting 10 minutes
b) crowning of the baby's head
d) expulsion of the mucus plug from the vagina
___ 367. Abruptio placenta occurs when:
a) the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall.
b) a tear in the placenta causes severe internal hemorrhage.
c) the placenta affixes itself to the outer layer of the uterus.
d) the placenta develops over and covers the cervical opening.
___ 368. A nuchal cord is defined as an umbilical cord that:
a) has separated from the placenta.
c) is lacerated due to a traumatic delivery.
b) is wrapped around the baby's neck.
d) has abnormally developed blood vessels.
___ 369. You are assessing a 25-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant. She is experiencing regular
contractions that are approximately 3 minutes apart and states that her amniotic sac broke 2 hours
ago. After taking the standard precautions, you should:
a) apply 100% oxygen.
c) assess her for crowning.
b) place her on her left side.
d) transport her immediately.
___ 370. When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her:
a) in a supine position with her legs spread.
b) on her left side with the right leg elevated.
c) in a sitting position with her hips elevated 12.
d) on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2 to 4.
___ 371. The normal respiratory rate for a newborn should not exceed ______ breaths/min.
a) 50
b) 60
c) 70
d) 80
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___ 372. Cardiac arrest in the pediatric population is MOST commonly the result of:
a) a complete airway obstruction.
c) a congenital cardiovascular defect.
b) respiratory or circulatory failure.
d) lethal cardiac rhythm disturbances.
___ 373. Which of the following is NOT a known risk factor of SIDS?
a) mother younger than 20 years
c) putting a baby to sleep on his or her back
b) low birth weight
d) mother smoked during pregnancy
___ 374. In most children, febrile seizures are characterized by:
a) a blank stare, a duration of between 15 and 30 minutes, and a prolonged postictal phase.
b) unresponsiveness, complete body relaxation, a fever greater than 105°F, and a short postictal
phase.
c) generalized tonic-clonic activity, a duration of less than 15 minutes, and a short or absent
postictal phase.
d) isolated tonic-clonic activity, a duration of greater than 15 minutes, and a short postictal phase.
___ 375. Signs and symptoms of meningitis in the infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) sunken fontanelles.
c) a stiff or painful neck.
b) headache and fever.
d) an altered mental status.
___ 376. An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with:
a) excessive tearing.
b) moist oral mucosa.
c) bulging fontanelles.
output.
___ 377. When assessing an 8-year-old child, you should:
a) refrain from taking a blood pressure.
b) talk to the child, not just the caregiver.
d) absent urine
c) use a toe-to-head assessment approach.
d) rely solely on the parent for information.
___ 378. The MOST ominous sign of impending cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is:
a) pallor.
b) retractions.
c) nasal flaring.
d) bradycardia.
___ 379. Febrile seizures in a child:
a) typically last less than 30 minutes.
b) occur after a week of a febrile illness.
c) are usually caused by viral meningitis.
d) may indicate a serious underlying illness.
___ 380. Blood pressure is usually not assessed in children younger than _____ years.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
___ 381. A productive cough, fever, and chills in an 80-year-old patient with a compromised immune system
should make you MOST suspicious for:
a) heart failure.
b) bronchitis.
c) emphysema.
d) pneumonia.
___ 382. When assessing a geriatric patient who has possibly experienced an acute ischemic stroke, it is
MOST important to:
a) determine the onset of the patient's symptoms.
b) ascertain about a history of atrial fibrillation.
c) administer 324 mg of aspirin as soon as possible.
d) determine if the patient has risk factors for a stroke.
Page 44
Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
___ 383. Osteoporosis is MOST accurately defined as:
a) increased flexibility of bone mass.
b) decreased bone marrow production.
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
c) a decrease in bone mass and density.
d) an abnormality near the growth plate.
___ 384. With age, the spine stiffens as a result of shrinkage of the intervertebral disc spaces, and the
vertebrae become brittle. This increases the risk of:
a) severe kyphosis.
b) distracting injuries.
c) spinal cord tearing.
d) compression
fractures.
___ 385. Fractures of the pelvis in older patients often occur as the result of a combination of:
a) osteoporosis and low-energy trauma.
c) arthritic joints and high-energy trauma.
b) increased bone density and car crashes.
d) acetabular separation and severe falls.
___ 386. Clouding of the lenses of the eyes is called:
a) retinitis.
b) cataracts.
c) glaucoma.
d) conjunctivitis.
___ 387. A 73-year-old female experienced a syncopal episode while watching TV. She is now conscious, but
is diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. Your assessment reveals abdominal tenderness and a
pulsating mass to the left of her umbilicus. You should be MOST suspicious for:
a) an aortic aneurysm.
c) a strangulated bowel.
b) acute appendicitis.
d) myocardial infarction.
___ 388. In contrast to a living will, a “do not resuscitate” (DNR) order becomes valid when:
a) the patient has a terminal illness.
c) the patient is in a health care setting.
b) the patient develops cardiac arrest.
d) it is signed by three or more physicians.
___ 389. When immobilizing a patient with a kyphotic spine to a long backboard, the EMT would MOST
likely have to:
a) force the head into a neutral alignment.
c) secure the patient's head before the torso.
b) place blankets behind the patient's head.
d) use a scoop stretcher instead of a log roll.
___ 390. Poor maintenance of home, poor personal care, and dietary neglect are all possible indicators of
____________ elder abuse.
a) physical
b) financial
c) emotional
d) psychological
___ 391. Down syndrome is a genetic defect that occurs as the result of:
a) an extra pair of chromosomes.
c) a triplication of chromosome 21.
b) a separation of chromosome 21.
d) a sperm that contains 24 chromosomes.
___ 392. When enlisting the help of an interpreter who signs, it is important for you to ask the interpreter to:
a) report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary.
b) voice what he or she is signing while communicating with the patient.
c) document the answers to the questions that the patient has responded to.
d) avoid any kind of lip movement while he or she is signing with the patient.
Page 45
Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 393. Autism is MOST accurately defined as a:
a) psychiatric condition related to an imbalance of serotonin in the brain.
b) mental disability caused by insufficient cognitive development of the brain.
c) congenital condition caused by factors such as malnutrition or birth complications.
d) pervasive developmental disorder characterized by impairment of social interaction.
___ 394. The tip of a central venous catheter rests in the:
a) vena cava.
b) left atrium.
c) right ventricle.
d) pulmonary vein.
___ 395. When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to:
a) allow a service dog to remain with the patient at all times, even if the patient is critically ill.
b) stand to the side of the patient when speaking if his or her peripheral vision is impaired.
c) leave items such as canes and walkers at the residence if the patient will be carried on a gurney.
d) tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings.
___ 396. By placing one hand on top of your head and the other hand over your abdomen, you are asking a
hearing-impaired patient if he or she:
a) is hurt.
b) is sick.
c) needs help.
d) is nauseated.
___ 397. In contrast to an automated implanted cardioverter/defibrillator, an internal cardiac pacemaker:
a) regulates the patient's heart rate if it falls below a preset value.
b) delivers a shock to the heart if the rate becomes exceedingly fast.
c) is implanted under the skin in the left upper abdominal quadrant.
d) will only activate if it detects rhythms such as ventricular fibrillation.
___ 398. A tube from the brain to the abdomen that drains excessive cerebrospinal fluid is called a:
a) shunt.
b) G-tube.
c) CS tube.
d) cerebral bypass.
___ 399. A service dog is easily identified by its:
a) size.
b) breed.
c) color.
d) harness.
___ 400. Which of the following does NOT usually contribute to or cause obesity?
a) rapid metabolism
b) high caloric intake
c) low metabolic rate
predisposition
d) genetic
___ 401. Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) face shields.
b) hazardous materials gear.
c) safety goggles.
d) turnout gear.
___ 402. The MOST common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at:
a) stop signs.
b) stop lights.
c) intersections.
d) railroad crossings.
___ 403. Which of the following is an example of regional equipment or supplies?
a) oral glucose
b) vacuum splint
c) snake bite kit
d) bronchodilator
___ 404. Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you
should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then:
a) quickly gain access to the patient.
c) determine if additional units are needed.
b) observe the scene for safety hazards.
d) carefully assess the mechanism of injury.
Page 46
Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 405. Characteristics of a safe ambulance operator include:
a) the ability to operate an ambulance at a high rate of speed.
b) a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers.
c) realizing that lights and siren will be effective traffic tools.
d) an offensive attitude about driving during an emergency call.
___ 406. Which of the following statements regarding the use of the warning lights and siren on the
ambulance is correct?
a) If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand.
b) If the patient is stable, you may use the warning lights without the siren.
c) Warning lights and siren should be avoided, even if the patient is unstable.
d) It is generally acceptable to increase your speed if lights and siren are in use.
___ 407. Minimum staffing in the patient compartment of a basic life support (BLS) ambulance includes:
a) at least one EMT.
c) an EMT and a paramedic.
b) at least two EMTs.
d) an EMT and an AEMT.
___ 408. When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being
emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding
profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should:
a) park downhill from the scene.
c) position the ambulance upwind.
b) ask the driver to exit the vehicle.
d) quickly gain access to the patient.
___ 409. You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital,
dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody
dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies.
You should:
a) proceed to the call, functioning only as an emergency medical responder.
b) advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit.
c) have your partner quickly clean the ambulance as you proceed to the call.
d) quickly proceed to the call and clean and restock the ambulance afterwards.
___ 410. Regardless of where portable and mounted oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must:
a) undergo hydrostatic testing on a weekly basis.
b) hold a minimum capacity of 1,500 L of oxygen.
c) be easily identifiable by their bright green color.
d) be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min.
___ 411. A hiker was injured when he fell approximately 20 from a cliff. When you arrive at the scene, a
member of the technical rescue group escorts you to the patient, who is positioned on a steep incline.
The MOST appropriate method of immobilizing and moving the patient to the ambulance is to:
a) immobilize his spine with a long backboard and place him in a basket stretcher.
b) immobilize him to a long backboard and use the four-person carry to move him.
c) apply a vest-style immobilization device and move him using a stair chair device.
d) immobilize him with a short backboard and place him on the ambulance stretcher.
Page 47
Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 412. The EMT's role at the scene of a search and rescue attempt is to:
a) accompany search team members and provide care.
b) reassure the family members of the missing person.
c) report to a location where the patient will be carried.
d) stand by at the command post until the person is located.
___ 413. When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex
extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient:
a) only if the patient has experienced a major injury.
b) after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables.
c) after receiving approval from the extrication officer.
d) only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized.
___ 414. You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you
that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not
moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should:
a) limit your primary assessment to airway and breathing only.
b) treat only critical injuries before moving him to a safe place.
c) grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety.
d) perform a rapid assessment and move him to a place of safety.
___ 415. A unique consideration when dealing with a hybrid vehicle is that:
a) you must locate the ignition switch and cut it to prevent a fire.
b) cutting the battery cables often results in an explosion or fire.
c) rescue teams should disconnect the positive battery cable first.
d) the battery has higher amperes than a traditional vehicle battery.
___ 416. Upon arriving at the scene of a law enforcement tactical situation, you should ensure your own
safety and then:
a) begin immediate triage of any injured personnel.
b) report to the incident commander for instructions.
c) locate all injured personnel and begin treatment.
d) apprise medical control of the tactical situation.
___ 417. Which of the following statements regarding trench rescue is correct?
a) Rescue vehicles should park at least 250 from the scene.
b) Ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse.
c) A trench deeper than 10 should be shored prior to entry.
d) Most deaths involving cave-ins are caused by head injury.
___ 418. A 33-year-old restrained driver of a motor vehicle crash is awake and alert, complaining only of
neck pain. The vehicle is stable and no hazards are present. When removing this patient from his
vehicle, you should:
a) use the rapid extrication technique.
c) maintain slight traction to his neck area.
b) immobilize him with a vest-style device.
d) adequately secure him to a long backboard.
Page 48
Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 419. Disentanglement involves:
a) removing a patient from a dangerous position.
b) the use of simple access tools such as a pry bar.
c) extrication techniques that EMTs are trained in.
d) gaining access to a patient in a crashed vehicle.
___ 420. Your unit has been dispatched to stand by at the scene of a structure fire. There are no injuries of
which you are aware. Upon arriving at the scene, you should:
a) contact medical control and apprise him or her of the situation.
b) park your ambulance behind the incident commander's vehicle.
c) set up a staging area where fire fighters can be treated if necessary.
d) ask the incident commander where the ambulance should be staged.
___ 421. The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to:
a) prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents.
b) facilitate a standard method of incident command for natural disasters.
c) prepare for the potential of a nuclear attack against the United States.
d) educate city and county governments regarding foreign terrorist attacks.
___ 422. General principles for approaching a potential HazMat incident include:
a) parking the ambulance in a location that is upwind and downhill.
b) taking standard precautions before entering any HazMat scene.
c) asking for wind direction from dispatch and entering downwind.
d) maintaining a safe distance and viewing the scene with binoculars.
___ 423. You are triaging four patients who were involved in a head-on motor vehicle crash. Which of the
following patients should be assigned the highest (red) triage category?
a) a 50-year-old male with an open head injury and no pulse
b) a 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing
c) a 36-year-old female with back pain and numb extremities
d) a 29-year-old male with bilaterally closed femur deformities
___ 424. You are triaging patients at the scene of a multiple vehicle crash when you encounter a young male
who is unresponsive and is not breathing. After you open his airway, he begins to breathe at a rapid
rate. According to the START triage system, you should:
a) assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device and perform a rapid scan of his entire body.
b) move him to the treatment area so he can receive a more comprehensive assessment of his
status.
c) move to the other patients, but reassess him in 5 minutes to determine if he is still breathing.
d) tag him as immediate (red), place him in the recovery position, and move to the next patient.
___ 425. You have a critically injured patient in the back of your ambulance, ready to be transported. There
are other injured patients at the scene and it will be approximately 10 minutes before other
ambulances will arrive. Law enforcement personnel are at the scene. You should:
a) transport the critically injured patient to a trauma center.
b) direct a police officer to monitor the patients as you transport.
c) remain at the scene until at least one other ambulance arrives.
d) assign the least injured patient the task of caring for the others.
Page 49
Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 426. Your work uniform is an example of what level of protection?
a) Level A protection
b) Level B protection
c) Level C protection
protection
d) Level D
___ 427. The ____________ supervisor is responsible for notifying area hospitals and determining their
availability and capabilities.
a) triage
b) medical
c) treatment
d) transportation
___ 428. A patient in respiratory arrest at the scene of a mass-casualty incident would typically be classified
as a fourth priority (black tag; expectant) patient, unless:
a) he or she has signs of an injury to the cervical spine.
b) he or she has external signs of severe thoracic trauma.
c) there are at least three other patients in respiratory arrest.
d) there are enough resources to provide care for him or her.
___ 429. The JumpSTART triage system is intended to be used for children younger than _____ years or who
appear to weigh less than _____.
a) 5, 50 lb
b) 6, 70 lb
c) 7, 90 lb
d) 8, 100 lb
___ 430. Which of the following statements regarding storage containers and hazardous materials is correct?
a) Red phosphorus from a drug laboratory is found in a blue container that is clearly labeled.
b) In most cases, there is no correlation between the color of the container and the possible
contents.
c) Steel utility drums are used to contain acids, bases, and other corrosive chemicals and
substances.
d) The Emergency Response Guidebook tells you the type and color of container used to store
hazardous materials.
___ 431. The primary clinical feature associated with exposure to phosgene oxime is:
a) miosis.
b) a red rash.
c) bradycardia.
d) skin blistering.
___ 432. A 52-year-old male presents with a fever of 102.5°F and a severe headache. As you assess him, you
note the presence of multiple blisters on his face and chest, which are all identical in shape and size.
This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with:
a) smallpox.
b) sarin toxicity.
c) yellow fever virus.
d) cutaneous anthrax.
___ 433. Viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHF), such as Ebola, cause the blood to:
a) become thick and spontaneously clot.
c) attack the bone marrow and destroy cells.
b) seep out of the blood vessels and tissues.
d) engorge the brain and cause hemorrhaging.
___ 434. Cross-contamination occurs when:
a) an EMT provides care to a victim after the victim has been decontaminated.
b) two EMTs are exposed to the same agent after being decontaminated.
c) an EMT has direct contact with a chemical agent at a terrorist incident.
d) an EMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated.
Page 50
Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
___ 435. A weapon of mass destruction (WMD) is MOST accurately defined as:
a) a device or agent used to destroy a specific area or region within a given geographic location.
b) any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage.
c) a nuclear or chemical weapon that can be launched from one country to another country.
d) any device used for the express purpose of creating carnage in an effort to make a particular
point.
___ 436. The Centennial Park bombing during the 1996 Summer Olympics is an example of:
a) domestic terrorism.
c) an ecoterrorist attack.
b) apocalyptic violence.
d) state-sponsored terrorism.
___ 437. As the first arriving emergency responder at the scene of a suspected terrorist or WMD incident, you
should request additional resources as needed and then:
a) remain where you are until additional ambulances arrive at the scene.
b) function as the incident commander until additional personnel arrive.
c) direct your partner to begin triaging patients as you call medical control.
d) carefully inspect the area for the presence of secondary explosive devices.
___ 438. After eating at a local restaurant, a 20-year-old male complains of blurred vision, difficulty speaking,
and difficulty breathing. He is conscious; however, his respirations are profoundly labored and
producing minimal tidal volume. You should:
a) apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
c) request a paramedic to administer atropine.
b) position him supine and elevate his legs.
d) assist his ventilations with 100% oxygen.
___ 439. Symptoms of both inhaled and ingested ricin include:
a) fever and headache.
c) liver necrosis and diarrhea.
b) joint pain and bradycardia.
d) dehydration and convulsions.
___ 440. When introduced into the body, ricin causes:
a) intestinal obstruction and severe sepsis.
b) enlarged lymph nodes and extreme pain.
Page 51
c) pulmonary edema and circulatory failure.
d) necrosis of muscle tissue and cell destruction.
Practice Exam
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
Answer Key
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
c
d
a
a
a
a
d
b
a
b
d
a
b
a
c
b
b
a
b
a
a
d
d
b
a
b
a
a
a
a
c
a
a
b
b
d
a
c
b
b
d
c
d
b
b
b
a
d
Page 52
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
Practice Exam
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
a
d
b
b
b
a
a
b
a
c
b
c
b
c
a
c
a
a
b
a
b
d
a
a
a
b
a
a
c
c
d
d
c
d
a
a
c
c
c
d
a
b
c
d
c
a
a
c
b
c
Page 53
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
Practice Exam
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
a
b
a
d
a
b
d
c
d
c
b
a
a
a
c
c
d
c
b
c
c
a
c
d
a
c
a
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
d
a
b
a
a
b
c
a
a
b
a
c
b
b
b
c
Page 54
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
Practice Exam
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
181.
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
189.
190.
191.
192.
193.
194.
195.
196.
197.
198.
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
c
c
a
b
d
a
a
b
b
a
c
a
c
d
a
a
a
a
a
a
c
c
b
b
d
b
a
c
a
a
d
b
d
b
a
b
a
a
b
a
b
c
d
b
b
c
d
a
c
a
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Tuesday, November 15, 2016
Practice Exam
199.
200.
201.
202.
203.
204.
205.
206.
207.
208.
209.
210.
211.
212.
213.
214.
215.
216.
217.
218.
219.
220.
221.
222.
223.
224.
225.
226.
227.
228.
229.
230.
231.
232.
233.
234.
235.
236.
237.
238.
239.
240.
241.
242.
243.
244.
245.
246.
247.
248.
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
d
b
d
d
b
b
c
b
d
b
c
b
d
d
b
b
d
d
b
b
a
c
c
a
a
b
b
a
b
b
c
d
a
a
c
b
d
d
a
a
a
c
a
a
b
a
d
a
a
b
Page 56
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
Practice Exam
249.
250.
251.
252.
253.
254.
255.
256.
257.
258.
259.
260.
261.
262.
263.
264.
265.
266.
267.
268.
269.
270.
271.
272.
273.
274.
275.
276.
277.
278.
279.
280.
281.
282.
283.
284.
285.
286.
287.
288.
289.
290.
291.
292.
293.
294.
295.
296.
297.
298.
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
b
b
b
d
c
c
a
b
a
c
a
a
a
c
a
a
c
b
b
d
c
a
c
b
b
b
d
a
c
b
c
a
c
b
a
b
b
a
b
b
d
a
d
d
a
c
d
d
a
c
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Tuesday, November 15, 2016
Practice Exam
299.
300.
301.
302.
303.
304.
305.
306.
307.
308.
309.
310.
311.
312.
313.
314.
315.
316.
317.
318.
319.
320.
321.
322.
323.
324.
325.
326.
327.
328.
329.
330.
331.
332.
333.
334.
335.
336.
337.
338.
339.
340.
341.
342.
343.
344.
345.
346.
347.
348.
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
a
c
d
d
c
b
a
d
a
a
b
c
c
b
a
b
a
b
a
d
c
c
b
c
d
b
b
b
d
d
b
c
c
a
a
c
a
b
c
d
b
a
a
d
a
d
a
b
c
d
Page 58
Tuesday, November 15, 2016
Practice Exam
349.
350.
351.
352.
353.
354.
355.
356.
357.
358.
359.
360.
361.
362.
363.
364.
365.
366.
367.
368.
369.
370.
371.
372.
373.
374.
375.
376.
377.
378.
379.
380.
381.
382.
383.
384.
385.
386.
387.
388.
389.
390.
391.
392.
393.
394.
395.
396.
397.
398.
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
b
c
c
c
a
a
b
c
a
c
b
d
d
d
c
b
a
b
a
b
c
d
b
b
c
c
a
d
b
d
d
a
d
a
c
d
a
b
a
b
b
a
c
a
d
a
d
b
a
a
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Tuesday, November 15, 2016
Practice Exam
399.
400.
401.
402.
403.
404.
405.
406.
407.
408.
409.
410.
411.
412.
413.
414.
415.
416.
417.
418.
419.
420.
421.
422.
423.
424.
425.
426.
427.
428.
429.
430.
431.
432.
433.
434.
435.
436.
437.
438.
439.
440.
Practice ExaM cH 1-40
d
a
b
c
c
b
b
a
a
c
b
d
a
d
c
c
d
b
b
b
a
d
a
d
b
d
c
d
d
d
d
b
d
a
b
d
b
a
b
d
a
c
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Tuesday, November 15, 2016